Materia Medica and Therapeutics

7/25/2019 Materia Medica and Therapeutics

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MATERIA MEDICA AND THERAPEUTICS

1. Systemic antifungal agents with significant efficacy against actinomycosis and actinobacillosis in cattle.

Sodium iodide

2. Syngamus trachea, the gapeworm of poultry can be effectively treated with:

Tetramisole

3. Serious or fatal drug interaction can occur when an animal on anticholinesterase therapy is given:

Succinylcholine

4. All of the following agents are antimuscarinic drugs, EXCEPT:

Pilocarpine

5. Prostaglandin effective in terminating pregnancy or treating pyometra in cow according to dose requirement:

PG F

6.

One of these drugs is a depolarizing neuromuscular blocking agent: Which one of them?

Succinylcholine7. Eclampsia in bitch and milk fever in cow are brought about primarily by:

Tremendous drain on the calcium stores of the body during lactation

8. Emeria stiedaeinfection is a serious parasitic disease of rabbits this can be effectively treated by:

Sulfadimethoxine

9. What drug incompatibility is manifested when physostigmine and atropine are simultaneously administered in

the eye?

Therapeutic

10. Which of these lines of treatment will be most effective in combating congestive heart failure?

Restrict sodium intake and increase sodium excretion

11.

Which of the following agents is the most extensively used dermatologic penetration enhancer in veterinary

medicine?

Dimethyl sulfoxide

12. This drug when indicated is specifically directed to the underlying etiology of congested heart failure:

Digoxin

13. Which of these drugs blocks the impulse transmission of the neurotransmitter junction by competing with

acetylcholine?

Curare

14.

Generally, which of these groups of drugs are most effective in the treatment of serious gram negative

infections in animals?

Aminoglycosides

15. What is the action of cimitidine?

Minimizes gastric acid secretion

16. All of the following agents could postpone estrus in a bitch, EXCEPT:


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Gonadotropin-Releasing hormone (GnRH)

17. How does the opioids diphenoxylate and loperamide bring about their anti-diarrheal effect?

Cause segmental gut contraction

18. Which agent causes increase of secretion and synthesis of aldosterone by the adrenal cortex?

Angiotensin II

19. To correct simple constipation which of the following measures are you going to perform or administer?

Enemas (e.g. soapy water)

20. Which of the following nutrients protects the liver from dietary hepatic radicals aside from being essential in

tissue respiration?

Selenium

21. Which of the following drugs causes stimulation of the intestinal and urinary bladder?

Bethanecol

22.

This chemotherapeutic agents is ineffective against feline babesiosis but highly effective against bovine, equine

and canine babesiosis:Imidocarb dipropionate

23.

Because it is hydrolyzed slowly, this local anesthetic makes the duration of its action longest:

Hexylcaine

24. Why is it that ivermectin is ineffective against trematodes?

Trematodes does not utilized gamma-aminobutyric acid (GABA) as neurotransmitter

25. All of the following neuromuscular blocking agents belong to the ________ or nondepolarizing group ,

EXCEPT:

Succinylcholine

26.

If diethylstilbestrol is injected to a cow, what is going to happen?

It will go into estrus without ovulation

27. Which of these drugs are effective heartworm adulticide?

Thiacetarsamide sodium and melarsomine dihydrochloride

28. Most rapid recovery of consciousness would occur after discontinuing administration of which anesthetic?

Nitrous oxide

29. One distinct advantage of per oral route of drug administration over parenteral means is:

The danger of acute drug reaction is lesser

30. This plant is the source of atropine:

Belladona

31. How would you control the excessive gastric acid secretions which is highly accompanied stomach ulcer

formation?

Cimetidine

32. Which of these agents could cause vasodilation?


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Microbial digestion of polysaccharides takes place mainly in the colon

49. Screwworm infestation in sheep and goats can be controlled with sprays containing:

Coumaphos

50. Dermatologic disorders in animals like allergic dermatitis, contact dermatitis, phemphigoid and eosinophilic

granuloma are most responsive to which agent?

Glucocorticoids

51. Which of these agents is an emollient hydrocarbon?

White petrolatum

52. Aspirin, phenylbutasone, and indomethacin are non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs which irreversibly

inhibits:

Cyclooxygenase

53. If your patient has a microbial infection involving Staphylococcus spp. or Streptococcus spp. but he is sensitive

to Penicillin and Cephalosporins which Penicillin substitute will you indicate that most likely do the job?

Lincomycin54. When a drug is applied on the surface of the skin which is the major barrier to absorption?

Stratum corneum

55. Deficiency of this vitamin is quite often seen in poultry, protracted disease of the liver and exposure to

decoumarin:

Vitamin K

56. This group of antibiotics exert their anti-bacterial effect by binding with their ribosomes and interferes with

protein synthesis:

Aminoglycosides

57.

How do you reverse the toxic effect of inovar-vet (fentanyl-droperidol) administered over dose to a dog?

Naloxone hydrochloride (narcan)

58. Which of the following effects is NOT a pharmacologic property of halothane?

Increase cardiac output

59. Isoproterenol, epinephrine and norepinephrine are potent myocardial stimulants in the order of their strength,

which of these reflects the more potent to the weakest myocardial stimulant?

