PM1 - UPSCTREE PRELIMS MOCK...

UPSCTREE [PRELIMS TEST – PM1 –MOCK SERIES]

1

PM1 - UPSCTREE PRELIMS MOCK

SERIES

Q.1) Consider the following statements :-

1)TERI - The Energy and Resources Institute , is an agency of

Government of India.

2)GRIHA - Green Rating for Integrated Habitat Assessment was

conceived by TERI and developed with Ministry of New and

Renewable Energy, is a national rating system for green buildings in

India

Which of the above are correct statements ?

A.

1 only

B.

2 only

C.

both 1 and 2

D.

neither 1 nor 2

Explanation:

The Energy and Resources Institute (TERI) is a research institute based in New Delhi

that conducts research work in the fields of energy, environment and sustainable

development. It was established in 1974. It was formerly known as Tata Energy and

Resource Institute. GRIHA - Green Rating for Integrated Habitat Assessment was

conceived by TERI and developed with Ministry of New and Renewable Energy, is a

national rating system for green buildings in India. TERI is a Non Profit Research

Institution and not an agency of GOI , although it works with the GOI in tandem.



2

1)Once a member of parliament is chosen as speaker, he/she has to

take an oath/affirmation as a speaker.

2)The speakers wields supreme authority in functioning of parliament

and the decisions of the speaker does not comes under judicial

review.


A.

1 only

B.

2 only

C.

both 1 and 2

D.

neither 1 nor 2

Explanation:

speaker takes oath only as a member of parliament and not as a speaker perse.The

decisions come under judicial review after the SC verdict.

Q.3) Consider the following statements:-

1)In India, the ministers are legally responsible for their acts

committed as part of ministerial functions.

2)Every act or any order that has the force of law has to be counter

signed by the respective ministers as well.

Which of the above statement/s are correct ?

A.

1 only

B.

2 only

C.

both 1 and 2

D.

neither 1 nor 2

Explanation:


3

In India the ministers are not legally responsible for their acts and no act or order has

to be counter signed by them. It is done by executive such as president or governor.

Q.4) World Happiness Report published by which of the following

agencies?

A.

World Economic Forum

B.

World Bank

C.

Sustainable Development Solutions Network

D.

United Nation Development Program

Explanation:

Q.5) Incheon Strategy, which was recently in news, deals with?

A.

The first set of regionally agreed disability-inclusive development

goals.

B.

How to meet environmental goals of developing countries without

compromising on economic development.

C.

It is a strategy to fight against man-made disasters.

D.

It aims to bring women at par with men , especially focusing upon

the subtle and often unintended discrimination faced by women -

both at home and workplace.

Explanation:


1)Among the multiple International climate funds, GCF- green climate

fund is the largest

2)The GCF is a major channel for climate finance from developed to

developing countries.



4

A.

1 only

B.

2 only

C.

both 1 and 2

D.

neither 1 nor 2

Explanation:

Currently, the Green Climate Fund (GCF) is the largest, with pledges amounting to

US$10.2 billion.The second largest is the Clean Technology Fund (CTF) with pledges

amounting to US$5.3 billion. The GCF was established as an operating entity of the

financial mechanism of the UNFCCC in 2011 and is expected to be a major channel

for climate finance from developed to developing countries The highest contribution

of US$3 billion has been announced by the USA, followed by Japan (US$1.5 billion),

the UK US$1.2 billion),France (US$1.03 billion) and Germany(US$1.0 billion)

Q.7) Consider a city/urban region of India with less number of trees and

more pollution.Surrounding the city lies the laid back suburb and

little farther down the road starts the rural hinterland with posh

greenery and comparatively less pollution.Keeping all other variables

in check and nullifying any other externalities, if we compare the

rainfall data of the city region, the suburb and the rural hinterland -

which of them will experience the highest rainfall ?

A.

The city region will experience highest rainfall compared to other

regions

B.

The rural hinterland will get the most of rainfall in the regions

under comparision

C.

All the regions will get same amount of rainfall.

D.

No inference could be made from the details given.


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Explanation:

The city region will experience highest rainfall compared to other regions becasue

more the pollution implies more hygroscopic nuclei , thus more rain over the city

region.


1. Election Commisioners hold office for a term of six years or

until they attain the age of 65 years.

2. The salaries, allowances and expense of Election Commission

is charged upon the Consolidated Fund of India

Select the answer using the codes given below

A.

1 only

B.

2 only

C.

Both 1 and 2

D.

Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation:

EC does not have financial autonomy.

Q.9) In which of the following sector(s) FDI is prohibited

1. Gambling and Betting

2. Manufacturing of Cigars

3. Lottery Business

4. Chit funds

Select the correct answer

A.

1 only

B.

1 and 3 only

C.

2 and 4 only

D.

All of the above


6

Explanation:

Q.10) Consider the following statements:

1. UPSC is consulted while making reservations of appointments or

posts in favour of any backward class of citizens.

2. UPSC is consulted while taking into consideration the claims of

scheduled castes and scheduled tribes in making appointments to

services and posts.

Which of the above statements are true?

A.

1 only

B.

2 only

C.

Both 1 and 2

D.

Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation:


1)Swacch Sarvekshan Survey is conducted by the Quality Council of

India

2) Quality Council of India is a non governmental platform


A.

1 only

B.

2 only

C.

Both 1 and 2

D.

Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation:


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Quality Council of India (QCI) was set up in 1997 jointly by the Government of India

and the Indian Industry represented by the three premier industry associations i.e.

Associated Chambers of Commerce and Industry of India (ASSOCHAM),

Confederation of Indian Industry (CII) and Federation of Indian Chambers of

Commerce and Industry (FICCI), to establish and operate national accreditation

structure and promote quality through National Quality Campaign. The Department

of Industrial Policy & Promotion, Ministry of Commerce & Industry, is the nodal

ministry for QCI.


1)Section 377 of IPC criminalizes “LGBT”.

2)However the specific terms related to “LGBT” has no mention in

IPC.


A.

1 only

B.

2 only

C.

Both 1 and 2

D.

Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation:

Section 377 of IPC does not speak specifically of LGBT , it only criminalizes unnatural

offences “Unnatural offences. Whoever voluntarily has carnal intercourse against the

order of nature with any man, woman or animal, shall be punished with

1[imprisonment for life], or with imprisonment of either description for a term which

may extend to ten years, and shall also be liable to fine. “



8

1)Sallekhana refer to Jain ethical code of conduct where a person

ends his life voluntarily by gradually reducing the intake food and

liquids.

2)It is only allowed for the Jain ascetics only.

3)Supreme Court of India holds that Sallekhana is not akin suicide.

Which of the above statements are correct?

A.

1 and 2 only

B.

1,2,3

C.

1 and 3 only

D.

3 only

Explanation:

It is also allowed for householders.

Q.14) With reference to the LPG, which of the following statements are

correct?

1. Ethyl Mercaptane is used as an odouriser in case of LPG.

2. No tax is imposed on domestic LPG whereas 30% tax is

imposed on commercial LPG.


A.

1 only

B.

2 only

C.

Both 1 and 2

D.

Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation:


1)Saravanabelagola in Karnataka is famous for the monolithic

Bahubali statue


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2)The posture of the statue is in Abhayamudra, where Bahubali is

sitting in ‘Padmasana’(yogic posture where two legs are crossed over

each other) with his hands raised in gesture of fearlessness.


A.

1 only

B.

2 only

C.

both 1 and 2

D.

neither 1 nor 2

Explanation:

The posture of the statue is called Kayotsarga – literally meaning dismissing the body

,and a standing meditation posture.Bahubali is also known as Manmatha because

Jainism considers him to be the first cupid(kamadeva) of Avasarapini.

Q.16) Theyyam refers to :-

A.

It is a ritual form of worship in Kerala, predominantly performed in

North Malabar region.

B.

It is a famous martial art form where the ritual fight is under taken

in water bodies, especially in backwater of Kerala.

C.

It is a folkdance from Tamilnadu where the ‘spirit of the dead’ is

celebrated and the Theyyam cult holds the belief that – ‘death is

the ultimate liberation’

D.

It is a famous folklore written by an anonymous author which

holds the public imagination in the season of Spring in Coastal

districts of Andhra Pradesh.

Explanation:

Q.17) Consider the Water availability percentage on Earth's surface and

choose the correct order from the following :-

A.

Oceans >Ice Caps and Glacier>Atmosphere>Lakes


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B.

Lakes>Soil moisture>Atmosphere>Streams and Rivers

C.

Lakes>Streams and Rivers>Soil moisture>Atmosphere

D.

Oceans >Ice Caps and Glacier>Biosphere>Atmosphere

Explanation:


1)Waves are actually the energy, not the water as such

2)The largest waves are found in the closed oceans

3)Waves travel because wind pushes the water body in its course

while gravity pulls the crests of the waves downward

4)The actual motion of the water beneath the waves is circular

5)Wave amplitude is one-half of the wave

Which of the above statement/s is/are correct ?

A.

1,2,3,4 only

B.

1,2,3,4,5

C.

1,3,4,5

D.

2,3,4 only

Explanation:

The largest waves are found in the open oceans

Q.19) Which of the following is a part of High powered money (M0)?

1. Currency in circulation

2. Bank deposit with RBI

3. Other deposits with RBI


A.

1 only

B.


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1 and 2 only

C.

1,2,3

D.

2 and 3 only

Explanation:


1)The principal source of free nitrogen is the action of soil micro-

organisms and associated plant roots on atmospheric nitrogen

found in pore spaces of the soil

2)Nitrogen can also be fixed in the atmosphere by lightning and

cosmic radiation

3)Dead plants and animals, excretion of nitrogenous wastes are

converted into nitrites by the action of bacteria present in the soil

4)Blue green algae is capable of utilising Nitrogen directly in its

gaseous form

Which of the above statements are correct ?

A.

1 and 2 only

B.

1 ,2 and 4 only

C.

1,2,3,4

D.

1 and 3 only

Explanation:

Q.21) Which among the following are considered as factors of climate

change :-

1)Sunspot activities

2)Milankovitch Oscillation

3)Volcanism

4)Anthropogenic

A.


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3 and 4 only

B.

1,2 and 3 only

C.

1,2,3,4

D.

2,3 and 4 only

Explanation:

Milankovitch oscillations, which infer cycles in the variations in the earth’s orbital

characteristics around the sun, the wobbling of the earth and the changes in the

earth’s axial tilt. All these alter the amount of insolation received from the sun, which

in turn, might have a bearing on the climate. According to some meteorologists,

when the number of sunspots increase, cooler and wetter weather and greater

storminess occur. A decrease in sunspot numbers is associated with warm and drier

conditions.

Q.22) Consider the following with respect to the schemes of Government

of India and choose the correct match :-

1)Nai Roshni - Leadership Development programmee for Minority

Women

2)MANAS - to cater to skill development needs of minority

communities

3)Hamari Dharohar - programmee to safeguard rich heritage of

Hindu community in India

4)Seekho aur Kamao - placement linked skill development scheme

A.

1 and 3 only

B.

1,2,4 only

C.

1,3,4 only

D.

1 and 4 only

Explanation:

Hamari Dharohar - A scheme to Preserve Rich Heritage of Minority Communities of


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India

Q.23) Which of the following issues the ‘Global Economic Prospects’

periodically?

A.

World Bank

B.

World Economic Forum

C.

IMF

D.

The Asian Development Bank

Explanation:

Q.24) India's Forex reserve consists of which of the following?

1. Foreign Currency

2. Gold

3. Special Drawing Rights

4. Reserve Tranche


A.

1, 2 and 3 only

B.

1, 3 and 4 only

C.

1, 2 and 4 only

D.

All of the above

Explanation:

Q.25) Which is not a feature of Special category of States :-

A.

High Polulation density but lower per capita income

B.

Hilly and difficult terrain

C.

Low population density and / or sizeable share of tribal


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population

D.

Strategic location along borders with neighbouring countries

Explanation:

Q.26) Arrange the below list of hills of India in North to South direction :-

1)Kaimur Hills

2)Ramgarh Hills

3)Nallamalla Hills

4)Annamalai Hills

A.

1-2-3-4

B.

1-2-4-3

C.

2-1-3-4

D.

2-1-4-3

Explanation:

Q.27) Consider the statements :-

1)Keystone species are those species , whose extinction will destroy

the ecosystem and hence their survival is important for ecosystem

balance.

