Stochastic discount factors HKUST FINA790C Spring 2006.
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Transcript of Stochastic discount factors HKUST FINA790C Spring 2006.
Stochastic discount factors
HKUST
FINA790C Spring 2006
Objectives of asset pricing theories
• Explain differences in returns across different assets at point in time (cross-sectional explanation)
• Explain differences in an asset’s return over time (time-series)
• In either case we can provide explanations based on absolute pricing (prices are related to fundamentals, economy-wide variables) OR relative pricing (prices are related to benchmark price)
Most general asset pricing theory
All the models we will talk about can be written as
Pit = Et[ mt+1 Xit+1] where Pit = price of asset i at time t
Et = expectation conditional on investors’ time t information
Xit+1 = asset i’s payoff at t+1
mt+1 = stochastic discount factor
The stochastic discount factor
• mt+1 (stochastic discount factor; pricing kernel) is the same across all assets at time t+1
• It values future payoffs by “discounting” them back to the present, with adjustment for risk:
pit = Et[ mt+1Xit+1 ]
= Et[mt+1]Et[Xit+1] + covt(mt+1,Xit+1)
• Repeated substitution gives
pit = Et[ mt,t+j Xit+j ] (if no bubbles)
Stochastic discount factor & prices
• If a riskless asset exists which costs $1 at t and pays Rf = 1+rf at t+1
1 = Et[ mt+1Rf ] or Rf = 1/Et[mt+1]
• So our risk-adjusted discounting formula is
pit = Et[Xit+1]/Rf + covt(Xit+1,mt+1)
What can we say about sdf?
• Law of One Price: if two assets have same payoffs in all states of nature then they must have the same price
m : pit = Et[ mt+1 Xit+1 ] iff law holds
• Absence of arbitrage: there are no arbitrage opportunities iff m > 0 : pit = Et[mt+1Xit+1]
Stochastic discount factors
• For stocks, Xit+1 = pit+1 + dit+1 (price + dividend)
• For riskless asset if it exists Xit+1 = 1 + rf = Rf
• Since pt is in investors’ information set at time t,
1 = Et[ mt+1( Xit+1/pit ) ] = Et[mt+1Rit+1]
• This holds for conditional as well as for unconditional expectations
Stochastic discount factor & returns
• If a riskless asset exists 1 = Et[mt+1Rf] or
Rf = 1/Et[mt+1]
• Et[Rit+1] = ( 1 – covt(mt+1,Rit+1 )/Et[mt+1]
Et[Rit+1] – Et[Rzt+1] = -covt(mt+1,Rit+1)Et[Rzt+1]asset’s expected excess return is higher the lower its covariance with m
Paths to take from here
• (1) We can build a specific model for m and see what it says about prices/returns– E.g., mt+1 = ∂U/∂Ct+1/Et∂U/∂Ct from first-order
condition of investor’s utility maximization problem– E.g., mt+1 = a + bft+1 linear factor model
• (2) We can view m as a random variable and see what we can say about it generally– Does there always exist a sdf?– What market structures support such a sdf?
• It is easier to narrow down what m is like, compared to narrowing down what all assets’ payoffs are like
Thinking about the stochastic discount factor
• Suppose there are S states of nature• Investors can trade contingent claims that pay
$1 in state s and today costs c(s)• Suppose market is complete – any contingent
claim can be traded• Bottom line: if a complete set of contingent
claims exists, then a discount factor exists and it is equal to the contingent claim prices divided by state probabilities
Thinking about the stochastic discount factor
• Let x(s) denote Payoff p(x) =Σ c(s)x(s)⇒
• p(x) = (s) { c(s)/(s) } x(s) , where(s) is probability of state s
• Let m(s) = { c(s)/(s) }
• Then p = Σ (s)m(s)x(s) = E m(s)x(s)So in a complete market the stochastic discount factor m exists with p = E mx
Thinking about the stochastic discount factor
• The stochastic discount factor is the state price c(s) scaled by the probability of the state, therefore a “state price density”
• Define *(s) = Rfm(s)(s) = Rfc(s) = c(s)/Et(m)
Then pt = E*t(x)/Rf ( pricing using risk-neutral probabilities *(s) )
A simple example
• S=2, π(1)= ½
• 3 securities with x1= (1,0), x2=(0,1), x3= (1,1)
• Let m=(½,1)
• Therefore, p1=¼, p2= 1/2 , p3= ¾
• R1= (4,0), R2=(0,2), R3=(4/3,4/3)
• E[R1]=2, E[R2]=1, E[R3]=4/3
Simple example (contd.)