Epinephrine, norepinephrine, isoproterenol

60. The anticoccidial mechanism of action of this antiprotozoan agent is brought about by interfering in the early

phase of folate synthesis:

Sulfonamide

61. Which of these agents is hypoglycemic?

Insulin

62. Prevalent complication when bovines are subjected to general anesthesia:

Suffocation due to bloat

63. Part of the prescription that gives instruction for the administration of medicine:


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Signa

64. Nitrofurantoin is therapeutically useful in the treatment of :

Urinary tract infections cause by susceptible bacteria (e.g. E. coli, Staphylococcus)

65. Where is angiotensin II formed?

Within the blood

66. Which of the following conditions will you NOT expect to occur after administering phenothiazine

tranquilizers?

Increased heart rate output

67. Isopropyl alcohol is most effective germicidal when diluted with water at a final concentration by weight at:

50%

68. Salicylic acid ointment is used as a:

Keratolytic

69.

Which of the following drugs will increase the fluidity (expectorant) of respiratory secretions?

Guiafenesin70. Ruminal acidosis in cow can be alleviated by

Changing ruminal content

71. Keratoconjunctivitis sicca (dry eye), chronic superficial keratitis pannus) and pigmentary keratitis are most

responsive to which ophthalmic preparation?

Cyclosporine

72. Most serious side effect on prolong and continuos antibiotic therapy

Fungal _____infection

73. When there is a need for urine alkalinization in a dog, which of the following agents is the drug of choice?

Ammonium chloride

74.

Long term seizure in dogs, the anti-convulsant of choice is:

Phenobarbital

75. Niacin can effectively treat this nutritional disease of dogs:

Blacktongue

76. Lincomycin as an antibiotic whose spectrum of activity includes:

Gram positive bacteria and mycoplasma

77. Ivermectin and Milbemycin exerts their antiparasitic effects by

Potentiating the release and effects of gamma-aminobutyric acid (GABA)

78.

How do you acidify the alkaline urine of a cat via oral route?

NH4CL

79. What is incriminated in the pathogenesis of acanthosis nigricans?

Hypofunction of the thyroid glands

80. Most effective anticonvulsant with the widest spectrum of activity in different convulsive patterns:


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Phenobarbital

81. Tylosin, Lincomycin and Spectinomycin are all effective against this organism:

Mycoplasma spp.

82. What is the meaning of half-life of a drug?

Drug concentrated in the body to be reduced by

83. A graded dose-response curve is an indicative of

The extent of receptor occupancy

84. This agent must not be indicated during halothane anesthesia because it could induce cardiac arrhythmia or

ventricular fibrillation:

Epinephrine

85. A practitioner is unable to type the blood of a donor and recipient before blood transfusion which type of blood

could be given safely assuming that both recipient and donor never have any transfusions:

A-negative

86.

Most sensitive animal tot he effect of histamine is the guinea pig, which dies by:Asphyxiation thru bronchial constriction

87.

_________ of hepatic glucoronyl transferase (drug metabolizing enzyme) makes a potentially toxic to this

specie:

Cat

88. This anticholinergic agent is as good if not better than Atropine as pre-anesthetic agent because of the

advantage of causing less cardiac side effects (less tachycardiac response) and less CNS side effects (less

penetration of blood-brain barriers):

Glycopyrrolate

89.

The transmembrane transport mechanism is which the cell membranes engulf droplets of solutions that are

released inside the cell is:

Endocytosis

90. Which of these drugs has thyroid carcinogenic potential?

Sulfonamides

91. Best result is obtained in the treatment of cryptorchidism in a dog by serial injection of:

Humaan chorionic gonadotropin (HCG)

92. Acetylcholine is very essential to the maintenance of body homeostasis which cannot be used therapeutically

because aside from its very brief action, it:

Acts simultaneously at various tissues sites, thus no selective therapeutic response is achieved

93. Which of these drug interactions is synergistic?

Sulfamethoxazole and trimethoprim

94. Which of these anticoagulant is used to preserved blood sample for _________ :

Sodium citrate

95. Presympathomimetic drug will cause all the following EXCEPT:


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Increase cardiac function

96. All of these effects of glucocorticoids when administered except:

Monocytopenia

97. This dermatologic preparation which is keratolytic, antimicrobial and antiseborrhiec is metabolized to benzoic

acid during skin penetration:

Benzoyl peroxide

98. Acute hemorrhagic syndrome is best treated with this systemic hemostatic:

Whole blood

99. The most effective drug for treating central respiratory depression caused by barbiturates and inhalant

anesthetics in dogs, horses and cats is:

Doxapram

100.The following agents are useful in the healing of gastric ulcer, EXCEPT:

Corticosteroids

101.

In renal insufficiency, this drug is contraindicated because potentially nephrotoxic?Tetracycline

102.

The broad-spectrum antibiotic does not include:

Polymixin B

103. The most notable antibacterial activity of chloramphenicol is effectiveness against:

Salmonella spp.

104.The antifungal activity of griseofulvin does not include:

Actinomycoses

105. Of these antifungal drugs, which is used mainly for the treatment mucocutaneous and intestinal

candidiasis?