2)Tiger is a keystone species

3)White tigers are a different sub species and hence the white colour

4)The recent IUCN data shows that the number of tigers in the wild

have increased.


A.

1 and 4 only

B.

1,2,3,4

C.

1,2,4 only


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D.

1 and 2 only

Explanation:

White tigers are not a separate sub-species, but are white in color due to an

expression of recessive genes

Q.28) Consider the following match :-

1)Kanjli Wetland : Punjab

2)Hokera Wetland : Jammu and Kashmir

3)Vembanad-Kol Wetland: Kerala

4)Ropar Wetland : Punjab

Which of the above is/are correct match ?

A.

1, 2 and 3 only

B.

1, 3 and 4 only

C.

1, 2 and 4 only

D.

All of the above

Explanation:


1)Laissez-Faire Is "Let-It-Be Economics": The Belief That An Economy

Functions Best When There Is No Interference By Government

2)Keynesian Is A Branch Of Economics, Based, Often Loosely, On The

Ideas Of Keynes, Characterised By A Belief In Active Government And

Suspicion Of Market Outcomes.


A.

1 only

B.

2 only


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C.

Both 1 and 2

D.

Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation:

Q.30) With reference to the Red Sanders/Red Sandalwood, which of the

following statements are correct?

1. It is endemic to the southern Eastern Ghats mountain range

of South India.

2. The wood of tree is aromatic


A.

1 only

B.

2 only

C.

Both 1 and 2

D.

Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation:

Q.31) Hedge or Hedging in economic terms refers to :-

A.

Reducing the risks by risk diversification

B.

Investing in bigger risk as it pays better returns

C.

Investment in smaller risks in order to be recession proof

D.

It is associated with insider trading

Explanation:

Q.32) If there is a significant fall in Baltic dry Index for a continued period

of time , which of the following inferences can be true ?

A.

The world economy will soon face recession

B.


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The world economy is growing

C.

The European countries surrounding Baltic sea are facing

recession

D.

The European market has the strongest demand with respect to

the world.

Explanation:

Q.33) . Consider the following statements related to Bhartiya Mahila Bank:

1. It is the only public sector bank in the country entirely owned

by the government

2. This bank works exclusively for women


A.

1 only

B.

2 only

C.

Both 1 & 2

D.

Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation:

Q.34) Consider the following statements about priority sector lending:

1. All banks have to lend at least 40% of their net credit to the

priority sector.

2. Foreign banks with less than 20 branches will move to total

priority sector target of 40 percent by 2019-20.


A.

1 only

B.

2 only


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C.

Both 1 & 2

D.

Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation:

Q.35) With reference to B.R. Ambedkar, which of the following statement is

NOT correct ?

A.

Associated with Mooknayak (Leader of the Silent) weekly

B.

Independent India’s first law minister and the principal architect of

the Constitution of India

C.

Opposed creating separate electorates before Southborough

Committee

D.

Signed Poona Pact

Explanation:

Q.36) The sluggish growth of Bank Credit can be attributed to:

1. Incomplete transmission of the monetary policy as banks

have not passed on the entire benefit to borrowers.

2. Unwillingness of banks to lend credit on account of rising

non-performing assets.

3. Worsening of corporate balance sheets, forcing them to put

their investment decisions on hold.

4. more attractive interest rates for borrowers in the bond

market.

Choose from the options below:

A.

2 & 3 only

B.

1 & 3 only

C.

1 , 3 & 4 only


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D.

1 , 2 , 3 , 4

Explanation:

Q.37) Credit impulse is measured as:

A.

Credit Outstanding in the last FY

B.

New credit issued during last FY

C.

New credit issued as a percentage of the gross domestic product

(GDP).

D.

Change in new credit issued as a percentage of the gross

domestic product (GDP).

Explanation:

Q.38) Consider the statements with regards to Black Hole :-

1)A black hole forms when a large, dying star collapses

2)The gravity created by this condensing matter completely

overpowers any outward forces, including light.

3)Any object passing at a certain distance of black hole can not

escape it. Even light can not escape it.

Which of the statements is/are correct ?

A.

1 only

B.

2 and 3 only

C.

1 and 3 only

D.

1,2,3

Explanation:



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1) Asteroid - A relatively small, inactive, rocky body orbiting the

Sun.They have a definitive path.

2) Comets are called "dirty snowballs" and are relatively small

objects whose ice can vaporize in sunlight forming an atmosphere

(coma) of dust and gas, sometimes along with a tail of dust and/or

gas.

3) Asteroids are rich in the mineral where as the comets are rich

resources of water and carbon-based molecules necessary to sustain

life.

4) Meteoroid - A small particle from a comet or asteroid orbiting the

Sun.

5) Meteor - The light phenomenon which results when a meteoroid

enters the Earth's atmosphere and vaporizes; a shooting star.

6) Meteorite - A meteoroid that survives its passage through the

Earth's atmosphere and lands upon the Earth's surface.


A.

1,2,3,4 only

B.

2,3,4,5,6 only

C.

1,3,4,5 only

D.

1,2,3,4,5,6

Explanation:

Millions of asteroids orbit the sun, usually in a belt between the orbits of Mars and

Jupiter. A few brush past the planet Earth. Generally larger than comets and meteors,

asteroids are chunks of rock and metal that can range from 100 yards to almost 600

miles in width. Comets, sometimes likened to big, dirty snowballs, are made of rock,

ice, dust, carbon dioxide, methane, and other gases. They originate in the Kuiper belt.

As comets journey toward the sun, they begin to defrost. Solar heat vaporizes ice,

which forms a halo of gas and dust, called a coma, around the comet's nucleus.

Approaching Mars, comets may form tails, some hundreds of millions of miles


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long.Meteors, more commonly seen from Earth than asteroids or comets, are known

to most as shooting stars, but they are actually not stars at all. If an asteroid hit Earth,

its effect on our planet would depend upon its size. Earth's atmosphere protects the

planet from asteroids less than 150 feet in diameter.Objects up to 3,000 feet across

create intense, localized damage. Such impacts occur every few centuries. Asteroids

more than 5,000 feet across would kick up dust and cause an "impact winter." Such

hits occur once or twice every million years. The Chicxulub crater in Mexico was

probably the result of an asteroid impact 65 million years ago. The dust produced

may have caused a climate change that led to the extinction of the

dinosaurs.Meteoroids, meteors, and meteorites all represent different stages of

interplanetary debris. Meteoroids are small chunks of rock and metal-pieces of

asteroids, bits of comets, and, rarely, pieces of the moon or Mars- that orbit the sun.

