Module 7 Maintenace Practices

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Raju Poulose Kuwait Airways Module 7

Module 7 Maintenance

Practices

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Safety Precautions Aircraft and Workshop

1. A CO2 extinguisher is used on

solid, liquid, hot metal and electrical fires

solid, liquid and electrical fires

solid and liquid fires

2. Fire on landing gear brake should be extinguished with

carbon dioxide extinguisher

water extinguisher

dry powder extinguisher

3. Acetylene gas forms an explosive compound with

tin and silver

tin and copper

copper and silver

4. Neither oil nor grease should be used as a lubricant on couplings or pipelines carrying

Oxygen

Nitrogen

Kerosene

5. The colour of CO2 type fire extinguisher is

red

green

black

6. Risk assessments should only be carried out on

all tasks and processes that are performed

tasks using hazardous chemicals

tasks carried out above the height of 6 foot

7. Which type of extinguisher can be used for engine fire?

Water

BCF

CO2

8. In an oxygen system, if the pressure drops to 500 PSI, it

Hot metal fires would be extinguished with foam

Before 1997 CO2 was colour coded black. Now the cylinders are red with black top. It is unlikely (but possible) that the question has been updated.

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causes anoxia

begins to overheat

blocks the oxygen system regulator

9. You are involved with a fire caused by titanium swarf. What type of extinguishant should you use to deal with the fire?

CO2

Dry asbestos wool and chalk powder

Chemical foam

10. What is the colour of a powder extinguisher?

Red

Blue

Green

11. If an oxygen cylinder pressure falls below 500 PSI

the diluter stick will stick

the oxygen will degrade and cause anoxia

condensation will cause corrosion

12. Which type of fire extinguishers can be used in the cabin?

C.T.C.

water or B.C.F.

M.B.

13. After working with epoxy resins, how is natural oil returned to the skin?

Acetone/lanolin mixture

Epoxy removing cream

Refatting cream

14. The minimum 'no smoking' zone around an aircraft when refuelling is

15m

10m

6m

15. Once a person has been disconnected from the source of an electrical shock the next step should be

check for pulse and start cardiac massage if necessary

At low pressure, air can mix with the oxygen. The moisture in the air freezes as the gas expands on exit of the system and blocks the regulator

Acetone is used to remove epoxy resin, but it dries the skin, so it is mixed with lanolin to prevent this (same mixture as nail varnish remover).

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seek assistance immediately

check for breathing and start AR if necessary

16. What can cause dermatitis?

Not wearing eye protection when using solvents

Washing hands in solvents

Inhalation of paint fumes

17. If there is an electrical fire, what are the safe procedures?

Fight the fire

Call fire service and fight the fire (if possible)

Evacuate

18. When mixing acid and water

it does not matter which way the two are mixed

the acid should always be added to the water

the water should always be added to the acid

19. An aircraft should not be refueled when

the APU is running

within 10 metres (30 feet) of radar operating

within 30 metres (100 feet) of radar operating

20. What is the colour of a BCF fire extinguisher?

Green

Blue

Red

21. The most appropriate fire extinguisher for an aircraft wheel and brake fire would be

water

carbon dioxide

dry powder

22. Which type of extinguisher can be used for an electric fire?

Foam

CO2

Water

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23. A dry powder extinguisher is coloured

green

blue

red

Workshop Practices

1. One quart is how much in millilitres?

946 ml

952 ml

1000 ml

2. On a hollow tube where would a small indentation normally be unacceptable?

In the mid 1/3 section

Nowhere on the tube is an indentation acceptable

In either of the outer 1/3 portion of the tube

3. What type of grinding wheel would you sharpen an HSS drill bit on?

A fine wheel

A coarse wheel

A green wheel

4. When using a reamer

use no lubricant

use the same lubricant as was used on the drill bit

use lard oil

5. How many teeth per inch are used on a hacksaw blade for cutting hard metal?

36

26

54

6. How many strokes per minute are used on a hacksaw when cutting thick metal?

60

50

30

A Green Grit (Silicon Carbide) wheel is used for Tungsten Carbide bit tools (Non-steel). For HSS you need a fine Grey Aluminium Oxide wheel.

Blades are available 18 - 32 TPI. Greatest TPI is for hard metals.

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7. When lifting a bulky component with a wire rope sling, the component can be protected from damage by the sling by

using a suitably shaped sling

using spreader bars and packing

fabricating alternative lifting points

8. Gas bottles for CO2, air and acetylene are coloured

green, grey, maroon

grey, maroon, green

black, grey, maroon

9. To drill a 1/4 inch hole in titanium, the correct starting procedure would be

to centre drill

to centre punch

to drill 1/4 inch hole direct

10. In a torque wrench of handle length, L = 12 in. and an extension E = 3 in, the desired torque value is 300 lbs.in. the dial should read

240 lb.ins.

280 lb.ins.

375 lb.ins.

11. When a torque loading is specified for a castellated or slotted nut on an undrilled new bolt

the torque should be applied and the bolt suitably drilled for the split pin

the bolt should be pre-drilled and the torque increased if necessary to allow the split pin to be fitted

the bolt should be pre-drilled, the torque applied and the nut eased back, if necessary, to allow the split pin to be fitted

12. A reamer with spiral flutes is removed

clockwise

straight

anticlockwise

13. The difference between high and low limits of a size for a dimension is known as the

deviation

fit

Requried torque =12x300/12+3 =240.

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tolerance

14. Rubber components should be stored

in a well lit room

in warm and humid conditions

in a cool dark area

15. When comparing the machining techniques for stainless steel sheet material to those for aluminium alloy sheet, it is normally considered good practice to drill the stainless steel at a

higher speed with less pressure applied to the drill

lower speed with more pressure applied to the drill

lower speed with less pressure applied to the drill

16. When drilling stainless steel, the drill used should have an included angle of

90° and turn at a low speed

118° and turn at a high speed

140° and turn at a low speed

17. When stop drilling a crack, what is the typical drill size used?

0.025 inch

0.250 inch

0.125 inch

18. When degreasing aluminium alloys, and no trichloroethylene is available, a suitable alternative is

M.E.K.

dilute sulphuric acid

white spirit and naphtha

19. A grinding wheel is normally refaced by

holding a hard wood scraper against the rotating wheel

dressing with a special tool

grinding through using another grinding wheel

20. When checking a torque wrench 15 inches long, the load required to give torque of 120 lbs.in. is

6 lbs

8 lbs

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10 lbs

21. How would you check the setting of an adjustable reamer?

External calipers

Ring gauge

Dial test indicator and 'V' blocks

22. What is the specified lubricant for drilling brass?

None

Paraffin

Lard oil

23. In the Limit System, the term 'allowance' is the

hole diameter variation

shaft diameter variation

difference between shaft and hole diameters

24. Which is correct concerning the use of a file?

The terms `double-cut` and `second-cut` have the same meaning in reference to files

A smoother finish can be obtained by using a double-cut file than by using a single-cut file

Apply pressure on the forward stroke, only, except when filing very soft metals such as lead or aluminium

25. Which procedure is correct when using a reamer to finish a drilled hole to the correct size?

Turn the reamer in the cutting direction when enlarging the hole and in the opposite direction to remove from the hole

Apply considerable pressure on the reamer when starting the cut and reduce the pressure when finishing the cut

Turn the reamer only in the cutting direction

26. Of what tolerance is the following an example? 1 in. + 0.002 - 0.001

Bilateral

Multilateral

Unilateral

27. How should a scraper be finally sharpened?

By draw filing

On an oil-stone

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On a grindstone

28. How is a D.T.I. initially set up?

The needle zeroed, then the plunger fully extended

The gauge plunger should be partly depressed and the needle zeroed

The gauge plunger should be fully extended and the needle zeroed

29. Nickel alloy chisels should be sharpened

on a grindstone

on an oilstone

by filing

30. What type of lubricant should be used when drilling aluminium?

Paraffin

None

Vegetable oil

31. How are spring dividers sharpened?

By filing the outside of the points

By grinding the inside of the points

By stoning the outside of the points

32. What would be the result of an insufficient clearance angle on a twist drill?

It would tend to pull through the hole

It would produce an oversize hole

It would cut slowly, if at all

33. A tolerance given on a dimension is indicated

by the prefix TOL with the permitted tolerance

by a plus and minus sign preceding the permitted tolerance

by enclosing the permitted tolerance within a triangle

34. How much material should be allowed for reaming?

0.001 in.

0.003 in.

0.010 in.

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35. After cutting a 3/8 inch BSF internal thread and stud, it is found that the stud is too large. How is a fit achieved?

Remove the male thread crests with a fine emery cloth

Grind a taper on the end of the bolt

Re-adjust the die and re-cut the male thread

36. You have reamed out a hole in a piece of titanium. How should you remove the reamer safely to prevent unnecessary damage?

Remove it, but in the same rotation as if cutting

Allow the reamer to pass right through the hole

Anti-clockwise

37. Why are some components torque loaded?

To ensure that their elastic limit is not exceeded

To ensure that they are tightened to their yield point

To ensure they do not vibrate loose

38. When using a reamer, in which direction should it be turned?

Clockwise when cutting and anti-clockwise when removing

Anti-clockwise when Cutting and removing

Clockwise when cutting and removing

39. Draw filing produces

a fine finish

a coarse finish

a mottled finish

40. A safe edge of a file is used

against a finished surface

against a rough unfinished surface

to give a fine polished finish to a smooth surface

41. What is the minimum number of hacksaw blade teeth that should be in contact with the material being cut?

4

3

2

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42. When reading a blueprint, a dimension is given as 4.387 inches + 0.005 - 0.002. Which statement is true?

The minimum acceptable size is 4.385 inches

The maximum acceptable size is 4.385 inches

The maximum acceptable size is 4.389 inches

43. Chalk when used with a fine file produces

a finer finish

a milled type surface

a ground type surface

44. When using a hand file correctly, the downward pressure should be used only

on the forward and return stroke

on the forward stroke

on a return stroke

45. The size of the nibs of vernier calipers can be ascertained by

using the standard of 0.693 inches

noting the dimension engraved on the instrument

measuring the steel rule

46. A shaft dimension given as 1.225 inches +/- 0.003 inches followed by 'MMC' should be manufactured to what size?

1.225 inches

1.228 inches

1.222 inches

47. 2 microns is

0.002 inch

0.000 002 inch

0.002 mm

48. The edge or surface of a part from which dimensions are measured from is called the

water line

reference plane

datum

49. When clamping cable looms containing co-axial cables

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the clamps must be no more than 1 metre apart

avoid distortion to the co-axial cable to maintain the dielectric constant

distortion of the outer sheath is allowed providing the inner cable is not affected

50. If a test or inspection instrument has no calibration data supplied by the manufacturer, you would use the calibration data provided by

the British Standards Quality Assurance documentation referring to calibration of instrumentation and test equipment

CAAIPs

the Maintenance Manual

51. Why are test or inspection instruments regularly calibrated and certified?

To ensure they are being used regularly

To ensure they will perform within the required limits of operation

To ensure they can handle the range of measurements required of them

52. Who is responsible for ensuring that weight and balance instrumentation is serviceable before use?

The manufacturer of the equipment

The person responsible for carrying out the weight and balance procedure

An engineer holding a license in the instrument category

53. At which frequency is the calibration of frequently used crimping tools carried out?

Annually

Every 1000 crimps

Bi-annually

54. When using the trepanning tool, the hole to be drilled should be

1/32 inch larger than the guide pin

same diameter as the guide pin

1/32 inch smaller than the guide pin

55. When using a strip-board, the tracks on a PCB are etched

after fitment and soldering of components

before component fitment

after fitment but before soldering the components

56. A 'light drive' fit for a 3/8 inch diameter bolt has a maximum allowance of

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0.005 inch

0.0025 inch

0.0006 inch

57. The intervals for calibration of test equipment

are as specified in EASA Part-145

are every year

are different from one appliance to another

58. What drill angle is used to drill titanium?

105-120 degrees

90-100 degrees

130-140 degrees

59. When tightening a nut on a bolt the torque loading applied is

independent of whether the threads are wet or dry

the tangential application of the force times the perpendicular distance from the point of application to the centre of the bolt

inversely proportional to the force applied to the spanner

60. The UK standard of limits and fits is

BS308

BS4500

BS8888

61. When using a Pacific tensiometer the correct tension is found by

reading dial, provided the correct riser is used for the cable diameter

comparing reading to chart provided

adding reading to riser number

62. What temperature should the heat gun be set for shrinking heat shrink sleeve?

At the rated temperature

100°C above rated temperature

100°C below rated temperature

63. Calibration of aircraft hydrostatic weighing equipment is

not required

Rated temperature is the normal working temperature of the heat-shrink material. The shrink at approximately 100°C above that

The Pacific Tensiometer is NOT a direct reading type.

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done once a year

carried out every time before an aircraft is weighed and adjusted by operator

64. When drilling light alloy

no lubricant is required

use the specified lubricant

lard oil should be used

65. The picture shows a torque wrench with an extension. To apply a torque of 350 lb.in. the reading on the dial should be

245 lb.in.

350 lb.in.

280 lb.in.

66. Reaming light alloy tube is done with

hard base lubricant

the same oil and lubrication as used for cutting

no lubricant

67. Tolerance is the

allowable error due to faulty workmanship and tools

difference between worn and new tools

the difference between a hole and shaft size

68. What should be done if a tool is found not to be working to its calibrated requirements?

It should be removed from service, marked as unserviceable and sent away for overhaul

A mechanic should adjust it to restore it to the correct operation

It should be placed back into stores and kept in service until the next calibration is due

69. When carrying out soldering to an end termination and a wire, you should tin

neither the wire or the termination as tinning is not required

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both the end of the wire and the termination

only the end of the wire

70. Run-out of a rod is measured using

DTI, surface plate and V-blocks

vernier and V-blocks

micrometer and V-blocks

71. How would you mark a defect on an exhaust system?

Chalk

Pencil

Special zinc/copper tipped marking tool

72. Which of the following is the most appropriate filing technique?

Even pressure forward and backwards

Pressure backwards, relieve pressure forwards

Pressure forwards, relieve pressure backwards

73. Stubborn pins in file teeth should be removed by

using file card

pricking out with sharp point

tapping file gently on workbench

74. When using low tungsten hacksaw blades it is recommended to use

60 strokes per minute

50 stroke per minute

40 strokes per minute

75. Units of torque are

lbs.ft and lbs.in

Lbs and Kg

lbs/ft2 and lbs/in2

76. The calibration of a piece of test equipment is suspect. Your actions would be

remove from service and annotate accordingly

note and rectify later

calibrate/rectify immediately

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77. What should you check before using a set of V blocks?

It doesn't matter

That both blocks have the same identification stamps

The calibration date

Tools

1. A drill and wire size gauge has how many pre drilled holes?

1 - 50

10 - 60

10 - 50

2. How many strokes per minute should generally be used with a hacksaw?

55

30

60

3. What type of drill would you use on carbon fibre?

Tungsten carbide

Diamond tipped

Carborundum

4. A micro-shaver is used to

mill the rivet head after forming

cut rivets to length prior to forming

trim the shank diameter prior to forming

5. How many teeth per inch are there on a fine hacksaw blade?

64

32

16

6. What is the normal cutting angle of a drill?

12°

130°

59°

7. When using a moving coil as an ammeter the greatest amount of current flows through the

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bushes

shunt

coil

8. When using the old style vernier caliper for taking internal measurements

add the nib measurements

subtract the nib measurements

the nib size has no relevance and can be ignored

9. To carry out an insulation test on a wire rated at 115 volts you would use

a 500 volt megger

a 250 volt megger

a 115 volt megger

10. The normal drill angles are

cutting angle 12°, web angle 130° and clearance angle 130°



11. The abbreviation 'A/F' means

Associated Fine

American Fine

Across Flats

12. A rivet shaver is used to

mill the tail after setting

mill the tail after cutting

mill the head flush

13. A drill and wire gauge has holes numbered

1 to 80

10 to 60

1 to 50

14. A 250 volt megger should not be used

on electronic equipment

in fuel tanks

the megger should be twice the voltage of the system under test

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on radio aerials

15. If the leads of a megger are held apart

the spring will return the needle to infinity

the spring will return the needle to the zero stop

if the handle was turned the meter would read infinity

16. One megohm is equal to

1,000 ohms

100,000 ohms

1,000,000 ohms

17. Reamers are used to

drill accurate holes

to make holes oversize

enlarge holes to accurate dimensions

18. The pitch of a hacksaw blade is

the number of teeth on the blade

its length

the number of teeth per inch

19. The web angle of a normal twist drill is

130°

5°

12°

20. The leads of a bonding tester

have critical lengths and the resistance of the leads is accounted for

are interchangeable, one 60 foot long having two prongs and a 6 foot one with a single prong

are supplied in 60 foot and 6 foot lengths but can be varied due to wear

21. Expanding reamers are used to

ream tapered holes

ream holes of different diameters by adjusting the position of the blades

ream holes in metal that has been heated

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22. The main scale on a 24/25 vernier caliper is divided into

inches, tenths and twentieths

inches, tenths and thousandths

inches, tenths and fortieths

23. The vernier height gauge uses the same principle as the

vernier caliper

micrometer

bevel protractor

24. One revolution of the thimble of the English micrometer produces a linear movement of the spindle of

0.001 inch

0.040 inch

0.025 inch

25. The pitch of a metric micrometer screw thread is

0.02 mm

1.0 mm

0.5 mm

26. When torque loading, a wrench should be selected where the required value falls

in the middle of the range

at the top end of the range

at the bottom end of the range

27. The test equipment normally used to carry out a continuity test on an electrical cable is

an ammeter

a high tension circuit tester

a low reading ohmmeter

28. If all three prongs on a bonding tester were shorted together, the metre would read

zero

FSD

off-scale high

29. The pitch of the screw thread on an English micrometer is

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0.025 inches

0.050 inches

0.0001 inches

30. The vernier scale on an English 49/50 caliper is divided into

50 equal divisions

49 equal divisions

40 equal divisions

31. The thimble of a metric micrometer is divided into

40 equal divisions

25 equal divisions

50 equal divisions

32. The measuring capacity of a Vernier Caliper is

the length of the graduated scale

the length of the graduated scale less the length of the vernier scale

the length of the graduated scale plus the width of the nibs

33. Vee-blocks are manufactured

in sets of three and identified for use as a set

as single items and may be paired with any other vee-block

in sets of two and identified for use as a set

34. The metric micrometer reading shown is

13.37 mm

13.87 mm

10.337 mm

35. A ketts saw is used because

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its low torque allows single handed use

it is available both pneumatic and electric

it can cut thicker metal than is required by most repair schemes

36. The gears used in a pistol windy are

gears in a gearbox

gyrator type gears

spur gears

37. What type of gear is used in a pneumatic gun drill?

vane type gears used for toughness

spur gears

helical gears

38. Cross cut files

cut in both directions

cut on the forward stroke only

cut on the backward stroke only

39. The correct size spanner for use on a unified 5/16 in. threaded hexagon headed bolt is

5/16 in A/F

1/4 in A/F

1/2 in A/F

40. The length of the Vernier Scale in a 24/25 Vernier Caliper is

0.6 in

1.2 in

2.45 in

41. What is used to measure the depth of a blend after a corrosion repair?

Dial Test Indicator

Straight edge and slip gauges

Vernier caliper

42. Vacu-blast beads re-used on an aluminium-alloy component, after being used on an steel component will

be ineffective in abrasion

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cause clogging of the vacu-blast machine

cause corrosion to the component

43. The main scale on a 49/50 Vernier caliper is divided into

inches, tenths and fortieths

inches, tenths and twentieths

inches, tenths and thousandths

44. Centre punches are made of

high carbon steel with the tip hardened and tempered

case hardened mild steel

high carbon steel hardened and tempered

45. What type of flutes should be used in a reamer for cutting titanium?

Tapered flutes

Straight flutes

Spiral flutes

46. The depth micrometer reading shown is

0.336 ins.