Nystatin

106.The desirable qualities of an ideal anthelmintic does not includes:

Require long with holding periods due to residual effects

107.Benzimidazole anthelmintic with activity against liver fluke:

Albendazole

108. Of the animal anthelmintics, which group poses the greatest harmful effect to man and his environment?

Organophosphates

109.Phenothiazine anthelmintic is not used in the following animals except:

Cattle

110.Identify which anthelmintic has no efficacy against nematode:

Praziquantel

111. The three desirable basic properties of nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs does not include:

Curative

112.Analgesic of choice for spasmodic colic in horse:


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Flunixin

113.Glucocorticoids are contraindicated in all the following condition, except:

Atopy in dogs

114.The antineoplastic antibiotics does not include:

Prednisolone

115.All of the following disinfectants have activity against bacterial spores, except:

Chlorhexidine

116. The keratolytic and antiseborrheic activity of which antiseptic makes it useful in treating pyoderma in dogs:

Benzoyl peroxide

117.How does alcohol exert their antimicrobial effects:

Damage bacterial membrane and precipitate protoplasmic proteins

118. Toxic effects of glucocorticoids therapy includes all the following conditions, except:

Cell, lysosomal and mitochondrial membrane stabilization

119.

Which antibacterial is used as growth promotant in cattle and preventive against coccidiosis in chicken?Monensin

120.

All of the following animals are unable to vomit effectively, except:

Swine

121. If you are going to travel with your cat, which of the following are going to prescribed to control motion

sickness?

Meclizine hydrochloride

122.Psylium seeds, wheat bran, and prunes are examples of:

Bulk laxatives

123.

Activated charcoal acts primarily in gastrointestinal tract as:

Absorbent

124.Anti-spasmodic agents includes all the following drugs, except:

Bethanecol

125.Agents of choice for the prophylaxis and treatment of fatty liver:

Choline

126. To correct simple constipation which of the following measures are you going to perform or administer?

Enemas (e.g. soapy water)

127.An agent that causes contraction of the gallbladder is called:

Cholagogue

128.Potassium permanganate is used a in skin therapy as:

Astringent

129.Determination of dosage of anticancer drugs is frequently based on:

Body surface area

130. In the treatment of malignant tumor which of the following procedure is most effective?


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Chemotherapy and surgery combined

131. In dermatopharmacology what do you call the medium in which a medical active agent is topically

administered with?

Vehicle

132.

Which of the following agents is the most extensively used dermatologic penetration enhancer in veterinary

medicine?

Dimethyl sulfoxide

133. Which of the following dermatologic preparation is most helpful in treating warts, keratoses and

hyperplastic skin disease?

Caustics

134. When a skin infection is caused by the Pseudomonas sppand Proteus sppwhich of the following topical

antibiotics will you use?

Polymixin B

135.

Which of the following agents is an irreversible cyclooxygenase inhibiting drug:Aspirin

136.

Drug of choice for allergic rhinitis:

Diphenhydramine

137.Theophylline is primarily a:

Bronchodilator

138. When treating an aminoglycoside-resistant Pseudomonaseye infection which ophthalmic preparation is the

most effective substitute?

Fluoroquinolones

139.

Conjunctivitis caused by pseudomonas microoganism can host to treated with which eye medicine?

Tobramycin

140. Which of the following agents will you use as topical anesthetic to produce ocular surface analgesic for

examination and diagnostic procedures?

Tetracaine

141. Which of the following injectable local anesthetics is most useful for infiltration anesthesia of the

periocular area particularly in large herbivores?

Lidocaine

142.Agent useful for detecting corneal ulceration

Fluorescein dye

143. Which of the following ophthalmic preparations will you use in an immune-mediated eye disease?

Prednisolone acetate suspension

144.In treating ulcerative keratitis which ophthalmic preparation must you avoid?


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Prednisolone chloramphenicol ophthalmic solution

145. All of the following ophthalmic preparations are effective in _________and reduction of intinocular

pressure in glaucomatous eye, except:

Atropine

146.

A cholinergic drug like pilocarpine will not cause which ocular drugs which instilled in the eye?

Mydriasis

147.In prescription writing q.s. is a Latin abbreviation which means:

A sufficient quantity

148.In prescription writing b.i.d. is a Latin abbreviation which means:

Twice a day

149.Identify which agent is used as tear substitute (lacrimomimetics)

Methylcellulose

150.

When you need pupillary dilation (mydriasis) for the examination of the eye lens and fundus or treat

anterior uveitis the drug of choice is:Atropine

151.

The specific antidote for iron poisoning is:

Deferoxamine mesylate

152. Which essential part of a classic prescription gives the instructions to the pharmacist?

Subscription

153.Which essential part of a classic prescription makes it a legal document?

The signature

154.Which of the following __________ will you use to __________ _________:

50 % ________ solution

155.

The appropriate equivalent of 1 lb. Is:

455.6 gm

156.Which of the following anti-infectives has no antimycotic activity:

Metronidazole

157. Inhibition of folate reduction is the mechanism of action of which antimicrobial agent?

Trimethoprim

158. Inhibition of protein synthesis is the mechanism of action of the following antimicrobials except:

Penicillin

159.

The use of Amphotericin-B may result in:

Renal and liver dysfunction

160.Select the drug that is most effective against Toxocara canis:

Pyrantel pamoate

161.Pernicious anemia in human is associated with lack of which nutrient:

Cyanocobalamin (vitamin B 12)


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162.Styptics does not include which agent?

Vitamin K

163. Select the agent that is most effective in _________ _________ resulting from _____ _____ ______ _____

_____ _____ _____ :

Vitamin K

164.All of the following agents are antiplatelet (prevents platelet aggregation), Except:

Thromboxane A2

165.Ivermectin has no measurable/antiparasitic effect against:

Flukes and tapeworms

166.Identify which of the following could be a vitamin K antagonist:

Sulfaquinoxaline

167.Toxicity associated with use of Ivermectin in dogs does not include:

Gastric ulcer

168.

