PP4- UPSCTREE PRELIMS SERIES

UPSCTREE [PRELIMS TEST – PP4 –POLITY]

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PP4- UPSCTREE PRELIMS SERIES

Indian Polity by M. Laxmikanth (4th Edition)- Chapter- Part II, Part VII, Part VIII

Current Events

Q.1) Consider the following statements:-

1)In parliamentary form of government the executive is not

responsible to legislature.

2)In presidential form of government the executive is responsible to

legislature through president

Which of the above statement/s are correct ?

A.

1 only

B.

2 only

C.

Both 1 and 2

D.

Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation:

In parliamentary form of government the executive is responsible to legislature.In

presidential form of government the executive is not responsible to legislature at all.


1)In parliamentary form of government the ministers are collectively

responsible only to the lower house and not to the entire parliament.

2)In presidential form of government the president is neither

responsible to the congress nor attends its sessions.


A.

1 only


2

B.

2 only

C.

Both 1 and 2

D.

Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation:

In parliamentary form of government the ministers are collectively responsible to the

lower house in particular and to the entire parliament in general.


1)There is a lesser scope for deadlocks in case of parliamentary form

of government.

2)There is more fusion of power than separation of power in case of

parliamentary form of government.


A.

1 only

B.

2 only

C.

Both 1 and 2

D.

Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation:


1)Definitive and continuity of policy is the strength of presidential

system .

2)Presidential system is a government of experts where as

parliamentary system is a government of amateurs.


A.

1 only


3

B.

2 only

C.

Both 1 and 2

D.

Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation:


1)In India, the ministers are legally responsible for their acts

committed as part of ministerial functions.

2)Every act or any order that has the force of law has to be counter

signed by the respective ministers as well.


A.

1 only

B.

2 only

C.

Both 1 and 2

D.

Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation:

In India the ministers are not legally responsible for their acts and no act or order has

to be counter signed by them. It is done by executive such as president or governor.


1)In unitary government the constitution is not supreme.

2)In federal government the constitution is supreme.


A.

1 only

B.


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2 only

C.

Both 1 and 2

D.

Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation:

In unitary government the constitution may be supreme(Japan) or may not be

supreme(Britain)


1)U.S Federalism - Indestructible union of Indestructible states.

2)Indian Federalism - Indestructible union of destructible states.


A.

1 only

B.

2 only

C.

Both 1 and 2

D.

Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation:


1)In India, the states are not given equal representation in Rajya

Sabha

2)The All India services such as IAS,IPS etc violate the principle of

federalism.


A.

1 only

B.

2 only


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C.

Both 1 and 2

D.

Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation:


1)The Rajya Sabha can pass a resolution asking the parliament to

legislate on any subject in the State List

2)The above provision is only allowed in case there is an emergency

and significant national interest is involved.


A.

1 only

B.

2 only

C.

both 1 and 2

D.

neither 1 nor 2

Explanation:

The above provision is only allowed all the time.


1)Election commission is constituted by the president, however

states are consulted in this regard because the election commission

is also responsible for state elections.

2)The president enjoys absolute veto with regards to state bills.


A.

1 only

B.

2 only


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C.

Both 1 and 2

D.

Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation:

States are not consulted.


1)In Bommai Case , federalism became the basic feature of Indian

constitution.

2)In India, the states are not dependent on center for their legislative

and executive authority.


A.

1 only

B.

2 only

C.

Both 1 and 2

D.

Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation:

Q.12) With reference to the legislative powers of the Parliament, which of

the following statements is/are correct?

1. Parliament alone can make ‘extra-territorial’ legislation.

2. The laws made by the Parliament are applicable to Indian

citizens and their property in any part of the world.

Select the answer using the codes given below

A.

1 only

B.

2 only


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C.

Both 1 and 2

D.

Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation:

Q.13) Which of the following on belongs to the Union List as per the

seventh schedule of the Constitution of India?

1. Defence

2. Markets

3. Insurance

4. Prisons

Select the correct answer

A.

1 only

B.

1 and 3 only

C.

2 and 4 only

D.

All of the above

Explanation:

Q.14) Which of the following on belongs to the State List as per the


1. Public Order

2. Police

3. Agriculture

4. Gambling


A.

1 only

B.

1 and 3 only

C.

2 and 4 only


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D.

All of the above

Explanation:

Q.15) Which of the following on belongs to the Concurrent List as per the


1. Education

2. Forests

3. Weights and Measures

4. Protection of wild animals and birds


A.

1 only

B.

1 and 3 only

C.

2 and 4 only

D.

