JUN - 36219/II—A

Time Allowed : 2 Hours] [Maximum Marks : 200

Number of Pages in this Booklet : 48 Number of Questions in this Booklet : 100

Signature and Name of Invigilator

1. (Signature) .........................................

(Name) ................................................

2. (Signature) .........................................

(Name) ................................................

Seat No.

(In figures as in Admit Card)

Seat No. ..............................................................

(In words)

OMR Sheet No.

(To be filled by the Candidate)

GEOGRAPHY

JUN - 36219

A

Instructions for the Candidates1. Write your Seat No. and OMR Sheet No. in the space provided

on the top of this page.2. This paper consists of 100 objective type questions. Each question

will carry two marks. All questions of Paper II will be compulsory.3. At the commencement of examination, the question booklet

will be given to the student. In the first 5 minutes, you arerequested to open the booklet and compulsorily examine it asfollows :(i) To have access to the Question Booklet, tear off the

paper seal on the edge of this cover page. Do not accepta booklet without sticker-seal or open booklet.

(ii) Tally the number of pages and number of questions inthe booklet with the information printed on the coverpage. Faulty booklets due to missing pages/questionsor questions repeated or not in serial order or anyother discrepancy should not be accepted and correctbooklet should be obtained from the invigilator withinthe period of 5 minutes. Afterwards, neither the QuestionBooklet will be replaced nor any extra time will begiven. The same may please be noted.

(iii) After this verification is over, the OMR Sheet Numbershould be entered on this Test Booklet.

4. Each question has four alternative responses marked (A), (B),(C) and (D). You have to darken the circle as indicated below onthe correct response against each item.Example : where (C) is the correct response.

5. Your responses to the items are to be indicated in the OMR

Sheet given inside the Booklet only. If you mark at any place

other than in the circle in the OMR Sheet, it will not be evaluated.

6. Read instructions given inside carefully.

7. Rough Work is to be done at the end of this booklet.

8. If you write your Name, Seat Number, Phone Number or put

any mark on any part of the OMR Sheet, except for the space

allotted for the relevant entries, which may disclose your

identity, or use abusive language or employ any other unfair

means, you will render yourself liable to disqualification.

9. You have to return original OMR Sheet to the invigilator at the

end of the examination compulsorily and must not carry it with

you outside the Examination Hall. You are, however, allowed

to carry the Test Booklet and duplicate copy of OMR Sheet on

conclusion of examination.

10. Use only Blue/Black Ball point pen.

11. Use of any calculator or log table, etc., is prohibited.

12. There is no negative marking for incorrect answers.

A B D

1.

2.

3.

(i)

(ii)

(iii)

4. (A), (B), (C) (D)

(C)

5.

6.

7.

8.

9.

10.

11.

12.

A B D

Test Booklet Code & Serial No.

2

JUN - 36219/II—A

3 [P.T.O.

JUN - 36219/II—A

1. ................... has popularized the

concept of ‘Uniformitarianism’ in a

book ‘Principles of Geology’ (1830).

(A) James Hutton

(B) C. Lyell

(C) W. Penck

(D) A. Wegner

2. The feature ‘Scroll Lake’ is related

to .................

(A) Playa

(B) Karstic

(C) Glacial melt

(D) Riverine

3. ‘Paternoster Lake’ is a .....................

feature.

(A) Riverine

(B) Aeolian

(C) Karstic

(D) Glacial

GeographyPaper II

IITime Allowed : 120 Minutes] [Maximum Marks : 200

Note : This paper contains Hundred (100) multiple choice questions. Each questioncarrying Two (2) marks. Attempt All questions.

(100) (2)

1. ...................

(1830)

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

2.

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

3.

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

4

JUN - 36219/II—A

4. Ventifacts are cut and sometimes

polished by ................ action of wind.

(A) Abrasive

(B) Deflation

(C) Attrition

(D) Corrosion

5. Match List-I and List-II and select

the correct answer using the codes

given below :

List I

(Theories/Hypothesis)

(a) Geosynclinal theory

(b) Tetrahedral Hypothesis

(c) Stationary wave theory

(d) Subsidence theory

List II

(Related Aspects)

(1) Origin of tides

(2) Origin of coral reef and atolls

(3) Mountain building

(4) Origin of continents and ocean

basins

Codes :

(a) (b) (c) (d)

(A) (3) (4) (2) (1)

(B) (4) (3) (2) (1)

(C) (3) (4) (1) (2)

(D) (4) (3) (1) (2)

4.

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

5. I II

I

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

II

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

(a) (b) (c) (d)

(A) (3) (4) (2) (1)

(B) (4) (3) (2) (1)

(C) (3) (4) (1) (2)

(D) (4) (3) (1) (2)

5 [P.T.O.

JUN - 36219/II—A

6. According to Strahlen’s stream

ordering when a stream of 2nd order

joins 3rd order stream, the order of

higher order stream will ...........

(A) Increase

(B) Decrease

(C) Remain same

(D) Be added

7. The river with meagre source of

water that is left after the river

capture is known as ...........

(A) Rejuvenated River

(B) Captured River

(C) Captor River

(D) Misfit River

8. Which of the following factors

influence the type and rate of

weathering ?