• Where did m come from?• “representative agent” economy with
–endowment: 1 in date 0, (2,1) in date 1–utility EU(c0, c11, c12) = Σπs(lnc0+ lnc1s)–i.e. u(c0, c1s) = lnc0+ lnc1s (additive) time separable utility function
• m= ∂u1/E∂u0=(c0/c11, c0/c12)=(1/2, 1/1)• m=(½,1) since endowment=consumption• Low consumption states are “high m” states
What can we say about m?
• The unconditional representation for returns in excess of the riskfree rate is
E[mt+1(Rit+1 – Rf) ] =0
• So E[Rit+1-Rf] = -cov(mt+1,Rit+1)/E[mt+1]
E[Rit+1-Rf] = -(mt+1,Rit+1)(mt+1)(Rit+1)/E[mt+1]
• Rewritten in terms of the Sharpe ratio
E[Rit+1-Rf]/(Rit+1) = -(mt+1,Rit+1)(mt+1)/E[mt+1]
Hansen-Jagannathan bound
• Since -1 ≤ ≤ 1, we get
(mt+1)/E[mt+1] ≥ supi | E[Rit+1-Rf]/(Rit+1) |
• This is known as the Hansen-Jagannathan Bound: The ratio of the standard deviation of a stochastic discount factor to its mean exceeds the Sharpe Ratio attained by any asset
Computing HJ bounds
• For specified E(m) (and implied Rf) we calculate E(m)S*(Rf); trace out the feasible region for the stochastic discount factor (above the minimum standard deviation bound)
• The bound is tighter when S*(Rf) is high for different E(m): i.e. portfolios that have similar but different E(R) can be justified by very volatile m
Computing HJ bounds
• We don’t observe m directly so we have to infer its behavior from what we do observe (i.e.returns)
• Consider the regression of m onto vector of returns R on assets observed by the econometrician
m = a + R’b + e where a is constant term, b is a vector of slope coefficients and e is the regression error
b = { cov(R,R) }-1 cov(R,m)
a = E(m) – E(R)’b
Computing HJ bounds
• Without data on m we can’t directly estimate these. But we do have some theoretical restrictions on m: 1 = E(mR) or cov(R,m) = 1 – E(m)E(R)
• Substitute back:
b = { cov(R,R) }-1[ 1 – E(m)E(R) ]• Since var(m) = var(R’b) + var(e)
(m) ≥ (R’b) = {(1-E(m)E(R))’cov(R,R)-1(1-E(m)E(R))}½
Using HJ bounds
• We can use the bound to check whether the sdf implied by a given model is legitimate
• A candidate m† = a + R’b must satisfyE( a + R’b ) = E(m†)E ( (a+R’b)R ) = 1
Let X = [ 1 R’ ], ’ = ( a b’ ), y’ = ( E(m†) 1’ )E{ X’ X - y } = 0
• Premultiply both sides by ’E[ (a+R’b)2 ] =[ E(m†) 1’ ]
Using HJ bounds
• The composite set of moment restrictions is E{ X’ X - y } = 0
E{ y’ - m†2 } ≤ 0
See, e.g. Burnside (RFS 1994), Cecchetti, Lam & Mark (JF 1994), Hansen, Heaton & Luttmer (RFS, 1995)
HJ bounds
• These are the weakest bounds on the sdf (additional restrictions delivered by the specific theory generating m)
• Tighter bound: require m>0