Which of the following penicillins are B-lactamase broad-spectrum that are protected from bacterialenzymatic hydrolysis?

Amoxicillin-clavulanate and ampicillin-sublactam

169.The average parenteral dose of Gentamicin administered once a day is:

3-6 mg/kg

170.Quinolones have synergistics effect with all of the following drug, except:

Chloramphenicol

171. Aside from aminoglycosides, anaerobic bacteria have the tendency to be resistant to which group of drugs?

Quinolones

172.

The most inaccurate statement regarding chloramphenicol is:

It is strictly bactericidal

173. Because it chelates calcium, it is unwise to indicate which drug for bone surgeries as it will impair bone

healing?

Tetracycline

174. Systemic antifungal agent with significant efficacy against actinomycosis and actinobacillosis in cattle:

Sodium iodide

175.Nitrofurantoin is therapeutically useful in the treatment of:

Urinary tract infection cause by susceptible bacteria (e.g. E. coli, Staphylococcus)

176.

Drug therapeutically useful not only in the treatment of tuberculosis but also active against several viruses:

Rifampin

177. Because of the adverse effect on the host, it is not rational to prescribe insecticides, CNS depressants and

phenothiazine tranquilizers when one of the following is being used:

Dichlorvos

178.Aside from its main use as taeniacide, Niclosamide has activity against:


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Liver fluke

179. Generally, which of the following non-steroidal anti-inflammatory agent is the least ulcerogenic in

clinically recommended doses?

Carprofin

180.

Cyclooxygenase is:

Enzymes that converts arachidonic acid to inflammatory mediators

181.Which of the following is a potent endogenous pyretic agent?

PGK2

182. How does steroids primarily exert their beneficial effect when administered during shock?

Minimize blood stasis and promote tissue perfusion

183. Which of the following agents will you recommend in the therapy of all forms of shock (endotoxic,

hemorrhagic, anaphylactic)?

Steroids

184.

Transmissible venereal tumor in dogs can be effectively treated without surgical intervention with whichantineoplastic agent?

Vincristine

185. Orgotein is a megalloprotein compound found in animal tissues that contains copper and zinc useful in the

treatment of:

Joint and tendon injuries including septic arthritis in horses

186. Which of the following agents will you recommend for disinfecting skin hides contaminated by anthrax

spores?

2.9 % HCl

187.

Identify which agent is a flea development inhibitor (prevents formation of chitin for exoskeleton) that

effectively controls flea infestation in cats and dogs with monthly administration:

Lufenoron

188. Aside from its use to treat clinical bacterial disease, which agent is mainly used as feed additive to promote

animal growth (poultry and swine)?

Virginiamycin

189. The major hormones used as growth promotant (increase growth feed conversion ability) does not include:

FSH

190. Aside from its main use as sedative, which agent is also effective appetite stimulant?

Diazepam

191.Which of the following agents is centrally acting emetics?

Apomorphine hydrochloride

192. Which of the following agents will you indicate to control systematically acute and chronic nonspecific

diarrhea?


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Loperamide

193. The prostaglandin which is antisecretory, cytoprotectant and is effective in healing gastrointestinal ulcer is:

PGE1

194. Which of the following cytoprotectant drugs is normally used as systemic antiacid:

Sodium bicarbonate

195. An animal afflicted with liver disease which most likely suffer from what vitamin deficiency?

K

196. Lipotropic agents are substance that hasten the removal or decrease the deposition of fat in the liver and it

includes all the following agents, except:

Taurocholate

197. Which of the following dermatological agents will you indicate for crusty and flaky skin?

________________

198.

Methotrexate belongs to which group of anticancer drugs?

Antimetabolites199. This dermatologic preparation which is keratolytic, antimicrobials, antiseborrheic is metabolized to benzoic

acid during skin penetration:

Benzoyl peroxide

200. This dermatologic preparation promotes epidermal cell growth and the ability to control some malignant

transformations in the skin:

Retinoids

201. The B-lactamase-resistant narrow-spectrum penicillins effective in canine pyodermas does not include:

Amoxicillin

202.

Which topical dermatologic preparation has all the following their properties as bactericidal, sporocidal,

fungicidal, viricidal and protozoacidal?

Povidone-iodine ointment

203.Vagally mediated bronchoconstriction can be reversed by all the agents, except:

Thromboxane

204.Drug widely used in veterinary medicine and human for its mucolytic action:

Acetylcysteine

205. Aside from being commonly used as analgesic, which drug as also an effective antitussive?

Buthorphanol

206.

Which group of respiratory therapeutics preparation decreases the frequency and severity of cough without

impairing muciciliated defense?

Antitussives

207. Single or mixed eye infections of bacteria (excluding psuedomonas, chlamydia, mycoplasma, rickettsia and

spirochetes can be effectively treated with:


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Chloramphenicol

208. Keratoconjunctivitis sicca (dry eye), chronic superficial karatitis (pannus) and pigmentary keratitis are most

responsive to which ophthalmic preparations?

Cyclosporine

209.

The antiviral agents commonly used in ophthalmic viral infections includes all of the following drugs

except:

Ivermectin

210. Which of the following ophthalmic preparations is most effective against keratomycosis?

Natamycin ophthalmic preparations

211. A single instillation with the ophthalmic preparations of this organophosphate compound will cause the

reduction of intraocular pressure an miosis for several days:

Echothiophate

212.

