SIES College of Commerce and Economics, Sion East
TYBSc IT Sem VI - Business Intelligence Sample Questions
Sr
No Question Option A Option B Option C Option D
1
Which of the following is NOT a component
of business intelligence architecture?
Data sources Data warehouses
and data marts
Business
intelligence
methodologies
Data mining
2
Decision support systems are used for Management
decision making
Providing tactical
information to
management
Providing
strategic
information to
management
Better
operation of an
organization
3
Computer information system are most
successful in providing information for
Control decisions Planning decision Strategic decision None of the
above
4
On which learning methods the Data Mining
method is based?
inductive learning
methods
deductive learning
methods
productive
learning methods
comprehensive
learning
methods
5
In which Mathematical mode the decision
maker is required to choose among a number
of available alternatives Risk analysis
models
Optimization
models
Pattern
recognition
Models
Waiting line
models
6
Data mining activities can be subdivided into
two major investigation streams , which are
Interpretation and
Sampling
Interpretation and
Prediction
Forecast and
Prediction
Forecast and
Interpretation
7
The ______ method involves subdividing the
m observations available into two disjoint
subsets. Holdout
Repeated random
sampling Cross validation
Confusion
matrix
8
Filters, wrappers and embedded methods
are categories of __________
Quantitative
classification discritization Feature selection Sampling
9
Which method of analysis does NOT classify
variables as dependent or independent? regression analysis
discriminant
analysis analysis of
variance
cluster
analysis
10
Which statement is NOT true about cluster
analysis?
Objects in one
cluster are similar
to each other and
dissimilar to
objects in the other
clusters.
Cluster analysis is
also called
classification
analysis or
numerical
taxonomy
Groups or clusters
are suggested by
the data, not
defined a priori
Cluster
analysis is a
technique for
analysing data
when the
criterion or
dependent
variable is
categorical and
the
independent
variables are
interval in
nature.
11
Which of the following clustering algorithms
suffers from the problem of convergence at
local optima?
K- Means
clustering
Hierarchical
clustering Diverse clustering
All of the
above
12
Which of the following statements about
Naive Bayes is incorrect? Attributes are
equally important.
Attributes are
statistically
dependent of one
another given the
class value.
Attributes are
statistically
independent of
one another given
the class value
Attributes can
be nominal or
numeric
13
Which is NOT the evaluation criteria of
classification model
Accuracy Speed Scalability Cost
14
Which of the statement is not true about
Data Mining?
The term data
mining refer to the
overall process
consisting of data
gathering and
analysis,
development of
inductive learning
models and
adoption of
practical decisions
and consequent
actions based on
the knowledge
acquired.
Data mining
analysis is to draw
a fresh conclusion
without
investigating the
past data,
observations and
interpretations
Data mining
activities can be
subdivided into
two major
investigation
streams,
interpretation and
prediction
The data
mining process
is based on
inductive
learning
methods
15
In _______ model, input data are supposed
to be known a priori and with certainty Stochastic Deterministic Symbolic Static
16
The objective of BI is To support
decision-making
and complex
problem solving
To support
information
gathering
To support data
collection
To support
data analysis
17
Extraction of information and knowledge
from data is known as
Data mining Optimization Data exploration Data mart
18
Which is the last Phases of mathematical
models for decision making Problem
Identification
Implementation
and Testing Model Formation
Development
of Algorithm
19
Principal component analysis (PCA) is
reduction by means of elimination reduction projection conclusion
20
______ methods make use of classification
methods based on simple and intuitive
algorithms Separation Regression Probabilistic Heuristic
21
____________ is an indicator of ability of
classification model to predict the target class
for future observations
Speed Scalability Accuracy Cost
22 A perceptron is:
a single layer feed-
forward neural
network with pre-
processing
an auto-
associative neural
network
a double layer
auto-associative
neural network
a neural
network that
contains
feedback
23
______ is also called as complete linkage
criterion Minimum Distance
Maximum
Distance Mean Distance
Distance
between
centroids
24 maps and houses are example of Analogical Model Iconic Model Symbolic Model Static Model
25
In ________ type of model, decision-making
process is carried out within one single
temporal stage Stochastic Deterministic Symbolic Static
26
___________ is used to to simulate the
behavior of biological systems composed of
neurons Decision Tree
Neural networks Bayesian method Logistic
regression
27
Which of the following is not a component of
business intelligence analysis cycle?