(1) Soil

(2) Climate

(3) Vegetation cover

(4) Rock structure

(5) Topography

(A) (1), (2), (3) and (4)

(B) (2), (3), (4) and (5)

(C) (1), (2), (3) and (5)

(D) (1), (2), (4) and (5)

6.

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

7.

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

8.

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

(5)

(A) (1), (2), (3) (4)

(B) (2), (3), (4) (5)

(C) (1), (2), (3) (5)

(D) (1), (2), (4) (5)

6

JUN - 36219/II—A

9. Which one of the following groups

is the product of erosion ?

(A) Drumlins, Moraines, Aretes

(B) U-shaped valleys, Ventifacts,

Natural Levee

(C) Eskers, Fjords, Outwash plain

(D) Cirques, V-shaped valleys,

Demoiselles

10. Assertion (A) : Deflation basins are

erosional features and may be upto

several kilometers in diameter.

Reason (R) : Removal of sand

particles by the wind is a cause of

Deflation basin formation.

Which one of the following is

correct ?

(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and

(R) is the correct explanation

of (A)

(B) Both (A) and (R) are true and

(R) is not the correct

explanation of (A)

(C) (A) is true but (R) is false

(D) (A) is false but (R) is true

9.

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

10. (A) :

(R) :

(A) (A) (R) (R)

(A)

(B) (A) (R) (R)

(A)

(C) (A) (R)

(D) (A) (R)

7 [P.T.O.

JUN - 36219/II—A

11. The temperature at which air needs

to be cooled to reach saturation

is ..................

(A) Dew-point temperature

(B) Dry bulb temperature

(C) Wet bulb temperature

(D) Boiling point temperature

12. Arrange the following in terms of

decreasing albedo :

(1) Fresh show

(2) Pine forest

(3) Glacier ice

(4) Loamy soil

(A) (1), (3), (4), (2)

(B) (1), (3), (2), (4)

(C) (3), (1), (2), (4)

(D) (3), (1), (4), (2)

11.

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

12.

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

(A) (1), (3), (4), (2)

(B) (1), (3), (2), (4)

(C) (3), (1), (2), (4)

(D) (3), (1), (4), (2)

8

JUN - 36219/II—A

13. Assertion (A) : At midnight, net

radiation is negative.

Reason (R) : In the afternoon, net

radiation decreases as insolation

decreases.

Select your answer from the codes

given below :


(R) is proper explanation of (A)

(B) Both (A) and (R) are true but

(R) is not the correct explana-

tion of (A)



14. The branch of climatology which

analyzes proxy data to reconstruct

past climate is named as ..............

(A) Synoptic climatology

(B) Dynamic climatology

(C) Paleoclimatology

(D) Regional climatology

15. These clouds are high, white and

thin :

(A) Cirrus

(B) Stratus

(C) Cumulus

(D) Stratocumulus

13. (A) :

(R) :

(A) (A) (R)

(R) (A)

(B) (A) (R) (R)

(A)

(C) (A) (R)

(D) (A) (R)

14.

(A) (Synoptic)

(B)

(C)

(D)

15.

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

9 [P.T.O.

JUN - 36219/II—A

16. The alphabetical symbol (List-I) in

Köppens climate classification and

their matching climate type (List-II)

are given.

Match List-I and List-II and select

the correct answer from the codes

given below :

List I

(a) Am

(b) BSh

(c) ET

(d) CWb

List II

(1) Tundra climate

(2) Hot semi-arid climate

(3) Tropical monsoon climate

(4) Subtropical highland climate

Codes :

(a) (b) (c) (d)

(A) (2) (3) (4) (1)

(B) (3) (2) (1) (4)

(C) (3) (4) (1) (2)

(D) (2) (3) (1) (4)

16.

I

II

-I -II

I

(a) Am

(b) BSh

(c) ET

(d) CWb

II

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

(a) (b) (c) (d)

(A) (2) (3) (4) (1)

(B) (3) (2) (1) (4)

(C) (3) (4) (1) (2)

(D) (2) (3) (1) (4)

10

JUN - 36219/II—A

17. Why is surface air temperature

measured at a standard height of 1.5

meters ?

(A) The winds are lighter at this

level

(B) By international law

(C) To ensure an accurate reading

insulated from surface effects

(D) To allow the observe to read the

temperature at eye level

without stooping

18. Which statement is incorrect

regarding the Coriolis force ?

(A) It is always directed at right

angle to the direction of wind

(B) It deflects winds to the right in

northern hemisphere and to the

left in southern hemisphere

(C) It directly affects wind speed

(D) It is strongest at the poles and

weakens equatorwards

17. 1.5

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

18.

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

11 [P.T.O.

JUN - 36219/II—A

19. Important characteristic of

atmospheric layers (List-I) and

atmospheric layers (List-II) are

given. Match List-I and List-II and

select the correct answer from the

codes given below :

List I

(a) Reflects radio waves back to

earth

(b) Fall in temperature stops

(c) Temperature falls with height

(d) Contains most of ozone

List II

(1) Stratosphere

(2) Troposphere

(3) Ionosphere

(4) Tropopause

Codes :

(a) (b) (c) (d)

(A) (1) (4) (2) (3)

(B) (3) (1) (4) (2)

(C) (1) (3) (2) (4)

(D) (3) (4) (2) (1)

20. Assertion (A) : The Siberian

climate is conspicuosly absent in the

southern hemisphere.

