44_Practice Exam APEs Chapters 1234568&28

Practice Exam for APEs Chapters 1,2,3,4,5,6,8 &28

Multiple Choice

Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.

____ 1. A person who is primarily interested in the establishment of new wilderness areas would be considered a(n)

a. ecologist.

b. preservationist.

c. restorationist.

d. conservationist.

____ 2. Natural capital includes all of the following except

a. sunlight.

b. air.

c. water.

d. soil.

____ 3. All of the following illustrate exponential growth except

a. the king who promised to double the number of grains of wheat he put on each successive

square of a checkerboard.

b. human population growth.

c. driving 10 mph for one minute; then 20 mph for one minute; then 30 mph for one minute;

then 40 mph for one minute.

d. money in a savings account.

____ 4. Which of the following would be considered a very high rate of annual exponential growth?

a. 5%

b. 3%

c. 1%

d. 0.5%

____ 5. Which of the following generalizations about developing countries is true?

a. They make up about one-tenth of the world's population.

b. They have high average GNPs per person.

c. They include the United States, Canada, Japan, the former Soviet Union, and European

countries.

d. They use about 12% of the world's resources.

____ 6. Since 1970, the gap between rich and poor, as measured by GNP per capita, has

a. decreased, then increased since 1980.

b. increased, then substantially decreased since 1980.

c. increased, then substantially increased since 1980.

d. decreased, then substantially decreased since 1980.

____ 7. What is globalization?

a. ability to travel worldwide

b. new term for mass immigration

c. world-wide integration of social, economic, and environmental change

d. a satellite communications system

____ 8. Sustainable development can be distinguished from economic development by its emphasis on

a. meeting the needs of people.

b. intergenerational equity.

c. use of economic systems and earth's resources.

d. setting limits on human population growth.

____ 9. A resource that is too expensive to extract is said to be

a. perpetual.

b. economically depleted.

c. ecologically depleted.

d. environmentally depleted.

____ 10. Which of the following is a non-metallic mineral resource?

a. sand.

b. soil.

c. oil.

d. water.

____ 11. Which of the following statements best illustrates the tragedy of the commons?

a. A factory pollutes a river as much as the law allows.

b. Some levels of pollution are life threatening.

c. Some activities harm the environment, but others do not.

d. Irrigated cropland can be ruined by salinization.

____ 12. On the outskirts of a municipality lies a forest on public property. A person applying the precautionary

principle might suggest

a. clear-cutting the forest to provide taxes for the town.

b. converting the natural woods to tree farms.

c. harvesting trees at their estimated sustainable yield.

d. harvesting trees below their estimated sustainable yield.

____ 13. All nonrenewable resources can theoretically be

a. converted to nonmetallic minerals.

b. converted to renewable ones.

c. exhausted or depleted.

d. recycled or reused.

____ 14. When a resource is economically depleted, we can

a. recycle or reuse existing supplies.

b. waste less.

c. develop substitutes.

d. all of these answers.

____ 15. Which of the following is an example of recycling?

a. collecting and remelting aluminum beer cans

b. cleaning and refilling soft-drink bottles

c. selling used clothing at a garage sale

d. saving leftovers in a peanut butter jar

____ 16. Effects of pollution might include

a. being unable to see the top of skyscrapers because of the smog.

b. acid rain-induced destruction of a statue in your city park.

c. spread of disease from an open dump.


____ 17. Point sources of pollution include all of the following except

a. an automobile tailpipe.

b. a factory smokestack.

c. a drainpipe from a power plant.

d. runoff from cropland.

____ 18. Which of the following is not important in determining the damage produced by a pollutant?

a. concentration

b. persistence

c. origin

d. chemical nature

____ 19. You generally buy and eat microwave dinners. After dinner, cardboard tops and plastic trays remain. The

least effective way to deal with this type of solid-waste problem would be to

a. collect the components and incinerate them so they don't take up landfill space.

b. prepare large quantities of food and divide it into your own reusable microwave

containers.

c. donate the plastic containers to the local nursery schools to use with preschoolers.

d. recycle the components.

____ 20. Root causes of environmental problems include

a. rapid population growth.

b. even distribution of wealth.

c. increasingly sustainable use of resources.

d. prices reflecting environmental costs.

____ 21. Which of the following is not currently a component of the three-factor model to account for environmental

degradation and pollution?

a. population size and distribution

b. science and technology

c. prices which reflect social and environmental costs

d. politics and ethics

____ 22. Which of the following would be representative of an environmental wisdom worldview?

a. Continuous rapid economic growth will improve environmental conditions

b. Energy and materials efficiency must continually be improved

c. More money should be directed to research on controlling the environment

d. Human beings are the most important life forms on Earth

____ 23. The species Homo sapiens sapiens has lived on Earth about _____ years.

a. 4,000

b. 12,000

c. 30,000

d. 60,000

____ 24. Advanced hunter-gatherer societies did all of the following except

a. redistribute plant populations during migrations.

b. stampede herds to get food.

c. use fire to convert forests into grasslands.

d. subdue and dominate most other forms of life.

____ 25. Domestication of wild plants and animals occurred about ___ years ago.

a. 5,000

b. 10,000

c. 15,000

d. 20,000

____ 26. Agricultural societies resulted in all of the following changes to humans except

a. growth of villages.

b. specialized occupations and long-distance trade.

c. increased competition for resources.

d. equal work distribution among people.

____ 27. The Industrial Revolution reached the United States in the

a. 1500s.

b. 1600s.

c. 1700s.

d. 1800s.

____ 28. The Industrial Revolution is characterized by all of the following except increased

a. average per capita energy consumption.

b. ability to utilize Earth's resources.

c. economic growth.

d. social concern for workers.

____ 29. A major stimulus for the Industrial Revolution was

a. the bubonic plague.

b. European wars.

c. a shortage of wood.

d. poverty.

____ 30. Energy use during the Industrial Revolution was based primarily on

a. wood.

b. solar power.

c. nonrenewable sources.

d. labor by domesticated animals.

____ 31. The early Industrial Revolution brought

a. an increased number of assembly-line jobs.

b. an increased number of coal-mining jobs.

c. accelerated exponential human population growth.


____ 32. The American settlers primarily viewed the continent as

a. a hostile wilderness that needed to be conquered.

b. a friendly environment that needed care and nurturing.

c. a finite reservoir of resources.

d. an easy place to make a comfortable living.

____ 33. A starting point in establishing the federal government's responsibility to protect public lands from

unsustainable resource use was the

a. creation of the first national park.

b. establishment of the first federal forest reserves and wildlife refuges.

c. establishment of the Department of the Interior.

d. development of the U.S. Forest Service.

____ 34. Gifford Pinchot used ____ principles to manage America's renewable forest resources.

a. sustainable-yield and multiple use

b. sustainable-yield and reserved-use

c. multiple-use and highest-use

d. multiple-use and maximum-yield

____ 35. The Sierra Club was developed by ____ in 1892.

a. Theodore Roosevelt

b. John Muir

c. Gifford Pinchot

d. Aldo Leopold

____ 36. Theodore Roosevelt and Gifford Pinchot were

a. preservationists.

b. scientific conservationists.

c. leaders of the Wilderness Society.

d. people with a frontier environmental worldview.

____ 37. The first Earth Day took place in the United States on April 22, ____.

a. 1950

b. 1960

c. 1970

d. 1980

____ 38. The OPEC oil embargo and energy crisis occurred in ____.

a. 1963

b. 1973

c. 1983

d. 1993

____ 39. The sagebrush rebellion sought to

a. reduce federal ownership of lands.

b. restrict grazing on federal lands.

c. greatly increase energy conservation.

d. make clear-cutting illegal on public land.

____ 40. Which president appointed industrialists to key positions in the Department of the Interior, reduced budgets

and staffs of conservation organizations, and reduced funding for research on renewable energy sources?

a. Kennedy

b. Nixon

c. Carter

d. Reagan

____ 41. Science

a. studies the past to predict the future.

b. attempts to discover order in nature to interpret the past.

c. is best described as a collection of facts found through using scientific methods.

d. uses data to formulate scientific laws, which form a basis for making predictions.