Analysis Insight Decision Design
28
Following are the phases of Development of
a business intelligence system
Analysis and
Design
Planning Implementation
and Control
All of the
above
29
Bayesian classifiers is
A class of learning
algorithm that tries
to find an optimum
classification of a
set of examples
using the
probabilistic theory
Any mechanism
employed by a
learning system to
constrain the
search space of a
hypothesis
An approach to
the design of
learning
algorithms that is
inspired by the
fact that when
people encounter
new situations,
they often explain
them by reference
to familiar
experiences,
adapting the
explanations to fit
the new situation.
None of these
30
____________ is replicating the holdout
method a number of times
Holdout method Repeated random
sampling
Cross-validation Cross join
31
post-pruning is applied upon completion of
tree development
at the start of tree
development
In the middle of
tree development
Before tree
development
32
forward–backward(trade-off) attribute
search scheme
Start with empty
set
and adds one
attribute at a time
based on relevance
Start with set of all
attributes and
removes one
attribute at a time
based on
relevance
introduces best
attribute and
eliminates the
worst attribute
removes all
attributes
33 Classify variable which is not continuous age height gender
revenue of
medical shop
34
Strategic information is needed for Day to day
operations
Meet government
requirements
Long range
planning
Short range
planning
35
In __________ type of decision role of
knowledge workers is fundamental
Structured Unstructured Semi-structured loosely
structured
36
___________ methods make use of
classification methods based on separating
the observations based on the target class Separation Regression Probabilistic Heuristic
37
Which of the following curve analysis is
conducted on each predictor for
classification? NOC ROC COC
AOC
38
______ are supervised learning methods for
predicting the value of a categorical target
attribute Classification Clustering Regression Customization
39
When data are classified according to a
single characteristic, it is called:
Quantitative
classification
Qualitative
classification Area classification
Simple
classification
40
Strategic decisions involve use of _______
data
Past Present Future Imaginary
41
A model which visually conveys what the
real things looks like is Analogical Model Iconic Model Symbolic Model Static Model
42
Decision support systems are essential for Day–to-day
operation of an
organization
Providing
statutory
information
Top level strategic
decision making
Ensuring that
organizations
are profitable
43
________________ is the process to bridge
the gap between the current operating
conditions of a system (as is) and the
supposedly better conditions to be achieved
in the future (to be).
Analysis Problem solving Data mining Design
44
___________measurements express
relationship between input flows and the
corresponding output flows
Effectiveness Efficiency Evaluation Feedback
45
__________ model represents systems as they
function Analogical Model Iconic Model Symbolic Model Static Model
46
Suppose we would like to perform clustering
on spatial data such as the geometrical
locations of houses. We wish to produce
clusters of many different sizes and shapes.
Which of the following methods is the most
appropriate Decision Trees
Density-based
clustering
Model-based
clustering
K-means
clustering
47
Decision support systems are used by Line managers Top-level
managers
Middle level
managers
System users
48
Optimization is Determine the best
solution
Successful
marketing
approaches to
achieve the
optimum outcome
Getting the
greatest return for
the least
expenditure of
time, effort,
manpower
All the above
49
In ________ type of decisions, scope of the
information is quantitative
Strategic Tactical Operational real time
50
Data reduction is to reduce size in
case of large
dataset
Reduce the size of
each data record
delete fixed
amount of data
converting
data into
another format
with reduced
size
Sr. No Question Option A Option B Option C Option D
1
_____ is perceived by the
customer from the attributes of
the service that have a positive
effect on the performance of tasks
associated with desired outcomes. Utility warranty value performance
2 Warranty is fitness for ________. Purpose effect
performanc
e use
3
In logic of value creation through
services which logic gate can be
used for warranty? AND OR NOT XOR
4
Processes may define roles,
responsibilities, tools,
management controls, policies,
standards, guidelines, activities and
work instructions if they are
needed
TRUE FALSE
5
A ________is the person
responsible for the operational
management of a process.