0.361 ins.

0.261 ins.

47. What should be the included angle of a twist drill for soft metals?

90 degrees

118 degrees

65 degrees

48. What should the point angle of a drill be if it is to be used for drilling titanium (drill size below 1/4 inch diameter)?

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90° to 105°

105° to 120°

90°

49. How are pin punches classified?

By type and diameter of the small end

By overall length and type

By length and diameter of the small end

50. How are spring dividers classified?

The diameter of a circle scribed with the legs at 600

The diameter of the largest circle that can be scribed

The length of the legs

51. The purpose of a taper tap is to

produce a fine thread

form a tapered thread

start a thread

52. Why is the Vee cut in the base of a scribing block?

to allow the scribing block to be used on the edge of the marking off table

to trap any dirt that may be adhering to the surface of the marking off table

to reduce the contact area with the marking off table and reduce friction

53. An inside micrometers normal measurement range is

½in. to 10in

2in. to 10in

2in. to 12in

54. What is the purpose of Target Points on a Vernier caliper?

To enable spring dividers to be accurately set

For scribing lines inside tubes

To zero the caliper

55. Die Nuts are used to

form external threads

clean up damaged threads

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form internal threads

56. A Dial Test Indicator may be used for

checking dimensions to within 0.125''

checking a round bar for bow

checking any known depth

57. Which cut of a file should be used on mild steel?

Second cut

Single cut

Double cut

58. Which of the following statements is correct?

To cut an aluminium block use a fine hacksaw blade

To cut thin mild steel plate use a coarse blade

To cut thin sheet metal use a fine blade

59. A power meter indicates that a circuit has a power of 4 kW. Separate readings of the voltage and current are 400 V and 20 A respectively. The Power factor is

20

½

2

60. What is a key-seat rule used for?

Marking lines which are parallel to a true edge

Providing a positive driving force

Marking lines parallel to an axis of a round bar

61. When measuring current in a circuit, the ammeter is placed

in series with the shunt

in series with the circuit

in parallel with the circuit

62. A 3½ bit multimeter will indicate readings up-to

9999

1999

999 ½

Material removal is greater with Double Cut, and should NOT be used with soft metals

PF = TP/AP TP = 4,000 AP = 20 x 400 = 8000 4000/8000 = 1/2

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63. The resolution a bevel protractor can be read to is

50'

5'

1º

64. If an English micrometer is showing 4 main divisions, 3 sub-divisions and the 25th thimble division was in line, what would the reading be?

0.475 in.

0.175 in.

0.555 in.

65. An open circuit on an ohmmeter would be indicated by a reading of

zero resistance

a negative resistance

infinite resistance

66. The leads of an ohmmeter should be replaced if their resistance is greater than

1 ohm

0.05 ohms

0.5 ohms

67. Torque loading is determined by multiplying the tangent force applied at the free end of the spanner

by the distance moved by the point of application

by its distance of application from the axis of the bolt

by the dia. of the bolt and the distance of its point of application

68. Which electrical measuring device needs a power source?

An ammeter

A voltmeter

An ohmmeter

69. When measuring voltage or current with a digital multimeter, the indication is

RMS values

peak values

Average values

70. On a multimeter, what colour lead is connected to the Common socket?

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Black

Green

Red

71. The Vernier scale of a Bevel Protractor is shown below. What is the reading?

63º 15'

86º 15'

38º 45'

72. Three point micrometers are for measuring

external dimensions

linear dimensions

internal dimensions

73. When is a coarse hacksaw blade used?

When cutting ferrous metals only

When cutting material of thick cross section

When cutting material of thin cross section

74. A voltage drop across a component is measured by placing the meter in

series with the power source

parallel with the component

series with the component

75. Which of the following reamers would you use in a hole having a keyway?

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Spiral fluted reamer

Expanding reamer

Parallel reamer

76. What is the purpose of a Morse taper on large sizes of twist drills?

To give a positive drive when fitted into a tapered chuck

To ensure that the drill is fitted correctly

To allow the drills to be fitted to a drilling machine

77. What should be the included angle of a twist drill for hard metal?

90 degrees

118 degrees

100 degrees

78. The threads per inch on the spindle of an English micrometer are

40 t.p.i.

50 t.p.i.

25 t.p.i

79. The spring loaded ratchet attached to the spindle of a standard external micrometer produces

a pre-set feel during use

a smooth free run during use

a means for controlling thread binding

80. The purpose of the land on a twist drill is to

to allow clearance for swarf

present the cutting edge at the required angle

reduce friction

81. The name given to the moving scale on the Vernier caliper is

the main scale

the vernier scale

the curso

82. What is the reading of the Vernier caliper scale in inches shown below?

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1.8016

1.816

0.1816

83. What does the cut of a file refer to?

Grade

Number of teeth per inch

Arrangement of the teeth

84. Why are teeth of hacksaw blades off-set?

To provide clearance for non-cutting part of the blade

To allow a quick cutting positive action

To provide greater strength

85. How are files classified?

By length, grade and material

By length, grade, cut and section

By length, grade, cut, section and material

86. Hammers are classified by

shape of head and length of shaft

weight and type of head

weight and length of shaft

87. What does the term 'second cut' indicate as applied to hand files?

The section of the file

The grade of the file

A reconditioned file

88. What comprises a full set of BA taps?

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A taper, second and plug tap

A taper and plug tap

A taper and second tap

89. The teeth on a hacksaw blade

should point away from the handle

should point towards the handle

does not matter which way they point

90. What is the clearance angle on a normal twist drill?

12 degrees

130 degrees

59 degrees

91. When tapping blind holes

a set of three taps is used

a single tap is used

a set of two taps is used

92. On a torque wrench the torque loading is

the tangential application of the force plus the perpendicular distance to the centre of the bolt

the tangential application of the force times the perpendicular distance to the centre of the bolt

the tangential application of the force divided by the perpendicular distance to the centre of the bolt

93. Surface Plates are used

only on surface tables

for filing flat surfaces

for marking out work and testing flat surfaces

94. The main scale of a Metric Vernier Caliper is calibrated in

millimetres

micro-meters

millimetres and half millimetres

30


95. For a drill to cut properly it is essential that the point angle be the same on each side, for general use the angle is

130°

12°

59°

96. When using a bench grinding machine the wheel rotates

from the top down towards the work piece

from the bottom upwards past the work piece

either direction as selected on starting the machine

97. The thimble of an English micrometer is divided into

40 equal divisions

50 equal divisions

25 equal divisions

98. The reading on the inch micrometer scale shown is

0.483 ins

4.758 ins

0.488 ins

99. The pitch of the screw thread on an English micrometer is

0.050 in

0.001 in

0.025 in

100. An avometer can measure alternating current because it has a

bridge rectifier circuit

moving iron

moving coil

101. Taper reamers are classified by

31


the diameter of the small end

a type number (1 to 10)

the diameter of the large end

102. A crimped electrical connection is suspected to be high resistance. How would you verify this without disconnecting the circuit?

Measure the millivolt drop across the connection with a millivolt meter

Measure the resistance with an ohmmeter

Measure the resistance with a 250 volt megger

103. How would you measure continuity of a coaxial cable?

With a safety ohmmeter

With a reflectometer

With a 250 volt megger

104. On a long coaxial cable how would you check for discontinuities and shorts in situ?

Safety ohmmeter

Time Domain Reflectometer

Continuity tester

105. If the leads of a bonding tester are damaged, what is the procedure?

The damaged leads and the tester should be returned to the manufacturer for repair and calibration

Provided that the damage is situated close to the end of the leads the cable may be shortened

A new lead may be manufactured using the correct current rated cable

106. When carrying out a continuity test on a circuit when a known resistance exists, what instrument would you use?

A multimeter

A high resistance insulation tester

A lamp and battery

107. Taper pins are classified by

length and taper

length and diameter of small end

length and diameter of large end

32


108. Live AC circuits are to be checked for open circuits by the use of

multimeter set to AC volts

ammeter set to amps

ohmmeter set to megohms

109. A multiplier resistance is used to extend the working range of the

voltmeter

ammeter

ohmmeter

110. On twist drill chart, small drills have

their sizes in fractions, in inches

largest numbers

smallest numbers

111. The Sine Bar is used to

produce angles using slip gauges

check accuracy of slip gauges

by itself to calculate angles

112. On a vernier micrometer, what will three turns of the barrel represent?

0.075 inch

0.100 inch

0.050 inch

113. How does a windy drill get its power?

Spur gears

Bevel gears

Impeller

114. How are taper reamers classified?

Length and diameter of large end

Taper and diameter of small end

Length, diameter of large end, and diameter of small end

115. An AC voltmeter reads

peak to peak value

33


peak value

average value

116. A hydrometer is used to

check battery electrolyte density

check battery electrolyte specific gravity

take humidity reading

117. A pyrometer is a

thermometer for use at high temperature

foam/granule fire extinguisher

pyramid shaped altimeter

118. A hygrometer is used to

check battery electrolyte relative density

check battery electrolyte specific gravity

take humidity reading

119. A 0.625 inch diameter drill is identified by

Letter E

5/8

Letter A

120. To measure AC with a moving coil, it

is rectified and measures average value

is rectified and measures peak value

can be directly connected

121. What is a countersink tool used for?

To adjust the depth of a countersink

To prevent damage to pipework in a blind hole

To adjust the angle of a countersink

122. PIDG crimp tools are marked by

coloured handles and wire crimp size on tool

wire crimp size on tool only

coloured handles only

34


123. When measuring a square waveform with a multimeter, what voltage does it display?

Equal to RMS value

More than RMS value

Less than RMS value

124. If an ammeter reads 0 - 1mA FSD, what would you be required to do to enable it to read 10mA FSD?

Place a 9.9 ohm resistor across the coils

Place a 9 ohm resistor in series with the meter

Place a 5.8 ohm resistor as a shunt in parallel with the meter

125. The internal resistance of a voltmeter is

high

low

no more than 0.05 ohms

126. The internal resistance of an ammeter is

high

1 ohm

low

127. A drill bit of 0.250 inch would be

7/32 and letter G

8/32 and letter E

6/32 and letter F

128. Needle grease points are used on

large pivoted joints

items with gland seals

small pivoted joints

129. A flat chisel being used for aluminium should have a point angle of

55 degrees

30 degrees

65 degrees

130. A mill file can be used for

35


general purpose

corners less than 60 degrees

saw sharpening

131. A rawhide mallet is

available with copper inserts

less expensive than bossing mallet

used for giving softer blows than boxwood mallet

132. Tension files

can be used to cut in one direction only

clog easily

can cut in either direction

133. The scale on an ohmmeter is

cramped at high resistance

cramped at low resistance

linear across the range

134. Three revolutions of a 40 T.P.l. micrometer will show

0.03 inch

0.003 inch

0.075 inch

135. To carry out a continuity test you would use

an HT circuit tester

a low reading ohmmeter

ammeter

136. What is the resolution of a standard DTI?

0.020 mm

0.010 mm

0.050 mm

137. In a moving coil meter the deflecting force is provided by

a current carrying coil pivoted in a permanent magnet field

a soft iron permanent magnet

36


hairsprings which move the pointer towards full scale

138. The force acting on a meter which returns the pointer to zero is called the

turning force

controlling force

deflecting force

139. The forces acting on a meter which moves the pointer over the scale is called

the deflecting force

the controlling force

the turning force

140. The resistance of an ammeter must be

low to prevent volts drop across it

low because the ammeter is in parallel with the circuit

high to create a large volts drop across it

141. The resistance of a voltmeter must be

low to prevent overloading the circuit

high so that little current passes through it

low to provide a parallel path for the circuit current

142. When operating a grease gun, you

clean grease fitting with clean dry cloth beforehand

apply a pressure of 50 - 80 psi.

verify grease fitting can accept grease by hand feel

143. What is the lip clearance of a normal twist drill?

125-135 degrees

135-145 degrees

105-115 degrees

144. What is the included angle of a drill to be used on soft metals?

40 degrees

90 degrees

118 degrees

145. Which is preferred for filing with a double-cut file?

37


All metals

Soft metals

Hardened metals

Avionic General Test Equipment

1. When an anodised surface coating is damaged in service, it can be partially restored by

a chemical surface treatment

a suitable mild cleaner

applying a thin coat of zinc chromate primer

2. During an insulation test

recorded with aircraft power supplied to the circuit being tested

depend on the ambient conditions during the test

always be infinity if the wires have been installed correctly

3. When carrying out a serviceability check on a bonding tester - short together the three prongs of both probes and ensure which of the following?

The meter reads 0.1 ohm

A zero reading

A full scale reading is obtained

4. The damping force in a meter

assists the pointer to move over the scale

prevents oscillation of the pointer

returns the pointer to zero

5. When turning the handle on a megger with the probes kept apart

the needle moves to zero

the needle stays at infinity

the needle deflects to infinity

6. How do you prime a dead weight tester?

wind handle fully out and pour fluid in the reservoir

wind handle fully in and pour fluid in the reservoir

Remove the weights and pour fluid into the hole

38


7. When using a digital meter to test a diode, a correct operation of the diode is indicated by a volt drop of

0.3V to 0.7V

1.5V to 2V

2.5V to 2.8V

8. Continuity of a fibreoptic cable is tested with a

light source and optometer

calibrated light generator and opto-power meter

multimeter

9. What is the problem with using a megger on a piece of equipment containing capacitors

Feedback from the capacitors will blow the megger up

Impedance in the capacitors will give a false high reading

Fluctuating readings will occur while the capacitors charge up

10. If an insulation resistance tester is operated and the leads are suspended in free air, what will the meter read?

Zero

Infinity

Mid scale - it is a ratiometer movement and there is no current flowing in the external circuit

11. What is the primary purpose of bonding aircraft components?

To prevent lightning strike damage

To provide a circuit return path

To ensure all components are of the same electrical potential

12. If the two prongs of a bonding tester are shorted and the single prong lead is in free space, what will be the reading on the scale?

1 ohm

Zero

Full scale

13. A fuel quantity test set has an externally adjustable

capacitor

resistor

inductor

39


14. When connecting or disconnecting an electrical appliance

the wall socket switch must be off

the wall socket switch can be on

the appliance must be off

15. When testing an anodised component with an insulation tester

take the anodised coating into account when reading results

the anodised coating is too thin to make any difference

ensure probes penetrate the anodised layer

16. When using a bonding tester

ensure prongs do not penetrate anodising layer

an anodised component cannot be tested

ensure prongs penetrate anodised layer

17. When testing a circuit with suppressors, with a megger, you should disconnect the suppressors because

condensers will cause inaccurate readings because of the chokes

charging/discharging of capacitors causes fluctuating readings

they will cause the megger to burn-out

18. The maximum value of bonding of a secondary structure is

1 megohm

1 ohm

1 kilohm

19. Primary structure bonding should be no more than

1.0 ohm

50 milliohms

0.5 ohms

20. On a Bonding Tester the number of probes on the 60 ft and 6ft leads respectively are

1 and 2

2 and 1

2 and 2

21. Circuit tests on aircraft should be carried out in the following order:

40


continuity, bonding, functional, insulation

bonding, continuity, insulation, functional

functional, bonding, continuity, insulation

22. On a static leak tester, pressure is released by

slowly opening the release knob for 3 minutes

an internal balance valve in the tester

a bleed valve in the tester

23. When testing thermocouples using a test set the ambient temperature

is considered every time

is only considered when temperatures of 20°C or above

never needs to be considered

24. A pressure gauge is fitted to a Dead Weight Tester. The piston area is 0.25 sq.in. and the total mass of the mass carrier and masses is 5lb. If the pressure gauge is accurate what pressure in pounds per square inch (PSI) will it read?

20psi

200psi

1.25psi

25. When insulation testing a circuit with suppressors, what should you do?

Disconnect the suppressors as they will obscure the readings

Bridge the suppressor terminals as you may damage them

Nothing, the suppressors will not affect the results

26. Bonding lead testers are attached with

either of the leads can be connected anywhere

a 60 feet lead is connected to the main earth and a 6 foot test lead is connected to check the resistance between selected points

a 6 feet test lead is connected to the main earth and a 60 feet lead is connected to check the resistance between selected points

27. Before using a bonding tester, the 6 foot lead has the two prongs shorted together with a piece of metal. What would the indicator read?