Reason (R) : The southern

continents are marked by the

broadness in the high latitudes.

Select your answer from the codes

given below :


(R) is proper explanation of (A)



explanation of (A)



19. I

II

I II

I

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

II

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

(a) (b) (c) (d)

(A) (1) (4) (2) (3)(B) (3) (1) (4) (2)

(C) (1) (3) (2) (4)

(D) (3) (4) (2) (1)

20. (A) :

(R) :

(A) (A) (R)

(R) (A)

(B) (A) (R) (R)

(A)

(C) (A) (R)

(D) (A) (R)

12

JUN - 36219/II—A

21. As per the J. Tuzo Wilson’s concept

of ocean basins, ............. is at juvenile

stage.

(A) Red Sea

(B) Arabian Sea

(C) South China Sea

(D) Dead Sea

22. Assertion (A) : Ocean currents are

seasonal or permanent unified

movement of ocean water.

Reason (R) : Ocean currents are

driven mainly by seasonal winds.

Select the correct answer from the

following :


(R) explains (A)


(R) does not explain (A)

(C) (A) is true and (R) is false

(D) (A) is false and (R) is true

23. Which one of the following solute is

major component by weight in sea

water ?

(A) Magnesium chloride

(B) Sodium sulphate

(C) Calcium carbonate

(D) Sodium chloride

21.

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

22. (A) :

(R) :

(A) (A) (R)

(R) (A)

(B) (A) (R)

(R) (A)

(C) (A) (R)

(D) (A) (R)

23.

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

13 [P.T.O.

JUN - 36219/II—A

24. ................. deposits are found between

the high and low water spring tide

lines.

(A) Littoral

(B) Shallow water

(C) Bathyal

(D) Abyssal

25. Consider the following statement(s)

related to the ocean acidification.

(I) It is a term used to describe the

changes in the chemistry of the

World’s seas, primarily as a

result of burning fossil fuels.

(II) The CO2 in the water, which

leads to the formation of

carbonic acid, has caused the pH

of surface oceans to fall by 0.1

units, and it is projected to fall

a further 0.3 – 0.4 pH units by

the end of the century.

Select the correct code :

(A) Only (I)

(B) Only (II)

(C) Both (I) and (II)

(D) Neither (I) nor (II)

24.

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

25.

(I)

(II)

0.1

0.3 – 0.4

(A) (I)

(B) (II)

(C) (I) (II)

(D) (I) (II)

14

JUN - 36219/II—A

26. In deep sea, more regular waves

with rounded wave crests are called

............... waves.

(A) Seiches

(B) Swell

(C) Clapotis

(D) Tidal

27. Assertion (A) : Salinity of the

ocean water is not same everywhere.

Reason (R) : Salinity of the ocean

surface is exclusively controlled by

temperature.

Select the correct code from the

following codes :

Codes :

(A) (A) is true but (R) is false


(R) is not the correct reason

(C) Both (A) and (R) are true

(D) Both (A) and (R) are false

28. Generally seamounts are having

relief .................... meters above

reference surface.

(A) 300-500

(B) 500-700

(C) 700-900

(D) > 900

26.

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

27. (A) :

(R) :

(A) (A) (R)

(B) (A) (R)

(R)

(C) (A) (R)

(D) (A) (R)

28.

(A) 300-500

(B) 500-700

(C) 700-900

(D) > 900

15 [P.T.O.

JUN - 36219/II—A

29.

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

30.

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

(1)

(2) 3000 5000

(3)

(4)

(a) (b) (c) (d)

(A) (2) (3) (1) (4)

(B) (1) (4) (2) (3)

(C) (3) (4) (2) (1)

(D) (4) (3) (2) (1)

29. The oceanic crusts are mainly

composed of ................... type of

rock.

(A) Andesite

(B) Granite

(C) Basalt

(D) Mud

30. Match the following :

Ocean bottom configuration

(a) continental shelf

(b) continental slope

(c) ocean deeps

(d) deep sea plains

Characteristics :

(1) Covers two-third part of the

ocean floor.

(2) Depths between 3000 and 5000

fathoms

(3) Off broad low land coasts

(4) Abrupt change of gradient

(a) (b) (c) (d)

(A) (2) (3) (1) (4)

(B) (1) (4) (2) (3)

(C) (3) (4) (2) (1)

(D) (4) (3) (2) (1)

16

JUN - 36219/II—A

31. Endangered species are those which

have lost ................. % of its

population.

(A) 50

(B) 60

(C) 65

(D) 70

32. Some parts in urban areas tend to

be warmer than their surroundings

is known as .............

(A) Lapse rate

(B) The venturi effect

(C) Urban Canopy layer effect

(D) Urban heat island effect

33. The complexity of any food web does

not depend upon the ...............

(A) Diversity of organisms in the

systems

(B) Length of the food chain

(C) Homogeneity of organisms in

the systems

(D) Alternatives at different points

of consumers in the chain

31.