Earth's gravity sweeps up millions of meteoroids. Most of them vaporize in our

atmosphere, leaving a visible trail of glowing dust we call a meteor or shooting star.

Meteorites are meteors that make it through Earth's atmosphere and reach the

ground.Meteors appear on a regular basis in the night sky, but they also occur with

great reliability in large numbers at certain times of the year. Known as meteor

showers, they are often named for the background constellations against which they

appear.

Q.40) Base Rate is the interest rate below which:

A.

Scheduled Commercial Banks (SCBs) would not lend to consumers

B.

SCBs would not borrow from RBI

C.

RBI would not lend to SCBs

D.

SCBs cannot give interest for the public bank deposits

Explanation:

Q.41) The securities market regulator Securities and Exchange Board of

India (SEBI) has tightened the Participatory Notes (P-note) norms.

The main purpose of this decision is to keep:

A.

Vigil on foreign investments to curb black money inflows in the

country.

B.

A track on the global remittance flows to India.


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C.

Vigil on production of counterfeit notes in India.

D.

Foreign printed notes from coming into circulation in India

Explanation:

Q.42) Remittances are an important source of financial flows for India.

Which of the following factors may lead to an increase in remittance

inflows to India?

1. Higher oil prices in the Gulf countries

2. Depreciation of Rupee

Which of the above is/are correct?

A.

1 only

B.

2 only

C.

both 1 and 2

D.

neither 1 nor 2

Explanation:


1)The multicolored arc of a rainbow is produced due to diffraction.

2)A rainbow's position in the sky depends on the sun's altitude

above the horizon-the lower the sun, the higher the rainbow

appears.

3)The colour of the sky is blue because of scattering of light.


A.

1 only

B.

2 and 3 only


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C.

1 and 3 only

D.

1,2,3

Explanation:

The multicolored arc of a rainbow is produced by sunlight striking raindrops beneath

a rain cloud. Light refracts- bends- when it passes through drops of water. Each color

of light refracts at a different angle: Violet bends more than blue, which bends more

than green, and so on, with red refracting the least. If sunlight enters a raindrop at

just the proper angle, it refracts, and its many colors spread into a visible

array.Sunlight refracted through millions of raindrops forms a rainbow.On a primary

rainbow, red is the outside color and violet the inside color. Occasionally a secondary

rain bow appears slightly higher in the sky, and in it the colors of the rainbow are

reversed (opposite)A rainbow's position in the sky depends on the sun's altitude

above the horizon-the lower the sun, the higher the rainbow appears. The molecules

of air and other fine particles in the atmosphere have size smaller than the

wavelength of visible light. These are more effective in scattering light of shorter

wavelengths at the blue end than light of longer wavelengths at the red end. The red

light has a wavelength about 1.8 times greater than blue light. Thus, when sunlight

passes through the atmosphere, the fine particles in air scatter the blue colour

(shorter wavelengths) more strongly than red. The scattered blue light enters our

eyes. If the earth had no atmosphere, there would not have been any scattering.

Then, the sky would have looked dark. The sky appears dark to passengers flying at

very high altitudes, as scattering is not prominent at such heights

Q.44) Consider the following statements about 21st Conference of Parties

(COP 21) of UNFCCC.

1. Paris Agreement on post-2020 actions on climate change was

adopted here.

2. This universal agreement will succeed the Kyoto Protocol.

3. Unlike the Kyoto Protocol, it provides a framework for all

countries to take action against climate change.

4. It focuses to hold the increase in the global average

temperature well below 2°C above pre- industrial level.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below

A.

1 and 4 only


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B.

2 and 3 only

C.

1, 2 and 4 only

D.

1, 2, 3 and 4

Explanation:

Q.45) Assertion(A)- When both the office of the speaker and deputy

speaker falls vacant a member from the panel of chairpersons

assumes the office of the speaker.

Reason(B)- the speaker nominates from amongst its members a

panel of chairpersons

A.

Both A and B are individually true and B is the correct explanation

of A.

B.

Both A and B are individually true but B is not the correct

explanation of A.

C.

A is true but B is false.

D.

A is false but B is true

Explanation:

When both the office of the speaker and deputy speaker falls vacant , a member of

the house is appointed by the president to assume the office of the speaker.

Q.46) Who administers oath to the newly elected members of Lok Sabha

after the general election

A.

The president of India

B.

The newly elected of the house

C.

The speaker pro tem

D.

The CJI


25

Explanation:

Q.47) The power of the speaker on disqualification under Anti-Defection

law is

A.

Absolute

B.

Subject to judicial review

C.

Subject to consent of the election commission

D.

Subject to consent of the President

Explanation:

Q.48) Indradhanush’ Scheme’recenty lauched by Govt. of India aims

at:

A.

Revamp functioning of public sector banks.

B.

Protect, restore and enhance diminishing forest cover.

C.

Improve connectivity in the North East Region.

D.

Improve farm production by evergreen revolution in Agriculture

sector.

Explanation:

Q.49) Consider the following statements with reference to Supplementary

grant.

A.

It is granted when the appropriated amount for a particular

service falls short for the current financial year.

B.

It is passed in the Budget session only.

C.

Both of the above

D.

None of the above.


26

Explanation:

Explanation- It can be passed in any session.

Q.50) Consider the following statements about the speaker of the Lok

Sabha.

1. Whenever the Lok Sabha is dissolved the speaker does not

vacate his/her office.

2. He/she acts as the chairman of the Business advisory

committee.

3. He is removed by a special majority of Lok Sabha.

4. The motion for her/his removal can be discussed only when it

has the support of at least 50 members.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

A.

1 and 4 only

B.

2 and 3 only

C.

1, 2 and 4 only

D.

1, 2, 3 and 4

Explanation:

S/He is removed by an absolute majority that is a majority of total members of of Lok

Sabha.