Zero at the centre

Full scale right

Full scale left

41


28. The maximum resistance between isolated conducting parts which may be subject to appreciable electrostatic charging and the main earth system should be

1 ohm

0.5 ohm

0.5 megohms or 100,000 ohms per square meter or foot

Engineering Drawings, Diagrams and Standards

1. What is third angle projection?

each view represents the side of the object furthest from the adjacent view

each view represents the side of the object nearest to it in the adjacent view

each view is at an angle of 30 degrees to the plane of projection

2. Sketches are usually made easier by the use of

plain white paper

graph paper

artist’s paper

3. What type of diagram shows the wire size required for a particular installation

a block diagram

a wiring diagram

a schematic diagram

4. For sketching purposes, almost all objects are composed of one or some combination of six basic shapes; these include the

triangle, cylinder, cube, sphere, cone and circle

triangle, plane, circle, line, square and sphere

angle, arc, line, plane, square and circle

5. This drawing indicates

a blind tapped hole

a countersunk hole

a counterbored hole

42


6. The width of a visible outline on a drawing is

0.5 mm

0.3 mm

0.7 mm

7. What does GA stand for on a drawing?

Gradient Axis

General assembly

General arrangement

8. Design drawings of aircraft components are produced by organizations approved by

CAA in accordance with the BCARs

British Standards Institute

SBAC

9. This symbol found on an engineering drawing would mean

concentricity

angularity

cylindricity

10. Which pictorial projection shows one face in true elevation and line of depth normally draw at 30° or 45° to the horizontal?

Perspective

Isometric

Oblique

11. If a design amendment is made on a drawing

the old issue number is retained, with the amendment date added

no change in issue number or date is necessary

a new issue number and date must be allocated to the drawing

12. The British Standard for Engineering Drawings is

BS 308

BS 307

BS 8888

43


13. P.C.D. is an abbreviation for

Precision Circle Dimension

Pitch Cord Diameter

Pitch Circle Diameter

14. This represents

relief valve

squared shaft

bearing on shaft

15. This represents

an external thread

an internal thread

a counterbored hole

16. Drawing numbers are

unique to each drawing

changed after each drawing amended after May 28, 1999

the same as serial numbers

17. Hatching lines are usually drawn at:

45°

30°

60°

18. The scale of an engineering drawing is shown as 1:4. This indicates it is

drawn four times larger

drawn to a quarter

44


drawn to scale

19. An orthographic projection usually shows

a pictorial view of the object

one, three-dimensional view of an object

three, two-dimensional views of an object

20. When dimensioning a drawing, the dimension lines should be

only size dimensions

the minimum number of dimensions necessary to enable the component to be manufactured

as many dimensions as possible

21. 'PFD' on an engineering drawing would indicate

repair and recondition

dye penetrant check

ultra-sonic test

22. S.W.G. is an abbreviation for

Standard Water Gauge

Screw Width Gauge

Standard Wire Gauge

23. If you are unable to identify a structure 'classification' as either primary or secondary, what action should you adopt?

Upgrade it to 'primary'

Grade it as 'secondary'

Paint it red and stamp it as 'tertiary'

24. What colour is used to indicate a tertiary structure on a diagram or drawing?

Green

Yellow

Red

25. Which parts of the aircraft are classified secondary structures?

Highly stressed parts but if damaged will not cause failure of the aircraft

Lightly stressed parts such as fairings, wheel shields and minor component brackets etc

Highly stressed parts and if damaged may cause failure of the aircraft and loss of life

45


26. This symbol found on an engineering drawing would mean

concentricity

angularity

cylindricity

27. This symbol means

first angle projection

second angle projection

third angle projection

28. The abbreviation B.A. means

British Arrangement

British Assembly

British Association

29. This tolerance symbol means

angularity

diameter

position

30. Where are correct layout, dimensioning, numbering and reference procedures for engineering drawing are to be found?

BS 1916

BS 308

BS 8888

31. 10:1 on an engineering drawing indicates

the drawing is full size

46


the drawing is ten times full size

the drawing is one tenth full size

32. When reading an engineering drawing, this symbol means

profile of a surface

profile of a position

profile of a line

33. Lines known as short dashes (thin) are used on drawings to indicate

hidden detail

cutting revolved

visible outlines


flatness

perpendicularity

position

35. Any change to a drawing

must be accompanied by the new issue number and date

requires a new drawing number

must be notified to the S.B.A.C.

36. This symbol on a drawing means

washed and packed

solution treated and requiring precipitation

solution treated and precipitated


47


concentricity

dimensionality

diameter

38. Break lines are used

in sectional drawing

where it would be inconvenient (because of limited space) to draw long lengths of the same section

to show where components are expected to break

39. An oblique projection

has one view looking directly at one face with the lines representing depth drawn at 90°

is the same as an isometric projection

has one view looking directly at one face with the lines representing depth drawn at a constant angle

40. A drawing in which the subassemblies or parts are shown as brought together on the aircraft is called

a detail drawing

an installation drawing

a sectional drawing

41. A thread on a drawing is labeled ½ - 20 UNF - 1B. The thread is

internal

either external or internal, depending on the application

external

42. NTS on a drawing stands for

Not To Scale

No Tolerance System

Not True Scale

43. A hydraulic system schematic drawing would indicate the

direction of fluid flow through the system

type and quantity of the hydraulic fluid

48


specific location of the individual components within the aircraft

44. Which statement is true regarding an orthographic projection?

It could have as many as eight views

One-view, two-view, and three-view drawings are the most common

There are always at least two views

45. A line used to show an edge which is not visible is a

phantom line

hidden line

break line

46. One purpose for schematic diagrams is to show the

size and shape of components within a system

physical location of components within a system

functional location of components within a system

47. This type of break line represents

round bar

square tube

round tube

48. What type of line is normally used in a mechanical drawing or blueprint to represent an edge or object not visible to the viewer?

Alternate short and long light dashes

Light solid line

Medium-weight dashed line

49. A specific measured distance from the datum or some other point identified by the manufacturer, to a point in or on the aircraft is called a

specification number

zone number

station number

50. This electrical symbol represents a

49


double pole - single throw switch

double pole - double throw switch

single pole - double throw switch


iron core inductor

variable inductor

air core inductor


Zener diode

NPN transistor

PNP transistor

53. In a first angle orthographic projection the plan view is placed

above the front elevation

below the front elevation

below the side elevation

54. When a cutting plane on a drawing cuts a web longitudinally, the web is

sectioned with different direction of hatch

not sectioned

sectioned the same as the rest of the view


50


push-pull circuit breaker

push to reset circuit breaker

toggle switch circuit breaker


fuse

light bulb

flexible coupling

57. Water Lines are

front to rear measurements on the fuselage

left and right measurements on the fuselage

vertical measurements on the fuselage

58. When a cutting plane goes through a bush and bolt assembly, on the sectioned view

both the bush and the bolt will be hatched

the bush will be hatched but the bolt will not

neither the bush nor the bolt will be hatched

59. This symbol indicates that

machining is required on a particular surface

chisels must not be used

machining is required on all surfaces

60. This is a diagram of

51


a voltage divider

a potentiometer

a voltage regulator

61. Which of the following lines indicate hidden detail on a drawing?

A broken line as shown in 3

A continuous line as shown in 1

A broken line as shown in 2

62. The letter A.F.D. in a circle stamped on a material indicates that it has

an across flats diameter bolt

been annealed fired and doped

been anodic flaw detected

63. Where would Zone 324 be found in ATA 100?

Between rear spar of wing and trailing edge of wing

Tip of horizontal stabilizer

Fwd of the wing rear spar

64. This is a diagram of a

variable resistor

rheostat

potentiometer

65. The latest drawing is identified by the

52


amendment number

date

issue number

66. A geometric tolerance symbol indicating that one edge must be parallel to a datum edge would be shown in which of the following conventions?

Convention A

Convention B

Convention C

Fits and Clearances

1. A press fit requires

some sort of driving force

the shaft to be shrunk by cooling

the hole to be expanded by heat

2. Which of the following shafts would you use to obtain a clearance fit in a bush 0.750 inch diameter?

0.752 inch

0.748 inch

750 inch

3. After mechanical removal of corrosion on an aluminium alloy casting, the length of the blended recess should be

no more than twenty times the depth

no less than ten times the depth

no less than twenty times the depth

4. Which of the following is checked when using a 'GO / NO -GO' gauge?

Allowance

Tolerance

53


Clearance

5. If there is a positive allowance between the smallest possible hole and the largest possible shaft, the fit is known as

a clearance fit

an interference fit

a transition fit

6. A tolerance is

a permitted variation on a dimension to allow for inaccuracy of equipment

a permitted difference between new and worn dimensions

a required difference in dimension between mating parts to obtain a certain class of fit

7. The length of a blended repair of corrosion should be no less than

10 times its depth

5 times its depth

20 times its depth

8. A transition fit is one in which the shaft is

smaller than the hole

larger than the hole

the same size as the hole

9. The equipment required to carry out a run-out check on a shaft would be

a surface plate and a three leg trammel

a DTI and 'V' blocks

a ball bearing and a micrometer

10. Which of the following is a 'Bilateral Tolerance'?

2 inches + 0.002

2 inches - 0.002

2 inches ± 0.002

11. What is the maximum bow allowed in a strut?

1 in 500

1 in 600

1 in 200

54


12. Tolerances are classified in two ways, these are

Upper and lower

Dimensional and isometric

Dimensional and geometric

13. What is the typical acceptable limit of a dent on a frame member?

Twice the skin gauge and 0.75 inch diameter

One gauge depth and 0.75 inch diameter

One and a half times the skin thickness

14. A light drive clearance between 3/4 inch diameter bolt and hole, on a drawing would be shown as

0.005 inches

0.0015 inches

0.0025 inches

15. The maximum permissible bow in a steel tube is

1:400

1:200

1:600

Electrical Cables and Connectors

1. Radio interference between co-axial cables can be reduced by

connecting the earths of the cables together at a common bonding point

provide shielding to the earthing connectors

connecting the earths of the cables to separate bonding points

2. When a co-axial cable is placed in a wire bundle, the loom

should have the co-axial cable on the outside for ease of inspection

carefully tied with lacing tape so as not to deform the dielectric.

should be tied together tightly using plastic ties (tie-wraps)

3. In a front release connector the pin will be

released from rear and extracted from the front

released from the front and extracted from the front

released from the front and extracted from the rear

55


4. A diode is commonly used to protect a relay from spikes in the supply. Which of the following would be suitable for this?

a Gunn diode

a Schottky diode

a Zener diode

5. When you change an EGT gauge, you should

do test letting new gauge 'soak' for 30 minutes then do test taking ambient temperature into consideration

do a test immediately, taking ambient temperature into consideration

do a test without considering ambient temperature, as it is already accounted for by the instrument

6. The maximum number of wire splice repairs in a single cable is

four

three

five

7. The crimping tool handle ratchet ensures

the jaws fully bottom before handles can be opened

the correct crimping tool force is used

the jaws fully open before crimping can take place

8. A new contactor has been crimped onto a high amperage wire that you suspect has a high resistance.

Use a millivoltmeter across after contacts are closed and it is under steady load

Use a millivoltmeter across it before contacts are closed

Use a millivoltmeter across it as the contacts are closed

9. An in-line crimp is suspected of having high resistance. How do you check it?

Use a safety ohmmeter

Use a millivoltmeter with current flowing in the circuit

Do a continuity check

10. When checking the earth terminal with a millivolt drop test, typically it is 5 millivolts per 10 amps of current. What is the resistance value?

5 milliohm

50 milliohm

56


0.5 milliohm

11. When inserting connector pins, they should be

inserted first by hand, then fully inserted by the contact inserter tool

inserted by hand

fully inserted by the contact inserter tool

12. During an insulation test, the minimum resistance in high temperature areas is

10 megohm

0.5 megohm

2 megohm

13. When testing co-axial cable in-situ, to find the location of short circuits, use a

continuity tester

time delay reflectometer

multimeter

14. When testing a 'live' AC circuit, use a

shunt AC multimeter

galvanometer

multimeter set to AC volts

15. A wire clamped vertically at one end and horizontally at the other end should have a bend radius of no less than

3 times the diameter of the wire



16. Glycol deicer fluid in contact with a silver cable can cause

corrosion

disintegration of the cable insulation

a fire

17. With a rear release connector, the pin will be

released from the rear and extracted from the front

released from the front and extracted from the rear

released from the rear and extracted from the rear

57


18. The maximum operating temperature for a nickel plated copper or aluminium connector is

260°C

135°C

200°C

19. What gauge of pin would a yellow plastic insert/extract tool be used on?

16 - 14

22 - 18

12 - 10

20. Can the insulation grip be adjusted on a PIDG crimp tool?

No

Yes by adjusting the pins

Yes by turning a knob

21. What gauge of pin would a red plastic insert/extract tool be used on?

22 - 18

16 - 14

12 - 10

22. What cable would you use where temperatures are going to exceed 200°C?

Tinned copper or aluminium

Silver plated copper or aluminium

Nickel plated copper or aluminium

23. How long should a fireproof cable last in a fire?

15 minutes

5 minutes

50 minutes

24. What gauge of pin would a blue plastic insert / extract tool be used on?

16 - 14

22 - 18

12 - 10

25. The insulation resistance for wiring in undercarriage wheel-wells should normally be not less than

58


10 megohms

2 megohms

5 megohms

26. What causes knuckling on older type electrical cables?

Excessive pull through forces

Applying cable ties too tightly

Over-temperature soldering

27. To find a high resistance or open circuit, carry out

a bonding check

a continuity check

a milli-volt drop test

28. The maximum bonding resistance on an aircraft primary structure should be

0.001 ohms

0.01 ohms

0.05 ohms

29. Before effecting a crimp, the bare ends of a cable should be

straightened out

tightly twisted

twisted lightly in the direction of the lay

30. The number of the dots impressed on the insulation of the pre-insulated connectors during crimping indicates that

the crimp is properly formed

the correct connector has been used

the correct tool was used to effect the connection

31. The pressure of the insulation crimp jaws on the PIDG crimping tool can be changed by

varying the torque applied to the handles

changing the position of the pins

using different coloured crimping pliers and terminations

32. When referring to fuses, HRC means

high rupture capacity

59


hot running capacity

high running current

33. When wiring an electrical component to a plug, the live wire is coloured

blue

brown

green and yellow

34. A hole is placed in the lowest point of electrical cable conduit

to allow for drainage of moisture

to allow for pull-through of the cables

to secure the conduit to a piece of aircraft structure

35. The minimum distance between electrical cable splices is

12 inches

500 mm

3 feet

36. A fire resistant cable is proof tested by exposure to a standard fire for

5 minutes

15 minutes

30 minutes

37. When fitting coaxial cable connectors it is important to

not damage any seals fitted

fit the correct lock nuts

make sure the outer cup is fitted the correct way round

38. When inserting pins into a front release connector the inserting tool should be used with the gap facing which direction?

Either direction

The centre of the connector

The outside of the connector

39. When using a hydraulic crimping tool, after completing the crimping operation, the crimp is formed when

the foot pedal force is at maximum

the bypass valve opens and the ram returns to neutral

60


the bypass valve closes and the ram returns to neutral

40. The type of binding tape used for cables in temperatures above 260°C is which of the following?

Teflon

Nylon

Nomex

41. The type of binding tape used for cables in temperatures which may reach 360°C is which of the following?

Teflon

Nomex

Nylon

42. What is the minimum bend radius of a loom adequately supported at a terminal block?

3 x diameter

10 x diameter

8 x diameter

43. How are front release pins removed?

The tool is inserted from the front and the pin is removed from the rear

The tool is inserted from the rear and the pin Is removed from the front

The tool is inserted from the front and the pin is removed from the front

44. If a co-axial cable clamp is over tightened so as to compress the dielectric, how will the capacitance change?

Stay the same

Decrease

Increase

45. What is the minimum bend radius of a single co-axial cable?

8 x diameter

6 x diameter

10 x diameter

46. What is wet arc tracking?

A fault caused by insulation damage

A fault caused by 'knuckling through'

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A fault caused by hot stamp printing

47. When using a heat shrink gun, what should the temperature of the gun be set to?

100° below the heat shrink temperature

15° below the heat shrink temperature

100° above the heat shrink temperature

48. In an electrical cable 1EF6B22NMS, what does the letter E represent?

Cable size

Circuit function

Segment letter

49. On a coaxial cable, cable impedance is

not effected by length

inversely proportional to length

proportional to length

50. A secondary earth is

22 AWG

not less than 0.5mm cross sectional area

18 AWG

51. 'E' on a wire, under ATA 100 is a

system ID code

phase indication

cable size

52. To prevent wet arc tracking

cable grips should be tight

cables should not be stretched

ensure hot stamp printing is controlled

53. When splicing a cable with a soldered joint, the operation is finished when

the solder sleeve disappears

the solder and insulation have formed

the solder has melted

54. When manufacturing an electrical connector the unused holes are

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filled with connectors

covered with blanks

filled with connectors and blanked

55. Co-axial cable is preferred to airframe cable in which application?

Where the diameter of cable is not important

Low frequency interference

High frequency interference

56. Forward release electrical connectors are removed by the wire being

twisted to the right

pulled backwards

pushed forwards

57. When crimping wires, the wires should be

straight

twisted

lightly twisted

58. Why are copper wires used in electrical systems?

They have a low resistance to current

They do not give off a magnetic field

They have high permeability

59. When crimping wires, the wire should

be beneath the crimp

be flush with the crimp

extend 0.8 mm beyond the crimp

60. 1EF6B22 NMSV, What does the B mean?

