Mrs. Hicks’ Midterm Review

Scientific Method & Density:

____ 1. Scientists test their ideas by

A. publishing in scientific journals

B. performing experiments

C. developing theories

D. none of the above

____ 2. Scientists hypothesize to explain

A. what they think will happen in a certain situation

B. the procedure for an experiment

C. how theories work

D. why a theory should be made into a law

____ 3. Which of the following is part of the scientific method?

A. observing

B. forming a hypothesis

C. gathering data

D. all of the above

____ 4. Why do hurricanes weaken over land?

A. They gain heat energy from the land.

B. They no longer have a source of humid air to provide heat from condensation.

C. Their winds are counteracted by the land and sea breezes.

D. They have changed their path.

____ 5. A tentative, educated explanation for an observed phenomenon is a

A. theory

B. law

C. hypothesis

D. review

_____6. The density of fresh water is

A. 0.1 g/mL

B. 1.0 g/mL

C. 10.0 g/mL

D. 1.1 g/mL

_____7. The density of salt water is ______________ the density of fresh water.

A. the same as

B. less than

C. greater than

D. who cares

_____8. The fuel for a hurricane is _____________ .

A. cool water from the ocean

B. warm water from the storm clouds

C. warm water from the ocean

D. African rivers

_____9. The INDEPENDENT variable in an experiment is the one that _____________.

A. changes because of the dependent variable

B. change because of the control

C. Is the one thing that is changed on purpose

D. is the variable that everything else is compared to

_____10. Per Mrs. Hicks, the density of an object is how ________________________ it is.

A. heavy or compact

B. light or floatable

C. shiny

D. dull

Chapter 3 ~ Mapping

____ 1. A Mercator projection distorts the areas nearA. the equatorB. the polesC. the United StatesD. the middle latitudes

____ 2. Which projection is made as if a cone of paper had been wrapped around Earth?A. MercatorB. gnomonicC. polyconicD. all of the above

____ 3. Which projection shows the whole world, except the extreme polar regions, on one map?A. MercatorB. gnomonicC. polyconicD. all of the above

____ 4. Where are land masses distorted on a gnomonic projection?A. near the polesB. near the equatorC. near the center pointD. away from the center point

____ 5. The Northern and Southern Hemispheres are divided by theA. equatorB. prime meridianC. graticuleD. North and South Poles

____ 6. The Eastern and Western Hemispheres are divided by theA. equatorB. prime meridian and the180° meridianC. graticuleD. North and South Poles

____ 7. How many degrees of latitude separate the North and South Poles?A. 45?B. 90?C. 180?D. 360?

____ 8. The greatest number of degrees that a traveler can ever be from the prime meridian isA. 30?B. 90?C. 180?D. 360?

____ 9. The kind of map scale indicated by 1:1,000,000 isA. graphicalB. fractional/numericalC. symmetricalD. verbal

____ 10. What was the main method of mapping in the United States before the 1940s?A. radarB. aerial photographyC. plane-table surveyingD. satellite photography____ 11. Which of the following is not a method of remote sensing?

A. Landsat imagingB. ground surveyingC. imaging radarD. Earth Observing System measurements

____ 12. Why are false-color images from satellites more useful at times than true-to-life color images?A. It is impossible to depict different bodies of water on a true-to-life color images.B. It can be hard to perceive different wavelengths of light on true-to-life color images.C. False-color images can be transmitted through space.D. False-color images can be sent through solid objects.

____ 13. What does the Global Positioning System (GPS) allow people to determine anywhere in the world?A. their positionB. their speedC. the timeD. all of the above

____ 14. Which of the following is an element of the Global Positioning System?A. satellitesB. master control stationC. GPS receiverD. all of the above

____ 15. Including sea level, how many contour lines would be needed to show an island 125 feet high on a map with a contour interval of 20 feet?A. 5 C. 7 B. 6 D. 8____ 16. Depression contours are used to showA. craters of volcanoesB. mountain peaksC. level landD. none of the above

____ 17. A spot elevation of 1237 feet is shown on a topographic map. If the contour interval of the map is 20feet, what is the value of the first contour line below the spot elevation?A. 1200 feetB. 1217 feetC. 1220 feetD. 1230 feet