%

(A) 50

(B) 60

(C) 65

(D) 70

32.

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

33.

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

17 [P.T.O.

JUN - 36219/II—A

34. The amount of plankton to be found

in the ocean is not determined

by .................

(A) Depth of the water

(B) The ocean currents

(C) Temperature and salinity

(D) Length of the day and night

35. It was emphasised by India that

‘The removal of poverty is an

integral part of the goal of an

environmental strategy for the world

in ...........

(A) U.N. Conference on Human

Environment at Stockholm,

1972

(B) The Vienna Convention for the

Protection of the Ozone Layer,

1985

(C) Preparatory Committee

Meeting, Geneva, 1991

(D) U.N. Conference on Environ-

ment and Development, Nairobi,

1992

34.

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

35.

(A)

1972

(B)

1985

(C) 1991

(D)

1992

18

JUN - 36219/II—A

36. Study dealing with the relation of

individual species to its environment

is known as ...............

(A) Synecology

(B) Autecology

(C) Community ecology

(D) Population ecology

37. Match the List-I and List-II and

select the correct answer from the

codes given below :

List I

(a) Carbon dioxide

(b) Methane

(c) Nitrous oxide

(d) CFC

List II

(1) Fertilizers

(2) Fossil fuels

(3) Paddy fields

(4) Liquid coolants

Codes :

(a) (b) (c) (d)

(A) (3) (2) (4) (1)

(B) (2) (1) (3) (4)

(C) (3) (4) (2) (1)

(D) (2) (3) (1) (4)

36.

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

37. -I II

I

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

II

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

(a) (b) (c) (d)

(A) (3) (2) (4) (1)

(B) (2) (1) (3) (4)

(C) (3) (4) (2) (1)

(D) (2) (3) (1) (4)

19 [P.T.O.

JUN - 36219/II—A

38. Ramsar Convention’ is mainly

known as the convention of ..............

(A) Wetlands of International

importance

(B) Hilly Forests of National

Significance

(C) The law of the seas

(D) Hazard waste management

39. Deep ecology does not support :

(A) Continuing inquiry into the

appropriate human roles on our

planet

(B) Root cause analysis of

unsustainable practices

(C) Enhancement of human

consumption

(D) Conservation and restoration of

ecosystems

40. Assertion (A) : One of the main

objectives of the Central Pollution

Control Board (CPCB) is to

coordinate the activities of State

Pollution Control Boards and resolve

the dispute among them.

Reason (R) : The CPCB is the

international board and has a

central office as well as a network

of zonal offices located in various

places in the world.

Which one of the following is

correct ?



of (A)



explanation of (A)



38.

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

39.

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

40. (A) :

(R) :

(A) (A) (R) (R)

(A)

(B) (A) (R) (R)

(A)

(C) (A) (R)

(D) (A) (R)

20

JUN - 36219/II—A

41. Arrange the following stages in the

history of demographic transition in

sequence using codes given :

(1) Low birth and death rates

(2) Decline in both birth and death

rates

(3) High birth and death rates

(4) Decline in death rates while

birth rates remain high

(A) (3), (4), (2), (1)

(B) (3), (2), (1), (4)

(C) (1), (2), (4), (3)

(D) (1), (3), (4), (2)

42. Consider the following statements

and select the correct option from the

codes given :

(1) A primate city is usually a

disproportionately large city.

(2) A primate city is the one that

is invariably a religious centre

(3) A primate city is exceptionally

large compared to the second

largest city

(4) India has primate cities.

Codes :

(A) (1), (2) and (3) are true

(B) (1), (3) and (4) are true

(C) Only (3) is true

(D) Only (1) is true

41.

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

(A) (3), (4), (2), (1)

(B) (3), (2), (1), (4)

(C) (1), (2), (4), (3)

(D) (1), (3), (4), (2)

42.

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

(A) (1), (2) (3)

(B) (1), (3) (4)

(C) (3)

(D) (1)

21 [P.T.O.

JUN - 36219/II—A

43. Which of the following factors does

not alter the total size of the

population of a country ?

(A) External migration

(B) Internal migration

(C) Higher fertility compared to

mortality

(D) Refugee migration across the

border

44. Which is the most densely populated

regions of the world ?

(A) Equatorial region

(B) Tropical region

(C) Temperate region

(D) Sub-Arctic region

43.

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

44.

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

22

JUN - 36219/II—A

45. Match the following and select the

correct answer from the codes given

below :

List I

(Types of Age Pyramids)

(a) Stationary

(b) Progressive

(c) Regressive

(d) Bell shaped

List II

(Characteristics)

(1) Low birth and death rates

(2) Unchanging fertility and

mortality

(3) High birth and death rates

(4) Declining birth rate and low

mortality rate

Codes :

(a) (b) (c) (d)

(A) (3) (2) (1) (4)

(B) (2) (4) (3) (1)

(C) (1) (3) (2) (4)

(D) (2) (3) (4) (1)

45.

I

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

II

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

(a) (b) (c) (d)

(A) (3) (2) (1) (4)

(B) (2) (4) (3) (1)

(C) (1) (3) (2) (4)

(D) (2) (3) (4) (1)

23 [P.T.O.