The precipitation of calcium carbonate after the addition of sodium bicarbonate to a calcium-containing is

an example of what incompatibility?Chemical

213.

The mydriatic effect (pupillary dilation) of atropine can be effectively reversed with:

Daperazol

214. Which of the following agents is useful in the control of intraocular pressure in glaucomatous eye by

inhibiting the _____ carbonic anhydrase:

Acetozolamide

215. Aside from stimulating the iris dilator muscle this agent produce pupillary dilation (mydriasis) by

temporarily paralyzing the iris sphincter muscle:

Tropicanamide

216.

What will occur as a result of a drug interaction if an animal under general anesthetic is given any of the

aminoglycosides antibiotics:

Neuromuscular block

217. Which of the following agents will you use for treating morphine poisoning and its congeners?

Levalorphan tartrate

218. The route of administration in which a drug is most likely subjected to a first-pass effect is:

Oral

219. The transmembrane transport mechanism is which the cell membrane engulf droplets of solutions that are

released inside the cell is:

Endocytosis

220.The mechanism of action of the Fluoroquinolones as antimicrobial agent is:

Inhibit nucleic acid function or synthesis

221. The pharmacologic action of which drug is associated with the inducement of skeletal muscle paralysis?


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Gallamine

222. Which catecholamine neurotransmitter is found in highest amount of the extra _____ system (caudate

nucleus)?

Dopamine

223.

Absolute polycytemia is associated with all the following abnormal conditions except in:

Dehydration from prolong vomiting

224. In some animals and human, development of blood dyscrasias (pancytopenia, thrombocytopenia,

leukopenia) may occur following therapy of all these agents except:

Erythromycin

225. Deficiency of which nutrients is increased by modern husbandry (provision of concrete floor) where piglets

have no access to soil:

Iron

226.

Coagulant of choice foe heparin-evoked hemorrhage:

Protamine sulfate227. Blood transfusion must be performed in cases of acute hemorrhagic anemias when PCV in small animals is

less than:

20 %

228.The most inaccurate statement regarding anticoagulants for blood collecting is:

Blood collected with heparin can be stored more than 3 days

229. All of the following antimicrobials can readily penetrate the blood-brain-barrier, except:

Penicillin

230. The _____ _____ _____ _____ _____ _____ _____ _____ _____ the blood-brain-barrier is:

High fluid solubility

231.

Ototoxicity of aminoglycosides is potentiated when one of the following drugs is administered consistently:

Furosamide

232. Their ability to penetrate soft tissue and fluids makes this group of drugs the choice in the management of

osteomylitis, prostatitis, and arthritis:

Cephalosphorins

233.All of the following statements concerning aminoglycosides are _____ , except:

Even at low concentration aminoglycosides are bactericidal

234.Which of the following statement is not true regarding the lincosamides

Clindamycin is ineffectvie against dog and cat toxoplasmosis

235. Which antiviral agent exhibits efficacy against feline leukemia and feline immunodeficiency?

Azidothymidine

236. Which of the following benzimidazoles is effective against the tissue-dwelling larvae of roundworms and

hookworms in pregnant bitch?


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Fenbendazole

237. Which of the following statement is less accurate therapeutically using benzimidazole anthelmintics?

They are non-teratogenic

238. All of the following anthelmintics are cholinergic agonist (causes neuromuscular paralysis of parasites),

except:

Milbemycin oxime

239. Which of the following corticosteriods will cause the least suppression of the hypophyseal-pituitary adrenal

axis?

Prednisolone

240. Concerning the corticosteroids, which of the following statement is most accurate?

Animals in shock requires 10 times the normal dose for clinical efficacy

241.All of the following agents are immunodulators, except:

Dexamethasone

242.

The antineoplastic properties of the hormonal agents like the glucocorticoids is attributed to:Lympholytic properties

243.

How does organophosphate exert their toxicity against insects?

Inhibit insert acetylcholinesterase ultimately blocking nerve function

244. Which of the following nutrients that protects the liver from dietary hepatic necrosis aside from being

essential in tissue respiration?

Selenium

245.How _____ _____ _____ _____ _____ _____ _____ _____ _____ _____:

Stimulate _____ _____ _____ _____ _____ _____ _____ _____

246.

Which of the following antibiotics must not be used in immature and rapidly growing dog, as it will

adversely cause articular cartilage damage and subsequent lameness?

Enrofloxacin

247. What will occur as a result of drug interaction if an animal with renal ailment being treated with

trimethoprim-sulfa is given sodium chloride as urine acidifier?

Crystalluria

248. What will most likely occur as a result of interaction when penicillin is added to dextrose solution (with

pH 8 or greater):

Penicillin will be inactivated

249.

The least accurate statement regarding Methadone hydrochloride is:

It is an opioid antagonist

250. Inhibition of the muscarinic actions of acetylcholine and related cholinergic agonist is the pharmacologic

action of which drug?

Scopolamine

251. The pharmacologic action of which drug is associated with the reduction of intraocular pressure?


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Timolol

252. Which catecholamine neurotransmitter is found in highest amount at the adrenal medulla?

Epinephrine

253.Potassium-sparing diuretics does not include:

Furosemide

254. A bleeding animal who has been chronically taking mineral oil is act likely suffering from:

Vitamin K deficiency

255.What is the primary mechanism of action of heparin as systemic anticoagulant?