____ 42. Discovering and formulating scientific laws requires

a. logic.

b. imagination.

c. use of scientific methods.


____ 43. Which of the following is least likely to be said by a working scientist?

a. That seems a plausible model of the system we are studying.

b. I'd like to offer an alternative hypothesis to explain the data.

c. Perhaps you are right. But I think the data more strongly supports a different view.

d. Eureka! We've got the answer!

____ 44. Which of the following questions is a working scientist least likely to ask?

a. How can this data be used to formulate a scientific law?

b. What new experiments can be done to test this hypothesis?

c. What is the meaning of life for humans?

d. What is a good question to ask about nature?

____ 45. To explore what scientists generally agree about you would most likely turn to

a. the newspaper headlines.

b. CNN.

c. Popular Science.

d. U.S. National Academy of Sciences publications.

____ 46. Human mental models tend to be unreliable when

a. there are few interacting variables.

b. we attempt to extrapolate from many experiences to a general case.

c. the consequences occur immediately following causal events.

d. consequences of one event lead to other consequences.

____ 47. Human events which affect the environment are generally characterized by

a. predictability in what happens because the environment is diverse.

b. many experiences upon which to base our generalizations.

c. long delays between events and responses.

d. immediate feedback.

____ 48. A thermostat keeping your house within a certain acceptable temperature range is an example of

a. homeostasis.

b. synergistic interaction.

c. leverage.

d. chaos.

____ 49. Examples of a situation where a long time delay results in environmental degradation include

a. clear-cutting a forest.

b. building new four-lane highways.

c. depletion of the ozone layer.

d. fish kills from oil spills.

____ 50. Two or more processes interacting such that the combined effect is greater than the sum of the individual

effects is called

a. homeostasis.

b. a synergistic interaction.

c. negative feedback.

d. chaos.

____ 51. When Jeffrey and Lynn drove to a trailhead in Colorado, they were stopped by a fallen birch tree across the

road. Jeffrey could not move the tree by himself. Lynn could not move the tree by herself. Together they

could move the tree. Their solution illustrates the concept of

a. homeostasis.


c. leverage.

d. positive feedback.

____ 52. Which of the following is an example of synergism?

a. The combined effects of alcohol and a depressant produce a greater effect than would be

expected from adding their individual effects.

b. When the exponential growth of the human population exceeds the carrying capacity, a

massive dieback will occur.

c. The use of alcohol reduces the effectiveness of a blood thinner.

d. Secondary smoke may increase chances of lung cancer in a nonsmoker.

____ 53. The community knew the effects of Chemical X alone. They set a safe limit for its use. The community knew

the effects of Chemical Z alone. They set a safe limit for its use. Unfortunately, both chemicals were released

into the environment at their safe levels and there were massive fish kills. The most probable explanation was

the occurrence of

a. homeostasis.


c. negative feedback.

d. positive feedback.

____ 54. Protons, neutrons, and electrons are all

a. forms of energy.

b. equal in mass.

c. subatomic particles.

d. negative ions.

____ 55. The atomic number is the number of

a. atoms in a molecule.

b. protons in an atom.

c. neutrons in a molecule.

d. electrons in an atom.

____ 56. Isotopes differ from each other by their number of

a. ions.

b. protons.

c. atoms.

d. neutrons.

____ 57. Ions have

a. a net positive charge.

b. a net negative charge.

c. no charge.

d. a net positive or negative charge.

____ 58. Covalent compounds

a. are held together by ionic bonds.

b. consist of networks of oppositely charged ions.

c. share electrons between their constituent atoms.

d. include ordinary table salt.

____ 59. Forces of attraction between water molecules are called

a. ionic bonds.

b. hydrogen bonds.

c. covalent bonds.

d. compound bonds.

____ 60. All organic compounds are characterized by the presence of

a. carbon.

b. hydrogen.

c. oxygen.

d. nitrogen.

____ 61. H2O and NaCl are

a. elements.

b. mixtures.

c. inorganic compounds.

d. organic compounds.

____ 62. Which of the following sources of iron would be of the highest quality?

a. iron deposits on the ocean floor

b. a field of spinach

c. a large, scrap metal junkyard

d. a one-half-mile-deep deposit of iron ore

____ 63. Energy can be formally defined as

a. the random motion of molecules.

b. the ability to do work and transfer heat.

c. a force that is exerted over some distance.

d. the movement of molecules.

____ 64. All of the following are examples of kinetic energy except

a. a speeding bullet.

b. a stick of dynamite.

c. a flow of electric current.

d. a falling rock.

____ 65. An example of potential energy is

a. electricity flowing through a wire.

b. the chemical energy in a candy bar.

c. a bullet fired at high velocity.

d. a leaf falling from a tree.

____ 66. All of the following are examples of ionizing radiation except

a. cosmic rays.

b. gamma rays.

c. microwaves.

d. X rays.

____ 67. Which of the following is an example of low-quality energy?

a. electricity

b. heat in the ocean

c. nuclei of uranium-235

d. coal

____ 68. The relative quality of electricity is

a. very high.

b. high.

c. moderate.

d. low.

____ 69. The relative quality of normal sunlight is

a. very high.

b. high.

c. moderate.

d. low.

____ 70. High-temperature industrial heat is least likely to be provided by

a. nuclear fission.

b. concentrated sunlight.

c. dispersed geothermal energy.

d. burning natural gas.

____ 71. All of the following statements can be concluded from the law of conservation of matter except

a. We can't throw anything away because there is no away.

b. We'll eventually run out of matter if we keep consuming it at current rates.

c. There will always be pollution of some sort.

d. Everything must go somewhere.

____ 72. Earth is essentially a closed system for

a. matter.

b. energy.

c. matter and energy.

d. neither matter nor energy.

____ 73. All of the following are broken down by biological action except

a. sewage.

b. litter in the environment.

c. lead and mercury.

d. organic garbage.

____ 74. Nuclear changes are governed by

a. the law of conservation of matter.

b. the law of conservation of energy.

c. the law of conservation of matter and energy.

d. the law of entropy.

____ 75. All of the following are given off by natural radioactivity except

a. alpha particles.

b. delta rays.

c. gamma rays.

d. beta particles.

____ 76. The most common form of energy released from radioisotopes is

a. gamma rays.

b. cosmic rays.

c. X rays.

d. ultraviolet rays.

____ 77. Which of the following statements is true?

a. Exposure of a substance to alpha, beta, or gamma radiation makes it radioactive.

b. All isotopes are radioactive.

c. Radioactive isotopes give off radiation at a fixed rate.

d. Only naturally occurring substances are radioactive.

____ 78. Radioisotopes have been used to

a. treat cancer.

b. to detect pollution.

c. to determine the age of fossils.


____ 79. Multiple nuclear fissions

a. occur when two nuclei hit each other.

b. require isotopes with small mass numbers.

c. occur best with a small mass of isotopes.

d. may result in chain reactions.

____ 80. Which of the following is a likely product of a fusion reaction?

a. alpha particles

b. deuterium

c. tritium

d. helium

____ 81. Earth is essentially an open system for

a. matter.

b. energy.

c. matter and energy.

d. neither matter nor energy.

____ 82. Which of the following statements is false?

a. Energy can be converted from one form to another.

b. Energy and matter can generally be converted into each other.

c. Energy input always equals energy output.

d. The laws of thermodynamics can be applied to living systems.

____ 83. Energy input is

a. usually greater than energy output.

b. always greater than energy output.

c. always equal to energy output.

d. usually less than energy output.

____ 84. The energy "lost" by a system is

a. converted into an equal amount of matter.

b. equal to the energy the system creates.

c. converted to lower-quality energy.

d. returned to the system eventually.

____ 85. Earth's supply of concentrated, usable energy is being steadily

a. depleted.

b. replenished.

c. converted to more usable forms.

d. converted to higher-quality forms.