All of the above

Explanation:

Q.16) With reference to Finance Commission, which of the following

statements is/are correct?

1. It is constituted by the Prime Minister every fifth year of even

earlier.

2. It is a quasi-judicial body.


A.

1 only

B.

2 only

C.

Both 1 and 2

D.

Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation:

Q.17) Excise duties on medicinal and toilet preparations containing


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alcohol and narcotics is?

A.

Levied, collected and appropriated by the Centre

B.

Levied, collected and appropriated by the States

C.

Levied by the centre and collected and appropriated by the States

D.

Levied and collected by the centre but distributed between the

centre and the states

Explanation:

Q.18) With reference to Zonal Councils, which of the following statements

is/are correct?

1. These are constitutional bodies.

2. The North-Eastern Council was created by a separate Act of

parliament in 1971.


A.

1 only

B.

2 only

C.

Both 1 and 2

D.

Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation:

Q.19) With reference to Inter-State Water Disputes Act, which of the

following statements is/are correct?

1. The act empowers the Central Government to set up an ad

hoc tribunal for adjudication of dispute related to waters of an inter-

state river or river valley.

2. The decision of the tribunal would be final and binding on

the parties to the dispute.



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A.

1 only

B.

2 only

C.

Both 1 and 2

D.

Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation:

Q.20) With reference to All India Services, which of the following


1. Article 365 of the Constitution authorizes the Parliament to

create new All-India Services.

2. For creation of a new All India Service a resolution to that

effect must be passed in Lok Sabha.


A.

1 only

B.

2 only

C.

Both 1 and 2

D.

Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation:

Q.21) With reference to Controller General of Patents, Designs & Trade

Marks, which of the following statements is/are correct?

1. It supervises the working of Intellectual Property Rights (IPR)

laws in India.

2. It works under the Ministry of External Affairs.


A.


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1 only

B.

2 only

C.

both 1 and 2

D.

neither 1 nor 2

Explanation:

Explanation: • The Office of CGPDTM supervises the working of Intellectual Property

Rights (IPR) laws in India. • It supervises the working of the Patents Act, 1970, as

amended, the Designs Act, 2000 and the Trade Marks Act, 1999 and also renders

advice to the Government on matters relating to these subjects. • In order to protect

the Geographical Indications of goods a Geographical Indications Registry has also

been established in Chennai to administer the Geographical Indications of Goods

(Registeration and Protection) Act, 1999 under the CGPDTM. • The CGPDTM reports

to the Department of Industrial Policy and Promotion (DIPP) under the Ministry of

Commerce and Industry.

Q.22) World Happiness Report published by which of the following

agencies?

A.

World Economic Forum

B.

World Bank

C.

Sustainable Development Solutions Network

D.

United Nation Development Program

Explanation:

Q.23) With reference to Earth Day, which of the following statements is/are

correct?

1. Earth Day is being observed on the 22nd of April every year

to build support for environmental protection around the world.

2. This year the theme of Earth Day was ‘Trees for the Earth!’



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A.

1 only

B.

2 only

C.

both 1 and 2

D.

neither 1 nor 2

Explanation:

Q.24) With reference to International Day of Older Persons, which of the


1. October 1 is celebrated as the International Day of Older

Persons.

2. ‘Sustainability and Age Inclusiveness in the Urban

Environment ‘was its theme for the year 2015


A.

1 only

B.

2 only

C.

both 1 and 2

D.

neither 1 nor 2

Explanation:

Explanation: United Nations General Assembly voted to establish October 1 as the

International Day of Older Persons as recorded in Resolution 45/106. The holiday was

observed for the first time on October 1, 1991.

Q.25) With reference to India Biodiversity Award, which of the following


1. The categories for the award are aligned with Biological

Diversity Act, 2002.

2. Sunderban Tiger Reserve of West Bengal has received the

'India Biodiversity Award 2016'.


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A.

1 only

B.