JUN - 36219/II—A

46. Assertion (A) : High birth rates

display large proportion of

population in younger age groups.

Reason (R) : Industrialization has

been a factor in bringing down

fertility rate.

Codes :



of (A)

(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but


explanation of (A)



47. Which is a small settlement usually

characterized by a single economic

activity ?

(A) Hamlet

(B) Village

(C) Rurban Centre

(D) Urban fringe village

46. (A) :

(R) :

(A) (A) (R) (R)

(A)

(B) (A) (R) (R)

(A)

(C) (A) (R)

(D) (A) (R)

47.

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

24

JUN - 36219/II—A

48. Physiological/Nutritional density is

calculated as :

(A) Number of people per square

unit of land

(B) Number of people per square

unit of farm land

(C) Number of farmers per unit of

farm land

(D) Physical carrying capacity of

land

49. A bulge in population pyramid

indicates :

(A) Unusually high fertility or

mortality or changes in

population due to effects of

migration

(B) The effects of war or famines

(C) That the population is ageing

at an unusually fast pace

(D) That females join the workforce

in large numbers

50. Ageing at the base occurs ............

(A) When the proportion of the

population in child-age groups

remains constant due to fertility

decline

(B) When child mortality rate

shows distinct decline

(C) When fertility declines and new

birth cohorts are smaller than

previous ones

(D) When great fluctuation is seen

in successive age cohorts

48.

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

49.

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

50.

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

25 [P.T.O.

JUN - 36219/II—A

51. Which cost is incurred in the process

of moving and which are principally

made up of fuel costs and wages ?

(A) Overheads cost

(B) Transfer cost

(C) Line-haul cost

(D) Comparative cost

52. Which of the following is the correct

sequence about the wind-energy

producing countries of the world in

descending order ?

(A) Germany, Spain, USA, India

(B) Spain, China, Canada, India

(C) USA, Australia, Spain, India

(D) India, Spain, USA, Germany

53. Alfred Weber identified three factors

that determine the location of

industries :

Transportation, Labour Costs and

...............

(A) Least cost

(B) Agglomeration

(C) Location of competitors

(D) Maximum revenue location

51.

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

52.

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

53.

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

26

JUN - 36219/II—A

54. Which of the following countries,

whose economy is entirely dependent

on the production of petroleum ?

(A) Kuwait

(B) Venezuela

(C) Iraq

(D) Iran

55. Which of the following statements

is not correct about Nomadic

herding ?

(A) It is a form of intensive

subsistence agriculture

involving the grazing of

domesticated animals on

natural pastures

(B) It is practised in large belt of

arid and semi-arid lands

(C) It is an aboriginal form of

livestock raising

(D) Nomads select the type and

number of animals for the herd

according to local, cultural and

physical characteristics

56. The Union and Pacific Railway

connects :

(A) New York to San Francisco

(B) Halifax to Vancouver

(C) Paris to Istanbul

(D) Perth to Darwin

54.

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

55.

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

56.

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

27 [P.T.O.

JUN - 36219/II—A


is/are not correct ?

(a) V. Nath divided India into 15

macro regions

(b) Ashok Mitra divided India into

5 macro regions

(c) Prakash Rao and L.S. Bhatt

divided the country into 7

macro regions

(d) Chandrashekhar divided India

into 13 macro regions

(A) (a) and (d)

(B) (b) and (c)

(C) (a) only

(D) (d) only

58. Select your answer from the codes

given below :

Assertion (A) : Balance of trade

records the volume of goods and

services imported as well as exported

by a country to other countries.

Reason (R) : If the value of exports

is more than the value of imports,

the country has a negative balance

of trade.

Codes :



of (A)

(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but


explanation of (A)



57.

(a) 15

(b) 5

(c)

7

(d) 13

(A) (a) (d)

(B) (b) (c)

(C) (a)

(D) (d)

58. (A) :

(R) :

(A) (A) (R)

(R) (A)

(B) (A) (R) (R)

(A)

(C) (A) (R)

(D) (A) (R)

28

JUN - 36219/II—A


about Von Thunen’s theory is not

correct ?

(A) According to Thunen’s model

concentric ring-I has market

gardening and milk production

(B) Thunen’s models concentric

ring-II has firewood and lumber

production

(C) Thunen’s model concentric ring-

III has livestock farming

(D) Thunen’s model concentric ring-

IV has food crop farming with

fallow land

60. In year 2016, which one of the

following has the higher rank in

Human Development Index ?

(A) Sri Lanka

(B) Bhutan

(C) India

(D) Bangladesh

59.

(A) -I

(B) -II

(C) -III

(D) -IV

60. 2016

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

29 [P.T.O.

JUN - 36219/II—A

61. Assertion (A) : Tribal people in

India are generally concentrated in

relatively inaccessible parts of the

country.

Reason (R) : All the tribal people

in India practice shifting cultivation

Which of the following is correct ?

Codes :



of (A)



explanation of (A)


(D) (A) is false but (R) is correct

62. The National Health Policy (updated

in 2017) focuses on which of the

following ?

(a) Growing burden of the non-

communicable diseases.

(b) Emergence of robust healthcare industry

(c) Growing incidences of catastro-

phic expenditure due to health

care costs.