____ 18. Which landform is shown by many contour lines that are very close together?A. gentle slopeB. cliffC. lakeD. riverbed

____ 19. When a contour line crosses a river, it bends to form a pointA. in the direction of the river's source (where it started)B. in the direction the river is flowing (where it is going)C. in the direction of true northD. in the direction of the magnetic declination

Chapter 4 ~ Earth’s Motions

____ 1. Scientists think our solar system formedA. out of a great cloud of collapsing gas and dustB. during the collision of starsC. when the sun captured planets from other starsD. by the break-up of a large mass of solid material

____ 2. Earth's original surface is thought to have beenA. entirely underwaterB. cratered like the moonC. hidden by thick cloudsD. covered by green slime

____ 3. Approximately what percent of Earth's surface is covered with water?A. 10 percentB. 30 percentC. 50 percentD. 70 percent

____ 4. Which of the following best describes Earth's shape?A. slightly flattened at the equator and the polesB. slightly bulging at the equator and the polesC. slightly flattened at the equator and slightly bulging at the polesD. slightly flattened at the poles and slightly bulging at the equator

____ 5. Earth's imperfect shape is primarily a result ofA. magnetismB. its spinning motionC. the tidal pull of the moonD. its weight

____ 6. Which of the following is not thought to have been a source of heat when Earth first formed?A. compression by overlying materialsB. collisions with starsC. bombardment by meteoritesD. decay of radioactive isotopes

____ 7. What is the approximate temperature of Earth's inner core?A. 510KB. 2000KC. 6000KD. 40,000K

____ 8. Which of the following statements is false?A. Earth turns on its axis.B. Earth moves around the sun in a single plane.C. Earth moves around the sun in a circular path.D. Earth's axis is slightly tilted.

____ 9. Which of the following statements best explains why an object weighs less at the equator than at the poles?A. Earth's orbit is not a perfect circle.B. Earth's shape is not a perfect sphere.C. Earth's magnetic field is not constant.D. Earth's moon is not a constant distance away.

____ 10. Which of the following is not a direct result of Earth's rotation?A. Coriolis effectB. length of day

C. seasonsD. direction of sunrise

____ 11. Earth's greatest speed of rotation occurs at theA. equatorB. Tropic of CancerC. Arctic CircleD. North Pole

____ 12. The number of worldwide standard time zones isA. 12B. 15C. 24D. 30

____ 13. Travelers crossing the International Date Line change theirA. clock by one hourB. clock by 12 hoursC. calendar by 1 dayD. calendar by 1 week

____ 14. The approximate location of the International Date Line is theA. prime meridianB. 90th meridianC. equatorD. 180th meridian

____ 15. Which of the following provides evidence that Earth moves around the sun?A. Coriolis effect on the windsB. parallax of nearby starsC. location of PolarisD. direction of sunrise

____ 16. Earth is closest to the sun on or aboutA. January 2B. April 2C. July 2D. September 2

____ 17. Which of the following is not a cause of Earth's seasons?A. Earth's distance from the sunB. revolution of Earth around the sunC. tilt of Earth's axisD. all of the above

____ 18. The composition of Earth's inner core isA. solid iron and nickelB. solid iron onlyC. solid nickel onlyD. none of the above

19. What is located at letter.....A? __________________B? __________________C? __________________D? __________________

____ 20. Which of the following statements describes what occurs on an equinox?A. The Northern and Southern Hemispheres receive equal amounts of sunlight.B. The sun is directly overhead at noon at the equator.C. Daytime and nighttime are approximately equal in length.D. all of the above