Segment letter

Circuit function

Cable number

61. A white/blue insertion-extraction tool would be used on a cable of what size?

22

10

63


16

62. The value of the insulation resistance of an electric motor compared to its supply leads is

smaller

greater

same

63. According to ATA 100, a symbol code 'X' on a wiring number denotes

AC power

a ground circuit

a warning circuit

64. When securing wire after it leaves an LRU, cable bundle bends should be not less than?

minimum radius of five times the outside diameter of the cable, or cable bundle

minimum radius of eight times the outside diameter of the cable, or cable bundle

minimum radius of three times the outside diameter of the cable, or cable bundle

65. When terminating an aluminium cable, what preparations would be carried out before crimping?

Apply a mixture of 50% petroleum jelly and zinc oxide

Just terminate

Degrease stripped cable

66. When splicing a cable with a soldered joint (heat gun), the operation is complete when

the solder has melted

the rings on the sleeve have shrunk

the coloured rings on the sleeve go colourless

67. An in-line splice should be positioned on the

outer surface of the loom for easy inspection

outside of the loom

terminal of the loom

68. A conductor after being crimped. The maximum amount of conductor which protrudes from the terminal end should be

1/32 inch

1/16 inch

1/8 inch

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69. Why is a copper conductor often covered with an alloy coating?

To aid joining to dissimilar metals

To reduce electrical resistance

To increase corrosion resistance

70. Two or more operations should be performed to strip wire with hand operated wire stripper if the total stripping length exceeds

0.75 inch

0.25 in

0.50 in

71. A cable loom should be protected by conduit when fed through the

main equipment centre

cargo compartment ceiling

wheelwell door

72. The size of proper conduit for electrical wires must be

100% larger than the average diameter of wires

75% larger than the maximum diameter of wires

25% larger than the maximum diameter of wires

73. The inspection hole in an electrical pin connector is to

check in service connector condition

check conductor correctly positioned

check insulator correctly positioned

74. The pin removal/insertion tool coloured end is used for

both removal/insertion

insertion

removal

75. An insulation check on a removed cable loom is done by

check all wires separately against adjacent wire

connecting all other wires together except one being tested

connect all wires together and test against aircraft structure

76. Blue metal extract tool would be used with contacts sized

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16

12

22

77. During a continuity check

ensure all parallel paths are disconnected

close all switches in circuit to be tested

open all circuit breakers and remove fuses

78. Conduit drain holes in a looped areas are positioned at the

top of loop

bottom of loop

mid position of loop

79. Continuity check

is carried out with circuit power energised

is carried out with circuit power de-energised

can be done with power energised and de-energised

80. After an insulation check

close circuit breakers and refit fuses and carry out functional check

carry out continuity check

carry out bonding check

81. A Silver coated conductor in an unpresurised area is subject to moisture and has a damaged coating would be likely to cause

Knuckling Through

Wet Arc Tracking

Red Plague

82. If bonding strips are found damaged

a solder repair can be carried out

replace the damaged conductor

broken end can be repaired with an in-line splice

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Riveting

1. Avdel rivets are closed by

a broaching process

a tapered mandrel

a squeezing process

2. What is the purpose of the Avdel pin tester?

To test the tightness of the pin in the rivet

To test the tightness of the rivet in the hole

To test the shear strength of the pin

3. The standard minimum rivet row spacing is

3 D

4 D

2 1/4 D

4. The riveting defect in the figure shown is

the dolly was not square

the snap was not square

too much hammering

5. When countersinking rivet holes in a material

a plain countersinking bit should be used

the rivet head should stand 1/32 of an inch above the surface

a special countersinking bit with a pad to prevent drilling too deep should be used

6. The stems of an Avdel rivet are

removed with the riveting tool

removed with a taper punch

nipped off and milled flush with the head

7. The riveting defect in the figure shown is

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an incorrect snap has been used

the hole was too small

the snap was not square

8. When riveting, the distance from the edge to the rivet (land) should not be less than

2D

1D

4D

9. Regarding riveting, which of the following is correct?

Both of the above are correct

The length of a round head or flat head is measured from the end of the rivet to underside of rivet head

The length of a countersunk rivet (flush head) is measured from the end of the rivet to the top of the countersunk head

10. What is the allowable reaction on a rivet?

2D

1.5D

1D

11. Rivet allowance is

the distance the rivet is positioned from the edge of the repair plate

the distance between rivets in the same row

the amount of material required to form the rivet on installation

12. If treated rivets have not been used within the prescribed time they can be re-treated. What is the maximum number of times that they can be heat-treated?

Three times

If no more in Stores, as many times as required

Twice only

13. If the bearing strength of a metal is greater than the shear strength of the rivet, what will occur?

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Rivet will show incorrectly installed

Rivet will joggle

Rivet will pull through the metal

14. The strength of a riveted joint is determined by

pitch and tensile strength of rivet

shear strength and pitch of rivet

shear strength of rivet and material it is made of

15. In British rivets (solid) what is the length grading unit?

1/10

1/32

1/16

16. What is the normal spacing between rivets?

3 D

2 D

4 D

17. To replace one 1/8 inch rivet

four 1/16 inch rivets would be required

three 1/16 inch rivets would be required

two 1/16 inch rivets would be required

18. What is the pressure range for the Avdel Riveter Type F?

20 to 60 lbs per sq. in



19. If the thickness of a single sheet of material, about to be joined by riveting was 1/16 of an inch thick what would be the approximate diameter of the rivets to be used?

1/16 inch

1/8 inch

3/16 inch

20. What is the approximate distance of the sphere of influence of a rivet?

2 D

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5 D

4 D

21. The minimum rivet pitch is

2 x the rivet diameter

3 x the rivet diameter

2 1/2 x the rivet diameter

22. A repair has a double riveted joint. The shear strength would be

75%

100%

125%

23. Solution treated rivets kept at a temperature of between -15°C and -20°C are usable for

150 hours

150 minutes

150 days

24. Rivet clearance is

the distance between rows of rivets

the distance between rivets in the same row

the amount that the rivet hole diameter exceeds the rivet diameter

25. The 'grip' of a rivet is

the length of rivet left to form the head

the thickness of plates which can be fastened

the area of the plates held firmly together

26. The strength of a riveted joint compared to that of the original metal is

125%

75%

100%

27. When riveting, a certain clearance must exist between the rivet and the hole in which it is fitted, to allow for shank expansion. If the clearance is too large, what could be the result?

Separation of the sheets may occur

Sheet may tend to buckle

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Indentations by rivet head on the material

Pipes and Hoses

1. To prevent corrosion where aluminium alloy pipelines are supported by rubber cleats, the pipe should be treated over the area of contact with

petroleum jelly

varnish

french chalk

2. To allow for shrinkage, vibration and whip all straight hoses must be

3% longer than the distance between the fittings



3. A flexible hose that cannot be internally inspected by eye or introscope can be ball tested by suspending from one end at a time to check

ball of 90% of bore of end fittings passes freely under own weight

a ball of 98% of bore of end fittings passes freely under own weight

a ball of 95% of bore of hose can be pushed through with a metal rod

4. The international marking for a water injection pipeline is a series of

dots

chevrons

squares

5. Repair to aluminium pipe can be done using burnishing

if damage is no more than 5%

if damage is no more than 10%

if damage is surface only

6. When carrying out a pressure test on a pipe it should be

1.5 times the working pressure

three times the working pressure for five minutes

twice the working pressure for two minutes

7. The maximum distance between end fittings to which a straight hose assembly is to be connected is 50 inches. The minimum hose length should be

51½ inches

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3 inches

51 inches

8. The international marking for an instrument air pipe line is a

zig zag line

wavy band

series of dots

9. The international marking for a fire protection pipe line is a series of

circles

squares

diamonds

10. The international marking for a breathing oxygen pipe line is a series of

diamonds

rectangles

dots

11. Hoses are normally pressure tested to

maximum working pressure

2 times maximum working pressure

1½ times maximum working pressure

12. The resistance between a flexible hose and a component should not exceed

0.5 ohm

1 ohm

0.05 ohm

13. Pipe flaring is carried out

in the annealed state

after normalizing

as supplied

14. The length of a hose assembly with elbowed end fittings is taken from

the centre of the bore at the nipple extremity

the maximum length of the straight portion of hose

the extreme overall length

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15. Bonding connections between flexible and rigid pipes are achieved by

tucking the bonding leads between the flexible and rigid pipes

ti-wrapping the bonding lead to the pipes

using a corrugated strip

16. A fluid line marker with a skull & crossbones is

warning symbol

fluid line carries toilet waste

radioactive symbol

17. If the outer cover of a flexible hose is found to be cracked

it may still be serviceable

it is unserviceable since it may have a restricted flow

it is unserviceable since it may leak

18. A rigid hydraulic pipe requires shaping. It should be carried out

as supplied

after annealing

after age hardening

19. Rigid pipes are designed with bends to

allow for expansion and contraction due to heat and absorb vibration

fit to the aircraft structure

absorb vibration

20. The 'Lay Line' on a flexible hose is

a white line painted the full length of the hose to indicate any twist in the hose

a white line painted the full length of the hose to indicate any stretch in the hose

an arrow painted on the hose to show the direction of fluid flow

21. When checking a hose after installation it should be checked for freedom of movement

by flexing through the normal operating range plus 15°

by flexing +/-15° either side of the neutral position

by flexing through the normal operating range only

22. Aluminium alloy pipe used for hydraulics systems is flared

as supplied

73


annealed

normalized

23. You find a pipe with a flare end fitting of 74°. What specification has it been manufactured to?

A.N.

A.G.S.

S.A.E.

24. The flare angle on an AGS pipe is

32 degrees

90 degrees

45 degrees

25. What would be the results if the tubing is bent without using a tube bender?

The inside of the bend will crack

Wrinkles will occur on the inside of the bend

The outside of the bend will crack

26. Bore tests of flexible hoses are carried out using a suitable ball or bobbin of

85% of the diameter of the end fittings



27. Fretting corrosion on a braided pipe would mean it was

only unserviceable if the corrosion penetrates the braids

not necessarily unserviceable

unserviceable and should be replaced

28. Identify the parts required to make up a flared-tube fitting?

Sleeve and nut

Ferrule and nut

Body, sleeve and nut

Springs

1. What are high-compression springs made of?

Hard drawn wire

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Forge drawn wire

Piano wire

2. The free height of a helical compression spring is affected by

change in spring rate

wear on the coils

loss of elasticity

3. Material used for springs is

Low carbon steel or alloy steel with low working stresses

Low carbon steel or alloy steel with high working stresses

High carbon or alloy steel with low working stresses

4. A wear check on a cylinder head valve spring should include

length under load

diameter and length

length off-load

5. Discolouration of a leaf spring indicates

overheating

wear

no defect, this is normal appearance

6. Springs are manufactured from

high carbon alloy steel with high strength requirements

high carbon alloy steel with low strength requirements

low carbon alloy steel with high strength requirements

7. Springs are made of

forged wire

hard drawn wire

piano wire

8. The load/deflection graph for a constant rate spring is a

hyperbola

straight line

curve

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Bearings

1. Thrust bearings transmit

thrust loads, thus limiting radial movement

thrust loads, thus limiting axial movement

radial loads, thus limiting axial movement

2. On inspection a bearing is found to show signs of overheating, what action should be taken?

Reject bearing

clean up bearing and repack with grease

No action required. Some overheating is normal

3. Brinelling of a wheel bearing could be caused by

rotation of the outer race in the wheel housing

overheating of the brakes

heavy landing

4. When rotating a ball bearing by hand, a regular click indicates

damage to the balls

a cracked ring

intergranular corrosion in the outer ring

5. A Hardy Spicer coupling has what type of bearings?

Plain bearings

Needle bearings

Ball Bearings

6. Brinelling of a bearing is

indentations in the race surface caused by continual static vibration

bluing of the bearing due to overheating

shallow smooth depressions caused by the rollers being forced against the cup, due to overtorquing

7. How do you treat a corroded bearing?

Re-grease

Remove the corroded bearing and replace it

No action required as the corrosion will not affect the raceways

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8. False Brinelling of a bearing is

a scoring of the race-way surfaces due to ball or roller skidding

movement of the outer ring relative to its housing

indentations on the race-way due to load transferred through the bearing when static

9. What type of load is a journal load?

Centrifugal

Radial

Axial

10. When fitting a ball bearing to a shaft it should be carefully positioned using

a soft steel or brass tube drift

a copper or aluminium tube drift

a steel drift with light blows

11. When checking a ball bearing for corrosion and foreign matter

make a strip down inspection

oscillate and rotate slowly to listen for roughness

rotate at operational speed and check for roughness

12. After cleaning a bearing should be dried with

lint free rags

left in free air to dry naturally

clean, warm, dry compressed air

13. When a bearing has 2 parts and the inner ring and outer ring is installed

the inner ring can be removed from its inner shaft for cleaning

neither of the practices are allowed

the outer ring can be removed from its housing for inspection

14. Needle roller bearings

can accept a small amount of misalignment

are designed to carry axial loads

are susceptible to brinelling.

15. Bearings to be cleaned for further examination should be wiped free of all grease on outer surfaces with the aid of dry compressed air for cages and rolling parts. The bearings should then be soaked in

77


white spirit

M.E.K.

lead free gasoline

16. Graphite greases are used for

medium temperature applications

low temperature applications

high temperature applications

17. Chipping of a ball bearing indicates

chattering

spalling

brinelling

18. If during an engine overhaul, ball or roller bearings are found to have magnetised but otherwise have no defects, they

cannot be used again

are in an acceptable service condition

must be degaussed before use

19. On completion of assembly the bearing housing

packed fully with grease

lightly packed with grease

should be examined for end float

20. Graphite prevents seizure and conducts heat. It is normally used in

copper based greases

sodium based greases

lithium based greases

21. Water marks on bearings are indications of

bearing insufficiently lubricated

intergranular corrosion

bearing been run dry

22. Small indentations in the race of a ball bearing indicate

brinelling

78


overtorquing

corrosion

23. Ball and roller bearings are made from a combination of low carbon steel and a percentage of

Nickel chrome

Chromium

Nickel

24. A tapered roller bearing is designed to take

both radial and axial loads

axial loads only

radial loads only

25. Which type of bearing cannot be re-greased?

Sealed bearing

Shielded bearing

Sealed bearing and shielded bearing

26. On inspection a bearing is found to have distortion, what action should be taken?

Reject bearing

Blend out distortion and re-grease bearing

No action required. Some distortion is normal

Transmissions

1. Control chains should be fitted in an aircraft

with the minimum of slack in the chain

so that the chain can be removed easily

with as much slack as possible to allow for contraction

2. Backlash is a type of wear associated with

rivets

bearings

gears

3. What tools are used to check for bow in the push-pull control rods?

Three point trammel

79


Three point trammel and straight edge and feeler gauge

Straight edge and feeler gauge

4. If a control chain can be lifted away from a tooth, it should be

cleaned, re-tensioned and inspected after a period of time

rejected as unserviceable

removed and an elongation check carried out

5. A chain is removed by

removing chain links on an endless chain

spring clips

nuts and bolts

6. How do you check a chain for elongation?

Adjust the end fittings

Hang chain up, check sight line and measure

Lay flat on a table, apply tensile load and measure

7. The initial lubricant on a new chain

should not be removed

should be removed and replaced with the approved oil

must be replaced with grade altitude grease

8. The three principle dimensions specified for a chain is the diameter of the rollers and

the pitch and width across the outside of the plates

pitch and chain length

the pitch and width between the inner plates

9. Which of the following formulas should be used to calculate the percentage extension of an aircraft control chain?

Note: M = Measured length under load in inches X = Number of pitches measured P = Pitch of chain in inches

M - (X x P) x 100 / X x P

M + (X x X) x 100 / P x M

X - (M x P) x 100 / M x P

10. If corrosion is found on a chain

clean off the corrosion and if acceptable re-fit the chain

80


lubricate the chain

replace the chain

11. A chain removed for routine inspection, it

must be proof loaded to 150%

must be proof loaded to 50%

does not need proof loading

12. The distance between the centres of the rollers of a chain is called

pitch

length

crest

13. How do you remove a tight link from a chain which is to be used on an aircraft control system?

Dismantle, inspect, rectify and re-assemble the chain

If the chain has a tight link, the chain has to be removed from service

You may be able to remove the tight link by applying a light tap with a hammer

14. The maximum allowable extension of a chain assembly over a nominal length is

3%

2%

5%

15. After a chain has been cleaned in paraffin it should be

hung up to drip dry

dried in hot air

washed in soapy water then hung to drip dry

16. What fraction of the minimum breaking load should be the proof load for a chain?

1/3

0.1%.

0.1

17. With a serviceable chain not required for use, how should you store it?

Carefully coil, lubricate, lay flat and wrap in grease proof paper

Lay the chain flat in full length , lubricate and wrap in brown paper to exclude all dirt and moisture

81


Clean, lubricate, wrap the chain in grease proof paper and suspend

18. An aircraft control chain is connected using

nuts and bolts

quick release pins

a split link and spring clip

19. To check a chain for articulation

it should be run over the finger through 180° and checked for smoothness and kinks

move each link individually and check for tightness

lay on a flat surface and check for kinks

20. The box unit in a Teleflex control run which is not suitable for heavily loaded controls is called

Straight lead

Single entry

Double entry

21. A feather key locates a gear on a shaft and permits

a positive drive and axial movement

a positive and strong drive transmission

a positive drive with the gear firmly locked

Control Cables

1. When manufacturing aircraft control cables, the cable can be cut by

using a chisel on a flat metal surface

using a hacksaw with the cable under tension

using an oxy-acetylene torch

2. HTS aircraft control cables are protected from corrosion by

Galvanising

cadmium coating

zinc plating

3. What is the purpose of an aileron balance cable?

Equalizes control cable tension

Relieves pilot loads

82


Allows for hands off flying

4. In aircraft control cables, when a lock is fitted to the control surface

it will prevent the control surface and the control column movement

it will not prevent the control surface movement but will lock the control column

it will prevent the control surface movement but not the control column movement

5. What is the proof loading for cables after swaging?

2/3 minimum breaking strain

50% minimum breaking strain

1/3 minimum breaking strain

6. A flight control cable is replaced if

single wires are blended together

the protective fluid coating is missing

a wire is 20% worn

7. A control cable that has been contaminated with acid should be

rejected

cleaned, inspected, and reinspected after a period of time

cleaned

8. A cable is replaced

when each strand is worn to limits

if a chemical spillage is suspected

when a shiny portion is found

9. The inspection hole in a turnbuckle is

to allow the locking wire to pass through for the purpose of locking

to ensure that the locknuts are adequately tightened

to ensure that the turnbuckle is in safety

10. A balance cable is installed in a control system to

correct for wing heaviness

allow the aircraft to be flown 'hands off'

enable the cable to be tensioned

11. A control cable is proof loaded to ensure that

83


the end fittings on the cable are secure

it will not stretch after fitting in an aircraft

it will not break after fitting in an aircraft

12. To correctly tension cables it can help

to use a cable with turnbuckles at least every eight feet

to have control surface locks in to support weight and adjust turnbuckles equally

to take up initial slack by additional pulleys

13. Which flexible control cable is designed for a push-pull action?

Push control

Pull control

Teleflex control

14. A cable should be replaced when individual wires are worn greater than

60%

20%

40%

15. British turnbuckles are checked for safety by

looking through the hole and checking for threads showing

attempting to pass a hardened pin probe through the inspection hole

attempting to push locking wire through the hole

16. The check for a cable pulling out of a swaged fitting is by

seeing that there are no broken wires near the fitting

seeing that the cable is still past the safety holes in the swage

looking for a shiny surface on the cable near the fitting

17. Large control cables (45 to 120 cwt) may have tension loads that can break the locking wire or lease lock nuts. How is this overcome?