Codes :

(A) (a) and (b)

(B) (a) and (c)

(C) (b) and (c)

(D) (a), (b) and (c)

61. (A) :

(R) :

(A) (A) (R) (R)

(A)

(B) (A) (R) (R)

(A)

(C) (A) (R)

(D) (A) (R)

62. 2017

(a)

(b)

(c)

(A) (a) (b)

(B) (a) (c)

(C) (b) (c)

(D) (a), (b) (c)

30

JUN - 36219/II—A

63. Select the correct option(s) for the

statement from the codes given

below :

A region is more diverse culturally

if it :

(a) has homogeneous population

composition

(b) has heterogeneous population

composition.

(c) receives voluminous in

migration.

(d) is geographically isolated.

Codes :

(A) Only (a) and (b)

(B) Only (b)

(C) Only (b) and (c)

(D) Only (c) and (d)

64. Which boundaries result when a

smaller state is absorbed by a larger

one ?

(A) Relict

(B) Superimposed

(C) Subsequent

(D) Antecedent

63.

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

(A) (a) (b)

(B) (b)

(C) (b) (c)

(D) (c) (d)

64.

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

31 [P.T.O.

JUN - 36219/II—A

65. Who has divided the globe into

Geostrategic realms ?

(A) Bassin

(B) Cohen

(C) Kjellen

(D) Parker

66. Harlan Barrows in the 1940s, for the

first time proposed which term that

encompasses the study of

how human responses to the

environment reflect the specific

composition of the culture group

involved ?

(A) Cultural Geography

(B) Cultural Ecology

(C) Cultural integration

(D) Cutlural diffusion

67. Which of the following is a rich

source of data on the caste Hindu

Population ?

(A) 1921 Census

(B) 1931 Census

(C) 1941 Census

(D) 1951 Census

65.

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

66. 1940

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

67.

(A) 1921

(B) 1931

(C) 1941

(D) 1951

32

JUN - 36219/II—A

68. Santhals are predominantly found

in which part of India ?

(A) Northern

(B) Eastern

(C) Southern

(D) North-Western

69. The presence of Baruhi, Kurukh-

Oraon and Gondi dialects in North

India suggests the earlier stage of

destruction of which family of

languages ?

(A) Austro-Asiatic

(B) Dravidian

(C) Sino Tibetan

(D) Indo-European

70. Which is not a characteristic of

culture ?

(A) Culture is hereditary

(B) Culture is dynamic

(C) Culture is adaptive

(D) Culture is symbolic

68.

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

69.

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

70.

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

33 [P.T.O.

JUN - 36219/II—A

71. Assertion (A) : Ritter’s concept of

organic unity in nature was based

on the principles of divine creation.

Reason (R) : Ritter was teleological

in his approach.

Codes :



of (A)


(R) is not the correct explanation

of (A)

(C) Both (A) and (R) are false

(D) (A) is true and (R) is false

72. Which of the following is not correct

with reference to post-modernism in

geography ?

(A) Scepticism towards grand

claims

(B) Rejection of Metanarratives or

grand theory

(C) Deconstruction as a mode of

critical interpretation

(D) Use of binary classification

71. (A) :

(R) :

(A) (A) (R) (R)

(A)

(B) (A) (R) (R)

(A)

(C) (A) (R)

(D) (A) (R)

72.

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

34

JUN - 36219/II—A

73. Which of the four geographers are

credited for having re-established

geography as an integrated

science ?

(A) Elisee Reclus, Ferdinand Von

Richthofen Alfred Hettner and

Vidal-de-la-Blache

(B) Friedrich Ratzel, Arnold Guyot,

Alfred Hettner and Vidal-de-la-

Blache

(C) Friedrich Ratzel, Ferdinand

Von Richthofen, Alfred Hettner

and Vidal-de-la-Blache

(D) Friedrich Ratzel, Ferdinand,

Von Richthofen, Alfred Hettner

and Otto Schluter

74. Arrange the following philosophers

in ascending order starting from

their periods :

(i) Eratosthenes

(ii) Thales

(iii) Aristotle

(iv) Herodotus

(A) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)

(B) (ii) (i) (iv) (iii)

(C) (ii) (iv) (iii) (i)

(D) (iv) (ii) (i) (iii)

73.

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

74.

(i)

(ii)

(iii)

(iv)

(A) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)

(B) (ii) (i) (iv) (iii)

(C) (ii) (iv) (iii) (i)

(D) (iv) (ii) (i) (iii)

35 [P.T.O.

JUN - 36219/II—A

75. Which of the following refers to the

belief that geography and history

are methodologically distinct from

other systematic sciences because

they are peculiarly concerned with

the study of the unique and the

particular ?

(A) Positivism

(B) Humanism

(C) Radicalism

(D) Exceptionalism

76. In reaction to whose work,

Hartshorne wrote several articles

and finally the book, ‘‘Perspective on

the Nature of Geography’’ ?

(A) Ackerman

(B) Haggett

(C) Sauer

(D) Schaefer

75.

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

76.

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

36

JUN - 36219/II—A

77. Which one of the following does

not represent a dichotomy in

Geography ?