____ 86. Which of the following statements is not an observation derived from applying the second law of

thermodynamics to living systems?

a. Life is a creation and maintenance of ordered structures.

b. High-quality energy sources are required to maintain life.

c. Living things give off heat.

d. Cooking foods turn them into high-quality energy sources.

____ 87. "You are a raft of order floating on the high seas of entropy." Which scientific law is best described by this

analogy?

a. Law of Conservation of Matter

b. Law of Conservation of Energy

c. Law of Conservation of Matter and Energy

d. Second Law of Thermodynamics

____ 88. A high-throughput economy sustains economic growth by

a. minimizing the rate of energy resource use.

b. minimizing the rate of energy and matter resource use.

c. maximizing the rate of energy resource use.

d. maximizing the rate of energy and matter resource use.

____ 89. Which of the following statements is the most logical way to cope with the problem of limitations imposed by

the three basic physical laws governing matter?

a. Use and waste less energy and matter.

b. Shift to nonpolluting nuclear fusion power.

c. Increase the output of low-quality heat.

d. Increase the input of high-quality energy.

____ 90. A low-throughput economy would do all of the following except

a. use energy more efficiently.

b. shift to perpetual and renewable energy sources.

c. recycle and reuse most matter that is now discarded.

d. create goods with a short life cycle to increase recycling.

____ 91. The service least likely to be performed by the insect family is

a. plant reproduction.

b. plant pollination.

c. turning the soil.

d. chemosynthesis.

____ 92. Which adjective least applies to insects?

a. adaptable

b. abundant

c. unnecessary

d. diverse

____ 93. Ecology is the study of how

a. atoms make up the environment.

b. humans affect the environment.

c. organisms interact with each other and their nonliving environment.

d. societies pass laws to protect the environment.

____ 94. What is the goal of ecology?

a. To eliminate pollution.

b. To eliminate environmental degradation.

c. To trace the flow of energy through the environment.

d. To learn about connections in nature.

____ 95. The number of species already identified by biologists is approximately

a. 180.

b. 1,800.

c. 1.8 million.

d. 1.8 billion.

____ 96. A group of individuals of the same species occupying a given area at the same time is called a

a. species.

b. population.

c. community.

d. genus.

____ 97. A community of living organisms interacting with one another and the physical and chemical factors of their

nonliving environment is called

a. a species.

b. an ecosystem.

c. a population.

d. a lithosphere.

____ 98. Biodiversity emerges from

a. mutations.

b. natural selection.

c. extinction.


____ 99. Fossil fuels and minerals are found in the

a. atmosphere.

b. lithosphere.

c. biosphere.

d. hydrosphere.

____ 100. The lithosphere is made of

a. core and lower mantle.

b. core and upper mantle.

c. crust and lower mantle.

d. crust and upper mantle.

____ 101. Children fly kites in the

a. stratosphere.

b. lithosphere.

c. troposphere.

d. hydrosphere.

____ 102. Ecosphere is the same as

a. atmosphere.

b. lithosphere.

c. biosphere.

d. hydrosphere.

____ 103. Life of individual organisms is maintained by

a. cycling of energy and flow of matter.

b. flow of energy and cycling of matter.

c. cycling of energy and matter.

d. flow of energy and matter.

____ 104. When incoming solar radiation is converted to heat, it is least likely to be trapped in the atmosphere by

a. water vapor.

b. carbon dioxide.

c. methane.

d. nitrogen gas.

____ 105. Large ecological regions with characteristic types of natural vegetation are called

a. ecosystems.

b. communities.

c. populations.

d. biomes.

____ 106. Aquatic life zones are the aquatic equivalent of

a. communities.

b. ecosystems.

c. biomes.

d. ecospheres.

____ 107. A transitional zone between two ecosystems is called

a. a fragile ecosystem.

b. a biome.

c. an ecotone.

d. a buffer zone.


a. The existence, abundance, and distribution of a species in an ecosystem are determined by

whether the levels of one or more physical or chemical factors fall within the range

tolerated by a species.

b. Organisms can adapt to slowly changing new conditions by acclimation.

c. Too much or too little of any abiotic factor can limit or prevent growth of a population of a

species in an ecosystem even if all other factors are at or near the optimum range of

tolerance.

d. There is no such thing as too much fertilizer.

____ 109. All of the following are major causes of differences among aquatic ecosystems except

a. temperature.

b. precipitation.

c. salinity.

d. depth of sunlight penetration.

____ 110. The conversion of solar energy into chemical energy occurs in

a. photosynthesis.

b. higher levels of food chains.

c. chemosynthesis.

d. heterotrophic organisms.

____ 111. You are a scientist intrigued by organisms that can create complex molecules through chemosynthesis. The

habitat you are most likely to visit is

a. an island paradise.

b. an inland sand dune.

c. a hydrothermal vent.

d. a prairie.

____ 112. What are organisms that feed on plants called?

a. detritus feeders

b. omnivores

c. carnivores

d. herbivores

____ 113. Organisms that feed on both plants and animals are called

a. detritus feeders.

b. omnivores.

c. carnivores.

d. herbivores.

____ 114. All of the following live off remains or wastes of organisms except

a. omnivores.

b. decomposers.

c. scavengers.

d. detritivores.

____ 115. In the field, you observe a lion chase, kill, and eat a gazelle. A vulture pecks away at the left over meat scraps.

Beetles attack the remaining fragments. Finally, bacteria complete the breakdown and recycling of organic

material. If you were to apply a general classification to the feeders, what would be the correct sequence?

a. decomposerscavengerdetritus feedercarnivore

b. carnivoredetritus feederscavengerdecomposer

c. carnivorescavengerdetritus feederdecomposer

d. carnivorescavengerdecomposerdetritus feeder

____ 116. If something is biodegradable, it

a. can be broken down by autotrophs.

b. can be broken down by heterotrophs.

c. can be broken down by decomposers.

d. cannot be broken down by any living processes.

____ 117. Anaerobic respiration may produce all of the following except

a. methane gas.

b. hydrogen sulfide.

c. carbon dioxide and water.

d. ethyl alcohol.

____ 118. The process which results in alcoholic beverages is

a. aerobic respiration.

b. anaerobic respiration.

c. photosynthesis.

d. chemosynthesis.

____ 119. An ecosystem can survive without

a. producers.

b. consumers.

c. decomposers.

d. autotrophs.

____ 120. Complex feeding patterns for consumers in an ecosystem are called

a. food webs.

b. food chains.

c. trophic levels.

d. pyramids of energy.

____ 121. Most of the energy input in a food chain is

a. in the form of heat.

b. converted to biomass.

c. recycled as it reaches the chain's end.

d. degraded to low-quality heat.


a. Biomass is the organic matter synthesized by producers.

b. Energy pyramids show why a larger human population can be supported if people eat

grains rather than animals.

c. The earth's total gross primary productivity is the upper limit determining the planets

carrying capacity for all species.

d. An analysis of an abandoned field yields a pyramid of biomass.

____ 123. Which of the following ecosystems has the highest average net primary productivity?

a. agricultural land

b. open ocean

c. temperate forest

d. swamps and marshes

____ 124. All of the following are general types of nutrient cycles except

a. the hydrologic cycle.

b. the sedimentary cycle.

c. the carbohydrate cycle.

d. the atmospheric cycle.

____ 125. The phosphorous cycle is an example of a(n)

a. hydrologic cycle.

b. sedimentary cycle.

c. carbohydrate cycle.

d. atmospheric cycle.

____ 126. The hydrologic cycle refers to the movement of

a. hydrogen.

b. oxygen.

c. water.

d. hydrocarbons.

____ 127. The amount of water vapor found in a certain mass of air is the

a. relative humidity.

b. absolute humidity.

c. average humidity.

d. air pressure.

____ 128. Condensation nuclei form from all of the following except

a. sea salt.

b. soil dust.

c. carbon monoxide emitted from vehicles.

d. volcanic ash.

____ 129. Carbon is a major component of

a. atmospheric gases.

b. sedimentary rocks.

c. the oceans.

d. organic compounds.