Meteorology

1. The Earth’s atmosphere is 78% ____________ and 21% ______________.a. Oxygen, nitrogenb. Nitrogen, oxygen

2. When water falls to the Earth from a cloud, it is called ______________.a. Condensationb. Precipitation

3. Water is neither created nor destroyed.a. Trueb. False

4. Without photosynthetic plants producing oxygen, humans would not survive.a. Trueb. False

5. The Earth receives the most DIRECT sunlight at _________________. a. Noonb. 3 pmc.

6. The Earth’s surface is warmest around ______________________a. Noonb. 3pm

7. Humidity is the amount of _____________ in the air.a. Rainb. Water vapor

8. Precipitation only comes from the clouds.a. Trueb. False

9. When the atmosphere reaches it’s dew point, _______________ occurs.a. Evaporationb. Condensation

10. The ________side of a mountain receives rain, whereas the ____side of a mountain is a desert.

a. Leeward, windwardb. Windward, leeward

11. Local wind is the movement of air from ______________ to _____ pressure.a. High, lowb. Low, high

12. The Coriolis Effect causes global winds to be deflected to the _______.a. Eastb. West

13. During the day, you feel a ________ sea breeze. At night, you feel a __________ land breeze.

a. Warm, coolb. Cool, warm

14. Fronts are only connected to ____________pressure areas.a. Highb. Low

15. Fronts are only connected to ____________pressure areas.a. Highb. Low

16. The Fujita Scale measures the ________ of the tornado.a. Intensity (wind speed)b. Moisture level

17. _____________ changes daily whereas _____________changes maybe one degree per century.

a. Climate, weatherb. Weather, climate

18. Virginia’s climate can be described as ______________________.a. Coolb. Mild

19. An air mass has the same temperature and pressure throughout.a. Trueb. False

20. Warm, Stationary, Occluded or Cold Front?

1. _________________ 2. __________________3. ___________________ 4. __________________

Oceanography

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ASTRONOMY

PART A – The Moon____ 1. Based on the history of the moon, which solar system objects were apparently much more abundant 4 billion years ago than they are today?

A. large meteoroids

B. planets

C. large chunks of dust

D. astrophysicists

____ 2. Only one side of the moon faces Earth because

A. the moon does not rotate

B. the moon does not revolve

C. the moon rotates at the same rate it revolves

D. the moon if a falsehood - it doesn't exist

____ 3. Lunar soil, or regolith, is made up primarily of

A. loose rock materials

B. solid ice

C. loam

D. gases

____ 4. Early in the moon's life, its surface layers were melted by

A. heat from the dwarf planet, Pluto

B. frequent meteor impacts

C. gravitational pull from Jupiter

D. aluminum compounds

____ 5. When the moon is closest to Earth it is

A. at apogee

B. at perigee

C. waning

D. waxing

____ 6. The half of the moon that is lit by sunlight is

A. always visible from Earth

B. never visible from Earth

C. always facing the sun

D. the moon is never lit by sunlight. It glows due to radioactive compounds

____ 7. The moon goes through phases because

A. Earth and moon repel

B. Earth’s orbit crosses the moon

C. the moon rotates

D. the moon orbits Earth

____ 8. If you see a full moon one night, when would you expect to see the next full moon?

A. about two days later

B. about a week later

C. about two weeks later

D. about four weeks later (28 days later)

____ 9. Which of the following statements about the new moon is NOT true?

A. The sun does not light up any of its surface. The entire moon - both sides - is dark.

B. It rises and sets with the sun.

C. It occurs about two weeks after the full moon.

D. It occurs about one week after the third quarter moon.

____ 10. An solar eclipse occurs

A. never

B. when the moon passes in between the sun and earth

C. when the sun sets

D. when the sun rises

____ 11. During lunar eclipses, the moon usually does not go completely dark. It turns ..

A. a dusky red or copper color

B. teal green

C. a light blue color

D. fuchsia

12.

The diagram above shows Earth and the sun. Use the letters A & B to mark the position of the moon relative to Earth and the sun when it is in the following phases: full (A) new (B)

____ 13. You observe the moon for two nights in a row. On the second night, you notice the size of the dark region has decreased. The moon is

A. waxing

B. waning

C. eclipsed

D. collapsed

____ 14. Tides are highest when Earth is in line with

A. the moon

B. the sun

C. both the sun and moon

D. neither

15) The first manned-mission to land on

the moon was commanded by Neil

Armstrong and was called —

F Apollo 11 _

G Gemini 3

H Viking 2

J Mariner 7

16)

17)

18)Which of these are caused primarily by the gravitational force between Earth

and the Moon?