Reversibly binds with antithrombin III enhancing the inhibitory effects on various coagulation factors

256. Identify which of the following drug used as bacteriostatic rather than bactericidal at doses normally used

in clinical practices:

Erythromycin

257.

The following infections have been correctly paired with effective antimicrobial therapy, except:

Tetanus-oxytetracycline258. The following antimicrobial are commonly effective in staphylococcus infection, except:

Penicillin

259.Adverse effects associated with therapeutics use of sulfonamides, except:

Bacterial antimetabolites

260. The following conditions/drugs have been correctly paired with their appropriate antidote specific remedy,

except:

Halothane anesthesia - Epinephrine

261. The following conditions/drugs have been correctly paired with their appropriate antidote specific remedy,

except:

Barbiturates anesthesia - chloramphenicol

262. If an animal patient has a history of penicillin allergy, which of the following antibiotics is an appropriate

replacement?

Erythromycin

263.The following drugs are associated with nephrotoxocity, except:

Cephalosporin

264.The non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs does not include:

Dipyrone

265.

The antibacterial effect of all the following drugs can be potentiated by clavulanic acid, except:

Gentamycin

266.Drugs effective against swine dysentery does not include:

Tetracycline

267. Which benzimidazole anthelmintics has activity against most species of roundworms, liver fluke and

tapeworm?


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Albendazole

268. The following disease are correctly paired with the drugs effectiveness in their treatment, except:

Demodectic mange - Melarsomine

269.Commonly used anticonvulsant drugs in veterinary medicine does not include:

Phenytoin

270.Stimulation of cats appetite is a feature of this anti-convulsant:

Diazepam

271.How does ivermectin exert its paralyzing effect in worms?

Potentiation of GABA

272. When administered these antimicrobials commonly cause gastrointestinal disturbance (e.g. colic, irritation):

Macrolides and lincosomides

273. This tetracycline is exerted by the gut mucosa making it safe to indicate in patient with renal and hepatic

impairment:

Doxycycline274.What makes ivermectin ineffective against liver fluke?

Liver fluke do not have the neurotransmitter GABA

275.Extended use of this agent may cause thiamine deficiency:

Amprolium

276. Which of the following antimicrobials should you avoid in surgeries involving bone fractures?

Tetracycline

277.Chronic use of this agent may cause vitamins A,D,E, and K deficiency

Mineral oil

278.

General anesthetic of choice for reptiles:

Ketamine

279.Enzootic ataxia in lambs is caused by deficiency of this trace element:

Copper

280.Which paired drugs are most effective against anaerobic bacteria?

Metronidazole ,clindamycin

281. One of the basic principles in treating congestive heart failure in dog accompanied by ascites is:

Restrict sodium intake and induce mild diuresis

282.Which of the following procedures is most effective in treating malignant tumor?

Chemotherapy and surgery combined

283.Allergic dermatosis in dogs can be best treated with this ointment:

Triam______ _________ cream

284.Therapeutic usefulness of epinephrine includes:

Acute anaphylactoid reaction to biologic vaccination

285.How does organophosphate anthelmintics (e.g. dichlorvos) exert their effect?


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Inhibition of cholinesterase

286.Which of the following is not a dissociative anesthetics?

Pentothal

287. Which of the following anti-microbial combination is the best example of drug synergism?

Gentamycin and carbenicillin

288. Eimeria stiedaeinfection is a serious parasitic disease of rabbits which can be effectively treated by:

Sulfadimethoxine

289. Which of the following general anesthetics causes the least cardio-respiratory depression?

Ketamine hydrochloride

290.The drug most useful in the treatment of ventricular tachycardia is:

Lidocaine

291. In critically ill patient where the alveolar ventilation is seriously compromised, for whatever causes, which

of these agents will you prescribe?

Oxygen292.How do you reverse the toxic effect of inovar-vet (fentanyl)

Naloxone hydrochloride

293. It is difficult to completely anesthesized an abscessed area with local anesthetic because:

The acid pH in the area of pus accumulation prevents proper hydrolysis of the anesthetic resulting to

reduced potency

294. Concerning organophosphate and carbamates as external parasiticide, which of the following statement is

most inaccurate?

Both parasiticides could be used in healthy animals younger than 3 months

295.

Penicillin is synergistic with which anti-microbial inListeriainfection:

Gentamicin

296.Nitrate poisoning causes death by:

Conversion of hemoglobin to methemoglobin which is unable to carry oxygen

297. Which drug must be avoided when an animal is anesthesized with pentobarbital because it will adversely

prolong the anesthesia:

Chloramphenicol

298. The use of this drug is disallowed in food-producing animals in most countries including the Philippines

because the residue can induce fatal effects (e.g. spastic anemia):

Chloramphenicol

299.Which of the following paired drugs are B-lactamase inhibitors?

Clavulanic acid and sublactam

300. Which of the following agents ________ highly effective taeniacide on all animal cestodes with excellent

activity against human schistosomes?


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Praziquantel

301. The dermatologic usefulness of benzalkonium chloride is antagonized by which agent?

Soap

302. This diuretic is diabetogenic (increase sugar level) and in addition causes hyperuricemia:

Thiazide

303.Benzamidazole anthelmintic (e.g. thiabendazole) act by

Inhibition of fumarate reductase

304. Which of the following drugs is most effective in reducing the uric acid level of the glomerular filtrate of a

Dalmatian dog suffering from recurrent urolith formation?