Duplicating the number of cables to cut down on individual tensile loads

A tube is fitted over the turnbuckle assembly and drilled to take up to 3 bolts, to prevent independent rotation of any part

The cable is kept slightly slack

18. A suspected chemical spillage on a cable, you should

replace the cable

84


clean the cable and inspect 24 hours later

clean, inspect and refit immediately

19. A crimping tool is checked

using a go/no-go gauge

with a crimped tensile test piece

by condition

20. If the turnbuckles in a control system are tightened excessively the result will be

the cables will vibrate excessively and cause failure of controls

the aircraft will be heavy on controls

the cable will break

21. When checking cable tensions you are looking for

full and free movement

artificial feel

free movement only

22. How would you use a Pacific T5 tensiometer?

Use a load meter to apply the correct load

Use correct chart and correct riser

Use a standard riser and use the chart to correct for different sized cables

23. How would you inspect a cable for fraying?

Operate the controls and feel for stiffness

Run your fingers the full length of the cable

Run a rag the full length of the cable

24. The best way to check control cables for broken wires is to

examine them visually

increase the tension and check with a magnifying glass

run a rag along the cable in both directions

25. A 'Reel' used to hold an aircraft cable in storage should have a minimum diameter of

at least 25 times that of the cable diameter



85


26. What is the purpose of the hole in the swaged end fitting on a swaged cable?

To allow a split pin to be inserted

To ensure the cable end passes the inspection hole on drilled through type fittings but leaves the locking wire hole clear

To allow trapped air to escape

27. Swaging of a cable end fitting is checked by

using a go / no-go gauge on the barrel

measuring the length of the barrel before and after swaging

looking for cracks on the swage indicating poor swaging

28. Proof testing after cable installation is

not required

always required

sometimes required

Material Handling - Sheet metal

1. How are new metal sheets stored?

Horizontally above floor level

Horizontally

Vertically

2. The purpose of a joggle is

to make the holes for a rivet line up

to act as a tear stopper

to produce a flush fit at a metal joint

3. Caustic soda applied to a metal turns black. This would indicate the metal is

magnesium alloy

aluminium

duralumin

4. Removal of a scratch from a sheet of metal requires

polishing

blending

burnishing

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5. When dimpling a sheet of metal you would require

a male and female die

an oversized rivet and special reaction block

a male die only

6. The skin on an aircraft is normally manufactured from

7075 aluminium alloy



7. The mold point is

the mid point in the thickness of a sheet of metal to which the radius dimension is calculated

the centre of curvature of a radiused corner in a metal fabricated component

an imaginary point from which real base measurements are provided

8. Relief holes are

holes drilled in a battery container to provide drainage

holes drilled to stop a crack

holes drilled in the corner of a metal box to prevent cracking

9. The 'setback' is

the distance from the mold point to the bend tangent line

the distance from the edge of the metal to the bend tangent line

the distance from the bend tangent line to the setback line

10. Faying surfaces are

surfaces that are stressed

surfaces that are in contact with each other

surfaces that have been treated with anti-corrosion compound

11. In sheet metal bending, how would you measure the bend radius to calculate the bend allowance?

Measure to the inside of the bend radius plus half the metal thickness

Measure to the outside of the bend radius

Measure to the inside of the bend radius

12. When dimpling sheet with a squeeze dimpling tool

87


adjust the jaws to accommodate different material gauges

use a lubricant

the jaws are not adjustable

13. Bend radius on sheet metal is

outside radius

inside radius + ½ thickness

inside radius

14. Aircraft skin is joggled to

Conform with the 'Area Rule'

Provide smooth airflow at faying surfaces

Make a frame lighter but stronger

15. Zinc Chromate applied between faying surfaces will

improve adhesion thus relieving the amount of riveting necessary

inhibit dissimilar metal (electrolytic) corrosion

improve bonding between them

16. If a non-ferrous metal being examined by chemical test turns black when caustic soda is applied to the surface, the metal is

aluminium

duralumin

alclad

17. To aid marking out on Fe metals use

graphite grease

engineer's blue

copper sulphate solution

18. The sight line on a sheet metal flat layout to be bent in a cornice or box brake is measured and marked

one radius from the bend tangent line that is placed under the brake

one-half radius from either bend tangent line

one radius from either bend tangent line

19. If copper sulphate is used on magnesium alloy it will

effervesce to a copper colour

88


effervesce to a black colour

have no effect

20. If it is necessary to compute a bend allowance problem and bend allowance tables are not available, the neutral axis of the bend can be

represented by the actual length of the required material for the bend

found by subtracting the stock thickness from the bend radius

found by adding approximately one-half of the stock thickness to the bend radius

21. The formula for setback for a 90° bend is

(R + ½T)

(R + T)

(½R + T)

22. Caustic soda placed on the edge of alclad will turn

black - white - black

white - black - white

all white

23. In marking a light alloy

a pencil is used to mark the material and all marks removed after bending

the scriber must be held at an angle to give a smooth line where bending is required

caustic soda is used

24. When assembling metals of different potential, corrosion may be inhibited by application of

zinc or chromic acid & assemble while wet

nothing - assemble bare

zinc or barium chromate & assemble while wet

25. Steel wire brushes or steel wool should

be used to clean aluminium sheet

be used to clean magnesium alloys

never be used on light alloys

26. When a piece of metal is bent, the surface of the metal on the outside of the bend is

neither in tension or in compression

in tension

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in compression

27. The sight line of a bend is

at the tangent line

half a radius from the tangent line

one radius from the tangent line

28. The sharpest bend that can be placed in a piece of metal without critically weakening the part is called the

bend allowance

minimum radius of bend

maximum radius of bend

29. Scribers are used to

make centre pop marks for drilling

mark guide lines on material

produce an accurate finish

30. A hole drilled at the intersection of two bends in a fabricated sheet metal component is called

a relief hole

a crack stopper

a drain hole

31. Dissimilar metal diffusion bonding gives

high strength and stiffness

high strength and ductility

high strength and brittleness

32. Marking out on stainless steel can be clarified by application of

sal ammoniac

ammonia

copper sulphate

33. When drawing lines on aluminium alloy sheet prior to bending

a wax pencil should be used

a thin coat of zinc chromate primer should be used, ready for pencil lines

a scriber should be used

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34. After solution treatment of aluminium alloy, the effect of immediate refrigeration at a temperature with the range -15°C to - 20°C is

to increase the rate of artificial ageing

to suspend natural ageing for a limited period

to permanently soften the metal to retard the onset of fatigue

35. Diffusion bonding and superplastic forming provides

high stiffness and high ductility

high strength and high ductility

high strength and high stiffness

Material Handling - Composite and non-metallic

1. In a composite repair lay-up, how much should each layer extend beyond the layer below it?

3 - 4 inches

2 - 3 inches

1 - 2 inches

2. A non-destructive testing technique which is suitable for inspecting for delamination in Redux bonded structure of light aluminium alloys is

eddy-current

ultrasonic

magnetic flow

3. A mechanic has completed a bonded honeycomb repair using the potted compound repair technique. What non-destructive testing method is used to determine the soundness of the repair after the repair has cured?

Metallic ring test

Eddy current test

Ultrasonic test

4. In a composite aircraft the bonding is

supplied by a metal cage assembly inside the aircraft

supplied by a metal strap which runs the length of the aircraft

not required because the aircraft is a good insulator

5. What solvents could you use to clean tools used for fibreglass repairs?

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Lead free petrol/kerosene

Trichloroethylene or acetone

acetone or MEK

6. Glass reinforced panels are bonded by

wire mesh

bonding strips to conductors

special conductive paint

7. Chopped strand mat is a good general purpose mat because

it is a stiffer than woven cloth

it gives equal properties in all directions

it has short fibres

8. How do you reduce or remove electrostatic charges which may build up on fibreglass surfaces?

No special treatment is necessary because fibre glass is an insulator

The surface is impregnated with copper strips

The surface is treated with a special conductive paint

9. To enable a composite panel to dissipate static charge it would be sprayed with

ferrous paint

polyurethane paint

aluminium paint

10. Prior to aluminium alloy bonding we use

solvent wipe

alkaline etch

acid etch

11. Why is an extra layer of fibreglass added to a composite repair?

To provide additional flexibility

For sacrificial sanding

To increase the strength of the repair

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Welding, Brazing, Soldering and Bonding

1. What elements is solder made from?

Tin and lead only

Tin, lead and silver

Tin, lead and copper

2. The materials most commonly soldered in soft soldering are

stainless steel and titanium

aluminium and magnesium

brass and mild steel

3. Silver solder melts within the range

600°C - 850°C

400°C - 550°C

200°C - 400°C

4. A dry joint when soldering is caused by

too much flux

too large an iron

too little heat

5. Plumbers solder is grade

B

C

D

6. The type of flux to be used when soft soldering on aircraft is

either active or non-active

active

non-active

7. Solders are available in two forms:

stick solder needing a separate flux and solder in wire form having a rosin core

stick solder with a rosin core and solder in a wire form having a rosin core

Solder in a wire form needing a separate flux and stick solder needing no flux at all

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8. What action is taken when soldering flux residue may have lodged in deep crevices of an assembly?

It must be thoroughly rinsed with a weak solution of sulphuric acid and washed in cold water

It must be immersed in a weak solution of hydrochloric acid and rinsed thoroughly in running water

It must be immersed in a weak solution of phosphoric acid and rinsed in water

9. A flux is used in soldering to

dissolve oxides

etch the metal surface for more adhesion

prevent solder spikes

10. What solder should be used to solder aluminium?

D.T.D. 685 lead-silver-tin solder

90% tin and 10% zinc

wire flux cored solder

11. Before soldering stainless steel it must be

cleaned with emery cloth

pickled

sand papered

12. A dry joint in soldering is most likely to be caused by

wrong solder used

components not hot enough

flux not used

13. The term 'dry joint' is usually applied to

a defect associated with a soldered joint

a water tight joint

a metal being lightly heated

14. On completion of soldering a non-activated flux

must be cleaned off with a selected solvent

need not be cleaned off

must be cleaned off with an acid solution

15. The operational temperature of soldering irons is

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just above the melting point of solder

below the melting point of the base metal

60°C above the melting point of solder

16. Solder can be used to join

some dissimilar metals

only copper based metals

similar metals only

17. The oxyacetylene flame for silver soldering should be

carbonising

neutral

oxidizing

18. A phosphate based flux paste is for soldering

stainless steel

brass

aluminium

19. The soldering method where molten solder is pumped from the bottom of a bath through a slot so that a stationary wave of solder appears on the surface is known as the

standing wave bath method

stationary wave method

rotary bath method

20. High temperature solder is used where the operating temperature is high. It is an alloy of

tin / zinc / antimony / silver

lead / copper / antimony

tin / lead / antimony / silver

21. Soft solder is suited for joints, which are

subjected to fatigue

subjected to small forces

subjected to strong forces

22. Silver solder is made from

tin, copper and zinc

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copper, tin and silver

copper, zinc and silver

23. A resurfaced soldering iron cannot be used effectively until after the working face has been

polished

tinned

fluxed

24. When making a small soldered electrical connection, using flux-cored solder

the soldering iron should be loaded with solder and then applied to the connection

the soldering iron and solder should be applied simultaneously to the connection

the connection should be heated first and then solder applied

25. Why is it necessary to use flux in all silver soldering operations?

To increase heat conductivity

To prevent overheating of the base metal

To chemically clean the base metal of oxide film

26. A flux is used in soldering to

to prevent solder spikes

to dissolve oxides

etch the metals surface for more adhesion

27. Insufficient heat used in soldering will cause

contamination of the joint

the joint to oxidize

a high resistance joint potential

28. General purpose solders are graded by

a numerical coding

a letter coding

a colour coding

29. Silver soldering is suited for

electronic component soldering

general soldering work

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high temperature applications

Welding, Brazing, Soldering and Bonding

1. Oxides form very rapidly when alloys or metals are hot. It is important, therefore, when welding aluminium to use a

solvent

filler

flux

2. What is a good weld?

Sides sloping to the base metals

An oxide coating on the base metals

Build up by 1/8 inch in the middle of the weld

3. When inspecting a butt-welded joint by visual means

the penetration should be 100 percent of the thickness of the base metal

the penetration should be 25 to 50 percent of the thickness of the base metal

look for evidence of excessive heat in the form of a very high bead

4. In selecting a torch tip size to use in welding, the size of the tip opening determines the

melting point of the filler metal

amount of heat applied to the work

temperature of the flame

5. In Gas Tungsten Arc (GTA) welding, a stream of inert gas is used to

concentrate the heat of the arc and prevent its dissipation

prevent the formation of oxides in the puddle

lower the temperature required to properly fuse the metal

6. The flux used during brazing is a mixture of water and

borax powder

zinc chloride

hydrochloric acid

7. What purpose does flux serve in welding aluminium?

Ensures proper distribution of the filler rod

Removes dirt, grease, and oil

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Minimises or prevents oxidation

8. Filing or grinding a weld bead

may be performed to achieve a smoother surface

may be necessary to avoid adding excess weight or to achieve uniform material thickness

reduces the strength of the joint

9. The shielding gases generally used in the Tungsten Inert Gas (TIG) welding of aluminium consist of

helium or argon, or a mixture of helium and argon

nitrogen or hydrogen, or a mixture of nitrogen and hydrogen

a mixture of nitrogen and carbon dioxide

10. Which statement concerning a welding process is true?

In the metallic-arc welding process, filler material, if needed, is provided by a separate metal rod of the proper material held in the arc

In the oxyacetylene welding process, the filler rod used for steel is covered with a thin coating of flux

The inert-arc welding process uses an inert gas to protect the weld zone from the atmosphere

11. The primary reason for using flux when welding aluminium is to

promote better fusion of the base metal at a lower temperature

prevent molten metal from flowing too widely

prevent oxides from forming ahead of the weld

12. After welding you would normalise to

release the stresses from the material

remove carbon build up from the welded joint

remove oxidation from the welded joint

13. The most important consideration(s) when selecting welding rod is/are

current setting or flame temperature

ambient conditions

material compatibility

14. Which items listed below is the most important consideration when selecting a welding rod?

Thickness of the metal to be welded only

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Type and thickness of the metal to be welded

Type of torch

15. When inspecting a weld, you should make sure that

the parent (or basis) materials are fully fused together

the weld has inclusions inside the bead

there are voids either side of the weld

16. What is undesirable in a good weld?

100% penetration by filler material

fusing the edges of materials to be joined

oxides mixed in with the filler material

17. Brazing material is made from

copper, silver and tin

copper zinc and silver

copper and tin and lead

Aircraft Weight and Balance

1. The term 'reaction' used in weighing an aircraft refers to

the sum of the loads on all of the landing gear

the individual loads on each landing gear

the sum of the loads on the main landing gear only

2. Previous weighing records are

are kept with aircraft records

destroyed after 5 yrs

retained for 2 yrs only

3. Aircraft measurements aft of the datum are

negative

either positive or negative

positive

4. What is meant by empty weight?

Basic weight plus unusable fuel plus oil

Basic weight only

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Basic weight minus unusable fuel plus oil

5. An aircraft which has its C of G forward of the Forward Limit

will have a shorter take-off run

the take-off run will not be affected

will have a longer take-off run

6. Fore and aft limits of the CG

are specified by the manufacturer

are determined by the licensed engineer after a major check and weighing

are determined by the pilot when calculating the loading data

7. The basic equipment of an aircraft is

the crew equipment, and other equipment including fuel and oil necessary for a particular flight

that equipment which is required for every role of the aircraft for which the aircraft is operated plus unusable fuel.

all equipment including fuel and oil necessary for a particular flight

8. The Datum point on an aircraft, for measuring C of G position could be

the nose of the aircraft

anywhere on the aircraft

the front bulkhead

9. If the C of G of an aircraft with a full complement of fuel is calculated. Then

the C of G will always be within limits if it was within limits with full fuel tanks

the C of G must be recalculated with zero fuel to ensure it will still be within limits

the C of G will only need to be recalculated if the fuel weight is behind the aircraft C of G position

10. Where would you find documented, the fore and aft limits of the C of G position?

In the technical log

In the Flight Manual (or the documentation associated with the C of A)

In the aircraft Maintenance Manual

11. In aeronautical weighing terms

all arms for forward of the reference datum are positive (+) and all arms aft of the reference datum are negative (-)

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all reference datum are as per company procedures

all arms for forward of the reference datum are negative (-) and all arms aft of the reference datum are positive (+)