Q.51) Consider the following statements about the President's rule that is

imposed under Article 356 of the Constitution.

1. It can be imposed only on the written recommendation of the

Governor of the

concerned state

2. Every proclamation of President's rule must be approved by both

the houses of

Parliament within a stipulated time


27

3.It is an absolute power of the president and is not subjected to

judicial review.

Which of the above is/are correct?

A.

1 only

B.

2 only

C.

2 and 3 only

D.

1, 2 and 3

Explanation:

Article 356 empowers the President to issue a proclamation, if he is satisfied that a

situation has arisen in which the government of a state cannot be carried on in

accordance with the provisions of the Constitution. The president can act either on a

report of the governor of the state or otherwise too (ie, even without the governor's

report).

Q.52) Consider the following statements.

1. The governor can reserve certain types of bills passed by the state

legislature for the

consideration of the President.

2. Bills on certain matters enumerated in the State List can be

introduced in the state

legislature only with the previous sanction of the president.

3. The President can direct the states to reserve money bills and

other financial bills

passed by the state legislature for his consideration during a

financial emergency.

Select the correct answer using the codes below.

A.

1 and 2 only

B.

1 and 3 only

C.


28

2 and 3 only

D.

1, 2 and 3

Explanation:

Besides the Parliament's power to legislate directly on the state subjects under the

exceptional situations, the Constitution empowers the Centre to exercise control over

the state's legislative matters in the above mentioned ways. For example, the bills

imposing restrictions on the freedom of trade and commerce can be introduced only

after Presidential assent.

Q.53) Which of the following provisions of the Constitution can be

amended by a simple

majority in the Parliament?

1. Conferment of more jurisdiction on the Supreme Court

2. Delimitation of constituencies

3. Directive Principles of State Policy

4. Election of the President and its manner


A.

1 and 2 only

B.

3 and 4 only

C.

1 only

D.

1, 2, 3 and 4

Explanation:

Q.54) Consider the following statements with reference to the Comptroller

and Auditor General of India.

A.

He controls the entire financial system of the country at both

central and state level.

B.

He is the head of the Indian Audit and Accounts Department.


29

C.

Both of the above

D.

None of the above

Explanation:

Q.55) Which of the following is the most productive ecosystem?

A.

Estuaries

B.

Grasslands

C.

Deep Ocean

D.

Continental Shelves

Explanation:

Because of differences in the availabilities of solar radiation, water, and nutrients, the

world's ecosystems differ greatly in the amount of productivity that they sustain

Deserts, tundra, and the deep ocean are the least productive ecosystems, Grasslands,

montane and boreal forests, waters of the continental shelf, and rough agriculture

typically have slightly more productivity. Moist forests, moist prairies, shallow lakes,

and typical agricultural systems have higher productivities The most productive

ecosystems are fertile estuaries and marshes, coral reefs, terrestrial vegetation on

moist alluvial deposits

Q.56) Hydrogen peroxide is seen as the safest natural sanitizer and an

environmentally safe alternative to other bleaches because

A.

It degrades to form oxygen and water

B.

It releases only free radicals upon reaction with unsterile objects.

C.

It is not toxic upon consumption.

D.

It does not kill bacteria in the process of sterilization thus

maintaining bacterial diversity

Explanation:


30

Hydrogen peroxide (H2O2) is the only germicidal agent composed only of water and

oxygen. Like ozone, it kills disease organisms by oxidation. Hydrogen peroxide kills

microorganisms by oxidizing them, which can be best described as a controlled

burning process When Hydrogen peroxide reacts with organic material it breaks

down into oxygen and water, meaning it is non-toxic for general use. It can be

helpful in cuts and infections, Foot Fungus, Sinus Infections etc.

Q.57) Consider the following about Abor tribes.

1. They are mainly found in Uttarakhand

2. They worship the Sun and the Moon.

3. Decorating the body is strictly prohibited within the tribes due to

religious reasons

Select the correct answer using the codes below

A.

1 and 2 only

B.

2 only

C.

1 and 3 only

D.

1, 2 and 3

Explanation:

Abor tribes are found in Arunachal Pradesh mainly in the temperate; and sub-tropical

regions within the districts of West Siang, Upper Subansiri, East Siang, Upper Siang

and Dibang Valley Abor tribes are the ardent followers of 'animist Donyi-Polo

religion', worshipping the sun, the moon. Their ancestral gods are Abo-Teni and also

the female god Shaman According to the customs of the region, the male folks often

wear helmets that are prepared from cane, bear and deer skin.

Q.58) The Montreux Record is a register of wetland sites on the List of

Wetlands of International Importance where

A.

No human interference has been historically witnessed.

B.

Changes in ecological character have occurred due to external


31

factors.

C.

Endemism is high.

D.

The main wetland body joins a sea and is a zone of high

productivity.

Explanation:

It registers those sites where changes in ecological character have occurred, are

occurring, or are likely to occur as a result of technological developments, pollution

or other human interference. It is maintained as part of the Ramsar List. Keoladeo

National Park and Loktak Lake are covered under the Montreux record in India.

Q.59) Consider the following statements about urban pollutants.

1. Carbon monoxide is one of the primary pollutants of automobile

exhaust.

2. Lead is the most toxic metal pollutant of automobile exhaust.

3. Ozone plays an important role in the formation of classical smog.


A.

1 only

B.

2 and 3 only

C.

1 and 2 only

D.

1, 2 and 3

Explanation:

Ozone plays an important role in the formation of photochemical smog.

Q.60) The Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change has notified

the E-WasteManagement Rules, 2016 in supersession of the e-waste

(Management & Handling) Rules,2011. Consider the following

1. Micro, small and medium enterprises are exempt from these rules.

2. Producers have been made responsible for collection of E-waste


32

and for its

exchange.

3. CFL lamps have now been included as a part of e-waste.


A.

1 and 2 only

B.

2 and 3 only

C.

1 and 3 only

D.

1, 2 and 3

Explanation:

: Exemption continues for micro enterprises; however small enterprises, which have

been referred as one of the major source of generation of e-waste, have been

included in the rules for responsibility as manufacturer, without burdening them with

EPR responsibility as applicable to Producers. E-waste rules will now include Compact

Fluorescent Lamp (CFL) and other mercury containing lamps, as well as other such

equipment The bulk consumers must collect the items and hand them over to

authorized recyclers. Various producers can have a separate Producer Responsibility

Organisation (PRO) and ensure collection of E-waste, as well as its disposal in an

environmentally sound manner

Q.61) Which of the following is a useful functional association between

fungi and roots of higher plants?