process
owner
process
manager
process
developer
process
officer
6
______is made accountable for
ensuring that the action takes
place, even if they might not do it
themselves
Responsibili
ty Consult
Accountabili
ty Inform
7
______helps place and prioritize
improvement programmes and
projects based on strategic
objectives. Service
Strategy
Service
Design
Service
Transition
Continual
Service
Improvement
8
The _______ phase is concerned
predominantly with the design of
IT Services
Service
Transition
Service
Design
Continual
Service
Improveme
nt
Service
Strategy
9
______ ensures the value from
vendor.
Supplier
manageme
nt
service level
management
availability
managemen
t
capacity
management
SIES College of Commerce & Economics
IT Service Management Sample Questions
Class : T.Y.B.Sc IT Semester : VI
10
The primary goal of __________t is
to ensure that an agreed level of IT
service is provided for all current IT
services, and that future services
are delivered to agreed achievable
targets.
Service
Level
Manageme
n
Supplier
management
capacity
managemen
t
availability
management
11
_______ is a written statement of
available IT services,default
levels,options,prices &
identification of which processes or
customer use them
service
solution
service
catalogue
Service level
agreement
underpinning
contracts
12
________ensure that underpinning
contracts and agreements with
suppliers are aligned to business
needs.
Service
Level
Manageme
n
availability
management
Supplier
Manageme
nt
capacity
management
13
________ provide guidance on the
development and improvement of
capabilities for transitioning new
and changed services into
operations Service
Transition
Service
Design
Continual
Service
Improveme
nt
Service
Strategy
14
Which of the following is not
Service Transition process?
Knowledge
Manageme
nt
Change
Management
Service
Asset and
Configuratio
n
Manageme
nt
availability
management
15
_____ is created by Problem
Management and is used by
Problem management and Incident
Management. CMDB AMDB KEDB ASDB
16
Business unit managers do not
benefit from improved ITSM
practices. TRUE FALSE
17
The is a a major source of good
practice used by organizations
worldwide to establish and
improve their ITSM practices.
SDLC PMP
ITIL
framework ITIM
18
ITSM is defined as a set of
specialized organizational_______
for providing value to customers in
the form of
services
capacities capabilities
communitie
s securities
19
When staff members of an IT organization have an internal focus on the technology being delivered and supported, they lose sight of the actual purpose
and benefit that their efforts deliver to the business. TRUE FALSE
20
Which of the following are benefits
of IT service management? Select
all options that apply.
Learning
from
previous
experience
Demonstrabl
e
performance
indicators
Higher
customer
retention
Integrated
centralized
processes
21 Functions typically defines___
roles &
responsibili
ties services customers suppliers
22 What is service?
A means to
make
people not
to do work
themselves.