F Tides

G Seasons

H Prevailing winds

J Magnetic poles

19)A person weighs more on the Earth

than on the moon because the Earth

has a greater —

F density

G atmospheric pressure

H magnetic strength

J gravitational pull

20)What phase of the moon is day #14? _________________________

PART B – The Sun

____ 1. The visible surface of the sun is the

A. chromosphere

B. corona

C. mantle

D. photosphere

____ 2. From the surface of the sun to its center, the temperature can be assumed to

A. remain about the same

B. steadily increase

C. increase then decrease

D. steadily decrease

____ 3. Planetary orbits are

A. epicyclic

B. stationary

C. circular

D. elliptical

____ 4. The average distance from Earth to the sun is about

A. 150,000,000,000 km

B. 150,000,000 km

C. 150,000 km

D. 1500 km

____ 5. The astronomer credited with proposing that the sun is the center of the solar system is

A. Tycho Brahe

B. Nicolaus Copernicus

C. Isaac Newton

D. Albert Einstein

____ 6. The solar wind consists of a constant stream of

A. magnetic loops given off by sunspots

B. fast-moving molecules of water similar to those on Earth

C. fast-moving air molecules similar to those on Earth

D. electrically charged particles like protons and electrons

____ 7. In the geocentric model of the solar system Earth is

A. at the center

B. on an epicycle

C. on a deferent

D. in orbit around the sun

____ 8. When hydrogen nuclei fuse, four hydrogen nuclei become

A. a helium nucleus, releasing energy

B. a helium nucleus, absorbing energy

C. a proton, releasing energy

D. a proton, absorbing energy

____ 9. Who developed the universal law of gravitation?

A. Kepler

B. Ptolemy

C. Newton

D. Copernicus

____ 10. The force that keeps planets in orbit around the sun is

A. fusion

B. magnetism

C. electricity

D. gravity

11)

The sun emits energy by converting

hydrogen into helium. What is this

process called?

F Fusion _

G Fission

H Sunspot formation

J Solar wind

12)

Which layer of the sun is the most

dense?

F Chromosphere

G Photosphere

H Core _

J Corona

13)

Which layer of the sun is seen during a total solar eclipse?

F Chromosphere

G Photosphere

H Core

J Corona _

Part C – The Planets____ 1. Even though Venus is farther from the sun then Mercury, Venus's surface is hotter than Mercury's. This is because Venus

A. has a thick carbon dioxide atmosphere that traps the sun's heat

B. a very weak or non-existent magnetic field

C. has an extremely old crust with volcanic features

D. rotates from west to east instead of east to west

____ 2. The largest known volcano in the solar system is located on

A. Earth

B. Mars

C. Jupiter

D. Pluto

____ 3. Which of the following planets has the lowest density?

A. Mercury

B. Jupiter

C. Venus

D. Mars

____ 4. Which of the following is not a characteristic of a Jovian planet?

A. composed of light elements

B. low density

C. large size

D. rocky crust

____ 5. Which of the following planets have ring systems?

A. Saturn

B. Jupiter

C. Neptune

D. all of the above

____ 6. Oberon, Ariel, and Miranda are three of the five largest moons of

A. Jupiter

B. Mars

C. Uranus

D. Venus

____ 7. Saturn's moon Titan is unusual because

A. it is very small

B. it has a moon of its own

C. it has a very hot surface

D. it has a substantial atmosphere

____ 8. Comets spend most of their time

A. in orbit around Neptune

B. far beyond Neptune's orbit

C. in orbit around Earth

D. between Mars and Jupiter

____ 9. Halley's Comet returns to the inner solar system every

A. year

B. 7.6 years

C. 76 years

D. 760 years

____ 10. Meteor showers occur when Earth

A. passes through comet debris

B. enters the asteroid belt

C. approaches perihelion

D. approaches aphelion

____ 11. A rock fragment traveling in space is called a

A. meteor

B. meteorite

C. meteoroid

D. meteor shower

____ 12. One reason Mercury has more impact craters than Earth is because Mercury

A. has no atmosphere

B. is closer to the sun

C. rotates more rapidly

D. moves faster in its orbit

13. The diagram above shows the paths of Earth and a comet around the sun. The two paths occur within the same plane. Draw in arrows indicating the direction of the comet's tail at the points A, B, C, and D.

____ 14. The largest moon in the solar system is

A. Earth's moon

B. Uranus's moon Miranda

C. Jupiter's moon Ganymede

D. Jupiter's moon Europa

15)

Why does a comet’s tail point away from the Sun?

A The solar wind blows the tail away from the Sun.

B It is being pulled by a nearby black hole.