12. When an aircraft has been reweighed under JAR OPS, what should be done to the old Weight and Balance Report?

Kept in the weight and balance schedule

Kept in the aircraft logbook

Destroyed after 3 months

13. A Weight and Centre of Gravity Schedule is to be raised

once only, for the CAA

in triplicate, for the CAA, the operator and the maintenance organisation

in duplicate, for the CAA and the operator

14. Aircraft below 5700kg not used for commercial air transport purposes are required to be reweighed

as required by the CAA

every 5 years

every 2 years

15. For purposes of calculating weight and C of G position, an adult male (with baggage) is considered to have a mass of

75 kg

85 kg

65 kg

16. A Weight and Centre of Gravity Schedule is required by

all aircraft above 2730 kg MTWA

all aircraft regardless of weight

all aircraft not exceeding 2730 kg MTWA

17. If a new Weight and Centre of Gravity Schedule is issued, the old one must be retained for

two years

six months

one year

18. Cargo placed aft of the datum will produce a

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negative moment

neutral moment

positive moment

19. The basic weight of an aircraft is

the pilot, flight crew and their luggage

the passengers, baggage and fuel

the aircraft, minimum equipment, unusable fuel and oil

20. Aircraft must be reweighed

at periods not exceeding five years

after two years from manufacture only

after two years from manufacture then at periods not exceeding five years

21. Points forward of the datum point are

negative

positive

neutral

22. Details on recording of weight and C of G position can be found in

Airworthiness Notices

Air Navigation Order

BCAR section A

23. A load sheet

is never carried on the aircraft

need not be carried on the aircraft if one remains at base

is always carried on the aircraft

24. A load Sheet must be signed by

the Commander of the aircraft

a licensed aircraft engineer

the Loading Officer

25. Increasing the weight of an aircraft

has no affect on the glide range

increases the glide range

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decreases the glide range

26. Variable load is weight of

crew, their baggage and equipment relevant to role

fuel, oil and non-expendable equipment relevant to role

basic weight plus operating weight

27. A Load Sheet is compiled in the order of

Variable Load, Fuel Load, Disposable Load, Basic Weight

Basic Weight, Variable Load, Fuel Load, Disposable Load

Basic Weight, Variable Load, Disposable Load, Fuel Load

28. What angle of turn will double the weight of the aircraft?

30°

60°

45°

29. Where would you find the information on the conditions for weighing the aircraft?

Technical Log

Maintenance Manual

Flight Manual in conjunction with the documents associated with the CofA

30. A Weight and Centre of Gravity Schedule must be signed by

a Licensed aircraft engineer

the CAA

the pilot

Aircraft Weight and Balance

1. When weighing an aircraft using elastic load cells, the load cells go

between undercarriage and aircraft

between top of jack and the aircraft

as a single unit or combination of units under the aircraft wheels

2. When using weighing jacks, you should

ensure they have been calibrated within the last year

not worry about calibration, as that is the tool store-keeper's responsibility

calibrate them before use

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3. A weighing cell is based on the variation of

resistance with strain

induced voltage with displacement

differential currents with stress

4. When weighing an aircraft, the hydrostatic weighing units are positioned

either under or on top of each jack

one under each jack

one on top of each jack

5. When weighing an aircraft with load cells

the aircraft is jacked

only the main wheels are weighed

a load cell should be placed under each set of wheels

6. When weighing an aircraft by the weighbridge method, the aircraft is

only levelled laterally

jacked and levelled

resting on the wheels

7. When weighing an aircraft, the hydraulic system should be

filled to 'maximum level' mark

empty

completely full

Aircraft Handling and Storage

1. How would you position an aircraft when picketing during a strong wind condition?

Position the aircraft side-on to the wind

Position the tail into the wind

Head the aircraft into the wind

2. An aircraft should be cleared of snow

using air blast

using cold fluid

using hot fluid

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3. When a helicopter lands, how does the pilot signal to ground staff when it is safe to approach the aircraft?

Flash the Nav lights

Turn the anti collision lights off

Flash the landing lights

4. When an aircraft is pulled out of soft ground, the equipment should be attached to

the main gear

the tail cone

the nose gear

5. When picketing a helicopter you

fit sleeves and tie off all blades

fit sleeves to the blades to protect them if they strike the ground

tie down one blade

6. When Ground Power is connected to aircraft, the generators are

paralleled to supply

never paralleled

paralleled to supply for ground starting only

7. Why is the last part of towing an aircraft, done in a straight line?

To relieve side pressure from the main wheels

To relieve hydraulic pressure from the steering mechanism.

To allow nose wheel chocks to be placed at 90 degrees to the aircraft

8. What is the towing speed when towing an aircraft?

6 mph

5 mph

7 mph

9. De-icing fluid Type 1 is used

where holdover times are long

for short holdover times

where the ambient temperature is below -10degrees Centigrade

10. When refueling an aircraft from a tanker, why are the aircraft and tanker bonded together?

105


To maintain the aircraft and tanker at the same electrical potential

To discharge static electricity from the aircraft to the tanker

To enable the aircraft re-fuel pumps to be operated from the tanker electrical supply

11. Aluminium clad alloy sheet should not be polished with mechanical buffing wheels as this

will cause large static charges to build up

may remove the aluminium coating

may remove the alloy coating

12. What are types of jacks used for aircraft jacking?

Quadrapod jack, Single base jack

Quadrapod jack, Single base jack and Tripod jack

Quadrapod jack

13. When turning and towing an aircraft, why should sharp radiuses be avoided?

Scrubbing of main-wheel tyres could occur

Scrubbing of nose-wheel tyres could occur

Power steering leaks could occur

14. What type of meter is used to test a fire extinguisher cartridge?

Megger

Safety ohmmeter

Time delay reflectometer

15. Which of the following is bad practice for removing the ice and snow in cold weather?

Remove deep ice by de-icing fluid

Dry snow with hot air

Use brush to remove deep wet snow

16. Name the two methods used for aircraft refueling.

Open line refueling and gravity refueling

Pressure refueling and gravity refueling

Underwing refueling and pressure refueling

17. There is ice and snow on a helicopter blade. You

remove all traces of ice and snow

leave a layer of ice

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wipe off excess snow and leave ice

18. Removal of ice by the use of deicing fluid on the aircraft, before flight

may remove ice for a period of time depending on the airfield conditions

must be 1 hour before flight to enable fluid to be cleaned from aircraft

will provide sufficient prevention of ice formation until take off

19. When deicing an aircraft with pressure deicing fluid, the sensors on the outside of the aircraft should

not be blanked

be fitted with blanks or bungs

have their heating switched on

20. When mooring an aircraft what type of rope should be used?

Fibre, with some slack due to shrinkage when wet

Fibre, tied tight due to stretch when wet

Nylon

21. If ice and snow is found on the wings of an aircraft. Before flight the

all snow and ice must be removed

snow should be removed but ice can remain because it has no appreciable affect on the airflow

ice should be removed but snow can remain because the airflow will remove it

22. Flight controls, when externally locked

will also lock the control column

will not lock the control column

will also lock the steering

23. When the park brake has been applied on an aircraft which has a pressurized hydraulic system and is reading maximum system pressure, the brake gauges to the left and right main wheels will read

full scale deflection

full system pressure

no indication

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Disassembly, Inspection, repair and Assembly Techniques

1. Nickel-cadmium battery cases and drain surfaces, which have been affected by electrolyte, should be neutralized with a solution of

Potassium hydroxide

Boric acid

Sodium bicarbonate

2. The lifting or flaking of the metal at the surface due to delamination of grain boundaries caused by the pressure of corrosion residual product build-up is called

Brinelling

Exfoliation

Granulation

3. Taper pins resist what loads

tension

shear

compression

4. What test do you do on a bonded join?

Shear

Tension

Peel

5. What would you use to check the run-out on a control rod?

Micrometer + ball bearing

DTI + V blocks

3 leg trammel + feeler gauge

6. Taper pins are used in which of the following applications?

To take shear loads

To take compression and shear loads

To take compression loads

7. When using a D.T.I. to check the run-out of a shaft, readings of -15 to +25 would indicate a run-out of

0.020 inches

0.040 inches

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0.025 inches

8. A dent is measured in a tubular push-pull rod by

passing a ball down its bore

a steel ball and micrometer

callipers and feeler gauges

9. What is used on Magnesium to re-protect it?

Deoxidine

Chromic Acid

Selenious Acid

10. In the procedure to be followed after spillage of battery acid, neutralizing is carried out

by applying a coating of Vaseline

by washing with distilled water

with a dilute solution of sodium bicarbonate

11. After carrying out an identification test of aluminium alloy with caustic soda, the caustic soda should be neutralized with

Chromic anhydride solution

Phosphoric acid

Copper sulphate solution

12. To neutralize spilled battery acid on aluminium alloy, use

sulphuric acid

bicarbonate of soda

caustic soda

13. Hydrogen embrittlement of high tensile steel is caused if it is treated with

Zinc Chromate

Phosphoric acid

Nitric acid

14. Dents in a tubular push-pull rod are not allowed

anywhere on the rod

in the end thirds of the rod

in the middle third of the rod

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15. When checking a diode forward bias function, the positive lead of the ohmmeter should be placed on the

anode and the negative lead to the cathode

cathode and the negative lead to the anode

cathode and the negative lead the earth

16. The bonding resistance of primary structure must not exceed

0.05 ohms

0.005 ohms

0.5 ohms

17. What is the maximum resistance between the main earth system and a metal plate on which the earthing device (tyre) is resting?

10 megohms

100 megohms

1 megohm

18. The three electrical checks carried out on aircraft are (1) continuity (2) bonding (3) insulation. What is the order in which they are executed?

1-2-3

2-1-3

2-3-1

19. When an earth-return terminal assembly has to be replaced which of the following checks must be carried out?

Bonding and insulation resistance tests

Bonding and continuity tests

Bonding and millivolt drop tests

20. When carrying out millivolt drop checks on a circuit, what is an approximate guide for a correct reading?

10 millivolts for every 5 amps flowing



21. Effective continuity is not possible unless which of the following conditions exists?

The portion of the circuit under test must constitute a simple series circuit with no parallel paths

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All circuit earths are disconnected

All manually operated switches must be off

22. Why is a low voltage supply used for continuity testing?

To avoid breaking down a high resistance film that might exist between contacting surfaces

To avoid damage to the wiring

To prevent fuses 'blowing' and lamps burning out

23. When replacing a bonding connection and the original conductor cannot be matched exactly, which of the following replacements would you use?

One manufactured from the same type of material, but of greater cross sectional area should be selected

One manufactured from any conducting material of the same cross sectional area be used

One manufactured from any piece of Nyvin cable having the correct current capacity may be used

24. What is a typical minimum insulation resistance value for an aircraft undercarriage bay?

10 megohms

5 megohms

2 megohms

25. The recommended insulation resistance of a DC motor is

5 megohms

2 megohms

0.5 megohms

26. Bonding value for secondary structure is a maximum of

0.05 ohms

1 ohm

0.5 ohms

27. Wrinkling of an aircraft skin will

weaken the skin

increase drag on the aircraft

cause rivets to pull

28. You have removed a bolt from a critical bolted joint for inspection and rectification. What action should you take prior to inspection?

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A preliminary inspection should be made before the hole is cleaned

Clean the bolt shank and thread and re-grease and replace bolt and check for side-play.

Before any inspection is carried out, the nut/bolt and hole must be cleaned with a solvent such as trichloroethylene

29. On inspection of a critical bolted joint you witness black or grey dust or paste. What type of corrosion has taken place and what type of material is involved?

Fretting corrosion in aluminium alloys

Galvanic corrosion in magnesium alloys

Exfoliation corrosion in magnesium alloys

30. What is indicated by the wrinkling of the underside of an aircraft skin?

Hogging

Sagging

Fretting

31. What is used on magnesium to remove corrosion?

Selenious acid

Chromic acid / sulphuric acid solution

Strontium chromate

32. Galvanic corrosion refers to a type of

corrosion between two pieces of material

surface corrosion

plating process

33. Chromating used on magnesium alloys produces

a chromate film surface

metal chromates on the surface electrochemically

chromium surface electrochemically

34. Chromating used on magnesium alloys

uses chromates and converts the surface chemically

uses chromium and converts the surface electrochemically

uses chromium, which is deposited on the surface

35. When carrying out a bonding test in the presence of an anodic coating, what should you do?

Take account of the resistance of the coating

Hogging produces wrinkling on the underside of the aircraft. Sagging produces wrinkling on the upper side of the aircraft

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Penetrate the coating so a good electrical contact is made

Disregard the resistance of the coating

36. Maximum value of resistance between all isolated parts which may be subjected to appreciable electrostatic charging and the main earth

1 ohm

0.5 Megohm or 100 kilohm per sq.ft. of surface area whichever is less

0.05 ohm

37. Removal of corrosion from aluminium clad alloy is best done

chemically by trichloroethylene

chemically by sulphuric acid solution

mechanically by buffing

38. Control methods for galvanic corrosion include

ensuring correct heat treatments and correct alloying

reducing cyclic stressing and increasing cross sectional area

joining similar metals and using jointing compounds

39. The treatment for stress corrosion is

the same as for surface corrosion or surface cracks in sheet metal

not the same as fatigue corrosion

always the replacement of the part

40. Very light corrosion on aluminium alloy can be removed by

rubbing with wire wool

using a solvent

using Alocrom 1200

41. To remove corrosion on Fe metals use

sulphuric acid rust remover

selenious acid rust remover

phosphoric acid rust remover

42. The usual manufacturer's anti corrosive process to be applied to Fe aircraft parts is

cadmium plating

metal spraying

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anodising

43. An intervention defect is one where

there is a requirement for the maintenance engineer to intervene

the engineer has the discretion on whether to intervene

the defect occurred because of some previous maintenance action

44. Vapour phase inhibitor should be used

when re-protecting after corrosion

when painting an aircraft

when degreasing a component

45. When carrying out insulation resistance checks

the measurement will also show cable continuity

the measurement varies depending upon the ambient conditions of the aircraft under test

the measurement is always infinity if the cable is installed correctly

46. How is damage classified on an aircraft skin?

Negligible, allowable, repairable

Negligible, allowable, replacement

Negligible, repairable, replacement

47. When carrying out a millivolt drop test on a terminal, the maximum value should be

5mV/10A

10mV/10A

50mV/10A

48. A jury strut is used

to support the structure during repairs

as a datum when placing the aircraft in a rigging position

as a reference when checking the C of G position

49. 'Run out' on a control rod is measured by

dial test indicator, surface plate and vee-blocks

micrometer, surface plate and vee-blocks

surface plate, vernier callipers and vee-blocks

50. How do you check the resistance of a fire bottle cartridge?

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Use a light and bulb

Use a multimeter

Use an insulation tester

51. If after forming a crimp in an electrical condutor a high resistance is suspected, how would you carry out a check without disturbing the connection?

Use a multimeter set to millivolts and carry out a millivolts drop test .

Use a multimeter set to ohms to check the resistance

Carry out an insulation check


1. When inserting a helicoil insert, which way does the tang face?

Towards the mandrel

Towards the hole

Away from the hole

2. What tap do you use when fitting a Helicoil?

The same as the original thread size

The tap supplied with the Helicoil kit

The next size up from the original tap size

3. A thread insert is made from

aluminium alloy

stainless steel

white metal

4. What are the 3 stages of a fatigue crack?

stress, nucleation, fracture

nucleation, stress, deformation

nucleation, stress, yield

5. On a composite repair the vacuum should be

at the required level

above required level

below required level

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6. If bridging strips or bonding cords are fractured, what action may be taken?

The broken ends can be repaired with an 'in-line' splice

A new conductor should be fitted

The broken ends can be soldered

7. On a patch repair you should use

material one gauge thicker than the original structure

the same rivet spacing as the original structure

only aluminium alloy rivets

8. In a fayed rivet repair with double rivets used, the strength of the material will be

100%

same as the new material

75%

9. What does the grow-out on a hi-tigue fastener do?

Transfers radial loads to the material

prevents slip of the fastener

Work-hardens the local hole area

10. When fitting a thread insert

the insert should be tapped in using a hammer

the hole should be expanded using a tap supplied by the insert manufacturer

a thread the next size up from the original should be tapped

11. 'Stop Drilling' is the process of

drilling holes to stop a crack at the crack ends

drilling holes in a metal prior to riveting

drilling a rivet head to remove it from the metal

12. A stud broken off below the surface is removed by

a stud remover tool fitted into a drilled hole

cutting a slot in it and removing with a screwdriver

using a stud box

13. A UNF threaded wire thread insert may be identified

by an unpainted tang

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by a red painted tang

by a black painted tang

14. Damaged chromate film should be repaired by using

selenious acid 10% by weight in water

phosphoric acid 10% by weight in water

selenious acid 20% by weight in water


1. Which NDT detection method would be used to check for water ingress in the vertical stabilizer honeycomb structure?

Gamma-ray

X-ray

Thermology

2. Transducers used in ultrasonic testing exhibit which of the following effects?

Piezoelectric

Hyper-acoustic

Ferromagnetic

3. In a dye penetrant test, small tightly spaced cracked will produce pattern of

small crack like chains

small dots

flakes like pattern

4. The eddy current method of N.D.T. uses

AC or DC

Alternating current

Direct current

5. To measure the thickness of a paint finish, what type of NDT inspection is used?

A woodpecker

Ultrasonic

Radiographic

6. When carrying out a dye penetrant test, after the developer has been applied it should be inspected

after 1 hour

Thermology would detect the cool patches in the honeycomb structure, especially after landing when the water ingress may still be frozen. Light blue on the image would show water ingress.