2 only

C.

both 1 and 2

D.

neither 1 nor 2

Explanation:

The India Biodiversity Awards (IBA) is a joint initiative of the Ministry of Environment,

Forest and Climate Change and UNDP India, to recognize and honour outstanding

models of biodiversity conservation, sustainable use and governance at the

grassroots level. The four categories of the India Biodiversity Awards 2016 are:

Conservation of threatened species (both wild and domesticated) Sustainable use of

biological resources Successful mechanisms/ models for access and benefit sharing

Biodiversity Management Committees The Winners are: Category: Conservation of

Threatened Species Conservation efforts by individuals and institutions that have led

to protection, management and restoration of habitats and population recovery

resulting in significant reduction in the threat level to at-risk wild and domesticated

species. Purnima Devi Barman and the Hargilla Army, Winner.The Greater Adjutant

bird, is found only in two areas in India and Cambodia. Purnima Devi Barman and the

women’s Hargilla army protect this endangered species increasing nests three-fold in

six years. Nature Conservation Foundation and the Ghora-Abhe Society, Winner , The

group introduced the Hornbill Nest Adoption Programme in Pakke Tiger Reserve,

Arunachal Pradesh, which has managed to protect 62 active hornbill nests and help

60 hornbill pairs breed successfully. Category: Sustainable Use of Biological

Resources Efforts resulting in sustainability of resources, best practices for their

sustainable use that integrate empowerment of weaker sections of communities.

Mawkyrnot Self Help Group: The Living Root Bridges, Winner , The 52-feet long living

roots bridges in Mawkyrnot, are a marvel of bio-engineering, are resilient and

enhance ecosystem services. Category: Successful Mechanisms/ Models for Access

and Benefit Sharing Efforts resulting in equitable sharing of benefits (monetary and/

or non-monetary) arising from the utilisation of bio-resources and associated

traditional knowledge and practices. Gram Mooligai Co. Ltd., Madhya Pradesh,

Winner - Gram Mooligai Co. Ltd., Madhya Pradesh involves local communities in

developing medicinal plant products and markets, aimed at sustainable use and

equity. Category: Biodiversity Management Committees Recognizing efforts on

establishing best practices for conservation and sustainable use by documentation of


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biological resources integrating traditional knowledge; generating awareness, and

ensuring access and benefit sharing. Dudhai Biodiversity Management Committee,

Winner - The Dudhai Biodiversity Management Committee in Uttarakhand has

banned illegal sand mining and revived river ecosystems

Q.26) With reference to Animal Welfare Board of India, which of the


1. It has been established under the Wildlife Protection Act,

1972.

2. It is a non-statutory and non-constitutional advisory body

on animal welfare laws and promotes animal welfare in the country.


A.

1 only

B.

2 only

C.

both 1 and 2

D.

neither 1 nor 2

Explanation:

Q.27) With reference to International Seabed Authority (ISA), which of the


1. It is an organization established by the 1982 United Nations Law

of the Sea Convention.

2. ISA governs both living as well as non-living resources of seabed

lying in international waters.


A.

1 only

B.

2 only

C.


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both 1 and 2

D.

neither 1 nor 2

Explanation:

Q.28) With reference to Janani Sewa Scheme, which of the following


1. Under this scheme, essential items like baby food, hot milk

and hot water will be provided at Railway Stations.

2. This scheme is launched by the Ministry of Women And

Child Welfare.


A.

1 only

B.

2 only

C.

both 1 and 2

D.

neither 1 nor 2

Explanation:

Railway ministry

Q.29) With reference to Rat hole mining, which of the following statements

is/are correct?

1. It is mainly carried out in the Northeast regions of India

mainly the state of Meghalaya.

2. The National Green Tribunal (NGT) of India has banned this

practice.


A.

1 only

B.


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2 only

C.

both 1 and 2

D.

neither 1 nor 2

Explanation:

Q.30) Incheon Strategy, which was recently in news, deals with?

A.

The first set of regionally agreed disability-inclusive development

goals.

B.

Sustainable development goals

C.

Preparing a framework for fighting against man-made disasters.

D.

None of the above

Explanation:

Q.31) With reference to Vesak Poya festival which of the following


1. It marks three important events in the life of Buddha —

birth, enlightenment and death.

2. It is celebrated on the New Moon day

A.

1 only

B.

2 only

C.

both 1 and 2

D.

neither 1 nor 2

Explanation:

Explanation: It is celebrated on the Full Moon day.

Q.32) . With reference to Reusable Launch Vehicle (RLV), which of the


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1. India recently launched the first technology demonstrator of

indigenously made Reusable Launch Vehicle (RLV).

2. The project is also being called a hyper-sonic experiment

(HEX).


A.

1 only

B.

2 only

C.

both 1 and 2

D.

neither 1 nor 2

Explanation:

Explanation: • The 6.5 meter long Re-usable Launch Vehicle – Technology

Demonstrator (RLV-TD) weighs about 1.7 tons. • Built over five years by a team of

600 scientists, the project cost around Rs 95 crore. • The project is also being called a

hyper-sonic experiment (HEX) as it will also test the ability of the vehicle to withstand

re-entry at speeds higher than that of sound. • This was the first time that ISRO flew a

winged body and brought it back to land on a make-shift runway. • Dubbed as

India’s own space shuttle, RLVs are being seen as the unanimous solution towards

achieving low cost, reliable and on-demandspace access.

