Waste finalsI. Multiple Choice1. Ethanolamine is an absorbant used for the removal of ________ from air/gas.

a. HF b. H2S c. SOx d. b&c

2. Which of the following caused death by asphyxiation, if its presence in atmospheric air exceeds maximum allowable concentration (i.e. > 50 ppm)?

a. benzopyrene b. peroxyacyl nitrate c. SOx d. CO

3. Which of the following is not a source of ozone emission in the atmosphere?a. refrigerants b. Xerox machine c. dermatological phototherapy equipment d.

High voltage electrical equipment

4. Oceans act as sinks for atmospheric gases including carbon dioxide whose concentration in the atmosphere is increased by the __.

a. forestation b. precipitation c. greenhouse effect d. vegetation

5. Mercury as a pollutant can enter the blood stream & the digestive system/lungs and is responsible for causing ___ disease.

a. Itay-itay b. Alzheimer’s c. Minimata d. Elephantiosis

6. Which of the following gases is having the widest explosion limits (about 2 to 81% gas in gas-air mixture), rendering it the property of the most explosive gas?

a. hydrogen b. acetylene c. ammonia d. CO

7. Presence of high concentration of ozone and smog in atmospheric air causes thea. embrittlement and disease of folding resistance of paperb. cracking of rubber productsc. fading of dye on textilesd. damage of electrical insulator on high tension power line

8. Thermal pollution due to excessive heat and temperature in the working place causesa. reduction in working b. fatigue c. high breathing rate d. a,b,&cefficiency of manpower.

9. Which of the following air pollutants is not toxic to vegetation?a. smog & O3 b. HF & NOx c. SOx & spray of weed killers d. CO

10. During which of the following operating conditions of an automobile, carbon monoxide content in the exhaust gas is maximum?

a. idle running b. acceleration c. cruising d. deaccelaration

11. Main pollutants released from iron & steel industry isa. CO, CO2 & SO2 b. H2S, NO & SO3 c. CO2, H2S, & NO2 d. SO2, NO2, & CO2

12. Dust collection efficiency of a cyclone separator depends upon itsa. overall height b. inlet gas velocity c. diameter d. all of these

13. The following government agencies have powers and functions wrt Air Quality Management and Control Program except____.

a. DOH b. DOTC c. DTI d. DOE

14. All of these places are classified as “public areas” where smoking is banned except _____.a. colleges and universities b. gas stations c. hospitals d. all areas of restaurants

15. Most efficient and suitable dust removal equipment for removal of fly ash from flue gas in a thermal power plant is thea. gravity settling chamber b. cyclone separator c. electrostatic precipitator d. bag

filter

16. The discontinued production and use of CFCs and its products was done by different countries as a response to the _____.

a. Montreal Protocol b. Agenda 21 c. Kyoto Protocol d. Basel Convention

17. Which of the following dust collection equipment is the least efficient (for sub-micronic particles)?a. dust catcher (gravity type) b. cyclone separator c. bag filter d. hollow wet scrubber

18. The pressure drop in a bag filter is proportional to the _____.a. viscosity & density of the gas b. pressure of the gas c. particle size d. a&b

19. Removal of __________ is accomplished by aeration of water.a. dissolved gases b. suspended solids c. dissolved solids d. settleable solids

20. Disinfection of water may be done by the use ofa. ozone and iodine b. chlorine or its compound c. ultraviolet light d. all of these

for irradiation of water

21. What is the major constituents of waste/polluted water discharged from textile, pulp & paper, tanning, distillary, dairy and meat packing industries?

a. Radioactive substances b. Natural organic products c. Inorganic pollutants d. None of these

22. Water filtration rate in a rapid sand filter ranges from __________ kilolitres/m2/hr.a. 0.1 to 1 b. 3 to 6 c. 10 to 15 d. 15 to 20

23. Maximum permissible residual chlorine in treated water should be __________ mg/litre.a. 0.001 to 0.01 b. 0.2 to 0.3 c. 2 to 3 d. 5 to 10

24. Oil impurities present the effluent discharged from the electroplating industry is normally not removed bya. chemical coagulation b. floatation & skimming c. centrifugationd. ultrafiltration

25. The function of skimming tank in sewage treatment is to remove __________ substances.a. dissolved solid b. suspended solid c. oil & fatty d. gritty & inorganic