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as soon as the developer is dry and again after approximately 10 minutes

after 30 minutes

7. During a colour contrast test the penetrant time should be

shorter for a small crack

longer for a small crack

longer for a wide crack

8. How should a dye penetrant field kit be stored?

In direct sunlight

At room temperature away from direct sunlight

At a cold temperature in a darkened room

9. When carrying out a colour contrast test on a pressure vessel

the dye should be applied to the inside and the developer to the outside

both the dye and the developer should be applied to the outside

the dye should be applied to the outside and the developer to the inside

10. When leak testing with a colour contrast field kit, the soak time for a component less than 1/8 in. (3mm) thick would be

at least twice the normal soak time

at least 3 times the normal soak time

at least the normal soak time

11. When using a colour contrast dye penetrant kit, and a small crack is suspected in the material

a magnifying glass is recommended

less developer should be used

less inhibitor should be used

12. What NDT method would you use to detect delamination?

Eddy current

Colour contrast dye penetrant

Ultrasound

13. Magnetic particle testing detects faults

longitudinally

longitudinal and transverse

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transverse

14. Dye penetrant in a cold climate

works more quickly

takes longer to work

is not affected

15. If after spraying the developer, red blotches appear, the part

has sub-surface defects

was not cleaned properly

is porous

16. What is the purpose of the developer in a dye penetrant inspection?

It seeps into the crack and makes it show up

It is drawn to the crack by electrostatic attraction

It acts as a blotter to draw out the penetrant that has seeped into the crack

17. The main advantage of dye penetrant inspection is

the part to be inspected does not require cleaning

the penetrant solution works on any non-porous material

the defect must be opened to the surface

18. To detect a minute crack using dye penetrant inspection usually requires

that the developer be applied to a flat surface

the surface to be highly polished

a longer than normal penetrating time

19. When checking an item with the magnetic particle inspection method, circular and longitudinal magnetization should be used to

reveal all possible defects

evenly magnetize the entire part

ensure uniform current flow

20. Which type crack can be detected by magnetic particle inspection using either circular or longitudinal magnetisation?

45°

transverse

longitudinal

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21. Surface cracks in aluminium castings and forgings may usually be detected by

submerging the part in a solution of hydrochloric acid and rinsing with clear water

gamma ray inspection

the use of dye penetrants and suitable developers

22. Which of these metals is inspected using the magnetic particle inspection method?

Magnesium alloys

Aluminium alloys

Iron alloys

23. One way a part may be demagnetized after magnetic particle inspection is by

slowly moving the part into an AC magnetic field of sufficient strength

slowly moving the part out of an AC magnetic field of sufficient strength

subjecting the part to high voltage, low amperage AC

24. The testing medium that is generally used in magnetic particle inspection utilises a ferromagnetic material that has

low permeability and high retentivity

high permeability and low retentivity

high permeability and high retentivity

25. The 'Dwell Time' of a dye-penetrant NDT inspection is the

time the penetrant is allowed to stand

time it takes for a defect to develop

amount of time the developer is allowed to act

26. What non-destructive testing method requires little or no part preparation, is used to detect surface or near-surface defects in most metals, and may also be used to separate metals or alloys and their heat-treat conditions?

Ultrasonic inspection

Eddy current inspection

Magnetic particle inspection

27. Gamma Ray Testing of combustion chambers will show up

light grey on black background

black on lighter background

grey on white background

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28. Which of these non-destructive testing methods is suitable for the inspection of most metals, plastics and ceramics for surface and subsurface defects?

Magnetic particle inspection

Eddy current inspection

Ultrasonic inspection

29. Ultrasonic flaw detectors use

high frequency sound waves

a magnetic field

x-rays

30. Defects are indicated in the dye penetrant crack detection test by

red lines on a white background

yellowish green marks

green lines and dots

31. NDT using colour dye process at temperatures below 15°C will

retard the penetrant action of the dye and penetration time is extended

not be affected by the temperature

mean choosing alternative NDT method

32. When using dye penetrant NDT on a tank, the dye penetrant should be applied

on the inside with the developer on the inside

on the outside with developer on the outside

on the inside, with developer on the outside

33. In order for dye penetrant inspection to be effective, the material being checked must

be magnetic

have surface cracks

be non-magnetic

34. Which of the following metals can be inspected using the magnetic particle inspection method?

Aluminium alloys

Iron alloys

Magnesium alloys

35. After completion of electromagnetic crack detection, the test piece must be

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de-magnetised before returning to service

allowed to lose any residual magnetism over as long a period possible

allowed to cool to room temperature as slowly as possible

36. Which of the following N.D.T. techniques cannot be used on a component manufactured from austenitic stainless steel?

Penetrant dye

Hot oil and chalk

Magnetic - particle

37. Fluorescent penetrant processes for the detection of cracks or material defects are used with

an ultra-violet radiation source

an infra-red light source

a tungsten light source

38. What is an isotope the power source of?

X-Rays

Ultra Violet Rays

Gamma Rays

39. The fluid used in the 'Oil and Chalk' method of non-destructive testing is a mixture of

lubricating oil and lard oil

lubricating oil and paraffin

lubricating oil and petrol

40. Under magnetic particle inspection, a part will be identified as having a fatigue crack under which condition?

The discontinuity pattern is straight

The discontinuity is found in a highly stressed area of the part

The discontinuity is found in a non-stressed area of the part

41. When inspecting a component which is being subjected to the hot fluid chalk process, the examination for defects should be carried out

whilst the item is still quite hot

immediately on removal of the item from the chalk cabinet

when the item is quite cool

42. Circular magnetization of a part can be used to detect defects

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perpendicular to the long axis of the part

parallel to the long axis of the part

perpendicular to the concentric circles of magnetisatio

43. An indication of porosity when using a penetrant dye crack detection method is

closely spaced dots of dye formed in a line

areas where dye is not showing

an area of scattered dots of dye

44. In a test for adequate demagnetization of a component after a magnetic particle test, the test compass should not deflect

more than 1° when standing due east of the component

more than 1° when standing north-east of the component

more than 1° when standing due south of the component

45. If on application of developer it all turns to a pinkish hue, what has happened?

Thin porosity

The hue has pinked

Incorrect cleaning

46. If dye penetrant inspection indications are not sharp and clear, the most probable cause is that the part

was not thoroughly cleaned before developer was applied

was not correctly degaussed before the developer was applied

is not damaged

47. The pattern for an inclusion is a magnetic particle build-up forming

a single line

a fern-like pattern

parallel lines

48. When carrying out a penetrant dye crack test, before the dye is applied the surface being tested should be

etch primed

thoroughly degreased

painted with developer fluid

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49. When carrying out a dye penetrant inspection, what time should elapse after applying the developer before inspecting the component?

After 10 minutes

After 15 minutes

Initial inspection after 30 seconds followed by a 2nd inspection after 10 minutes

50. When should the developer be applied to the component?

Before the penetrant dries

After excess penetrant has been removed and the area completely dried

Before applying penetrant

51. To check the structure of a wing

ultrasound NDT is used

low voltage X-rays are used

high voltage X-rays are used

52. Which of the following NDT methods requires that the orientation (or direction) of the defect be known before the test can commence?

Magnetic Particle and Ultrasonic

Ultrasonic and Dye Penetrant

X-Ray and Magnetic Particle

53. Which of the following defects could not be detected by Eddy Current NDT inspection?

A crack in a glass fibre reinforced plastic cowl

Heat damage of a Haynes Alloy turbine blade

A crack in a magnesium alloy wheel casting

54. Which of the following methods could be used to detect the presence of tiny drops of Mercury in a large area of aircraft hull structure after an accident with a mercury thermometer?

X-Ray

Ultrasonic

Magnetic Particle

55. Which of the following NDT methods requires that the surface of the test piece is cleaned down to bare metal?

Dye-penetrant

Eddy Current

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Magnetic Particle

56. When using the colour contrast NDT

the surface paint should be removed

the surface should be lightly scuffed

the surface should be bead blasted

57. When using dye penetrant field kit, removal of excess penetrant is done by applying the solvent by

spraying once direct on the part

using a lint free cloth

spraying twice direct on the part

58. Liquid penetrant tests can be used to detect

corrosion wall thinning in pipes and tubes

fatigue cracks in magnesium alloy parts

internal porosity in castings

59. Water-washable liquid penetrants differ from Post-emulsification penetrants in that they

need not be removed from surfaces prior to development

do not need an emulsifier added

can only be used on aluminium alloys

60. When using a post-emulsification penetrant, the timing is most critical during

penetration

penetrant removal

emulsification

61. A liquid penetrant test cannot

be used on non-metallic surfaces

locate sub-surface discontinuities

be used on porous materials

62. Hot air drying of articles during liquid penetrant testing is carried out at a temperature of

130°F

250°F

75°F

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63. To check the structure of a wing, which NDT is used?

Radiographic

Magnetic Flaw

Dye penetrant

64. Magnetic Flux detection will show defects which are

transverse to the flux direction only

longitudinal and transverse to the flux direction

longitudinal to the flux direction only

65. A hairline crack would show up on a dye penetrant inspection as

a continuous line of small dots

a group of dots spread over a wide area

a thin broken line or chain

66. When carrying out an ultrasonic inspection, what is the gel used for?

To prevent the test piece from becoming scratched by the probe

To reduce the friction between the probe and the test piece

To create a good sonic coupling between the the probe and the test piece

67. Fluorescent dye penetrant is suited for what materials?

Plastics and non magnetic materials

Ferrous magnetic materials

Non magnetic non-ferrous materials

68. In film radiography, image quality indicators (IQI) are usually placed

on the film side of the object

between the intensifying screen and the film

on the source side of the test object

69. Which type crack will probably cause the most build-up in the magnetic particle indicating medium?

Shrink

Fatigue

Grinding

70. When using dye penetrant NDT on a tank, the penetrant should be applied

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on the outside, with developer on the outside

on the inside, with developer on the inside

on the inside, with developer on the outside

71. To detect a fault with magnetic particle flaw detection, the test requires

one pass in any direction

two passes at 90 degrees to each other

two passes in any direction

72. The substance used in ultrasound inspection is

a developer

a couplant to allow sound waves to travel

a cleaning agent to keep the components clean

73. Dye penetrant defects are marked using

crayon, unless used in a highly stresses area

pencil

chalk

74. A pressure vessel of thickness 1/16 inch to 1/8 inch is being tested with dye penetrant. The penetrant should be left for

less than normal

the same length of time as normal

3 times longer than normal

75. Which of the following NDT techniques cannot be used on a component manufactured from austenitic stainless steel?

Hot oil and chalk

Penetrant dye

Magnetic particle

76. The dye penetrant field test kit consists of cans of

spray penetrant, spray cleaner and spray developer

penetrant, cleaner and developer

penetrant, cleaner, developer and a brush

77. The liquid applied to a component being checked by ultrasonic inspection is for

acting as a transmission medium for the test

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to prevent corrosion occurring from contact with the probe

to prevent scratching of the surface by the probe

78. Which is the preferred method of test for aluminium alloy?

Magnaflux

Electroflux

Ultrasonic

79. A composite flap panel has corrosion. What NDT method will you use to detect?

High voltage x-ray

Low voltage x-ray

Coin tap test

80. The eddy current method of flaw detection can detect

surface flaws only

surface flaws and those just beneath the surface

sub surface flaws only

81. With dye penetrant how is the developer applied?

At a distance of 10 to 12 inches with several passes

Using a tank

As an even layer of chalk applied over the area

82. When using the dye penetrant method crack detection, the indications on a short, deep crack are

long chain

single dots

circles

83. A deep internal crack in a structural steel member is detected by

fluorescent penetrant method

magnetic flaw method

x-ray or ultrasonic process

84. The ultrasonic method of crack detection can be used on

subsurface defects on all metals

surface and subsurface defects on ferrous metals only

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surface and subsurface defects on all metals

85. Porosity in cast materials

is detectable as a surface or sub surface defect

only occurs on the surface

is only detectable on the surface

86. When using the fluorescent ink flaw detection method, the component should be inspected using an

ordinary lamp and special glasses

infrared lamp

ultraviolet lamp

87. When using the dye penetrant method of crack detection, it should not normally be used at temperatures

below 0°C

above 15°C

above 20°C

88. When using the dye penetrant method, the part should be kept wet with the penetrant for

5 minutes

up to one hour

15 minutes

89. What NDT would you carry out on aluminium alloy?

Magnetic flaw

Ultrasonic

Electroflux


1. Where would you disconnect a chain?

At a spring clip joint

At an riveted joint

At a bolted joint

2. How many times can a locking plate be used?

indefinitely providing it is a good fit around the component to be locked

once, then discarded

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3 times, then discarded

3. When removing a piece of equipment from an aircraft that supports the aircraft, what should you do?

Go ahead and remove the part

Wait for the new part to arrive before replacing

Fit a jury strut in place of the removed part

4. A hi-lock collar should be

washed in solvent before fitting

lubricated before fitting

not lubed or washed because they are lubed at manufacture

5. When drilling out a rivet, use a drill

smaller than the hole

larger than the hole

same size as the hole

6. When riveting two dissimilar sheets of metal together the joint should be protected with

paint

jointing compound

grease

7. The maximum temperature for Nyloc nuts is

120°C

160°C

100°C

8. What type of rivet would you use when there is access to only one side of the work?

Hilok

Pop

Blind

9. Torque loading is carried out to provide

as tight a joint as possible

flexibility

sufficient clamping without over-stressing

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10. What is generally the best procedure to use when removing a solid shank rivet?

Drill through the manufactured head and shank with a drill one size smaller than the rivet and remove the rivet with a punch

Drill to the base of the manufactured rivet head with a drill one size smaller than the rivet shank and remove the rivet with a punch

Drill through the manufactured head and shank with a shank size drill and remove the rivet with a punch

11. What action is taken with a common circlip removed from a component?

It is checked for springiness

It is examined for distortion

It is replaced with a new item on assembly

12. The maximum bolt diameter for which a 1/16 split pin may be used is

1/4

7/16

3/8

13. Why is a shouldered stud used?

As a replacement for a damaged stud

To decrease weight without loss of strength

To provide a rigid assembly

14. A thread insert is removed by

a special drill provided by the thread insert manufacturer

using a drill the major diameter of the thread insert

once fitted, a thread insert must not be removed

15. When fitting Rivnuts into position, how are they secured and prevented from rotating?

Locknut at the rear

A locating key

Peened

16. Hi-loks are installed with the

shank lubricated when fitting

thread lubricated when fitting

thread and shank not lubricated

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17. A jury strut is one giving

a part of the structure that takes only tensile loads

additional support to a stressed area

a temporary support

18. Which type of repair has to be used where the damage is large and lost strength of the area has to be restored?

Insert and butt strap

Patch repair to the punctured skin

Filling plate and patch

19. Which of the following actions would be taken to fit a locking device to a nut or bolt, if the correct torque has been reached but the locking device will not fit?

Tighten further until device fits

File the base of the nut

Change the nut or bolt for one that will achieve the desired condition

20. In the Push-pull tube linkage used in aircraft flying control systems, how is the length of the tube adjusted?

It is fixed and does not require adjusting

By adjusting end fittings at each end of the tube

Fit anew push-pull tube

21. Spotfacing is done to

provide a flat area on a rough surface

provide a good surface for welding

compensate for height in lieu of a spring washer

22. When fitting a hydraulic component, the hydraulic seal should be lubricated with

the same fluid that is used in the hydraulic system (e.g. skydrol)

grease

with a specified hydraulic oil

23. A gap in a firewall can be plugged by

a plastic bung

an aluminium plate

a fireproof bung or bush

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24. In a critically bolted joint

a PLI washer can be used more than once only with self locking nuts

a PLI washer can only be used once

a PLI washer can be affected by thread lubricant

25. Which of the following jointing compounds should not be used in the vicinity of a joint where the temperature may exceed 200°C?

DTD 369

DTD 900

DTD 200

26. Why is jointing compound applied to the surfaces of material being joined together prior to riveting?

To inhibit electrolytic action

To act as a sealant and prevent filiform corrosion

To prevent swarf damage

27. A metallic stiff nut

cannot be used in areas in excess of 250oC

is pre lubricated and does not need lubricating

cannot be torque loaded

28. How do you prevent earth loops forming on screened cables?

Earth both ends of the screen

Do not earth the screen

Earth one end of the screen

29. When fitting a shackle pin, fit with

0.020

a shake-proof washer under the head

head uppermost

30. The threads on a stud

are of opposite hand at each end of the plain of portion

are continuous throughout its length and there is no plain portion

are of the same hand at each end of the plain portion

31. The angle between starts on a double start thread is

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120 degrees

90 degrees

180 degrees

32. What does 18N and contiguous circles on the head of a bolt indicate?

1.8 inch threaded portion and plain shank 1/2 inch UNF

1.8 inch nominal length 1/2 inch BSF

1.8 inch plain shank 1/2 inch UNF

33. A UNF bolt is indicated by

green dye

2-3 rings on the head

a triangle on the head


1. BITE systems to be used on the ground only are deactivated

by the parking break

on take off

by the undercarriage retraction

2. Electrical cables installed on aircraft. What is used to indicate concealed breaks?

Continuity test

Resistance test

Bonding test

3. When checking resistance of a cable to the starter motor what test is carried out?

Safety Ohmmeter

Time Domain Reflectometer

Millivolt drop test

4. Immediately after carrying out an insulation check, which of the following applies?

A continuity check must be carried out before switching on the circuit for the first time

The observed readings should be noted and an independent check carried out by another engineer

The readings observed and the atmospheric conditions at the time should be noted and compared to previous readings

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5. A millivolt drop check is to be carried out on a heavy duty relay. The Millivoltmeter would be connected to the relay

when contacts closed and power is on

when contacts are open and power is on

when contacts open and power off

6. After the normal function test of an individual circuit has been completed and the circuit switched off

the fuse should be removed and the circuit again switched on to check the isolation of the circuit concerned

a second function test must be carried out to verify the first

a duplicate check must be carried out in accordance with AWN 3

7. An Insulation test is carried out on a group of cables and a low reading obtained. What action would you take?

Change or renew all the cables involved in the test

Break the circuit down and carry out further checks

A low reading would be expected because the cables are in parallel

Abnormal Events

1. When an engine is not in direct electrical contact with its mounting, how should it be bonded?

With at least two primary conductors, one each side of the engine

With at least one primary conductor

With at least two primary conductors on one side of the engine

2. In order to maintain HIRF protection, bonding checks between airframe and electrical components carrying voltages greater than 50V RMS or dc should not exceed

1 M ohm

1 ohm

0.05 ohm

3. What is the primary purpose of bonding of metallic parts of an aircraft?

To prevent lightening strikes

To prevent high potential differences between metallic parts from building up

To provide a return path for electrical two-wire system

4. After a reported lightning strike

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the flight controls need to be checked for full and free movement only if a bonding lead to one of the control surfaces is found to be burned or broken

the aircraft and its systems must have a major overhaul before the next flight

the flight controls should be checked for full and free movement before the next flight

5. Whenever possible a functional test should be carried out on an aircraft using which power supply?

The aircraft battery

An external supply

The aircraft generators

6. What is the reason for a primary bonding connection's large cross-sectional area?

To carry lightening discharge current should the need arise

To carry the static discharge current to the conducting nose wheel

To maintain the airframe at the same potential throughout

7. Non metallic parts of the aircraft

must be bonded by application of conductive paint

do not require to be bonded because they are non conductive

must be bonded by bonding leads

8. Which of the following is a preventive process against HIRF?

Monitoring HIRF on the communication system

Periodically checking aircraft bonding

Visual inspections

9. On a composite aircraft, large items are bonded

by use of large copper strips

Don't need to be bonded because they are made of an insulating material.

by primary bonding leads attached to a cage

10. Which of the following could be a primary cause of HIRF protection failure?

Unserviceable radio filters

Broken or missing static wicks

Corrosion on bonding leads

11. HIRF interference occurs when

in use on low frequencies

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in use on mid frequencies

in use on all frequencies

12. How many primary bonding conductors are required on an engine?

2 on one side

1 on each side

1 only

13. When an aircraft has been struck by lightning

control surface freedom of movement need not be checked provided skin punctures are less than 3/16 inch diameter.

control surface bearings and hinges should be checked for stiffness in operation

control surface freedom of movement need not be checked providing the bonding is undamaged.