A means of
utilizing idle
organization
resources
A means of
earning
revenues
A means of
delivering
value to
customers
23
Using services customers want to
achieve outcomes _______ the
ownership of specific costs & risks. with without borrowing mortgaging
24
Continual Service improvement is
not connected to other phases of
ITIL life cycle. TRUE FALSE
25
A ________ is used when a
threshold has been reached or
something has been changed. warning event trigger error
26
The main activity of proactive
problem management is
problem
logging
Problem
detection
Trend
Analysis
Target
prevention
27
Responsibilities in service
operation are divided between
service desk & technical support
groups. TRUE FALSE
28 VOI is subcomponent of ROI TRUE FALSE
29
_______ can be defined as change
of state that has significance for
the managementod CI. event trigger warning error
30
Change management activities are
not related to project management
activities. TRUE FALSE
31
Which of the following is not
knowledge management system
component? SKMS CMS CMDB ERP
32
Which of the following are
consequences of insufficient
testing Incidents
Increased
service desk
calls for
assistance
Problems &
errors
Unhappy
customers
33
in which approach of deploment
the new or changed service is
deployed to all user areas in one
operation. Big bang automated manual
not a
possible way
of
deployment
34
Supply Management provides the
basis by which improvements are
made to both services and the
capabilities of an IT Service
Provider
TRUE FALSE
35
Use techniques that address the
root-cause of the symptoms, so
that weeds will no longer grow is
__________
Access
Manageme
nt
Supply
Management
Problem
Manageme
nt
Financial
Management
36
The goal of _________ to help
plan, implement and maintain a
stable technical infrastructure to
support the organization’s business
processes
Facility
Manageme
nt
Financial
Management
Technical
Manageme
nt Supply
Management
37
Which of the following is not
change management types? Normal Standard Emergency Change
38 What is SACM?
Service
Asset and
Configurati
on
Manageme
nt
Service
Accounts &
Configuration
Management
Service
Asset &
Console
Manageme
nt
Service
Access &
Console
Manamenent
39 Select DRAC curve steps? Denial Rejection Acceptance Consult
40
_____ is a measure of how quickly
and effectively a service,
component or CI can be restored
to normal working after a failure.
Downtime Capacity
Maintainabi
lity Reliability
41
The primary goal of _____ is to
ensure that a Service Catalogue is
produced, maintained and always
contains accurate information on
all operational services and those
ready for deployment.
Portfolio
Manageme
nt
Availability
Management
Capacity
Manageme
nt
Service
Catalogue
Management
42
________includes all of the
functional requirements, resources
and capabilities needed and
agreed. Service
Portfolio
Service
Solutions Processes functions
43
_______ consists of measuring,
monitoring, and tuning the
performance of IT Infrastructure
components.
Demand
Manageme
nt
Application
Sizing
Performanc
e
Monitoring Tuning
44
Which of the following is not
supplier category? Strategic Tactical Operational Procedural
45
Proactive activities are part of
______ phase.
Service
Strategy
Service
Design
Service
Transition
Continual
Service
Improvement
46
Processes are strategic assets
when they create competitive
advantage and market
differentiation.
TRUE FALSE
47
_________refer to the logical
grouping of roles and automated
measures that execute a defined
process, an activity or combination
of both.
Processes activities effects Functions
48
IT Service Management value to
client by:
Increased
TCO
Enhanced
profitability
Increased
risk
Total
dissatisfactio
n
49
People increase competence by
_________. Product Practice Partner Process
50 What can be a part of the service strategy phase?Plan Vision
required
assets
procured
day to day
activity
SIES College of Commerce and Economics, Sion E
SOFTWARE QUALITY ASSURANCE
TYBScIT SEM VI
SAMPLE QUESTIONS
1. Quality can be recongnized but not defined. This is called as the _________
a) View of quality
b) Transcendental user
c) Product
d) Manufacturing
2. The most successful tool used for Statistical Process Control (SPC) is _______.
a) Gantt Chart
b) Control Chart
c) Line Chart
d) Bar Chart
3. Which of the following is the example of an Application software?
a) MS-Windows
b) Word Processor
c) Linux
d) Unix
4. Which of the following term describes testing?
a) Finding broken code
b) A stage of all projects
c) Evaluating deliverable to find error
d) Process of developing software
5. What are the four framework activities found in the Extreme Programming(XP) process
mode
a) analysis, design coding, testing
b) planning,analysis,design,coding
c) planning,analysis,coding,testing
d) planning,design,coding,testing
6. A graph has 2 IF-conditions; what is itsMcCabe complexity?
a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4
7. When all the nodes are travesered in program graph then it is called as ____
a) Graph coverage
b) Edge coverage
c) Node coverage
d) Path coverage
8. One of the foolowing is not a component of verification workbench:
a) Verification Process
b) Process rework
c) Standards
d) Validation Process
9. Name the testing that involves testing of many units by combing them together to form a
module or sub module.
a) Interface testing
b) Integration testing
c) System Testing
d) Unit Testing
10. ___________ is conducted on whole integrated system to estimate the systems
compliance with its specified set of requirements.
a) Integration Testing
b) Interface Testing
c) System Testing
d) Unit Testing
11. How many process maturity levels are there?
a) Five
b) Two
c) Three
d) Four
12. A design must be ______________in all respect.
a) Clarity
b) Traceable
c) Implementable
d) Complete
13. How many types of performance testing techniques are there?
a) One
b) Four
c) Two
d) Three
14. _________ Testing is carried out at client’s site by the end users or the stakeholders of
the product.