____ 130. All of the following increase the amount of carbon dioxide in the atmosphere except

a. respiration.

b. photosynthesis.

c. combustion.

d. decomposition.

____ 131. Of the following carbon-based compounds, which would have the slowest turnover rate?

a. calcium carbonate shells

b. wood in a tree

c. protein in a cow

d. DNA in a bacterium

____ 132. Nodules containing nitrogen-fixing bacteria would be expected to occur on the roots of

a. pine trees.

b. roses.

c. legumes.

d. grasses.

____ 133. Nitrogen gas is converted to ammonia through

a. nitrification.

b. nitrogen fixation.

c. denitrification.

d. assimilation.

____ 134. Inorganic nitrogen-containing ions are converted into organic molecules through

a. nitrification.

b. nitrogen fixation.

c. denitrification.

d. assimilation.

____ 135. Phosphorous is used in the composition of all of the following except

a. fats in cell membranes.

b. DNA molecules.

c. bones and teeth.

d. proteins.

____ 136. All of the following are sources of phosphorous except

a. inorganic fertilizer.

b. runoff of animal wastes from feedlots.

c. detergents.

d. acid rain.

____ 137. All of the following are elements involved in major biogeochemical cycles except

a. nitrogen.

b. calcium.

c. sulfur.

d. oxygen.

____ 138. Which statement describes field research least?

a. It has been used to develop most of our knowledge about ecosystems.

b. It is comparatively easy to set up controlled experiments.

c. It is relatively time-consuming.

d. It is relatively expensive.

____ 139. Choose the sequence which correctly lists the major stages of system analysis from beginning to end.

a. data analysis-system measurement-system simulation-system modeling- system

optimization

b. system measurement-data analysis-system simulation-system modeling- system

optimization

c. system measurement-data analysis-system modeling-system simulation- system

optimization

d. system optimization-data analysis-system modeling-system simulation- system

measurement

____ 140. One member of a system analysis team is a math whiz who loves to construct mathematical models

describing interactions of different variables. If you were a system manager, to which stage of the system

analysis would you assign this person?

a. system measurement

b. data analysis

c. system optimization

d. system modeling

____ 141. One member of a system analysis team is an analytical economist who loves to determine the best economic

solution for an ecological problem. If you were a system manager, to which stage of the system analysis

would you assign this person?

a. system measurement

b. data analysis

c. system optimization

d. system modeling

____ 142. Which of the following best describe biologists' current hypothesis about the production of the earth's

atmospheric oxygen?

a. Photosynthesis by terrestrial plants produced atmospheric oxygen.

b. The breakdown of iron ore deposits produced atmospheric oxygen.

c. Photosynthesis by cyanobacteria produced atmospheric oxygen.

d. Chemosynthesis by terrestrial plants produced atmospheric oxygen.

____ 143. The most likely sequence for the biological evolution of life is

a. aerobic prokaryotes-photosynthetic prokaryotes-anaerobic prokaryotes-eukaryotes-

multicellular organisms.

b. photosynthetic prokaryotes-anaerobic prokaryotes-aerobic prokaryotes-eukaryotes-


c. anaerobic prokaryotes-photosynthetic prokaryotes-aerobic prokaryotes-eukaryotes-


d. eukaryotes-anaerobic prokaryotes-photosynthetic prokaryotes-aerobic prokaryotes-


____ 144. The distance of the Earth from the sun

a. ensures that our climate will be too hot for evolution to continue.

b. ensures that our climate will be too cold for evolution to continue.

c. ensures that the Earth will overheat of its own accord long before global warming from

human causes could happen.

d. has created a temperature just right for the evolution of life that is dependent upon water.

____ 145. You are a fossil hunter. Which of the following are you least likely to find in a fossil?

a. bone

b. leaves

c. teeth

d. muscle

____ 146. A change in the genetic composition of a population over successive generations is called

a. emigration.

b. mutation.

c. natural selection.

d. evolution.

____ 147. The term used to describe the long-term, large-scale evolutionary changes among groups of species is

a. coevolution.

b. microevolution.

c. convergent evolution.

d. macroevolution.

____ 148. Mutations can be caused by

a. ultraviolet light.

b. X rays.

c. certain chemicals.


____ 149. The change from a light to a dark color in the peppered moth was the result of

a. insecticides.

b. industrial pollution.

c. a change in predators.

d. an increase in ultraviolet radiation.

____ 150. You are an evolutionary biologist studying a population of bats in the rainforest of Brazil. Most of the

population possesses moderate length wings, although some individuals have long wings and some

individuals have short wings. Over the course of time, you notice that the frequency of moderate-length wings

increases. You conclude that the most likely cause of this development is

a. stabilizing natural selection.

b. directional natural selection.

c. diversifying natural selection.

d. coevolution.

____ 151. As you study a population of fruit flies, you notice that pink eye color is the most common, although white

eyes and red eyes are also present. Over the course of time and many generations, you notice that the

proportion of individuals with pink eyes steadily increases. You conclude that this population is undergoing

a. continuous natural selection.

b. disruptive natural selection.

c. directional natural selection.

d. stabilizing natural selection.

____ 152. You study fossils of giraffes. Although there appears to be considerable variability in lengths of necks, there

appears to be a definite shift to longer necks over the course of time. You conclude that this species is

undergoing


b. discontinuous natural selection.

c. disruptive natural selection.

d. directional natural selection.

____ 153. When natural selection shifts allelic frequencies toward the extremes of a range of genetic expressions for a

particular trait, an evolutionary biologist would credit


b. discontinuous natural selection.

c. disruptive natural selection.

d. directional natural selection.

____ 154. Which of the following is false? Coevolution

a. occurs when interacting species exert selective pressures on each other.

b. occurs between plants and the herbivores that eat them.

c. may play a role in the evolution of camouflage.

d. leads to competitive relationships.

____ 155. Over the course of time, the change in the gene pool of one species may lead to the change of the gene pool of

another species. This process is called

a. coevolution.

b. microevolution.


d. macroevolution.

____ 156. An organism's niche is analogous to its

a. address.

b. way of life.

c. food source.

d. trash dump.

____ 157. Geographic isolation is least likely to give rise to

a. reproductive isolation.

b. speciation.


d. divergent evolution.

____ 158. Patterns of speciation and extinction are least likely to be affected by

a. climatic changes.

b. continental drift.

c. meteorites crashing into the earth.

d. changes in the weather.

____ 159. Biodiversity is believed to be the result of

a. divergent and convergent evolution.

b. speciation and extinction.

c. speciation and coevolution.

d. extinction and coevolution.

____ 160. Biologists estimate that over ____% of the species that have ever lived are now extinct.

a. 69

b. 79

c. 89

d. 99

____ 161. It takes on the order of _____ years for adaptive radiations to rebuild biological diversity after a mass

extinction.

a. 100

b. 100 thousand

c. 1 million

d. 10 million

____ 162. Features of weather include all of the following except

a. temperature.

b. barometric pressure.

c. wind direction.

d. ozone concentration.

____ 163. You glance up at the sky and observe a giant thunderhead. You predict the arrival of a

a. warm front.

b. cold front.

c. hurricane.

d. typhoon.

____ 164. You turn to the weather channel. The weather reporter is predicting the arrival of a high pressure air mass.

You are most likely to

a. stay home.

b. wear a raincoat and boots.

c. wear a jacket that suits the temperature.

d. put on a down jacket with ear muffs and mittens.

____ 165. Which term includes the others?

a. tornado

b. cyclone

c. weather extreme

d. hurricane

____ 166. A meteorologist collecting data in the field is least likely to use

a. a computer model.

b. aircraft.

c. satellites.

d. radar.

____ 167. Climate is influenced by

a. the amount of incoming solar radiation.

b. Earth's rotation.

c. the tilt of Earth's axis.


____ 168. Which of the following statements of cause and effect is false?

a. The differential in solar energy striking the equator versus the poles sets up general global

air circulation patterns.

b. The Earth's rotation is faster under air at the poles causes the prevailing winds.

c. The Earth's rotational tilt and revolution around the sun cause seasonal variations in

temperature.

d. The Earth's rotation, the inclination of the Earth's axis, prevailing winds, and differences in

water density cause ocean currents.