Allopurinol

305. The most commonly used and effective sulfa drug for urinary tract infection in dogs and cats:

Sulfisoxazole

306.

Which agent is effective in the treatment of urinary incontinence and miss-mating in a dog?

Diethylstilbestrol307. The most effective drug for treating central respiratory depression used by barbiturates and inhalant

anesthetics in dogs, horses and cat is:

Doxapram

308. The drug most effective in the treatment of non-articular rheumatism and acute laminitis in horses is:

Phenylbutazone

309. When used in ceasarotomy, which of these sedatives or anesthetic will you expect to cause the highest fetal

mortality?

Pentobarbital

310.

One of the more effective approaches in the prevention of bloat in dairy cattle is directed to the reduction of

ruminal protozoa. Which would be the most beneficial anti-protozoan agent?

Polaxalene

311.Atropine is not recommended as preanesthetic agent in horse because:

It is ineffective in inhibiting salivation or mucus secretions from the respiratory tract

312. Fluid therapy of choice for dehydrated patient suffering from congestive heart failure:

5% dextrose in water

313. Which of the following conditions is penicillin least effective as therapeutic agent?

Salmonellosis

314.

Drugs effective for the treatment of Candidainfection does not include:

Undecyclinic acid

315. All of the following are the drawback in the use of aminoglycosides as therapeutics, except:

Effective in gram negative bacteria

316.What is the action of _________ ?


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Minimizes gastric acid secretions

317.Which of the following described best the action of sucralfate?

Cytoprotection of the SI mucosa

318.Pyrantel pamoate (tetrahydropyrimidine anthelmintic) act by:

Inhibition of the fumarate reductase

319.Piperazine (simple heterocyclic anthelmintic) act by:

Neuromuscular hyperpolarization

320.Which of the following drugs must be avoided in renal failure?

Oxytetracycline

321.Which of the following statement is not true concerning halothane?

Induction and recovery from its anesthetic effect is slow

322.The effect of heparin can be reversed by:

Protamine sulfate

323.

The effect of glucocorticoids on the blood elements does not include:Increase of circulating number of T lymphocytes

324.

The following agents are effective in the treatment of the infections cited, except:

Chlamydial eye infection Sulfacetamide ophthalmic ointment

325. The following infections/infestations have been paired with appropriate therapy, except:

Fascioliasis - Ivermectin

326. Which of the following antimicrobials is the safest to indicate in a pregnant dog with urinary tract

infection?

Amoxicillin

327.

The following drugs are correctly paired with the appropriate condition they can effectively treat, except:

Doxycycline acute otitis media

328. Which of the following type of antimicrobials will you indicate a debilitated patient with bacterial

infection?

One with bactericidal action, broad spectrum of activity and wide margin of safety

329. The most appropriate way to prepare a cat which has eaten a full meal shortly prior to emergency surgery

is:

Administer xylazine because it causes emesis and sedation

330. Which of the following diuretics does not adversely cause hypokalemia and hyperuricemia when on

extended use?

Triamterone

331. Bacteriostatic drugs are dependent in patients body defenses (e.g. phagocytosis, antibodies) in the final

elimination of infecting microbes. It is therefore rational NOT to indicate which drug in septicemia?


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Tetracycline

332. If you found the following pathogens in urinary tract infection, which of them will be the most susceptible

to sulfonamide treatment?

Streptococcus spp.

333.

Which of the following agents will you not indicate to an animal pre-medicated with muscle __________

and anesthetized with penthotal may cause neuromuscular blockade potentiation?

Gentamicin

334. When extracting teeth in a pregnant bitch, which sedative should you use because it does NOT cross the

placental barrier or crosses it moderately if at all?

Xylazine

335. Which triad of anti-convulsant is the most useful in veterinary medical therapy and control of epilepsy

Phenobarbital, primidone, diazepam

336.

When a dog experiencing a seizure is brought to you for treatment, which of the following agents will your

drug of choice?Diazepam IV

337.

The important beneficial affect of glucocorticoids when indicated in all forms of shock (endotoxic,

hemorrhagic, anaphylactic) is:

Diminish blood stasis and promotes tissue perfusion

338.A pregnant animal was treated with antibiotic when it was two third post her gestation period. When the fetus

was born, the teeth were yellowish to brown in color. What is most likely drug was indicated?

Tetracycline

339.Why is it advisable to avoid administering isoproterenol or other cathecolamines on an animal anesthesized

with halothane?

Fatal ventricular fibrillation may ensue

340.All of the following drugs are correctly paired according to their pharmacologic effect, except:

Morphine dilation of pupil

341.Which of the following drugs should be avoided in hepatic failure?

Tetracycline

342.The drug not safe to administered in pregnant animal is:

Fluroquinolones

343.The following drugs are correctly paired with the adverse reaction they cause, except:

Tetracycline - osteomalacia

344.Regarding diazepam, which of the following statement is not true?

Does not cause fatal overdose

345.Indications of acepromazine does not include:

CNS seizures

346.Pharmacologic effect of aspirin does not include:


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Hearing impairment

347.The following agents are useful in the healing of gastric ulcer, except:

Corticosteroids

348.A solution _____ _____ _____ _____ _____

10 gm in 100ml

349.When molecules pass across the cell membrane either by specialized _____ _____ or by:

Passive transfer process

350.A cardiovascular effects of histamine when administered to a _____ are reduction of arterial

pressure, increased capillary permeability and :

Vasodilation

351.Which of the following paired antibiotics best illustrates drug synergism:

Trimethoprin -sulfa

352.