Q.33) With reference to Exclusive Economic Zone (EEZ), which of the


1. It is a concept adopted at the Third United Nations

Conference on the Law of the Sea (1982).

2. The EEZ does not include the contiguous zone.


A.

1 only

B.

2 only


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C.

both 1 and 2

D.

neither 1 nor 2

Explanation:

Q.34) With reference to Jan Aushadhi Scheme, which of the following


1. It is a direct market intervention scheme launched by the

Ministry of Health and Family Welfare.

2. The scheme aims to make generic medicines available to all

citizens of India irrespective of here economic status.


A.

1 only

B.

2 only

C.

both 1 and 2

D.

neither 1 nor 2

Explanation:

Q.35) Which of the following Indian state has the highest amount of

monazite reserves?

A.

Maharashtra

B.

Kerala

C.

Andhra Pradesh

D.

Gujarat

Explanation:

Q.36) Article 324 of the Constitution provides that the power of


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superintendence, direction and control of elections to:

1. Parliament

2. State legislature

3. Office of the President of India

4. Office of the Vice-President of India

Choose the correct option:

A.

1 & 2 only

B.

1 only

C.

1 , 2 & 3 only

D.

1 , 2 , 3 , 4

Explanation:

Q.37) The Chief Election Commissioner is appointed by :

A.

Prime Minister

B.

President

C.

Chief Justice of India

D.

Collegium consisting of Prime Minister and 4 other Ministers.

Explanation:

Q.38) Consider the following statements:

1. Since its inception in 1950, the election commission

functioned as a single member body ,till 1989.

2. Since 1989 , the election commission has been functioning as

a multi member body,till date.

Which of the above statements are true?


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A.

1 only

B.

2 only

C.

Both 1 & 2

D.

Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation:


1. The chief election commissioner and the two other election

commissioners have equal powers and receive equal salary,

allowances and other perquisites.

2. In case of difference of opinion amongst the Chief Election

Commissioner and/or two other election commissioners, the

will of the Chief Election Commissioner prevails.


A.

1 only

B.

2 only

C.

both 1 and 2

D.

neither 1 nor 2

Explanation:


1. Election Commisioners hold office for a term of five years or

until they attain the age of 65 years.

2. They can resign at any time or can also be removed before

the expiry of their term.



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A.

1 only

B.

2 only

C.

both 1 and 2

D.

neither 1 nor 2

Explanation:


1. The Chief Election Commissioner cannot be removed from his

office except in same manner and on the same grounds as a

judge of the Supreme Court.

2. He can be removed by the president on the basis of a

resolution passed to that effect by both the Houses of

Parliament with simple majority, either on the ground of

proved misbehaviour or incapacity.


A.

1 only

B.

2 only

C.

both 1 and 2

D.

neither 1 nor 2

Explanation:

Q.42) Which of the following are the functions of Election Commission:

1. To determine the territorial areas of the electoral

constituencies throughout the country on the basis of the

Delimitation Commission Act of Parliament.

2. To grant recognition to political parties and allot election

symbols to them.

3. To advise the president whether elections can be held in a


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state under president’s rule in order to extend the period of

emergency after one year.

4. To register political parties for the purpose of elections and

grant them the status of national or state parties on the basis

of their poll performance.

A.

1 & 2 only

B.

2,3,4 only

C.

2,3 only

D.

1,2,3,4

Explanation:


1. The Union Public Service Commission (UPSC) is an

independent constitutional body.

2. The UPSC consists of a chairman and other members

appointed by the president of India.

3. The Constitution has explicitly specified the strength of the

Commission.


A.

1 and 2 only

B.

2 only

C.

2 and 3 only

D.

1,2,3

Explanation:

Q.44) The chairman and members of the UPSC hold office for a term of:


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A.

2 yrs

B.

4 yrs

C.

5 yrs

D.

6 yrs

Explanation:

Q.45) The Central Vigilance Commission falls under:

A.

Ministry of Home Affairs

B.

Ministry of Social Justice & Empowerment

C.

Ministry of Personnel

D.

Ministry of Finance

Explanation:

Q.46) The President can remove the chairman or any other member of

UPSC from the office under the following circumstances:

1. If he is adjudged an insolvent (that is, has gone bankrupt).

2. If he engages, during his term of office, in any paid

employment outside the duties of his office.