(A) Physical and Human

(B) Political and Historical

(C) Regional and Systematic

(D) Quantitative and Qualitative

78. Humboldt studied the rocks of the

Andes mountains and disproved the

earlier theory of sedimentary

origin of all rocks proposed by

whom ?

(A) Werner

(B) Buache

(C) Busching

(D) Davis

79. Who in 1905 clearly expressed the

logical arguments concerning the

place of the Earth’s body in the field

of Geography ?

(A) Ritter

(B) Hettner

(C) Sauer

(D) Richthofen

77.

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

78.

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

79. 1905

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

37 [P.T.O.

JUN - 36219/II—A

80. While Davis’s concept projected

geography as the study of man-land

relationship from a deterministic

perspective, who viewed geography

as the study of covariants of human

distributions over the earth’s

surface ?

(A) Hettner

(B) Ratzel

(C) Richthofen

(D) Schulter

81. Read the statements and select the

correct option given below :

(1) EMR travels at the speed of

light

(2) EMR cannot pass through

vacuum

(3) EMR has two fields : Electric

and magnetic

(4) The wavelength and frequency

are proportional to each other

(A) (1), (2), (3) and (4) are true

(B) (1), (3) and (4) are true

(C) (1) and (2) are true

(D) (1) and (3) are true

80.

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

81.

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

(A) (1), (2), (3) (4)

(B) (1), (3) (4)

(C) (1) (2)

(D) (1) (3)

38

JUN - 36219/II—A

82. Read the statements given below

and select the correct option :

(a) Vector data has complex data

structure than raster data

(b) Vector data is not compatible

with remote sensing images

(c) Vector data is efficient for

network analysis

Codes :

(A) (a) and (b) are true but (c) is

false

(B) (a) and (c) are true but (b) is

false

(C) (a), (b) and (c) are true

(D) (b) and (c) are true but (a) is

false

83. Distance between isotherms

indicates :

(A) Temperature gradient

(B) Pressure anomaly

(C) Temperature lag

(D) Deviation from normal

temperature

82.

(a)

(b)

(c)

(A) (a) (b) (c)

(B) (a) (c) (b)

(C) (a), (b) (c)

(D) (b) (c) (a)

83.

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

39 [P.T.O.

JUN - 36219/II—A

84. Altimetric frequency curve is used

for :

(A) Computation of population

distribution

(B) Computation of pressure

distribution

(C) Computation of rainfall

distribution

(D) Computation of elevation above

sea level

85. Interpolation of contours refers to :

(A) Drawing contour lines on map,

when spot heights are given

(B) Measuring gradient along with

contour lines

(C) Interpretation of contour lines

(D) Joining contour lines for specific

application

84.

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

85.

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

40

JUN - 36219/II—A

86. Read the statements given below

and select the correct option ?

(1) Strong correlation is when the

values are close to ‘+1’

(2) The value of ‘0’ (zero) represents

no correlation

(3) The value close to ‘–1’ represents

weak correlation

(A) Only statement (1) is true

(B) Only statement (3) is true

(C) Statements (1) and (2) are true

but (3) is false

(D) Statements (1), (2) and (3) are

true

87. Which of the following would be best

represented by the ‘Nearest

Neighbour Analysis’ ?

(A) Distribution of Settlements

(B) Density of Population

(C) Literacy rate

(D) Sex ratio

86.

(1) ‘+1’

(2) ‘0’

(3) ‘–1’

(A) (1)

(B) (3)

(C) (1) (2)

(3)

(D) (1), (2) (3)

87.

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

41 [P.T.O.

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88. The Ergograph reveals with

relationship among the following :

(A) Relative Humidity and

temperature

(B) Climate and growing seasons of

ages

(C) Temperature and rainfall

(D) Temperature and pressure

89. Two statements are given below, one

is labelled as Assertion (A) and

another labelled as Reason (R) :

Assertion (A) : Fog is the result

of non-selective scattering of visible

EMR.

Reason (R) : Atmospheric

constituents larger than the EMR

wavelength result in scattering of all

visible rays.

Select the correct option from the

codes given below :



of (A)



explanation of (A)



88.

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

89. (A) :

(R) :

(A) (A) (R) (R)

(A)

(B) (A) (R) (R)

(A)

(C) (A) (R)

(D) (A) (R)

42

JUN - 36219/II—A

90. Match List-I with List-II and select

the correct option using the codes

given below :

List I

(Name)

(a) Microwave

(b) Near Infrared wave

(c) Ultraviolet wave

(d) Thermal wave

List II

(Wavelength)

(1) 8—9.2 µm

(2) 0.3—0.4 µm

(3) 7.5—11.5 µm

(4) 0.77—0.91 µm

Codes :

(a) (b) (c) (d)

(A) (3) (4) (2) (1)

(B) (1) (2) (4) (3)

(C) (2) (1) (3) (4)

(D) (3) (1) (2) (4)

90. -I II

I

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

II

(1) 8—9.2 µm

(2) 0.3—0.4 µm

(3) 7.5—11.5 µm

(4) 0.77—0.91 µm

(a) (b) (c) (d)

(A) (3) (4) (2) (1)

(B) (1) (2) (4) (3)

(C) (2) (1) (3) (4)

(D) (3) (1) (2) (4)

43 [P.T.O.