C The Moon’s light only shines on part of the comet.

D The comet’s tail is following the path of Jupiter.

16)

The numerous rocks orbiting the sun

between Jupiter and Mars are —

F comets

G asteroids _

H meteorites

J satellites

17) Which planet is often called “Earth’s win” because it is similar in mass and diameter to the Earth?

F Mars

G Mercury

H Venus _

J Pluto

18) Which of these planets has the smallest diameter and the greatest average

density?

F Neptune

G Jupiter

H Saturn

J Mercury

Part D – The Stars & Galaxies____ 1. Most stars are composed mainly of

A. iron and titanium

B. titanium and hydrogen

C. hydrogen and helium

D. helium and iron

____ 2. Two stars have the same temperature but are different sizes. Which of the following statements is true?

A. The larger star is brighter.

B. The smaller star is brighter.

C. The stars have the same brightness.

D. Their brightness cannot be compare without more data.

____ 3. The part of the spectrum that can be separated into rainbow-like colors is

A. X-rays

B. ultraviolet rays

C. visible light rays

D. infrared rays

____ 4. The Milky Way is an example of a(n)

A. spiral galaxy

B. elliptical galaxy

C. summer constellation

D. winter constellation

____ 5. In the next stage of its life cycle, the sun is expected to become a

A. red giant

B. red dwarf

C. supernova

D. black hole

____ 6. A light-year measures

A. time

B. distance

C. speed

D. energy

____ 7. If a star's spectral lines are shifted towards the red end of the spectrum, then the star is

A. moving towards Earth

B. moving away from Earth

C. moving at the same rate as Earth

D. none of the above

____ 8. Which of the following has the shortest wavelength?

A. X-rays

B. ultraviolet rays

C. visible light rays

D. infrared rays

____ 9. Red giants that lose their atmospheres leave faint, Earth-sized stars called

A. Cepheid variables

B. blue supergiants

C. white dwarfs

D. proton stars

____ 10. Which objects are listed in order of scale from smallest to largest?

A. sun, red giant, Earth, galaxy

B. red giant, sun, galaxy, Earth

C. Earth, sun, red giant, galaxy

D. galaxy, Earth, sun, red giant

____ 11. Some constellations can only be seen during certain seasons because

A. the moon revolves around Earth

B. Earth's axis is tilted

C. Earth revolves around the sun

D. the stars move around the sun

12)Which of these measurements allows scientists to compare the brightness of stars?

A Absolute magnitude

B Critical density

C Orbital velocity

D Red shift

13) Which image below best represents our galaxy?

14) A light-year measures —

F brightness

G distance _

H radiation

J time

15)What element is the main component of most stars?

A Nitrogen

B Iron

C Hydrogen _

D Oxygen

16) Which of these facts is the best

supporting evidence that the universe is expanding?

A The stars vary in chemical composition.

B The galaxies are moving away from

each other. _

C The galaxies can spin to form eddies.

D The universe is filled with galaxies of

different sizes.

17) Parallax can be used to measure a

star’s —

F distance from Earth _

G atmospheric temperature

H gravitational strength

J surface composition

18)A star might be much brighter than it appears to be. This is called the star’s absolute magnitude. The difference in apparent magnitude and absolutemagnitude is due primarily to the star’s —

A surface temperature

B motion through the universe

C diameter

D distance from the Earth

19)

The pictures show the same stars at

different times. Which hypothesis is

best supported by these data?

A The stars are moving toward one

another.

B The three stars are moving very fast.

C One star is moving around another star. _

D The biggest star is closest to the Earth.

20)

Which of the above evolutionary stages of a massive star is called a supernova?

F 1

G 2

H 3

J 4

Minerals

____ 1. Which of the following characteristics is the easiest to identify but is the least useful in identifying a mineral?

A. cleavage

B. specific gravity

C. color

D. streak

____ 2. Which of the following mineral properties includes the descriptions conchoidal, splintery, and irregular?

A. cleavage

B. streak

C. fracture

D. luster

____ 3. Gold and diamond are not generally classified as rock-forming minerals because

A. neither is a silicate

B. neither is common

C. neither occurs in granite

D. neither bubbles when exposed to acid

____ 4. Most minerals are

A. isotopes

B. elements

C. compounds

D. mixtures

____ 5. Which of the following is not a physical characteristic determined by the arrangement of the atoms within a mineral?