A.

Biofertilizer

B.

Mychorrhiza

C.

Coralloid root.

D.

Lichen

Explanation:

Q.62) Which of the following statements about shock chlorination is


33

correct ?

A.

A process used in many swimming pools, water wells and other

water sources to reduce the bacterial and algal residue in the

water.

B.

A medical practice against chronic fungal infection.

C.

Both 1 and 2.

D.

Neither 1 nor 2.

Explanation:

Q.63) Assertion(A)- India has the second highest number of

undernourished people.

Reason(B)-The average protein intake per capita per day decreases

steadily.

A.

Both A and B are individually true and B is the correct explanation

of A.

B.

Both A and B are individually true but B is not the correct

explanation of A.

C.

A is true but B is false.

D.

A is false but B is true

Explanation:

Expalnation- according to FAO,India has the second highest number of

undernourished people.

Q.64) A child has "A" blood group .What could the blood group of his/her

parents ?

A.

Both parents of same blood group "A"

B.


34

One of the parent has "A" blood group and another has "O"

C.

One of the parent has "A" blood group and another has "B"

D.

All of the above is a possibility.

Explanation:

The antigen A is present in all the cases.

Q.65) Transplantation of tissues/organs usually rejected by the body

.Which immune response is responsible for such type of rejection :-

A.

Auto-immune response.

B.

Humoral immune response.

C.

Physiological immune response.

D.

Cell mediated immune response.

Explanation:

Q.66) Consider the following statements about the eight core industries.

A.

They have a total weight of nearly 90 per cent in the IIP

B.

In the “index of eight core industries”, coal production has been

given the highest weight

C.

Both of the above

D.

None of the above

Explanation:

Explanation.They have a total weight of nearly 38 per cent in the IIP. In the “index of

eight core industries”, electricity production has been given the highest weight

Q.67) It has been found by scientists that plastic pollution in oceans is not


35

growing at the higher rate they expect it to grow. This is because of

A.

Consumption of plastic by some species of diatoms on the ocean

surface

B.

Accidental consumption of plastic by fishes

C.

Cleaning efforts made by UNEP

D.

Convertion of polymers to monomers due to action of salt water

Explanation:

microorganisms which dwell on millions of tonnes of plastic pieces floating in oceans

are turning out to be a huge help in cleaning the ocean surface. They not only break

down the pollutant by eating it, but also make it sink. Analysis of over 1,000 images

of plastic material drifting along Australian coastline has shown that diatom was the

most common algae which kept on collecting on plastic pieces till they sank. There

could be other complex creatures which feed on microbes and toxins. The

observations can help explain why plastic pollution on ocean surfaces is not growing

at the rate scientists feared it would. It could also give clues to new and improved

waste disposal mechanisms on land.

Q.68) Smog is the most common example of air pollution that occurs in

many cities. What is “classical smog” made of?

1. Smoke

2. Fog

3. Nitrous oxide

4. Sulphur dioxide

Choose the correct answer using the codes below:

A.

1, 2 and 4 only

B.

1 and 2 only

C.

2 and 4 only

D.

All of the above

Explanation:


36

Q.69) Which of the following are greenhouse gases?

1. Methane

2. CFCs

3. Ozone

4. Water vapour

5. Nitrous oxide

6. Sulphur oxide

Choose the correct answer using the codes below:

A.

All of the above

B.

All except 1, 4 and 6

C.

All except 6

D.

All except 5

Explanation:

Atmospheric concentrations of greenhouse gases are determined by the balance

between sources (emissions of the gas from human activities and natural systems)

and sinks (the removal of the gas from the atmosphere by conversion to a different

chemical compound

Q.70) Udyog Aadhar Memorandum (UAM) is associated with which of the

following?

A.

Ease of doing business in MSME sector

B.

Direct Benefit transfer

C.

e-auction of coal blocks.

D.

Skill development of industrial labourers.

Explanation:

Q.71) Bharatmala project is associated with

A.


37

Development of road infrastructure in the country

B.

Development of a robust communication network in the country

C.

Strengthening the inland water transport network

D.

Development of port connectivity

Explanation:


1)Ashoka’s inscriptions were written in – Brahmi,Kharosti,Greek and

Aramaic scripts

2)James Prinsep deciphered the Harappan script which helped us

know a lot about this civilization

3) Like Ashok’s inscriptions , the Samudra Gupta’s Allahabad pillar

inscription was also prescribed royal orders containing certain social

norms

4) While in India the writing were done on Palm leaves or birch barks

, in Central Asia they were done on Sheep leather and wooden

tablets


A.

1 and 2 only

B.

2 and 3 only

C.

1,2,4 only

D.

1 and 4 only

Explanation:

Harappan inscriptions are yet to be deciphered. Samudragupta's inscription was not

a royal order but it eulogizes his achievements

Q.73) Which among the following attributes are true with respect to


38

Sangam texts:-

1)They are deeply religious

2)They are partly real

3)They are heroic rendition and gives account of military exploits

4)They are mostly true about trade

A.

1,2,3 only

B.

2,3,4 only

C.

1 and 2 only

D.

2 and 3 only

Explanation:

Sangam texts are secula

Q.74) Consider the following statements regarding sugarcane and sugar

pricing policy.

1. The concept of Statutory Minimum Price (SMP) of sugarcane was

replaced with the ‘Fair and Remunerative Price (FRP)' of sugarcane.

2. Sugar is an essential commodity under the Essential Commodities

Act, 1955.

3. The Central Government has been following a policy of partial

control and dual pricing for sugar.


A.

1 and 2

B.

2 and 3

C.

1 and 3

D.

All of the above


39

Explanation:

Sugar is an essential commodity under the Essential Commodities Act, 1955. The

Central Government has been following a policy of partial control and dual pricing

for sugar. Under this policy, a certain percentage of sugar produced by sugar

factories (raised to 20% for 2009-10 sugar season and revised to 10% for 2010-11

season and 2011-12 sugar season) is requisitioned by the Government as

compulsory levy at a price fixed by the Central Government in every sugar season.