3. If he is, in the opinion of the president, unfit to continue in

office by reason of infirmity of mind or body.


A.

2,3 only

B.

3 only

C.


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1,2 only

D.

1,2,3

Explanation:


1. UPSC is consulted while making reservations of appointments

or posts in favour of any backward class of citizens.

2. UPSC is consulted while taking into consideration the claims

of scheduled castes and scheduled tribes in making

appointments to services and posts.


A.

1 only

B.

2 only

C.

both 1 and 2

D.

neither 1 nor 2

Explanation:


1. A State Public Service Commission consists of a chairman and

other members appointed by the President.

2. The Constitution also authorises the President to determine

the conditions of service of the chairman and members of the

Commission.


A.

1 only

B.

2 only


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C.

both 1 and 2

D.

neither 1 nor 2

Explanation:

Q.49) Joint State Public Service Commission (JSPSC) for two or more states

can be created by:

A.

President

B.

Governor

C.

An act of state legislature

D.

An act of parliament

Explanation:


1. National Development Council is a constitutional body.

2. It is presided by the Prime Minister.


A.

1 only

B.

2 only

C.

both 1 and 2

D.

neither 1 nor 2

Explanation:


1. The National Human rights Commission is a constitutional


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body.

2. The Chairman of National Human rights Commission should

be a retired Chief-Justice of India.


A.

1 only

B.

2 only

C.

both 1 and 2

D.

neither 1 nor 2

Explanation:

Q.52) The ex-officio members of the National Human rights Commission

include the Chairmen of:

1. National commission for minorities

2. National commission for SC’s

3. National commission for ST’s

4. National commission for Women


A.

1 & 4 only

B.

2 & 3 only

C.

1 , 2 & 3 only

D.

1,2,3,4

Explanation:

Q.53) Consider the following statements regarding NHRC:

1. The Chairman and members hold office for a term of 5 years

or until they attain the age of 70 years.

2. There is no bar on their employments under the central or


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state govt. after their tenure.


A.

1 only

B.

2 only

C.

both 1 and 2

D.

neither 1 nor 2

Explanation:

Q.54) Consider the following statements regarding NHRC:

1. The Commissions HQ is at Delhi.

2. It has all the powers of a high court & its proceedings have a

judicial character.


A.

1 only

B.

2 only

C.

both 1 and 2

D.

neither 1 nor 2

Explanation:

Q.55) The Central Information Commission was established by central

government in:

A.

2002

B.


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2004

C.

2005

D.

2010

Explanation:

Q.56) The Chief Information Commissioner & other commissioners are

appointed by the President on the recommendation of a committee

consisting of:

1. Prime minister

2. Leader of opposition in Lok Sabha

3. Chief justice of India

4. A union cabinet minister

Choose from the options given below:

A.

1&2 only

B.

1 , 2 & 3 only

C.

1 , 2 & 4 only

D.

1, 2,3,4

Explanation:


1. The Chief Information Commissioner and an Information

Commissioner hold office for a term of 5 years or until they

attain the age of 65 years.

2. They are not eligible for reappointment


A.

1 only

B.


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2 only

C.

both 1 and 2

D.

neither 1 nor 2

Explanation:


1. The Central Information Commission can suo-moto order

inquiry into any matter if there are reasonable grounds .

2. While inquiring, the Commission has the powers of a civil

court.


A.

1 only

B.

2 only

C.

both 1 and 2

D.

neither nor 2

Explanation:

Q.59) The Central Information Commission falls under:

A.


B.

Ministry of Finance

C.


D.


Explanation:

Q.60) The State Chief Information Commissioner and State Information

Commissioners are appointed by:


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A.

The President

B.

The Governor

C.

Chief Minister of the state

D.

Chief justice of the High Court

Explanation:

Q.61) The Central Vigilance Commission (CVC) was established on the

recommendation of :

A.

Malhotra Committee

B.

Santhanam Committee

C.

Parekh Committee

D.

Tarpore Committee

Explanation:


1. The Central Vigilance Commission (CVC) was established by a

law enacted by Parliament in 1964.

2. Central Vigilance Commission (CVC) acts as the main agency

for preventing corruption in the Central government.


A.

1 only

B.

2 only

C.


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both 1 and 2

D.

neither 1 nor 2

Explanation:

Q.63) Central Vigilance Commissioner (chairperson) and vigilance

commissioners are appointed by the president on the

recommendation of a three-member committee consisting of:

1. Prime minister as its head

2. Union minister of home affairs

3. Leader of the Opposition in the Lok Sabha

4. Chief justice of India

5. Union Minister of law

Choose from the options given below:

A.