____ 169. There are ______ separate belts of moving air or prevailing winds.

a. two

b. four

c. six

d. eight

____ 170. Ozone

a. in the stratosphere is a pollutant.

b. is formed in the stratosphere through the interaction of infrared radiation and molecular

oxygen.

c. filters out all harmful ultraviolet radiation.

d. in the stratosphere forms a thermal cap important in determining the average temperature

of the troposphere.

____ 171. The rain shadow effect refers to

a. more light on the windward side of mountain ranges.

b. more light on the leeward side of mountain ranges.

c. drier conditions on the windward side of mountain ranges.

d. drier conditions on the leeward side of mountain ranges.

____ 172. Microclimates are least likely to be produced by

a. mountains.

b. bodies of water.

c. cities.

d. flat plains.

____ 173. A rain shadow is most likely to be produced by a

a. forest.

b. ocean.

c. lake.

d. mountain.

____ 174. Which of the following microclimate effects is incorrectly described?

a. The leeward sides of high mountains tend to show relatively dry conditions.

b. Oceans and lakes modify temperature extremes.

c. Forests have fewer temperature extremes and lower wind speeds than nearby open land.

d. Cities tend to have lower temperatures and higher wind speeds than the surrounding

countryside.

____ 175. Large ecological regions with characteristic types of natural, undisturbed ecological communities are called

a. ecosystems.

b. communities.

c. populations.

d. biomes.

____ 176. Generally, the limiting factor that controls the vegetative character of a biome is

a. light.

b. precipitation.

c. nutrients.

d. soil type.

____ 177. The biome most likely to be found on the top of a very tall tropical mountain is the

a. desert.

b. tundra.

c. grassland.

d. temperate deciduous forest.

____ 178. Succulent plants are most likely to be found in

a. aquatic habitats.

b. cold ecosystems.

c. high altitudes.

d. deserts.

____ 179. If you were exploring a desert ecosystem, which of the following species would you least expect to find?

a. creosote bush

b. maple tree

c. saguaro cactus

d. prickly pear

____ 180. The biome threatened by motorcycles and off-road vehicles is the ______ biome.

a. grasslands

b. desert

c. tropical rain forest

d. taiga

____ 181. You read the data records of a field ecologist who reports the following varieties of species: beetles, spiders,

grasshoppers, many insects and invertebrates, earthworms, prairie dogs, rabbits, squirrels, meadowlarks,

coyotes, foxes, hawks. You conclude that the field ecologist is located in a

a. desert.

b. tropical grassland.

c. temperate grassland.

d. Arctic tundra.

____ 182. Arctic tundra is perhaps Earth's most fragile biome because of

a. low rate of decomposition.

b. shallow soil.

c. slow growth rate of plants.


____ 183. You are an ecologist on location in chaparral country. You would be surprised to find

a. fires.

b. very wet winters.

c. evergreen shrubs.

d. scrub oak.

____ 184. The primary limiting factor of the rain forest is

a. water.

b. soil nutrients.

c. temperature.

d. light.

____ 185. Trees of the tropical rainforest are most likely to have leaves that are

a. needlelike and fall seasonally.

b. broadleaf and fall seasonally.

c. needlelike and evergreen.

d. broadleaf and evergreen.

____ 186. A mature ____ has the greatest species diversity of all terrestrial biomes.

a. tundra

b. tropical rain forest

c. taiga

d. temperate deciduous forest

____ 187. Most of the nutrients in the tropical rain forests are found in the

a. living organisms.

b. large rivers.

c. deep, rich soil.

d. thick atmosphere.

____ 188. Which of the following modes of pollination would you least expect to find in a tropical rain forest?

a. butterfly

b. bird

c. bat

d. wind

____ 189. Which of the following is false? Temperate deciduous forests

a. change significantly during four distinct seasons.

b. are dominated by a few species of broadleaf trees.

c. have trees that survive winter by dropping their leaves.

d. have nutrient-poor soil.

____ 190. Which of the following biomes does not belong with the others?

a. taiga

b. steppes

c. boreal forest

d. northern coniferous forest

____ 191. In mountain biomes, it is estimated that each 100-meter gain in elevation is roughly equivalent to a _____-

kilometer change in latitude.

a. 1

b. 10

c. 100

d. 1,000

____ 192. Mountain biomes

a. have deep, rich soils.

b. recover quickly from vegetation loss.

c. may act as sanctuaries for animal species driven from lowland areas.

d. are independent of atmospheric changes and the hydrologic cycle.

____ 193. Humans effect mountain biomes by

a. expanding populations who may use the land in an unsustainable way.

b. ecotourism and recreation.

c. increase air pollution from urban areas.


____ 194. In its broadest sense, geographical perspective helps us to understand ecology by helping us to make

connections

a. between abiotic and biotic factors.

b. in time and space.

c. between temperature and precipitation.

d. between weather and climate.

____ 195. Flying foxes are now listed as endangered because

a. they congregate and are easy targets.

b. they are hunted.

c. of deforestation.

d. of all of these answers.

____ 196. What does richness refer to?

a. the number of individuals of each species

b. the number of different species

c. the number of edge effects

d. the number of ecotones in an area

____ 197. Based on the theory of island biogeography, you would predict that large islands near the mainland would

have relatively

a. high immigration and low extinction rates.

b. high immigration and high extinction rates.

c. low immigration and low extinction rates.

d. low immigration and high extinction rates.

____ 198. Which of the following is a specialist?

a. cockroach

b. fly

c. human

d. giant panda

____ 199. Species that serve as early warnings of environmental damage are called

a. nonnative species.

b. native species.

c. specialist species.

d. indicator species.

____ 200. Species whose roles in an ecosystem are much more important than their abundance would suggest are called


b. native species.

c. keystone species.

d. specialist species.

____ 201. Characteristics which make amphibians particularly sensitive to pollution include

a. living part of their life cycle in water and part on land.

b. soft, permeable skin.

c. sensitivity to ultraviolet radiation.


____ 202. Wild African bees are best described as


b. native species.



____ 203. Sea otters, dung beetles, and gopher tortoises are generally considered to be


b. native species.




a. When environmental conditions are changing rapidly, a generalist is usually better off than

a specialist.

b. The fundamental niche of a species is the full range of physical, chemical, and biological

factors it could use if there were no competition.

c. The competitive exclusion principle states that no two species with the same fundamental

niche can indefinitely occupy the same habitat.

d. Interspecific competition is competition between two members of the same species.

____ 205. Which of the following predators avoid competition by being active at different times?

a. lions and tigers

b. hummingbirds and bees

c. hawks and owls

d. zebras and antelopes

____ 206. The relationship between fire ants and native ant populations is best described as

a. mutualism.

b. commensalism.

c. intraspecific competition.

d. interspecific competition.

____ 207. Interspecific competition can be avoided by

a. eating at different times.

b. resource partitioning.

c. character displacement.


____ 208. A shark is least likely to be killed

a. by a predator.

b. for sport.

c. out of fear.

d. for food.

____ 209. The obvious relationship demonstrated by a food chain is

a. competition.

b. predation.

c. parasitism.

d. mutualism.

____ 210. A relationship in which both species benefit is best labeled

a. competition.

b. predation.

c. mutualism.

d. parasitism.

____ 211. Parasites

a. rarely kill their hosts.

b. are usually larger than their hosts.

c. must be internal to their hosts.

d. may strengthen their hosts over a long period of time.

____ 212. All of the following are ectoparasites except

a. fleas and ticks.

b. mosquitoes.

c. mistletoe.

d. tapeworms.

____ 213. All of the following illustrate the relationship of mutualism except

a. lichens.

b. epiphytes.

c. ants and acacias.

d. Rhizobium bacteria in root nodules of legumes.

____ 214. The relationship between clownfish and sea anemones is

a. competition.

b. predation.

c. parasitism.

d. mutualism.