Levy sugar is distributed under the Public Distribution System (PDS) at a uniform

retail issue price throughout the country. The non-levy (free sale) sugar is allowed to

be sold as per the quantity released by the Central Government under the regulated

release mechanism.

Q.75) Consider the match :-

1)Vikram Samvat- 57 B.C.

2)Shaka Samvat – 78 A.D

3)Gupta Era – 319 A.D

Which of the above match is correct

A.

1 only

B.

1 and 2 only

C.

1,2,and 3

D.

None of the above

Explanation:

Q.76) Which of following statements are correct :-

1)Rajatarangini gives an account of Kashmir Kings

2)Mushikas were rulers of Gujarat

3)Kalhan considered as the first historian of India

A.

2 and 3 only


40

B.

1, 2 and 3

C.

1and 2 only

D.

1 and 3 only

Explanation:

Mushikas were rulers of Kerala (North)

Q.77) Fringe Benefit tax refers to

A.

Tax payable by companies against non-monetary benefits given

to its employees.

B.

Tax payable by individuals upon receiving non-monetary benefit

from the company.

C.

Tax rebate received by company in accordance to corporate social

responsibility.

D.

None of the above

Explanation:

Q.78) Consider the following statements regarding Jainism and Jain

literature :-

1)Jainism did not recognize the existence of God

2)Jainism does not believe in cycle of life-death-rebirth

3)Full knowledge, action and liberation are considered to be the

three gems or ratnas of Jainism

4)Religious literature of Jainism were written in Ardhamagadhi.


A.


41

1,2 ,4 only

B.

1,2, 3 only

C.

1,2 only

D.

3 ,4 only

Explanation:

Jainism did recognize the existence of God and placed them lower than Jina.

According to Mahavir , a person is born in highr/lower varna as a consequence of of

the sins or the virtues acquired by one in his previous birth

Q.79) Consider the statements related to Jainism :-

1)Jainism condemned Varna system

2)Jainism prohibited agriculture

3)Jains usually confined themselves to trade and mercantile activities

4)Jainism prescribes not to acquire property

Which of the statements are correct ?

A.

1 ,2,3 only

B.

2,3,4 only

C.

1,2,4 only

D.

1,2,3,4

Explanation:

Jainism did not condemn Varna system

Q.80) Water Reservoirs are one of the prominent features found in which

of the following Indus Valley Civilization sites?


42

A.

Mohenjodaro

B.

Dholavira

C.

Rojdi

D.

Kalibangan

Explanation:

Q.81

) With reference to the Indian history of art and culture, consider the following

pairs

Famous work of sculpture Site

1. Varaha rescuing the earth goddess: Aihole

2. Sheshnag Sculpture: Deogarh

3. Arjuna’s Penance: Mamallapuram

Which of the above pairs is/are correctly matched?

A.

1 and 2 only

B.

3 only

C.

1 and 3 only

D.

1,2 and 3

Explanation:


1)Reducing Emissions from Deforestation and Forest Degradation

(REDD) is an effort to create a financial value for the carbon stored in

forests, offering incentives for developing countries to reduce

emissions from forested lands and invest in low-carbon paths to

sustainable development


43

2)“REDD+” goes beyond deforestation and forest degradation, and

includes the role of conservation, sustainable management of forests

and enhancement of forest carbon stocks


A.

1 only

B.

2 only

C.

both 1 and 2

D.

neither 1 nor 2

Explanation:

Q.83) With reference to the ‘Satavahanas’ consider the following

statements?

1. Satavahanas are considered to be identical with the Andhras who

are mentioned in the puranas.

2. The puranas speak only on Andhra rule and not of Satavahana

rule.

3. The name Andhra does not occur in Satavahana inscriptions.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A.

1 only

B.

1 and 2 only

C.

2 and 3 only

D.

1, 2 and 3

Explanation:

Q.84

) With reference to the ancient period, consider the following pairs:-


44

Terms used Meaning

1. Vellala: Land owners

2. Uzhavar: Ploughmen

3. Adimai: Slaves

Which of the above pairs is/are correctly matched?

A.

1 and 2 only

B.

3 only

C.

1 and 3 only

D.

1, 2 and 3

Explanation:

Q.85) With reference to the history of ancient India, which of the following

was/were common to both Buddhism and Jainism?

1. Avoidance of extremities of penance and enjoyment

2. Indifference to the authority of the Vedas

3. Denial of efficacy of rituals

A.

1 only

B.

2 and 3 only

C.

1 and 3 only

D.

1,2,3

Explanation:

Q.86) Which is the correct chronological arrangement with respect to to

pottery : -

1.Ochre-Coloured Pottery Ware (OCP)

2.Black and Red Ware (BRW)


45

3.Painted Grey Ware (PGW)

4.Northern Black Polished (NBP) Ware

A.

1-2-3-4

B.

2-1-3-4

C.

4-3-2-1

D.

4-3-1-2

Explanation:

Ochre-Coloured Pottery Ware (OCP) -earlier then 1000 B.C Black and Red Ware

(BRW) – 1000 -800 B.C. Painted Grey Ware (PGW) – between 800-400 B.C. Northern

Black Polished (NBP) Ware – between 500-100 B.C


1)Augmented Reality is like is seeing a dragon land on your table

2)Virtual Reality is like being inside a dragon’s world


A.

1 only

B.

2 only

C.

both 1 and 2

D.

neither 1 nor 2

Explanation:

http://upsctree.com/2016/06/09/daily-current-events-08-june-2016/


1. Brahmanism never had deep roots in the Punjab plains

2. The Punjab paradox is that every invader came through this route


46

to India, but no one really ruled it extensively from the Indian seat of

power-Delhi


A.

1 only

B.

2 only

C.

both 1 and 2

D.

neither 1 nor 2

Explanation:

Punjab Paradox :- After the Rig-Vedic period there seems to have been arrested

growth In the Punjab. The persistence of non-monarchical janapadas in the region till

the Gupta period suggests autonomous development. It also indicates weak property

in land and poor agricultural growth. The absence of land grant inscriptions. a

feature common in Gupta and post-Gupta times in the rest of the country, from the

Punjab plains strengthens the assumption. Brahmanism never had deep roots in the

Punjab plains, nor for that matter did the Varna structure become wholly acceptable.