a) Beta
b) Gamma
c) Alpha
d) Unit
15. In this review the author of the artifact presents it to all the team members and the entire
team discusses about the various aspects of the artifact
a) Audit
b) Superior Review
c) Inspection
d) Walkthrough
16. Boundary Value testing on NextDate program does not give _____________ results
a) Bad
b) Good
c) Poor
d) Excellent
17. Software tester focuses more on complex part of the software. Which of the following
testing principle implies this?
a) Testing shows presence of defects
b) Pesticide paradox
c) Testing is context dependent
d) Defect Clustering
18. Exhaustive testing is
a) Always possible
b) practically possible
c) Impractical but possible
d) Impractical and impossible
19. Which two models doesn’t allow defining requirements early in the cycle?
a) Waterfall & RAD
b) Prototyping & Spiral
c) Prototyping & RAD
d) Waterfall & Spiral
20. Boundary value analysis belong to?
a) White Box Testing
b) Black Box Testing
c) Grey Box Testing
d) Red Box Testing
21. AND conditions are ___________ coupled OR conditions are _____________ coupled
a) Strongly,strrongly
b) Strongly, weakly
c) Weakly,weakly
d) Weakly,strongly
22. _________decides the execution of the inspection,defines the schedules,allocates time
and defines objectives of inspection.
a) Manager
b) Moderator
c) Author
d) Reviewer
23. Structured Testing includes the following except
a) Path Coverage
b) Call Coverage
c) Loop Coverage
d) Exit
24. "Delivering the right product" is part of _________ view of quality.
a) Customer
b) Developer
c) Supplier
d) Market
25. Improvement in Quality has a ________ effect on Productivity.
e) Positive
f) Negative
g) No effect
h) Worsening
Sr.
No.
Question Answer1 Answer2 Answer3 Answer4
1 GIS deals with which kind of data? Numeric data Binary data Spatial Data Complex data
2 Among the following which do not come under the components of GIS? Hardware Software Data Algorithm
3 What is DEM? Discrete
Elevation
model
Data Elevation
Model
Digital Elevation
Model
Decision Enterprise
Model
4 Which Database system offers the underlying database technology for
geographic information systems and other applcations?
Relational
DataBase
System
Object Oriented
DataBase System
Spatial Data Base
System
Object Relational
DataBase System
5 Equilateral triangles,squares and hexagons are examples of irregular
tessellations
Regular
tessellations
Boundaries Land parcels
6 Which data is comprised of lines or arcs? Raster data vector data Raw data discrete data
7 Which is a key GIS requirement for datamanagement and integrity? DBMS RDBMS TOPOLOGY QUERY Management
8 Which data is the change in characteristic of a place over time? Discrete data Raw data Vector data temporal data
9 What is Metadata ? It is "data
about data"
It is
"meteorological
data"
It is " oceanic
data"
It is "contour data"
10 Housewith respect to GIS is referred to as Discrete
objects
Continuous fields Geographic
object
GIS object
11 Spatial databases are also known as Geodatabases Operational
Databases
Concurrent
databases
Distributed Databases
12 SDI is an abbreviation of Spatial Data
Interface
Spatial Data
Infrastructure
Spatial Data
Intention
Spatial Data
International
13 Which data is the information about an object or feature? Nominal Attribute Ratio Quantative
SIES College of Commerce and Economics, Sion East
TYBSc IT Semester VI Principles of Geographic Information Systems Sample Questions
14 Which data for image processing works with pixels? Raster Vector Simple Complex
15 The query operator that allow tuples that meet the selection condition to
pass and disallowed tuples that do not meet the condition
Attribute
selection
Join Tuple Selection Attribute Projection
16 ISO(International Organization for Standardisation) and OGS( Open
Geospatial Consortium) are
Attribute Standards Objects Fields
17 A _________ is a computer program that extracts data from the database. query data model DataTable DataStructure
18 Raster approach subdivides space into regular cells. These cells are called
_______ in 2D and ______ in 3D.
pixels, voxels voxels, pixels 2D cartesian
coordinate, 3D
cartesian
coordinate
2D geograpic
coordinate, 3D
geographic
coordinate
19 For relational data model, the structure used to define the database
are___________.
attribute,tuple,
relation
attribute,cell,unit tuple,cell,relation tuple,relation,unit
20 The relation with the attribute which is the primary key is referenced in
another relation, in that another relation that attribute is called as
______.
Unique key Foreign key Candidate key Super key
21 The height of a point with respect to tide gauge is measured using
technique known as _________.