14. A lightning strike on an aircraft would show

the entry and exit point

the entry point only

the exit point only

15. Ribbon cables affected by mutual impedance and current loop leakage should be protected by

shielding each individual conductor

earthing each alternate conductor to separate points

connecting all conductors to a common earth

16. When inspecting an aircraft after a lightning strike, you should observe

all signs of burning

entry and exit damage

entry damage

17. To ensure protection against HIRF affecting audio and navigation aids

ensure that all audio and navigation equipment is adequately screened

ensure that the correct number of static wicks are fitted

inspect and check all bonding leads to ensure their serviceability and replace if defective

Abnormal Events

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1. An aircraft with under-wing mounted engines has a heavy landing, where would you expect to see wrinkling of the skins?

Bottom skin caused by engine inertia

On the top and bottom skins

Top skin only

2. After a heavy landing you should check

engine module alignment

engine compressor shaft alignment

engine thrust alignment

3. Skin wrinkling on the lower surface of a wing is caused by

sagging

tension

hogging

4. After a report of flight through heavy turbulence, you would

not carry out any checks

check the aircraft symmetry

carry out a major overhaul

5. How do you prevent aquaplaning during landing?

Put flaps up

Use reverse thrust

Reduce flare

6. On an aircraft which has had a heavy landing, on the lower wing you may see

sagging

wrinkling

hogging

Maintenance Procedures

1. A Category-A licenced engineer can sign a CRS for what?

An aircraft that he has sufficient type ratings for

A task he has been locally trained for

A task that someone else has completed

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2. How many signatories are there for a CRS for a Scheduled Maintenance Inspection?

Two

One

One for each category of aircraft systems

3. Mandatory Warning Plaques and symbols

need not be displayed if they are incorporated in the flight manual

must be displayed on all flights

must be displayed in the cabin only if they are legible

4. Following a major defect the C of A

will be invalidated and needs renewing.

is not affected, however may run out on a time basis.

will be suspended until the defect is rectified.

5. When storing parts you should use

monitor the temperature

place in a sealed container

silica gel

6. ATA specification 100 is

the procedures which must be complied with before an aircraft can be given a Certificate of Airworthiness in the Transport Category (Passenger)

the International standardization of maintenance manuals, illustrated parts catalogues, overhaul and repair manuals, service bulletins and letters

the American FAA specification controlling the manufacture of aluminium and its alloys

7. An aircraft should carry at least the following number of spare fuses:

10

3

3 or 10%, whichever is greater

8. Maintenance Schedules are issued

in a folder with the operators name on the cover

with an approval certificate by the CAA

by the operator with CAA approval

9. After a mandatory inspection has been carried out by a Licensed Engineer, what is issued

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a Flight Release Certificate

Certificate of Release to Service

a Certificate of Maintenance Review

10. A hard time engine inspection involves

removal of an engine component, its inspection and refitting

replacement with a new or overhauled component

an in-situ function test

11. Who approves Maintenance Manuals?

The Board of Trade

The Department of Trade and Industry

The CAA

12. A Certificate of Release to Service must be issued after

a repair has been carried out in accordance with an approved repair scheme

engine runs

a re-fuel has been done

13. If the operator varies the content of the maintenance schedule, what action must be taken?

Amend the Maintenance Schedule and seek the CAA approval

Await CAA approval before amending the Maintenance Schedule

Amend the Maintenance Schedule

14. When is an EASA Permit to Fly conditions required?

After a Certificate of Maintenance Review has been signed

To allow an unregistered aircraft to fly for air test

To allow an aircraft to fly on air test to check out a modification

15. When there is an overlap of responsibility, how is the CRS signed?

Appropriate Type Rated Licensed Aircraft Engineers must each certify the parts appropriate to their license coverage

Only one appropriate Type Rated Licensed Aircraft Engineer may sign the CRS as he assumes responsibility for the operation, the other engineers must sign the paperwork

An appropriate Type Rated Licensed Aircraft Engineer and an ATPL holder sign the CRS when the aircraft is away from base

16. Information contained in the ANO is

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written in compliance of the Civil Aviation Act of 1943 ratifying the ICAO Convention

of a mandatory nature where safety is concerned

of a legal nature in all sections and is therefore mandatory

17. An 'On Condition' Inspection involves

a program of inspections used to increase the life of lifed components

replacement of life expired components for new ones

an inspection of a component with a view to continued operation if its condition warrants such action

18. Air Navigation General Regulations are to be found in

CAA Printed Manual CAP 393

British Civil Airworthiness Requirements Section A

Airworthiness Requirements CAP 455

19. The information in the ANO is given in the form of

Chapters, each one dealing with a different aspect of Civil Aviation, these chapters being backed up by the schedules

Articles of Law, some of which are further clarified by Schedules

Regulations, each one covering a different aspect of Civil Aviation and as such is mandatory

20. British Civil Airworthiness Requirements

interpret the ANO and form the Technical requirements for the design

form the Technical requirements for the design and operation of aircraft and their equipment

are printed by the CAA and are of an advisory nature

21. A CMR is raised after

major overhaul

defect rectification

scheduled servicing at specified intervals

22. Compliance with the ANO is restricted to

aircraft and their equipment which are on the UK Civil Register only

All civil aircraft and their equipment on the international Civil Register

aircraft and their equipment which are on the UK & Commonwealth Civil Registers

23. A Certificate of Release to service states that

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a task has been carried out in accordance with the ANO

an operator has satisfied the CAA of his competence

the aircraft has been maintained to an approved schedule

24. Technical and Administrative information is officially circulated to L.A.M.E.S. in

C.A.I.P.s

A.W.N.s

B.C.A.R.s

25. Vital point inspections are carried out

after an area is disturbed

on an 'A' Check

on a 'C' check

26. What colour is used to identify a 'primary structure' when using the aircraft Maintenance Manual?

Red

Yellow

Green

27. Which of the following NDT methods can be carried out and certified by a mechanic not approved specifically for NDT inspections

Ultrasonic

Neither of the above

Magnetic Particle

28. B.C.A.R.'s

are issued by Ministry of Trade and Industry

detail mandatory requirements for aircraft design and construction

contain minimum requirements to be met

29. The purpose of the CRS is

to ensure that the log book entry is complete

to comply with article 15 of the ANO which states that an aircraft must not fly unless it is properly equipped for the intended flight

to turn a log book or job card entry into a legal document and to ensure that the signatory takes full responsibility for the work done

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30. Duplicate inspections are

inspections certified by one approved signatory or LAE and then certified by a second approved signatory or LAE

inspections signed by a mechanic and countersigned by an approved signatory or licensed engineer

inspections which have to be duplicated but which can finally be certified by one LAE or approved signatory

31. When related to aeronautical engineering, the term 'Inspection' is defined in the publication

Airworthiness Notice (AWN) 3

ANO article 11

BCAR Section L

32. The technical laws relating to Civil Aviation are contained in

the Civil Aircraft Inspection Procedures

the Civil Aviation Act 1971

the Air Navigation Order

33. Civil aircraft manufactured in the UK are constructed from parts that have been

manufactured to approved drawings

tested to destruction

manufactured by British Aerospace

34. Design drawings of aircraft components are produced by organisations approved by

S.B.A.C.

British Standards Institute

C.A.A. in accordance with BCAR

35. Civil Aircraft Airworthiness Information Procedures

contain information of a mandatory nature

contain approved inspection schedules

are a guide to the general maintenance of aircraft

36. British Civil Airworthiness Requirements

specify the minimum qualifications for aircrew and engineers

give General technical information

list the minimum design requirements for aircraft

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37. What work has to be recorded and signed for?

Only work involving replacements

Only work which entails a duplicate inspection

All work carried out

38. Are C.A.A.I.P. mandatory?

Yes, but only for six months at a time

Only selected parts which are in B.C.A.R.

No, nothing in C.A.A.I.P.s is mandatory

39. What is the licensed engineer responsible for when fitting a new component to an aircraft?

The correct part number, the modification state and the serviceability of the component

That the paperwork is signed by an approved signatory

That is has a green serviceable tag

40. If an aircraft exceeded the RVSM, when shall the crew report the incident in the appropriate channels

24 hrs

72 hrs

48 hrs

41. If the aircraft is away from base who may certify the second part of the duplicate inspection?

a pilot with a licence for any similar aircraft type

a pilot with a licence for the aircraft type

any licensed engineer

42. Block cumulative maintenance means that

all the checks require the same man hour input except for the major inspections

all the maintenance is carried out in blocks

each check usually involves an increased aircraft down time

43. A separate modification record book is required for

passenger aircraft exceeding 3600 kgs MTWA

passenger aircraft exceeding 2730 kgs MTWA

all aircraft

44. Sector record pages from the Tech Logs, must be

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retained for four years from the last effective date

at least duplicated

retained for two years from the date of issue

45. Minimum equipment to be carried is listed in

JAR OPS

JAR 145

JAR 25

46. What should be checked before a licensed engineer signs a CRS?

That he/she has had continuation training within the previous 2 years

That he/she has worked for 4 months on the aircraft type within the previous 2 years

That he/she has worked for 6 months on the aircraft type within the previous 2 years

47. Rubber components should be stored

in warm and humid conditions

in a well lit room

in a cool dark area

48. Storage of components to prevent corrosion is helped

by wrapping in grease proof paper

by using silica gel

by placing them in a plastic box

49. Dye penetrant kits should be stored

in direct sunlight to keep it dry

out of sunlight in a dry place

in a dark damp cupboard

50. When receiving new parts it is the responsibility of the engineer to check

it has a green serviceable label attached

it is of the correct modification state and is serviceable

it was designed to acceptable standards

51. For airworthiness purposes, aircraft structural parts are graded as

class A, B and C

primary, secondary and tertiary

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1, 2 and 3

52. If an unauthorized repair is carried out

the Cof A is invalidated until an authorized repair has been done

the aircraft can fly with a Certificate of Fitness for Flight

the Cof A is not invalidated providing a CRS is issued

53. A C.of A. for export

gives authority for the aircraft to fly

is required before aircraft registration in a foriegn country

does not give authority by it self for the aircraft to fly

54. A fitness for flight is issued for an aircraft after a major modification by

the pilot, type rated on that particular aircraft

a CAA surveyor or person approved within the CAA

a appropriate licensed aircraft engineer

55. An unauthorised repair has been carried out

sign a CRS for the repair

carryout an approved repair

apply for it as a modification

56. A Part-66 licensed engineer, when signing a CRS for a non-Part-145 company would need to have

an aircraft type refresher in the last 24 months

maintenance experience for 6 months within the last 24 months


57. A National UK licensed engineer, when signing a CRS would need to have


an aircraft type refresher in the last 24 months


58. Vital point inspections

are points which require special certifying LAEs

are components which involve duplicate inspections

are lifed components

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59. On a pre flight check you notice an instrument glass is cracked. You should

check MEL

tell oncoming captain

enter into technical log

Unverified

1. Before carrying out a bonding test, remove any

cadmium plating

chromium plating

anodize coating

2. A light-drive clearance is

clearance fit

a transition fit

an interference fit

3. When testing an aircraft fuel contents indication system with fuel tanks partly filled, the test set

replaces the aircraft system

is placed in series with the aircraft system

is placed in parallel with the aircraft system

4. When using pressurised water to flush away water soluble penetrant, the spray nozzle should be held about

45 degrees to the surface



5. When measuring voltage with a multimeter, place the meter

in parallel with the shunt

in series with the circuit

in parallel with the circuit

6. After any maintenance work, a CRS has to be raised

only for aircraft classified as commercial air transport

for all aircraft

only within a Part-145 organisation

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7. Pin punches are made of

high carbon steel with tip hardened and tempered

high carbon steel hardened and tempered

case hardened mild steel

8. What is the name of the moving jaw of a vernier caliper?

Main scale

Cursor

Vernier scale

9. One revolution of a 40 TPI micrometer will move the spindle

0.5 inch

0.25 inch

0.025 inch

10. A foam fire extinguisher is identified by being coloured (or has a label coloured)

cream

blue

red

11. Where shielding against signal interference is necessary, the appropriate cables would be carried by

moulded fibre-glass ducts for additional insulation

moulded metal ducts for additional insulation

resin-impregnated asbestos ducts for lightness and good conductivity

12. The controlling force in a moving coil meter is provided by

the current in the coil

a permanent magnet

hairsprings - oppositely wound

13. When zeroeing a multimeter it is zeroed

to the extreme left of scale

in the centre

to the extreme right of scale

14. Dies in a hand squeezer

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are not exchangeable

are not adjustable

can be adjusted for different material thicknesses

15. Who is reponsible for aircraft weighing equipment with respect to calibration and adjustment?

The Competent Authority, at least every year

Whoever is carrying out the task

A licensed engineer with an instrument rating

16. What does 'Second Cut' of a file refer to?

Arrangement of teeth

Number of teeth per inch

Grade

17. To extend the range of an ammeter, use a

shunt

multiplier

variable resistor

18. Whos responsibility is it that a part to be fitted to an aircraft is of the correct modification standard?

The mechanic's

The certifying engineer's

The store's

19. Which of the following bearings will; give the largest contact surface area on a shaft with the same diameter?

Thrust bearing

Plain bearing

Roller bearing

20. After a daily inspection, a CRS must be signed

if any rectification work has to be done on the aircraft

always

never

21. When repairing a weld you should

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remove material from area to be welded and then use a larger welding rod

use a larger weld rod remov

remove all existing weld before rewelding

22. What should the point angle of a twist drill be, for drilling stainless steel?

90 - 105 degrees

125 - 140 degrees

105 - 120 degrees

23. When repairing a hole in an aircraft skin, what is the most important consideration?

The overall strength of the repair

What rivets to use

Matching the existing rivet pitch on the aircraft skin

24. The instrument used to check internal structure is a

flexoscope

borescope

epidoscope

25. When cleaning an area before applying dye penetrant you should

clean it with high pressure spray

wash the area with water

be careful not to push contaminants into the suspect crack

26. Which of the following reduction gear ratios will give the maximum RPM of the propeller?

20:9

3:2

16:7

27. Undamaged composite material will give a ______________ sound when a tap check is done.

Hollow vibration

Solid ringing

Hollow thud

28. A hydraulic pipe flaring machine will have an included angle of

32 degrees

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25 degrees

45 degrees

29. Wire wrapping is a form of termination allowing up to a maximum of

* 3 terminations of 18 to 26 AWG solid single-strand cable per post

4 terminations of 18 to 26 AWG multi-strand cable per post

5 terminations of 18 to 26 AWG solid single-strand cable per post

30. When soldering, the use of active flux will

protect the joint

both clean and protect the joint

* clean the joint

31. To reduce interference on a radio system you

reduce power and signal to zero

connect power and signal to a common earth

* segregate power and signal earth

32. When fitting an inline splice to a heavy duty direct conductor, you suspect a large resistance. You would

use a multimeter across the contact with the dial set to DC volts

* use a multimeter across the contact with the dial set to millivolts

use a multimeter across the contact with the dial set to DC ohms

33. When carrying out an insulation check, the readings will

* vary due to the humidity the test was carried out under

be infinity if the cable is installed correctly

be zero if the cable is installed correctly

34. During an NDT inspection, before removing developer, what would you use to mark the defect?

* Crayon

Lead pencil

Chalk

35. What is the best technique for internal wing structure inspections?

Magnetic particle

* Radiographic

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ultrasonic In

36. In what ways does magnetic particle detection detect flaws?

Transverse direction

* Both transverse and longitudinal direction

Longitudinal direction

37. A flexible hydraulic hose is proof tested to

2x normal pressure for 2 minutes

2x normal pressure for 5 minutes

* 1.5x normal pressure for 2 minutes

38. What is teh best de-icing method immediately prior to flight? C

Hot air blast from ground cart

Cold fluid de-icing

* Hot fluid de-icing

39. You should not refuel aircraft whilst

the APU is running

* within 30 m of operating radar equipment

position and strobe lighting is on

40. How are metric tapered reamers classified?

* By small end diameter

By length

By large end diameter

Module 7 Maintenace Practices

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Transcript of Module 7 Maintenace Practices