____ 215. The relationship between redwood trees and redwood sorrel is

a. competition.

b. predation.

c. parasitism.

d. commensalism.

____ 216. Forms of nondestructive behavior between organisms include all of the following except

a. sharing resources by hunting at different times.

b. sharing resources by looking for food in different places.

c. parasitism.

d. mutualism.

____ 217. Which of the following statements about primary succession is false?

a. It is initiated by pioneer species.

b. It often involves species changing the environment so that they can no longer thrive and

must be replaced by other species.

c. It generally results in more complex, more self-sustaining stages than the preceding ones.

d. It is an orderly progression from pioneer species to climax species indicative of the region

being studied.

____ 218. How long does it take natural processes to produce fertile soil?

a. weeks to months

b. months to years

c. decades to a few centuries

d. several centuries to several thousands of years

____ 219. Which of the following would exhibit primary succession?

a. rock exposed by a retreating glacier

b. an abandoned farm

c. a forest that had been clear-cut

d. newly flooded land to create a reservoir

____ 220. Which of the following would undergo secondary succession?

a. cooled volcanic lava

b. an abandoned parking lot

c. a heavily polluted stream that has been cleaned up

d. a bare rock outcrop

____ 221. Soil formation in primary succession is encouraged by

a. physical weathering.

b. lichens and mosses trapping soil particles.

c. secretion of acids by lichens.


____ 222. You are a field ecologist. In an ecosystem under study, you observe rabbit, quail, and pheasant. Which stage

of succession are you most likely to report for this ecosystem?

a. early-succession

b. mid-succession

c. late-succession

d. mature

____ 223. You are a field ecologist. In an ecosystem under study, you observe turkeys and gray squirrels. Which stage

of succession are you most likely to report for this ecosystem?

a. early-succession

b. mid-succession

c. late-succession

d. mature

____ 224. A field ecologist observes primary succession occurring over a period of years. Bare rock is colonized by

lichens that give way to moss that give way to ferns. She is most likely to report that the process guiding

succession in this ecosystem is

a. interspecific competition.

b. tolerance.

c. facilitation.

d. inhibition.

____ 225. You observe a stand of dense hemlocks. You know squirrels from an adjacent area have brought pine cones to

the ecosystem, but no pine seedlings have sprouted. Of the following choices, the best label for this

observation is

a. primary succession.

b. tolerance.

c. tertiary succession.

d. inhibition.

____ 226. You observe a maple seedling grow successfully in a birch stand. All species thrive. The best label for this

observation would be

a. primary succession.

b. tolerance.

c. tertiary succession.

d. inhibition.

____ 227. In immature ecosystems

a. the species diversity is high.

b. the decomposers are numerous.

c. there are many specialized niches.

d. the food webs are simple.

____ 228. In forests maintained by intermittent fires,

a. the large trees are fire proof.

b. fires leave the low-lying vegetation and burn the tree crowns.

c. some species release seeds only after exposure to intense heat.

d. it takes up to a decade for new vegetation to grow.

____ 229. Which of the following human-caused changes is most appropriately classified as a catastrophic change rather

than a gradual change?

a. salinization

b. plowing

c. waterlogging

d. compaction

____ 230. Which of the following natural changes would be considered gradual rather than catastrophic?

a. drought

b. landslide

c. climate change

d. fire

____ 231. Which of the following human activities most favor monocultures?

a. agriculture and plantation forestry

b. agriculture and ecosystem restoration

c. plantation forestry and ecosystem restoration

d. agriculture and ecosystem rehabilitation

____ 232. Which of the following characteristics of organisms includes the other three?

a. stability

b. inertia

c. constancy

d. resilience

____ 233. The tropical rain forest is characterized by all of the following except

a. high resilience.

b. high diversity.

c. high inertia.

d. high constancy.

____ 234. Compared to forests, grasslands have

a. more diversity, more inertia.

b. more diversity, more resilience.

c. less diversity, more inertia.

d. less diversity, more resilience.

____ 235. One type of holistic environmental worldview is

a. an atomistic worldview.

b. a species-centered biocentric worldview.

c. an ecosystem-centered ecocentric worldview.

d. an individual-centered biocentric worldview.

____ 236. Usefulness to humans is the basis of

a. net worth.

b. dollar value.

c. aesthetic value.

d. instrumental value.

____ 237. The basic beliefs of a planetary management worldview include all of the following except that

a. humans are in charge of nature.

b. Earth has an unlimited supply of resources for human use.

c. human success depends upon how well we manage Earth's life-support systems for our

benefit.

d. humans need the Earth, but the Earth does not need us.

____ 238. The "no problem" variation of the planetary management worldview is based on the general belief that

a. pure capitalism should be used to make our economic decisions.

b. better management and technology and more economic growth can fix our problems.

c. an ethical responsibility to "tend our garden" would improve most technological-economic

growth worldviews.

d. a mixture of market-based competition, improved technology, and government

intervention can solve our problems.

____ 239. Which worldview is most likely to be based on a belief that better Earth care is better self-care?

a. "no problem" school

b. free-market school

c. responsible planetary management

d. stewardship

____ 240. Which of the following corollaries would not result from an anthropocentric worldview?

a. Animals are for shooting.

b. People First, increasing their wants without limit, result in loss of biodiversity.

c. Good earth stewards can preserve ecological integrity.

d. The world is for exploiting.

____ 241. Which of the following beliefs does not characterize a life-centered worldview?

a. Human ingenuity can fix any problems we face.

b. Earth has limited resources.

c. Ever-increasing production and consumption will severely stress Earth's systems.

d. Earth has limited capability to absorb human pollutants.

____ 242. Deep ecology refers to

a. hazardous waste disposal in deep wells.

b. the ecology of the deep trenches of the oceans.

c. a philosophical stance using ecology as a basis.

d. the ecology of deep space.

____ 243. Which of the following claims are ecofeminists least likely to make?

a. The main cause of our crisis of sustainability is human-centeredness.

b. When agricultural societies developed, women lost much of the power they had shared

with males.

c. Although women do over half of the world's work, they receive less than 10% of all wages

and own less than 1% of all property.

d. Women do not want to be co-opted into the male power game.

____ 244. Which of the following strategies would be most emphasized by the social ecology worldview?

a. decentralization

b. more technology

c. ecocentrism

d. ecofeminism

____ 245. Murray Bookchin is least likely to encourage creation of

a. ecotechnologies that are smaller in scale and consume fewer resources.

b. better versions of democratic communities.

c. more powerful technologies that increase efficiency by being large-scale.

d. new forms of Earth-sustaining production.

____ 246. According to the author, examining our basic values can set off

a. an explosion.

b. an earthquake.

c. El Niño-Southern Oscillation.

d. a mindquake.

____ 247. According to Arnold Toynbee, a civilization showing "true growth" is least likely to put most of its time and

energy into

a. developing a sense of community.

b. strengthening its democratic process.

c. meeting the material needs and wants of its people.

d. developing capacity for compassion.

____ 248. Of the following strategies, the one least likely to empower us to move toward more responsible

environmental actions in our lives is to

a. ground our actions in hope.

b. recognize there are many alternative paths to make progress.

c. avoid mental traps that lead to inaction.

d. recognize up front that we are to blame for all environmental disasters and there is no hope

to atone for all the messes.

____ 249. Which ecological understandings are often violated by contemporary societies?

a. Actions continually have consequences, some known and some unknown.

b. There is no away.

c. We can never do just one thing.

d. All of these answers.

____ 250. The author of your textbook calls for all of the following except

a. unity in commitment to sustainable living on the Earth.

b. diversity in approaches to living sustainably.

c. a positive vision of the future.

d. a commitment to evaluating the best sustainable culture on Earth and making carbon

copies over the rest of the Earth.

Practice Exam for APEs Chapters 1,2,3,4,5,6,8 &28

Answer Section

MULTIPLE CHOICE

1. ANS: B PTS: 1 TOP: 1-1 LIVING MORE SUSTAINABLY

2. ANS: A PTS: 1 TOP: 1-1 LIVING MORE SUSTAINABLY

3. ANS: C PTS: 1

TOP: 1-2 POPULATION GROWTH | ECONOMIC GROWTH | DEV'T AND...