JUN - 36219/II—A


are correct ?

(1) Large parts of the Gondwana

land were affected by glaciers

in the carboniferous period

(2) Traces of the carboniferous

glaciation are found in the

Himalayas

(3) The Aravallis represent the

oldest hill range in India

(4) The tertiary system is known as

the age of the Mammals

Codes :

(A) (1), (2) and (3) only

(B) (1), (3) and (4) only

(C) (1), (2) and (4) only

(D) (1), (2), (3) and (4)

92. India’s Research Station ‘Himadri’ is

located in the :

(A) Northern Himalayas

(B) Western Himalayas

(C) Antarctica

(D) Arctic

91.

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

(A) (1), (2) (3)

(B) (1), (3) (4)

(C) (1), (2) (4)

(D) (1), (2), (3) (4)

92.

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

44

JUN - 36219/II—A

93. Choose the correct statement about

climatic regions of India ?

(1) Stamp used 18°C isotherm of

mean monthly temperature for

January to divide the country

into two broad climatic regions.

(2) Stamp’s two major climatic

regions are further divided into

eleven regions depending upon

the amount of rainfall and

temperature.

(3) Koeppen identified a close

relationship between the

distribution of vegetation and

climate.

(4) Koeppen recognized five major

climatic groups, four of them are

based on precipitation and one

on temperature.

Codes :

(A) (1), (2) and (4) only

(B) (2), (3) and (4) only

(C) (1), (2) and (3) only

(D) (1), (2), (3) and (4) only

94. Which of the following rivers is not

cut by Tropic of Cancer ?

(A) Banas

(B) Ken

(C) Damodar

(D) Hooghli

93.

(1)

18°C

(2)

(3)

(4)

(A) (1), (2) (4)

(B) (2), (3) (4)

(C) (1), (2) (3)

(D) (1), (2), (3) (4)

94.

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

45 [P.T.O.

JUN - 36219/II—A

95. Consider the following statements :

(1) As per 2011 census, the rural-

urban population share in

India is 68.84% and 31.16%

respectively.

(2) The growth of population in

India during 2001-2011 has

increased

(3) The sex ratio in India has

decreased since 2001-2011

(4) The absolute increase in urban

population has exceeded the

absolute increase in rural

population

Choose the correct statement(s) :

(A) (1) only

(B) (1), (3) and (4) only

(C) (1) and (2) only

(D) (1), (2), (3) and (4)

96. Assertion (A) : Jowar is grown both

as Kharif as well as Rabi crop.

Reason (R) : Jowar is a rainfed crop

of dry farming areas where

irrigation is not used.

Codes :


(R) explains (A)


(R) does not explain (A)



95.

(1) 2011

68.84% 31.16%

(2) 2001-2011

(3) 2001-2011

(4)

(A) (1)

(B) (1), (3) (4)

(C) (1) (2)

(D) (1), (2), (3) (4)

96. (A) :

(R) :

(A) (A) (R) (R) (A)

(B) (A) (R) (R) (A)

(C) (A) (R)

(D) (A) (R)

46

JUN - 36219/II—A

97. Identify the regions of India where

shale gas are found :

(1) Cambay Basin

(2) Kaveri Basin

(3) Krishna-Godavari Basin

Select the correct answer using the

codes given below :

(A) (2) only

(B) (1) and (2) only


(D) (1), (2) and (3) only

98. Choose the correct option :

List I List II

(1) Newsprint and — Nepanagar,

Paper Mills M.P.

(2) Mysore Paper Mills — Mysore,

Karnataka

(3) The Hindustan — Vellore,

Newsprint Tamil Nadu

(4) Tamil Nadu Newsprint — Chennai,

and Paper Ltd. Tamil Nadu

Codes :

(A) (1), (2) and (4) only

(B) (1), (2) and (3) only


(D) (2) and (4) only

97.

(1)

(2)

(3)

(A) (2)

(B) (1) (2)

(C) (1) (3)

(D) (1), (2) (3)

98.

I II

(1) —

(2) —

(3) —

(4) —

(A) (1), (2) (4)

(B) (1), (2) (3)

(C) (1) (3)

(D) (2) (4)

47 [P.T.O.

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are correct about Bogibeel bridge,

India’s longest rail cum road

bridge ?

(1) It is over Brahmaputra

(2) It is between Dhemaji and

Dibrugarh district

(3) The total length of the bridge

is 4.96 km

(4) It can withstand earthquakes of

magnitude upto 7 an Richter

scale

Codes :

(A) (1), (2) and (3) only

(B) (1), (2) and (4) only

(C) (1), (3) and (4) only

(D) (1), (2), (3) and (4)

100. Which of the following is true about

proposed Bullet train route in

India ?

(A) Mumbai—Ahmedabad

(B) Mumbai—Hyderabad

(C) Mumbai—Nagpur

(D) Delhi—Nagpur

99.

(1)

(2)

(3) 4.96

(4) 7

(A) (1), (2) (3)

(B) (1), (2) (4)

(C) (1), (3) (4)

(D) (1), (2), (3) (4)

100.

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

48

JUN - 36219/II—A

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JUN - 36219/II—A

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