A. streak

B. hardness

C. crystal shape

D. cleavage

____ 6. Silicates always contain

A. aluminum

B. oxygen

C. quartz

D. iron

____ 7. An example of a native mineral is

A. halite

B. ice

C. oxygen

D. copper

____ 8. Which of the following does not describe a characteristic of a mineral?

A. It is a mixture.

B. It occurs naturally.

C. It is solid.

D. It has a definite composition.

____ 9. The mineral calcite is a combination of calcium, carbon, and oxygen. Calcite is an example of a(n)

A. an element

B. a compound

C. an ion

D. a mixture

____ 10. Which is the most probable reason for the difference between the properties of diamonds and graphite?

A. Diamond is a silicate; graphite is composed of carbon.

B. Diamond has weaker bonds; graphite has stronger bonds.

C. Diamond and graphite are different structural forms of carbon.

D. Diamond and graphite are different structural forms of silica.

More Minerals Review

1)In the gold rush of 1849, prospectors found a yellow mineral that appeared to be gold, but was harder and more brittle than gold. What is this mineral that came to be called “fool’s gold”?

A Calcite

B Copper

C Sulfur

D Pyrite

2)The streak test that is used to identify minerals involves studying the —

F mineral’s crystals with a microscope

G heated mineral’s color as it cools

H appearance of the mineral under fluorescent light

J color of the powdered form of the mineral

3)Which mineral is easily identified by smell?

F Galena

G Pyrite

H Quartz

J Sulfur

4)Which of these mineral properties

cannot be used to identify a mineral?

F Luster

G Hardness

H Mass _

J Streak

5)

The diagram shows a test for which mineral property?

A Hardness

B Cleavage

C Luster

D Streak

6)

According to Mohs Hardness Scale,

which of these groups of minerals can scratch fluorite?

F Talc, gypsum, and calcite

G Calcite, quartz, and topaz

H Apatite, orthoclase, and corundum _

J Diamond, gypsum, and quartz

7)

The chart shows the Mohs scale for

measuring the hardness of minerals. A mineral that can scratch fluorite and can be scratched by orthoclase is able to —

A scratch both calcite and quartz

B be scratched by both calcite and quartz

C scratch calcite and be scratched by

quartz _

D scratch quartz and be scratched by

Calcite

8)Cyanite (Al2SiO5), quartz (SiO2), and leucite (KAlSi2O6) may be grouped together because they all contain —

F aluminum

G carbon

H potassium

J silicon

9)What property is shared by many

gemstones, such as diamonds, rubies,

sapphires, emeralds, and topaz?

A Extreme hardness _

B High specific gravity

C Carbon as the primary element

D Ductility

10)Which of the following minerals, when in the form of sand, can be used to manufacture glass?

A Gypsum

B Diamond

C Calcite

D Quartz

11)Which of the following minerals, when in the form of sand, can be used to manufacture glass?

A Gypsum

B Diamond

C Calcite

D Quartz

12)

Which of the following properties

refers to the colored powder resulting

from rubbing a mineral against a

harder surface?

F Hardness

G Luster

H Cleavage

J Streak _

13)

13)

The mineral in the above table that

has a blue color and will scratch

garnet is —

A pyrite

B garnet

C magnetite

D topaz _

14) Which of the following minerals found

in the northern Piedmont province is

known as “fool’s gold”?

A Pyrite _

B Hematite

C Galena

D Limonite

15)

Which conclusion can be made based

on the information in the chart?

F Quartz is harder than topaz.

G Calcite is harder than apatite.

H Fluorite is harder than feldspar.

J Gypsum is harder than talc.

16)

These minerals may be grouped together

because they all have —

F the same crystal systems

G constant density values

H shiny streaks

J the oxygen ion

17)

Using this procedure, what property of

a mineral can be found?

A Crystal arrangement

B Specific gravity _

C Brittleness

D Fracture

18) Each mineral has a unique crystal

shape because of the —

A arrangement of its atoms _

B hardness being between 1 and 10

C streak being constant

D variations in its color

19) Glass is chemically related to what

mineral?

F Fluorite

G Quartz _

H Pyrite

J Halite