4. ANS: A PTS: 1


5. ANS: D PTS: 1


6. ANS: C PTS: 1


7. ANS: C PTS: 1


8. ANS: B PTS: 1 TOP: 1-3 RESOURCES

9. ANS: B PTS: 1 TOP: 1-3 RESOURCES

10. ANS: A PTS: 1 TOP: 1-3 RESOURCES


12. ANS: D PTS: 1 TOP: 1-3 RESOURCES

13. ANS: C PTS: 1 TOP: 1-3 RESOURCES

14. ANS: D PTS: 1 TOP: 1-3 RESOURCES


16. ANS: D PTS: 1 TOP: 1-4 POLLUTION

17. ANS: D PTS: 1 TOP: 1-4 POLLUTION

18. ANS: C PTS: 1 TOP: 1-4 POLLUTION

19. ANS: A PTS: 1 TOP: 1-4 POLLUTION

20. ANS: A PTS: 1

TOP: 1-5 ENVIRONMENTAL PROBLEMS: CAUSES AND CONNECTIONS

21. ANS: C PTS: 1

TOP: 1-5 ENVIRONMENTAL PROBLEMS: CAUSES AND CONNECTIONS

22. ANS: B PTS: 1 TOP: 1-6 IS OUR PRESENT COURSE SUSTAINABLE?

23. ANS: D PTS: 1

TOP: 2-1 CULTURAL CHANGES AND THE ENVIRONMENT

24. ANS: D PTS: 1


25. ANS: B PTS: 1


26. ANS: D PTS: 1


27. ANS: D PTS: 1


28. ANS: D PTS: 1


29. ANS: C PTS: 1


30. ANS: C PTS: 1


31. ANS: D PTS: 1


32. ANS: A PTS: 1

TOP: 2-2 ENVIRONMENTAL HISTORY OF THE U.S.: TRIBAL & FRONTIER ERA

33. ANS: B PTS: 1

TOP: 2-3 ENVIRONMENTAL HISTORY OF U.S.: EARLY CONSERV. ERA

34. ANS: A PTS: 1


35. ANS: B PTS: 1


36. ANS: B PTS: 1


37. ANS: C PTS: 1

TOP: 2-4 ENVIRONMENTAL HISTORY OF U.S.: ENVIRONMENTAL ERA

38. ANS: B PTS: 1


39. ANS: A PTS: 1


40. ANS: D PTS: 1


41. ANS: D PTS: 1 TOP: 3-1 SCIENCE AND CRITICAL THINKING



44. ANS: C PTS: 1 TOP: 3-1 SCIENCE AND CRITICAL THINKING


46. ANS: D PTS: 1 TOP: 3-2 MODELS AND BEHAVIOR OF SYSTEMS

47. ANS: C PTS: 1 TOP: 3-2 MODELS AND BEHAVIOR OF SYSTEMS

48. ANS: A PTS: 1 TOP: 3-2 MODELS AND BEHAVIOR OF SYSTEMS

49. ANS: C PTS: 1 TOP: 3-2 MODELS AND BEHAVIOR OF SYSTEMS

50. ANS: B PTS: 1 TOP: 3-2 MODELS AND BEHAVIOR OF SYSTEMS


52. ANS: A PTS: 1 TOP: 3-2 MODELS AND BEHAVIOR OF SYSTEMS


54. ANS: C PTS: 1

TOP: 3-3 MATTER: FORMS | STRUCTURE | AND QUALITY

55. ANS: B PTS: 1


56. ANS: D PTS: 1


57. ANS: D PTS: 1


58. ANS: C PTS: 1


59. ANS: B PTS: 1


60. ANS: A PTS: 1


61. ANS: C PTS: 1


62. ANS: C PTS: 1


63. ANS: B PTS: 1 TOP: 3-4 ENERGY: FORMS AND QUALITY



66. ANS: C PTS: 1 TOP: 3-4 ENERGY: FORMS AND QUALITY


68. ANS: A PTS: 1 TOP: 3-4 ENERGY: FORMS AND QUALITY



71. ANS: B PTS: 1

TOP: 3-5 PHYSICAL & CHEMICAL CHANGES & THE LAW OF CONSERV. OF...

72. ANS: A PTS: 1


73. ANS: C PTS: 1


74. ANS: C PTS: 1 TOP: 3-6 NUCLEAR CHANGES

75. ANS: B PTS: 1 TOP: 3-6 NUCLEAR CHANGES

76. ANS: A PTS: 1 TOP: 3-6 NUCLEAR CHANGES

77. ANS: C PTS: 1 TOP: 3-6 NUCLEAR CHANGES

78. ANS: D PTS: 1 TOP: 3-6 NUCLEAR CHANGES



81. ANS: B PTS: 1 TOP: 3-7 TWO LAWS GOVERNING ENERGY CHANGES

82. ANS: B PTS: 1 TOP: 3-7 TWO LAWS GOVERNING ENERGY CHANGES

83. ANS: C PTS: 1 TOP: 3-7 TWO LAWS GOVERNING ENERGY CHANGES

84. ANS: C PTS: 1 TOP: 3-7 TWO LAWS GOVERNING ENERGY CHANGES

85. ANS: A PTS: 1 TOP: 3-7 TWO LAWS GOVERNING ENERGY CHANGES

86. ANS: D PTS: 1 TOP: 3-7 TWO LAWS GOVERNING ENERGY CHANGES

87. ANS: D PTS: 1 TOP: 3-7 TWO LAWS GOVERNING ENERGY CHANGES

88. ANS: D PTS: 1

TOP: 3-8 CONNECTIONS: MATTER & ENERGY LAWS & ENVIRONMENTAL...

89. ANS: A PTS: 1


90. ANS: D PTS: 1


91. ANS: D PTS: 1

92. ANS: C PTS: 1

93. ANS: C PTS: 1 TOP: 4-1 THE NATURE OF ECOLOGY

94. ANS: D PTS: 1 TOP: 4-1 THE NATURE OF ECOLOGY

95. ANS: C PTS: 1 TOP: 4-1 THE NATURE OF ECOLOGY

96. ANS: B PTS: 1 TOP: 4-1 THE NATURE OF ECOLOGY

97. ANS: B PTS: 1 TOP: 4-1 THE NATURE OF ECOLOGY

98. ANS: D PTS: 1 TOP: 4-1 THE NATURE OF ECOLOGY

99. ANS: B PTS: 1 TOP: 4-2 THE EARTH'S LIFE-SUPP0RT SYSTEMS

100. ANS: D PTS: 1 TOP: 4-2 THE EARTH'S LIFE-SUPP0RT SYSTEMS

101. ANS: C PTS: 1 TOP: 4-2 THE EARTH'S LIFE-SUPP0RT SYSTEMS

102. ANS: C PTS: 1 TOP: 4-2 THE EARTH'S LIFE-SUPP0RT SYSTEMS

103. ANS: B PTS: 1 TOP: 4-2 THE EARTH'S LIFE-SUPP0RT SYSTEMS

104. ANS: D PTS: 1 TOP: 4-2 THE EARTH'S LIFE-SUPP0RT SYSTEMS

105. ANS: D PTS: 1 TOP: 4-3 ECOSYSTEM CONCEPTS AND COMPONENTS

106. ANS: C PTS: 1 TOP: 4-3 ECOSYSTEM CONCEPTS AND COMPONENTS



109. ANS: B PTS: 1 TOP: 4-3 ECOSYSTEM CONCEPTS AND COMPONENTS

110. ANS: A PTS: 1 TOP: 4-3 ECOSYSTEM CONCEPTS AND COMPONENTS




114. ANS: A PTS: 1 TOP: 4-3 ECOSYSTEM CONCEPTS AND COMPONENTS






120. ANS: A PTS: 1

TOP: 4-4 CONNECTIONS: FOOD WEBS AND ENERGY FLOW IN ECOSYSTEMS

121. ANS: D PTS: 1

TOP: 4-4 CONNECTIONS: FOOD WEBS AND ENERGY FLOW IN ECOSYSTEMS

122. ANS: C PTS: 1 TOP: 4-5 PRIMARY PRODUCTIVITY OF ECOSYSTEMS

123. ANS: D PTS: 1 TOP: 4-5 PRIMARY PRODUCTIVITY OF ECOSYSTEMS

124. ANS: C PTS: 1

TOP: 4-6 CONNECTIONS: MATTER CYCLING IN ECOSYSTEMS

125. ANS: B PTS: 1


126. ANS: C PTS: 1


127. ANS: B PTS: 1


128. ANS: C PTS: 1


129. ANS: D PTS: 1


130. ANS: B PTS: 1


131. ANS: A PTS: 1


132. ANS: C PTS: 1


133. ANS: B PTS: 1


134. ANS: D PTS: 1


135. ANS: D PTS: 1


136. ANS: D PTS: 1


137. ANS: B PTS: 1


138. ANS: B PTS: 1

TOP: 4-7 HOW DO ECOLOGISTS LEARN ABOUT ECOSYSTEMS?