Graph Levelling Geodetic
levelling
Ellipsodetic
levelling
Geo leveling point
22 Lines of equal latitude are called as _________ Parallels Perpendiculars Meridians Deviations
23 A ________ is a mathematically described technique to represent Earth’s
curved surface on a flat map
Map Selection Map Projection Map Distortion Map Reference
24 Geoid is used to describe ________. Heights Width Ranges Weights
25 Errors related to space segment includes Incorrect Space Incorrect Clock
Reading
Incorrect Orbit
Position
Both 2 & 3
26 ________is an integrated, systematic network of reference receivers
covering a large area.
Native
positioning
Differential
Positioning
Network
Positioning
Reference Positioning
27 GMT stands for Green Mean
time
Green Medium
Time
Greenwich
Medium Time
Greenwich Mean
Time
28 GPS: US Military, GLONASS: _______? Indian Military UK Military Australian
Military
Russian Military
29 Interpolation is made possible by a principle called Spatial
Autocorrelation
Spatial auto-
correction
Thematic
Autocorrelation
Thematic auto-
correction
30 What does TIN Stand for? Triangulated
Irregular
Networks
Trend Irregular
Networks
Triangulated
Internal Networks
Trend Internal
Networks
31 A __________is a set of objects with similar attributes. BLOB Class Aggregation Association
32 The conversion of raster data into vector data is called_______. Rasterization Vectorization Spatial system Geospatial
33 What does GPS do? Determine
absolute
location
Map, Analyze
and process
different info
To determine
landscapes
To determine colleges
34 Topological characteristics of spatial data do not include: Adjacency Inclusion Connectivity Elevation
35 ______________ is a function that joins different classes of objects with
common characteristics to a higher level generalized class
Classification Retrieval Generalization Estimation
36 Search function, buffer zone generation, interpolation and topographic
function are a part of _______ function
Overlay Classification Retrieval Neighbourhood
37 Polygon clipping and polygon overwrite are ____________ operations Raster overlay Raster
intersection
Polygon division Polygon overlay
38 Which function performs Intersection, union, difference and
complement operations?
Classification Overlay Neighbourhood Connectivity
39 Which is not the property of vector features? Location Length Area color
40 Map algebra equation C1 := A + 10 denotes: add a
constant factor
of 10 to all cell
values of raster
A and store the
result as output
raster C1
add a constant
factor of 10 to
first cell value of
raster A and
store the result
as output raster
C1
add a constant
factor of 10 to all
first row values of
raster A and store
the result as
output raster C1
add a constant
factor of 10 to all first
column values of
raster A and store the
result as output raster
C1
41 In given assignment CON(A = forest; 10; 0) Forest is else
statement, 10
is then
statement & 0
is condition
Forest is
condition, 10 is
then statement
& 0 is else
statement
Forest is then
statement, 10 is
condition & 0 is
else statement
Forest is condition,
10 is else statement &
0 is then statement
42 Which of the following doesn't determine the capability of GIS? Defining a map Representing
cartographic
feature
Retrieving data Transferring data
43 In vector data,the basic units of spatial information are points,lines(arc
s) and polygons
integer,float,char sets,bags and
Array
tuples,tables,structur
e
44 which of the following is an example of Nature Geographical phenomena? River Overflow Buildings Bridges Construction of Roads
45 Users may all
be using the database at the same time, without affecting each other’s
activities.
This DBMS function is called as _________________.
data
redundancy
concurrency
control
data correctness integrity
constraints,
46 Which is not belong to spatial data presentation methods: Hard copy Output of digital
data sets.