1 , 4 & 5 only

B.

1,2 & 3 only

C.

1 , 3 & 5 only

D.

1 ,3 & 4 only

Explanation:


1. The establishment of the CBI was recommended by the

Santhanam Committee on Prevention of Corruption.

2. The CBI is not a statutory body. It derives its powers from the

Delhi Special Police Establishment Act, 1946


A.

1 only

B.

2 only


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C.

both 1 and 2

D.

neither 1 nor 2

Explanation:

Q.65) The Central Bureau of Investigation (CBI) falls under:

A.


B.


C.

Ministry of Law

D.

Ministry of Finance

Explanation:

Q.66) The institution of lokayukta was established first in:

A.

Odisha

B.

Maharastra

C.

Bihar

D.

Rajasthan

Explanation:


1. The Central Vigilance Commissioner (chairperson) and

vigilance commissioners hold office for a term of four years or

until they attain the age of sixty five years.

2. After their tenure, they are not eligible for further

employment under the Central or a state government.


A.


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1 only

B.

2 only

C.

both 1 and 2

D.

neither 1 nor 2

Explanation:

Q.68) The National Human Rights Commission falls under

A.


B.


C.


D.

Ministry of Finance

Explanation:

Q.69) Consider the following statements with reference to Election

commission of India.

1. It has the power of superintendence of election to the office

of President and vice-president.

2. It advises the President and Governors on matters of

disqualification of members of the parliament and state

legislatures respectively.

3. The constitution has not specified the term of the members of

the election commission.

Select the correct option using the codes given below.

A.

1 only

B.

2 only

C.


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1 and 3 only

D.

1,2,3

Explanation:

Q.70) Consider the following statements and find out the correct one.

A.

The chairman of UPSC is eligible for a second term in the same

office but not eligible to be appointed to any other government

office.

B.

A member of UPSC can be appointed as the chairman of a state

election commission.

C.

Both of the above.

D.

None of the above.

Explanation:

Q.71) Consider the following statements about UPSC.

1. Its jurisdiction can be extended by an act made the

parliament.

2. The president can exclude posts, services and matters form

the purview of UPSC.

3. It is not consulted during selection of members of the

tribunals and commissions.

4. An individual ministry or department has no power to reject

he advice tendered by UPSC.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

A.

1 and 4 only

B.

2 and 3 only

C.

1, 2 and 4 only


35

D.

1, 2, 3 and 4

Explanation:

Q.72) Consider the following statements about the Union Public Service

Commission.

1. The constitution did not specify the strength of the

commission.

2. The constitution did not specify any qualification for its

members.

3. The president can remove the members only on the ground

of misbehavior.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

A.

1 only.

B.

2 only

C.

1 and 2 only

D.

1, 2 and 3.

Explanation:

Explanation- The constitution had provided for that one –half of its members should

be such persons who have served at least for 10 years either under the GoI or

Government of a state. The president can remove the members if he is involved in

any paid employment and if adjudged an insolvent etc.

Q.73) Which of the following officers cannot be removed by the president

though he appoints him?

1. Chief election commissioner

2. CAG

3. Chairman of State public service commission

4. Attorney general of India

Select the correct answer using the codes given below


36

A.

1 and 4 only.

B.

2 and 3 only

C.

1, 2 and 3 only

D.

1, 2, 3 and 4.

Explanation:

Q.74) Which of the following is a statutory body?

1. National commission for SC

2. National commission for minorities

3. National human rights commission

4. National commission for women


A.

1 and 4 only

B.

2 and 3 only

C.

2, 3 and 4 only

D.

1, 2, 3 and 4

Explanation:

Q.75) The proper authority to specify which tribe shall be deemed to be

scheduled tribe is the

A.

Parliament

B.

President of India

C.

National commission for scheduled castes


37

D.

Ministry of tribal affairs

Explanation:

Q.76) Consider the following statements

1. The chief election commissioner and the two other election

commissioners are appointed by the president and holds the

office till his pleasure

2. The chief election commissioner and the other election

commissioners have equal powers and receive equal salary.

3. The constitution has not debarred the retiring election

commissioners from any further appointed by the

government.


A.

1 only

B.

2 and 3 only

C.

1 and 2 only

D.

1, 2 and 3

Explanation:

Q.77) Consider the following statements with reference to the Comptroller

and Auditor General of India

A.

He controls the entire financial system of the country at both

central and state level.

B.

He is the head of the Indian Audit and Accounts Department.