The Brahmanas rarely played an important role in society and the Kshatriyas soon

faded out. The Khatris who claim to be Kshatriyas are usually found in professions

associated with the Vaisya.Thus Punjab remained and still remains outside from the

realm of Brahamanism and its influences , majorly due to the Aravalli barrier. The

Punjab paradox is that every invader came through this route to India, but no one

really ruled it extensively from the Indian seat of power-Delhi.It was always ruled by

the regional power largely and it remains true to this date.

Q.89) Which of the following factors were not responsible for the decline

of Mughals?

1. Vast territory could not be managed properly by the weak

successors of Aurangjeb.

2. Unnecessary interference in Rajputs affairs.

3. Execution of Teg Bahadur.

4. Introduction of Jaziya.


47

5. Jagirdari Crisis

Select the correct answer using the codes given above.

A.

1 only

B.

1,2 and 3 only

C.

3 and 4 only

D.

All the factors were responsible .

Explanation:

Q.90) Find the wrong match-

A.

National Waterway 1 - Allahabad-Haldia

B.

National Waterway 2 - Kollam-Kottappuram

C.

National Waterway 4 - Kakinada-Puducherry

D.

National Waterway 5 - Talcher-Dhamra

Explanation:

Q.91) Which of the following is true about Laffer curve?

A.

It is the relationship between unemployment and growth rate of

GDP of the country.

B.

It is the relationship between the Inflation and the trend in

changes of labour pattern

C.

The Laffer curve shows the relationship between tax rates and tax

revenue collected by governments

D.

None of the above.

Explanation:


48

The Laffer curve, invented by Arthur Laffer, shows the relationship between tax rates

and tax revenue collected by governments. The curve suggests that, as taxes increase

from low levels, tax revenue collected by the government also increases. It also

shows that tax rates increasing after a certain point (T*) would cause people not to

work as hard or not at all, thereby reducing tax revenue. Eventually, if tax rates

reached 100% (the far right of the curve), then all people would choose not to work

because everything they earned would go to the government.

Q.92) Most favoured nation clause under WTO implies

A.

Most favour to some countries

B.

Most favour to all countries

C.

No favour to some countries

D.

No particualr favour to any country

Explanation:

Most-favoured-nation (MFN): treating other people equally - Under the WTO

agreements, countries cannot normally discriminate between their trading partners.

Grant someone a special favour (such as a lower customs duty rate for one of their

products) and you have to do the same for all other WTO members.

Q.93) Which of the following characteristics are unique to mammals?

1. Presence of external ear.

2. Presence of skin hair.

3. Presence of mammary gland

4. Presence of special excretory organ

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

A.

2 and 4 only

B.

1 and 2 only.

C.

1, 2, 3 and 4

D.

1, 2 and 3 only


49

Explanation:

Q.94) Consider the following statement about the Biochemical Oxygen

Demand.

1. It is the amount of oxygen required by bacterias to break down

the organic matter present in a certain volume of water.

2. It is a measure of the oxygen carrying capacity of water.

3. Lower Biochemical Oxygen Demand indicates lower level of water

pollution.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below

A.

1 only

B.

1 and 3 Only

C.

2 and 3 Only

D.

1, 2 and 3

Explanation:

The amount of BOD in the water is a measure of the amount of organic material in

the water, in terms of how much oxygen will be required to break it down

biologically.

Q.95) What is common in the following :-

1)Binder Jetting

2)Sheet lamination

3)Material jetting

4)Power Bed Fusion

A.

All are related to Medical science that deals with electro-magnetic

equipment

B.

All are different stages of changing thorium in to nuclear fuel

C.

There is no commonality

D.


50

All are related to 3D technology

Explanation:


1)Cooperative farming is where a group of farmers submit their land

to a co-operative society to carry out collective farming.

2)In co-operative farming the land belongs to the co-operative and

not to the individual farmer.

Which of the above state is/are true ?

A.

1 only

B.

2 only

C.

both 1 and 2

D.

neither 1 nor 2

Explanation:

A group of farmers form a co-operative society by pooling in their resources

voluntarily for more efficient and profitable farming. Individual farms remain intact

and farming is a matter of cooperative initiative.Co-operative societies help farmers,

to procure all important inputs of farming, sell the products at the most favourable

terms and help in processing of quality products at cheaper rates.Co-operative

movement originated over a century ago and has been successful in many western

European countries like Denmark, Netherlands, Belgium, Sweden, Italy etc. In

Denmark, the movement has been so successful that practically every farmer is a

member of a co-operative.

Q.97) During the Imperial Chola period the lands granted to officials in lieu

of their salary are called as

A.

Sudugaddu

B.

Jivita

C.

Paracherry


51

D.

Urnattam

Explanation:

Sudugaddu- Burial Ground Urnattam- Residing Places Paracherry- Outcaste places

Q.98) With reference to medieval Indian rulers which of the following

statement is incorrect?

A.

Giyasuddin Balban introduced Paibos and Sizada.

B.

Alaudin Khalji for the first time introduced Dagh and Chehra.

C.

Muhammad Bin Tughlaq created a department of slaves.

D.

Firoz Shal Tughlaq introduced Jaziya.

Explanation:

It was created by Firoz Shal Tughlaq

Q.99) The term ‘Pietra dura’ has great artistic significance in Indian art and

architect. It refers to which of the following?

A.

It is a musical note on walls

B.

It is an art of sweet making.

C.

It is an art of decoration with stones.

D.

It is a traditional art of carpet weaving

Explanation:

Q.100) Consider the following statements about Vijayanagara empire.

1. It was founded by Harihar and Bukka.

2. Consists of Two dynasties- Sulava dynasty and Tulava dynasty.

3. Krishna Deva Raya was the greatest ruler of Sulava Dyanasty.

4. Battle of Baniahti resulted in destruction of Vijayanagara Empire.

Select the correct answer using the codes given above


52

A.

Only 1 and 2

B.

Only 1 and 4

C.

Only 1, 3 and 4

D.

1, 2, 3 and 4.

Explanation:

Vijayanagara Empire conists of 3 dynasties. viz, Sangam, Sulava and tulava (Krishna

Deva Raya).

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