Soft copy Digitizing
47 The local vertical datum is implemented through a __________. Labeling
Network
Levelling
Network
Labeling
Connection
Levelling Connection
48 ____ produces a vector data set from a raster. Bundling of
data
Data cleaning Vectorization Pattern recognition
49 Area < 400000 AND Land use = 80 is which type of query? Interactive
spatial
selection
Spatial selection
by attribute
Combined
attribute
condition
Spatial selection
using topological
selection
50 What is the name of the Russian equivalent of GPS? GLONASS GPESKI GLASNOST IKONOS
TYBSc IT Security in Computing SIES College of Semester – VI Commerce & Economics
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1. Policies, Standards, Guidelines are part of ______ security program components.
(a) Authority (b) Framework (c) Assessment (d) Action
2. _______ is a plan of action for how to implement the security remediation plans.
(a) Project plan (b) Roadmap (c) Maintenance (d) Action
3, __________ is used to educate employees, business partners, and other stakeholders.
(a) Security awareness program (b) Policy enforcement (c) Project Plan (d) Gap Analysis
4. An effective security strategy is comprehensive and _________.
(a) static (b) fixed (c) not known (d) dynamic
5. _______ describe how processes are performed by people on an ongoing basis to produce
the desired outcomes of the security program in a periodic, reliable fashion.
(a) Procedure (b) Gap analysis (c) Planning (d) Roadmap
6. __________ controls on the network include audit trail, log files etc.
(a) Defence (b) Detective (c) Deterrence (d) Direction
7. It is a medium through which an exploit or threat is planned or attacked.
(a) Threat (b) Threat agent (c) Threat vector (d) Remote threat
8. _____ virus attached with program files such as .com, .exe.
(a) Boot sector (b) File infector (c) Trojan (d) Worm
9. The _______ implants itself in the memory of a computer.
(a) Boot sector (b) File infector (c) Trojan (d) Resident virus
10. _____ arrives through email and spread as malicious executable files.
(a) Boot sector (b) File infector (c) Email worm (d) Trojan
11. ________ refers to allowing access to those who are authorized to do so.
(a) Confidentiality (b) Integrity (c) Availability (d) Access time
12. cryptography, two-factor authentication are used to achieve___________
(a) Confidentiality (b) Integrity (c) Availability (d) Access time
TYBSc IT Security in Computing SIES College of Semester – VI Commerce & Economics
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13. __________ refers to assurance that data has not been changed.
(a) Confidentiality (b) Integrity (c) Availability (d) Access time
14. _______ assures that the services are available whenever it is needed.
(a) Confidentiality (b) Integrity (c) Availability (d) Access time
15. The ______ model does not provide different levels of security required for asset.
(a) onion (b) potato (c) flower (d) lollipop
16. The _____ provides layered strategy for security.
(a) onion (b) potato (c) flower (d) lollipop
17. While designing best practices for network defence, The equipment housing the filing
cabinets, data wiring, laptops etc. must be _____ protected.
(a) physical (b) logically (c) no need to protect (d) ethically
18. ______ booting from USB storage devices stop attackers from bypassing operating
system security.
(a) Disabling (b) enabling (c) additional (d) extra
19. Full form of DHCP is ________
(a) Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (b) Density Host Configuration Protocol
(c) Deep Home Combine Protocol (d) None of the above
20. Which of the following is independent malicious program that need not any host
program?
(a) Trap Doors (b) Worm (c) Trojan Horse (d) Viruses
21. Which of the following malicious program do not replicate automatically?
(a) Trap Doors (b) Worm (c) Trojan Horse (d) Viruses
22. In computer security __________ means that computer system assets can be modified
only by authorized parities.
(a) Confidentiality (b) Integrity (c) Availability (d) Authenticity
23. What is the function of a firewall?
(a) protects the computer in case of fire (b) Block or screen out spam
(c) Prevents the CPU from being overheated
(d) Helps to prevent outsiders from obtaining unauthorized access
TYBSc IT Security in Computing SIES College of Semester – VI Commerce & Economics
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24. __________ is the act of capturing packets of data flowing across a computer network
(a) Packet catching (b) Packet snipping (c) Packet sniffing (d) Packet pulling
25. ___________condition exists when a program attempts to put more data in a buffer than
it cannot hold
(a) Buffer overflow (b) Buffer fill (c) Buffer overrun (d) Buffer full
26. ___________is a form of attack in which an attacker changes the Media Access Control
(MAC) address and attacks an Ethernet
(a) ARP Protocol (b) ARP sniffing (c) ARP poisoning (d) ARP cracking
27. A ________________issues, catalogs, renews, and revokes certificates under the
Management of a policy and administrative control.