C.

Both of the above

D.

None of the above

Explanation:


38

Q.78) The Comptroller and Auditor General of India exercises his control

over state finances through his power to

A.

Recommend allocation of grant-in-aid to states

B.

Prescribe the form and norms in which the Accounts of the state

shall be maintained

C.

Reallocation of revenues between the centre and the state from

time to time

D.

Make suggestion for affecting the economies in expenditure of

the state.

Explanation:

Q.79) With reference to the duties and powers of the Comptroller and

Auditor General of India consider the following.

1. He audits the accounts related to all the expenditures from

the consolidated fund of India and Contingency fund of India

2. He also audits the accounts related to all the expenditures

from the consolidated fund of each state.

3. He has no power to audit the expenditure from Public

account of India

4. He can also audit the accounts of local bodies.


A.

1 and 4 only

B.

1, 2 and 3 only

C.

1, 2 and 4 only

D.

1, 2, 3 and 4

Explanation:

Q.80) Who appoints the returning officer for the state assembly elections?


39

A.

Election commission of India.

B.

Election commission of respective state.

C.

Governor in consultation with the chief Election commissioner of

India.

D.

None of the above

Explanation:

Explanation- the District collector acts as the ex-officio returning officer.

Q.81) Which of the following report is not placed before the parliament?

A.

CAG

B.

UPSC

C.

Finance commission

D.

Election commission

Explanation:

Q.82) Which of the following are the objectives of Commission of

Agricultural prices?

1. To stabilize agricultural prices

2. To ensure meaningful real income level to the farmers.

3. To protect the interest of the consumers by providing

essential agricultural commodities at reasonable rates

through public distribution system

4. To ensure maximum price for the farmers

Select the correct answer using the code given below

A.

1, 2 and 3 only


40

B.

1, 2 and 4 only

C.

1, 3 and 4 only

D.

2, 3 and 4 only

Explanation:

Q.83) With reference to the state public service commission, consider the

following statements.

1. The chairman and the members are appointed by the

governor of the concerned state.

2. During removal on the grounds of misbehavior the president

has to refer the matter to the high court for an inquiry.

3. The chairman of SPSC on ceasing to hold the office is eligible

for appointment as the chairman of any other SPSC.


A.

1 only

B.

1 and 3 only

C.

2 and 3 only

D.

1,2,3

Explanation:

Explanation- During removal on the grounds of misbehavior the president has to

refer the matter to the high court for an inquiry

Q.84) Who among the following has not been the chairman of Finance

commission?

A.

K Santhnam


41

B.

Mahavir Tyagi

C.

Y B Chavan

D.

Dr K C Aiyr

Explanation:

Q.85) Assertion(A)- The attorney general of India is the first legal officer of

the government of India.

Reason(B)- He advises the president on all legal matters and

represents the centre and the states in the courts.

A.

Both A and B are individually true and B is the correct explanation

of A.

B.

Both A and B are individually true but B is not the correct

explanation of A.

C.

A is true but B is false.

D.

A is false but B is true

Explanation:

Q.86) With reference to Attorney General of India consider the following.

1. The constitution did not specify any qualification criteria.

2. The constitution also does not contain the procedure and

grounds for his removal.

3. He resigns when the government resigns or is replaced.

4. He is not debarred from private legal practice.


A.

1 only

B.

1 and 2 only


42

C.

2, 3 and 4 only

D.

1, 2, 3 and 4 only

Explanation:

Explanation- He must be qualified to be a judge of the supreme court.

Q.87) Which of the following is true about CAG?

1. It compiles and maintains the accounts of the central

government.

2. It submits audit report on public undertakings to the

president.

3. Its report is examined by the Public accounts committee

before it is laid down in the parliament.

4. It has no control over the issue of money from the

consolidated fund of India.


A.

1 only

B.

1 and 4 only

C.

1, 2 and 4 only

D.

1, 2, 3 and 4 only

Explanation:

Explanation- It compiles and maintains the accounts of the state governments only.

In 1976 it has relived of this function with regard to the centre. Its report is examined

by the Public accounts committee after it is laid down in the parliament.

Q.88) With reference to the finance commission, consider the following.

1. The strength of the commission is decided by the president


43

from time to time as per the requirement.

2. The members are eligible for reappointment

3. It makes recommendations to the president of India the

principles that should govern the grant-in-aid to the state.

4. The recommendations are only advisory in nature.


A.

1 only

B.

1 and 4 only

C.

2, 3 and 4 only

D.

1, 2, 3 and 4 only

Explanation:

Q.89) National commission for Scheduled tribe is a

A.