139. ANS: C PTS: 1


140. ANS: D PTS: 1


141. ANS: C PTS: 1


142. ANS: C PTS: 1 TOP: 5-1 ORIGINS OF LIFE

143. ANS: C PTS: 1 TOP: 5-1 ORIGINS OF LIFE

144. ANS: D PTS: 1 TOP: 5-1 ORIGINS OF LIFE

145. ANS: D PTS: 1 TOP: 5-1 ORIGINS OF LIFE

146. ANS: D PTS: 1 TOP: 5-2 EVOLUTION AND ADAPTATION



149. ANS: B PTS: 1 TOP: 5-2 EVOLUTION AND ADAPTATION

150. ANS: A PTS: 1 TOP: 5-2 EVOLUTION AND ADAPTATION



153. ANS: C PTS: 1 TOP: 5-2 EVOLUTION AND ADAPTATION


155. ANS: A PTS: 1 TOP: 5-2 EVOLUTION AND ADAPTATION

156. ANS: B PTS: 1 TOP: 5-3 ECOLOGICAL NICHES AND ADAPTATION

157. ANS: C PTS: 1

TOP: 5-4 SPECIATION | EXTINCTION | AND BIODIVERSITY

158. ANS: D PTS: 1


159. ANS: B PTS: 1


160. ANS: D PTS: 1


161. ANS: D PTS: 1


162. ANS: D PTS: 1 TOP: 6-1 WEATHER: A BRIEF INTRODUCTION

163. ANS: B PTS: 1 TOP: 6-1 WEATHER: A BRIEF INTRODUCTION

164. ANS: C PTS: 1 TOP: 6-1 WEATHER: A BRIEF INTRODUCTION

165. ANS: C PTS: 1 TOP: 6-1 WEATHER: A BRIEF INTRODUCTION

166. ANS: A PTS: 1 TOP: 6-1 WEATHER: A BRIEF INTRODUCTION

167. ANS: D PTS: 1 TOP: 6-2 CLIMATE: A BRIEF INTRODUCTION

168. ANS: B PTS: 1 TOP: 6-2 CLIMATE: A BRIEF INTRODUCTION

169. ANS: C PTS: 1 TOP: 6-2 CLIMATE: A BRIEF INTRODUCTION






175. ANS: D PTS: 1 TOP: 6-3 BIOMES: CLIMATE AND LIFE ON LAND

176. ANS: B PTS: 1 TOP: 6-3 BIOMES: CLIMATE AND LIFE ON LAND

177. ANS: B PTS: 1 TOP: 6-3 BIOMES: CLIMATE AND LIFE ON LAND

178. ANS: D PTS: 1 TOP: 6-3 BIOMES: CLIMATE AND LIFE ON LAND

179. ANS: B PTS: 1 TOP: 6-4 DESERT BIOMES

180. ANS: B PTS: 1 TOP: 6-4 DESERT BIOMES

181. ANS: C PTS: 1

TOP: 6-5 GRASSLAND | TUNDRA | AND CHAPARRAL BIOMES

182. ANS: D PTS: 1


183. ANS: B PTS: 1


184. ANS: B PTS: 1 TOP: 6-6 FOREST BIOMES

185. ANS: D PTS: 1 TOP: 6-6 FOREST BIOMES


187. ANS: A PTS: 1 TOP: 6-6 FOREST BIOMES




191. ANS: C PTS: 1 TOP: 6-7 MOUNTAIN BIOMES

192. ANS: C PTS: 1 TOP: 6-7 MOUNTAIN BIOMES

193. ANS: D PTS: 1 TOP: 6-7 MOUNTAIN BIOMES

194. ANS: B PTS: 1 TOP: 6-8 LESSONS FROM GEOGRAPHICAL ECOLOGY

195. ANS: D PTS: 1

196. ANS: B PTS: 1

TOP: 8-1 COMMUNITY STRUCTURE: APPEARANCE AND SPECIES DIVERSITY

197. ANS: A PTS: 1

TOP: 8-1 COMMUNITY STRUCTURE: APPEARANCE AND SPECIES DIVERSITY

198. ANS: D PTS: 1 TOP: 8-2 GENERAL TYPES OF SPECIES


200. ANS: C PTS: 1 TOP: 8-2 GENERAL TYPES OF SPECIES


202. ANS: A PTS: 1 TOP: 8-2 GENERAL TYPES OF SPECIES

203. ANS: C PTS: 1 TOP: 8-2 GENERAL TYPES OF SPECIES

204. ANS: D PTS: 1

TOP: 8-3 SPECIES INTERACTIONS: COMPETITION AND PREDATION

205. ANS: C PTS: 1


206. ANS: D PTS: 1


207. ANS: D PTS: 1


208. ANS: A PTS: 1


209. ANS: B PTS: 1


210. ANS: C PTS: 1

TOP: 8-4 SYMBIOTIC SPECIES INTERACTIONS: PARASITISM | MUTUALISM...

211. ANS: A PTS: 1


212. ANS: D PTS: 1


213. ANS: B PTS: 1


214. ANS: D PTS: 1


215. ANS: D PTS: 1


216. ANS: C PTS: 1


217. ANS: D PTS: 1

TOP: 8-5 ECOLOGICAL SUCCESSION: COMMUNITIES IN TRANSITION

218. ANS: D PTS: 1


219. ANS: A PTS: 1


220. ANS: C PTS: 1


221. ANS: D PTS: 1


222. ANS: A PTS: 1


223. ANS: C PTS: 1


224. ANS: C PTS: 1


225. ANS: D PTS: 1


226. ANS: B PTS: 1


227. ANS: D PTS: 1


228. ANS: C PTS: 1


229. ANS: B PTS: 1


230. ANS: C PTS: 1


231. ANS: A PTS: 1


232. ANS: A PTS: 1

TOP: 8-6 ECOLOGICAL STABILITY AND SUSTAINABILITY

233. ANS: A PTS: 1


234. ANS: D PTS: 1


235. ANS: C PTS: 1

TOP: 28-1 ENVIRONMENTAL WORLDVIEWS IN INDUSTRIAL SOCIETIES

236. ANS: D PTS: 1


237. ANS: D PTS: 1


238. ANS: B PTS: 1


239. ANS: C PTS: 1


240. ANS: C PTS: 1

TOP: 28-2 LIFE-CENTERED ENVIRONMENTAL WORLDVIEWS

241. ANS: A PTS: 1


242. ANS: C PTS: 1


243. ANS: A PTS: 1


244. ANS: A PTS: 1


245. ANS: C PTS: 1


246. ANS: D PTS: 1 TOP: 28-3 SOLUTIONS: LIVING MORE SUSTAINABLY

247. ANS: C PTS: 1 TOP: 28-3 SOLUTIONS: LIVING MORE SUSTAINABLY




44_Practice Exam APEs Chapters 1234568&28

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