26. During sewage treatment, the sewage is subjected to __________ treatment in Imhoff tank.a. filtration b. digestion c. sedimentation d. both (b) and (c)

27. Which of the following is the most efficient for removal of very finely divided suspended solids and colloidal matter from the polluted water stream? a. Sedimentation tank b. Circular clarifier c. Mechanical flocculation d. Chemical coagulation

28. Which is the best and the most effective method for the removal of organic contaminant present in the polluted water in very small quantity (say < 200 mg/litre)? a. Lagooning b. Activated carbon adsorption c. Biological oxidation pond d. Chemical coagulation

29. Turbidity of water is an indication of the presence of a. suspended inorganic matter b. dissolved solids c. floating solids d. dissolved gases

30. Free oil from a petroleum refinery oil is removed by

a. biological oxygen pond. b. aerated lagoons. c. trickling filters. d. gravity separator having oil skimming devices.

31. Phenolic water generated in coke ovens & by-product plant attached to an integrated steel plant containing phenol in concentration

of less than 100 mg/litre can be removed by a. biological oxygen pond b. chlorination c. trickling filters d. chemical coagulation

32. It is the settled floc (coagulated particles) which is being removed from the water after filtrationa) sedimentsb) sludgec) coagulatesd) ash

33. Which of the following is not a characteristic of a solid waste?a) compositionb) densityc) energy contentd) porosity

34. Which of the following is not a requirement of a sanitary landfill?a) methane monitoringb) groundwater monitoringc) leachate treatmentd) aerator

35. Which of the following is not a cause of solid waste problem?a) rapid exponential population growthb) globalizationc) industrializationd) urbanization

36. Which of the following is not considered as special waste?a) construction debrisb) leaves & street litterc) abandoned automobilesd) no answer

37. Leachate treatment is done using ____ process.a) physicalb) biologicalc) chemicald) Bioremediation

38. It is the water that percolates through a landfill and contains contaminating substances.a) seepageb) leakagec) leachated) Spillage

39. It is the most favored means of disposal wherein wastes are often burned to minimize the volume of waste after the implementation of Philippine Clean Air Act.

a) dump siteb) incinerator

c) digesterd) sanitary land fill

40. It is a treatment process that utilizes microorganisms to turn organic matter into CO2 and more microorganisms through respiration and synthesis.

a) physicalb) biologicalc) digesterd) sanitary land fill

41. What are the methods of treatment & disposal of radioactive wastes?a) evaporation & chemical precipitationb) biological methods & adsorption in ion exchange materialsc) fixing into solid mass w/ cement and sinking deep in the sead) a,b & c

42. Which of the following radioactive wastes emits all alpha, beta & gamma and hence is the most hazardous of all radioactive emitters?

a) I-131b) Sr-90c) Au-198d) Ra-226

43. It bears the costs for the proper storage, treatment and disposal of their hazardous waste.a) sourceb) generatorc) treaterd) transporter

44. It is hazardous waste classification that refers to commercial or industrial hazardous waste incinerators.a) Class Ab) Class Bc) Class Cd) Class D

45. It refers to friction sensitive substances like solvents & ignition triggered by static electricity.a) toxicityb) ignitabilityc) corrosivityd) reactivity

46. Which of the following is not a potentially hazardous waste from manufacture of metals?a) organic chlorine compoundsb) phenolsc) cyanidesd) abrasives

47. Which of the following principles is not a pillar of Environmental Policy in EMS?a) complianceb) preventionc) cost effectived) improvement

48. Environmental Management Program details include the following except ______.a) what must be done & by whomb) how & when to execute

c) define objective & targets of high priorityd) no answer

49. Which of the following examples of potential hazard manifestation is not categorized as Global Hazard?a) Global Warmingb) Aquatic Toxicityc) Acid Raind) Ozone Depletion

50. Rating of risk involves these parameters except _______. a) Probability

b) Detectionc) Controld) Seriousness

II. TRUE OR FALSE. RIGHT MINUS WRONG.

1. Catalytic converter is fitted in automobiles to reduce carbon monoxide concentration in exhaust emissions. TRUE

2. SPM/TSP is not a weightless pollutant. TRUE

3. Low ozone layer thickness in Polar Regions is due to cold climate conditions. TRUE

4. Amount of unburnt hydrocarbons emitted by two stroke petrol engine is more as compared to that emitted by a

four stroke engine. TRUE

5. High concentration of CO2 in the atmosphere allows visible solar radiation (ultraviolet) of short wave-length to

pass through. TRUE

6. Direct reaction of unsaturated hydrocarbons with either NO or NO2 produces an eye irritating pollutant

compound known as peroxy acetyl nitrate (PAN) or methyl nitrile. TRUE

7. Benzopyrene which causes cancer is present in traces in tobacco, charcoal & petrol driven automobile exhaust.

TRUE

8. Reinglemann chart is used for the measurement of the smoke density from a chimney. TRUE

9. In large thermal power stations very fine particulates present in flue gas are removed by electrostatic precipitators.