(a) Certification authority (b) Registration authority
(c) Revocation Authority (d) Digital authority
28. _________________defines the protection against denial by one of the parties in a
communication.
(a) Authentication (b) Non-repudiation (c) Confidentiality (d) Integrity
29. __________checks for user’s identity.
(a) Authorisation (b) Authentication (c) Awareness (d) Activeness
30. Authentication based on password is termed as __________
(a) single -factor authentication (b) two-factor authentication
(c) multi-factor authentication (d) none of the above
31. When authentication based on user password and biometric factor it is termed as
(a) single -factor authentication (b) two-factor authentication
(c) multi-factor authentication (d) none of the above
32. The full form of CHAP is
(a) Character Handshake Authentication Protocol
(b) Challenge Hands Authentication Protocol
(c) Character Handshake Authentication Protocol
(d) Challenge Handshake Authentication Protocol
33. ________ use hardware or software-based authentication that generate a random seed
based on the current time of the day.
(a) Time based keys (b) Thread based keys (c) Turn based key (d) None of this
TYBSc IT Security in Computing SIES College of Semester – VI Commerce & Economics
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34. __________ is a network authentication based on the use of tickets.
(a) CHAP (b) MS-CHAP (c) Kerberos (d) LDAP
35. The full form of LDAP is ____________
(a) Lightweight density Access protocol (b) Lightweight dense Active Protocol
(c) Lightweight Directory Access protocol (d) Lightweight Directory Active Protocol
36. The Certificates used for authentication are digitally signed by certificate authority called
(a) CA (b) Manager (c) Officer (d) Lawyer
37. The three primary rules defined for RBAC are
(a) Role assignment,Role authorization,permission authorization
(b) Role authorization,permission authorization,role level
(c) Role authorization,permission authorization,rule level
(d) Role assignment,Role authorization,password
38. In Unix file permission are assigned and they consist of three level of access which are
(a) Owner, Group, and all others (b) Owner, User, and others
(c) Programmer, Group, Owner (d) None of the above
39. The process of converting plain text to cipher text is called ________
(a) encryption (b) decryption (c) system (d) hardware
40. The process of converting cipher text to plain text is _____________
(a) encryption (b) decryption (c) system (d) hardware
41. when plain text is processed as one bit at a time then it is called ______
(a) block cipher (b) stream cipher (c) caesar cipher (d) modified caesar cipher
42. The full form of OLTP is Online transaction processing
(a) Open transaction processing (b) Online transaction processing
(c) Online trust process (d) Online transaction print
43. In ______ a copy of all data to another set of media is done.
(a) full backups (b) incremental backups
(c) differential backups (d) transactional log backups
44. An ________ operation will result in copying only the data that has changed since the last
backup operation.
TYBSc IT Security in Computing SIES College of Semester – VI Commerce & Economics
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(a) full backups (b) incremental backups
(c) differential backups (d) transactional log backups
45. Full form of DMZ
(a) distributed military zone (b) Demilitarized zone
(c) dedicated many zone (d) dedicated military zone
46. A ________ operates in both the physical and the data link layer.
(a) passive hub (b) repeater (c) bridge (d) router
47. Network layer firewall works as a _________
(a) Frame filter (b) Packet filter (c) Content filter (d) Virus filter
48. _______________ is the central node of 802.11 wireless operations.
(a) WPA (b) Access Point (c) WAP (d) Access Port
49. Specifications for a wireless LAN are called
(a) Standard 802.3z (b) Standard 802.3u (c) Project 802.3 (d) IEEE 802.11
50. Servers, network attached storage, desktop, laptops are classified as
(a) Computer Equipment (b) Assets with direct monetary value
(c) Communication equipment (d) furniture and fixture
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