Constitutional body

B.

Statutory body

C.

Neither constitutional nor statutory

D.

It was made by a special act of parliament

Explanation:


1)Midori prize is given for bidiversity excellence.

2)Kamal Bawa was receipient of Midori prize in 2014 for his excellent

research on tropical forests and conservation.


A.

1 only


44

B.

2 only

C.

Both 1 and 2

D.

Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation:


1)National Pension Scheme is open to citizens of between the ages

of 18 and 60 on a voluntary basis

2)NRIs can now open NPS Accounts online if they have Aadhaar

Card or PAN card


A.

1 only

B.

2 only

C.

both 1 and 2

D.

neither 1 nor 2

Explanation:

Q.92) Consider the following statements with regards to Indian diaspora at

present:-

1)India has the second-largest diaspora in the world, with around 29

million people living in over 200 countries

2)Out of the total diaspora 25% live in the Gulf countries


A.

1 only

B.

2 only


45

C.

both 1 and 2

D.

neither 1 nor 2

Explanation:


1)Yellow fever is endemic to tropical regions of the world

2)It is caused by a virus and transmitted by mosquitoes, belonging

to the Aedes and Haemogogus species

3)There is no vaccine at present for this disease

4)In tropical rainforests, monkeys, which are the primary reservoir of

yellow fever, are bitten by wild mosquitoes which pass the virus on

to other monkeys. Occasionally humans working or travelling in the

forest are bitten by infected mosquitoes and develop yellow fever.


A.

1 and 3 only

B.

1 and 4 only

C.

1,2 and 4 only

D.

1,2,3,4

Explanation:


1)The UJALA scheme envisages to replace the inefficient CFL and

candescent bulbs with LED , which consumes half the energy as that

of CFLs and one tenth as that of incandescent bulbs.

2)The estimated annual greenhouse gas emission reductions is 1

crore tonnes of CO2 annually


A.

1 only


46

B.

2 only

C.

both 1 and 2

D.

neither 1 nor 2

Explanation:


1)Bharat Broadband Network Limited (BBNL) was created as a Public

Sector Undertaking (PSU) under the Companies Act of 1956 for the

execution of the National Optical Fibre Network Project.

2)The National Fibre Netwrok Project envisages to provide

broadband connectivity to 250,000 Gram panchayats of India


A.

1 only

B.

2 only

C.

both 1 and 2

D.

neither 1 nor 2

Explanation:


1)Fiber-optic communication is a method of transmitting

information from one place to another by sending pulses of light

through an optical fiber.

2)An optical fiber (or optical fibre) is a flexible, transparent fiber

made by drawing glass (silica) or plastic to a diameter slightly thicker

than that of a human hair

3)Because of its advantages over electrical transmission, optical

fibers have largely replaced copper wire communications in core

networks in the developed world.



47

A.

1 only

B.

1 and 2 only

C.

1,2,3

D.

1 and 3 only

Explanation:


1)Pattachitra is a traditional scroll painting form from Odisha

2)Chitrakars do not just paint, they also sing as they unfurl the scroll

to audiences. These songs are known as pater gaan

3)The songs range from traditional mythological tales and tribal

rituals to stories based on modern Indian history and contemporary

issues like protecting forests and 9/11 attacks.


A.

1 and 2 only

B.

1 and 3 only

C.

1,2,3

D.

3 only

Explanation:


1)Chaderi is a town in Madhya Pradesh and is known as one of the

handloom city of India

2)Chanderi is famous for its sarees, made with mix of indigenous

cotton and silk .


A.


48

1 only

B.

2 only

C.

both 1 and 2

D.

neither 1 nor 2

Explanation:


1)Central Board of Film Certification (CBFC) is a Statutory body

under Ministry of Information and Broadcasting, regulating the

public exhibition of films under the provisions of the Cinematograph

Act 1952.

2)The Board, consists of non-official members and a Chairman (all of

whom are appointed by Central Government) and functions with

headquarters at Mumbai


A.

1 only

B.

2 only

C.

both 1 and 2

D.

neither 1 nor 2

Explanation:


1)The Zangger Committee, also known as the Nuclear Exporters

Committee, originated from the Treaty on the Non-Proliferation of

Nuclear Weapons (NPT).

2)The NSG was founded in response to the Indian nuclear test in

May 1974 and if India signs NPT then IAEA will have supervising

authority on all Indian nuclear installations.



49

A.

1 only

B.

2 only

C.

both 1 and 2

D.

neither 1 nor 2

Explanation:

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