TRUE

10. Silica gel is adsorbent for removal of nitrogen oxides from gas/air. TRUE

11. The average thickness of ozone layer in stratosphere is about 230 dobson unit (DU). TRUE

12. White smoke coming out of the chimney of a furnace indicates the use of very high excess air. TRUE

13. Prolonged exposure of human being to NO2 causes bronchitis. TRUE

14. Each atom of chlorine liberated from CFC is capable of decomposing 10^5 molecules of ozones. TRUE

15. A slight haze at the top of chimney indicates good combustion if the furnace. TRUE

16. Presence of pathogenic bacteria in water causes diseases like typhoid. TRUE

17. The amount of chemical coagulant for treatment of polluted water decreases with increase in temperature of the

polluted water to be treated. TRUE

18. Thermal pollution of water increases its toxicity and oxidation of oxygen demanding waste besides favouring

bacterial growth. TRUE

19. Fresh sewage is alkaline in nature. TRUE

20. In a sedimentation tank, the detention period for water ranges from 2-4 hours. TRUE

21. EDTA is a standard test for determination of hardness in water. TRUE

22. TLV of lead for public sewer/waste water is about 1 ppm. TRUE

23. In sewage treatment, the detention period allowed for oxidation ponds ranges from 4-5 weeks. TRUE

24. Coal mines drainage waste water (acidic in nature) is neutralized by alkali treatment. TRUE

25. High noise levels produced during operation of fans and compressors at STP can be reduced by mufflers

(silencers). TRUE

26. Alum is the most commonly used chemical coagulant in water treatment. TRUE

27. Inorganic substances present in sewage are removed in grit chamber during sewage treatment. TRUE

28. Aerobic treatment of leachate has less sludge production and has reduced energy needs. FALSE

29. Biostimulation of indigenous microbial pop-ins in soils & or ground water may be done in or ex situ. TRUE

30. Composting is an aerobic treatment decomposition of organic matter by microorganisms (bacteria & fungi) into a nutrient-rich, stable humus material. TRUE

31. Solid wastes are usual vectors (carriers) for disease transmission. TRUE

32. Anaerobic conditions are maintained in composting to avoid objectionable odor. FALSE

33. Municipal solid waste contains above 50% volatile (combustible) matter, with roughly equal proportions of moisture & inert solids. TRUE

34. Refusal to allow lawful inspection conducted by the DENR thru EMB of duly authorized personnel is one of the grounds for suspension or revocation of permits. TRUE

35. Indiscriminate parking of old and unused vehicles in front of your house is classified as dumping. TRUE

36. Waste generator determines if wastes are hazardous or not. TRUE

37. Ashes collected in incinerator may contain heavy metals. TRUE

38. Dioxin is one of the dirty dozen pollutants identified at the Basel Convention. TRUE

39. POP’s are hydophillic. FALSE

40. All industries need to conduct EIA. FALSE

41. In EIA, it is best to consider all impact zones from primary to secondary and even to tertiary. TRUE

42. Wastewater treatment plant design and Material Recovery Facility design must be included as attached documents in EIS. TRUE

43. Terms of Reference in EIA shall always include all the demands of the stakeholders. FALSE

44. Royalty in EIA is always in monetary form. FALSE

45. Government will be the mediator between the stakeholders and the proponent in the Scoping process in EIA. TRUE

46. EMS is strategy-driven not compliance-driven. TRUE

47. One of the key benefits on management in EMS is the balance of economic and environment interests in a company. TRUE

48. ISO14000 accreditation is mandated. FALSE

49. Environmental policy should be written clearly and concisely and be made publicly available. TRUE

50. During planning in the preparation of Environmental Management Plan, system boundaries should be identified. TRUE