__________ _____ _____ _____ _____ needs of a mature cow comes from:

Volatile fatty acids353.Which of the following paired drugs demonstrate therapeutic incompatibility?

Atropine / physostigmine

354.Generally, _____ ______ _____ in normal animal blood per 100 ml is maintained _____ _____ :

_____ mg

355.Which of the following antimicrobials could be easily rendered ineffective secreting bacteria?

Penicillin

356.Which of the following key words will you look for procuring fluids of intravenous administration?

Sterile, pyrogen free

357.

The half-life of penicillin is increased by probenecid in the body by :

Decreasing proximal tubular excretion

358.The endogenous antiviral agent produced by various cell of the body defense system is

Interferon

359.This drug is specific xylazine antagonist:

Yohimbine

360.Which of the following effect is the most important pharmacologic action of digoxin in congestive heart failure?

The increase in ventricular contractile force

361.Which of the following causes the cessation of growth and ossification of epiphyseal lines in a female after

puberty?

Estrogen

362.Which of the following drugs is derived from animal?

Epinephrine

363.Eclampsia in bitch and milk fever in cow are brought about primarily by:


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Tremendous drain on the calcium stores of the body during lactation

364.Which bones or gland are primarily involved in hyperpituitaridism such as seen in acromegaly and giantism?

Long bones

365.The immunosuppressive effects of glucocorticoids are used to advantage in this condition:

Tissue transfer

366.Which body system is the most sensitive and vulnerable to the toxic effects of antineoplastic drugs?

Gastrointestinal system

367.You can intentionally alter the urinary pH as part of therapeutics regimen to accomplish all the following,

except:

Modify the pH of extracellular fluid

368.Ruminal acidosis in cow can be alleviated by:

Changing ruminal content

369.

Tetracycline is a :

Protein synthesis inhibitor370.Drugs used to increase secretion of the upper respiratory tract is referred to as:

Expectorant

371.The agent capable of inhibiting the wide range of effect of B-lactamase enzyme produced by gram positive and

gram negative bacteria is:

Clavulanic acid

372.Administration of irritating drug solution as best done via which route?

Intravenous

373.A solution containing a higher concentration of osmotic substance than does the body cells is referred to as:

Hypertonic solution

374.

Identify which factor will increase the rate of absorption and dissemination of drug administration parenterally:

Increase blood supply of the site and message

375.The depth or level of anesthesia is easiest to control with which anesthetic?

Halothane

376.A slight CNS depression in which the patient is awake but calm and free of nervous is referred to as:

Sedation

377.Gases which are products of fermentation are principally removed from ruminants body by:

Eructation

378.

A drug that has affinity for and interacts with a cell receptor to elicit a response is called:

An agonist

379.The safe amount of urea to be in cattles feed concentrate must not be more than:

3 %

380.An important and desirable of an antiseptic aside from the effective inhibitory or cidal effect is:


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Must be safe when used in tissues

381.Which general statement is most accurate concerning the calcium on phosphorus content of common animal

feeds?

Hay contains are more calcium than grains

382.

The time required for the body to eliminate one-half of the drug administered is referred to as:

Half-life of the drug

383.Which of three anti-infectives is a cell wall synthesis inhibitor:

Cephalosporins

384.Which antimicrobial does not belong to the nucleic acid inhibitor:

Sulfonamides

385.These opioid antagonist does not include:

Yohimbine

386.

Considering its cost, safety an potency as virucidal and bactericidal agent, the disinfectant of choice for animal

cages is:Sodium hypochlorite

387.

To elicit its desired systemic effects epinephrine must be administered in all these routes, except:

Orally

388.In addition to stimulating secretion of aldosterone, angiotensin II also causes:

Vasoconstriction

389.Which of the following agents has a cathartic effect but not a parasympathetic drug:

_____ _____

390.As a class, penicillin are bactericidals because they:

Interfere with bactericidal wall synthesis

391.

How does the ivermectin anthelmintics exert their therapeutic effects?

Potentiation of gamma-butyric acids

392.The most important beneficial effect in the therapeutic use of glucocorticoids is:

Anti-inflammatory

393.Which disinfectant is useful in controlling parasites (e.g. ascarids, parascaris and coccidia):

Carbon disulfide

394.The nutrient needed in all these essential physiological processes as normal vision, reproductive function,

maintenance of epithelial integrity and immune competency is:

Vitamin A

395.Drugs that decrease the frequency and severity of cough without impairing mucocilliary defenses of respiratory

system are called:

Antitussives

396.Which of the following drugs is not a cholinesterase inhibitor?


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Atropine

397.Acepromazine _____ _____ _____ _____ _____ _____?

Phenothiazine tranquilizer

398.The entry of poisons into the animals body is most common via which route?

Orally by ingestion

399.Which is the most accurate statement concerning either xylazine or acepromazine?

Xylazine produces profound analgesia and deep sedation

400.Taking accounts the speed of blood perfusion of the tissue in the distribution of drug, it is expected that this

tissue will be saturated first ahead of the other tissues of the body:

Liver

401.Dietary requirement of calcium and phosphorus is greatest in which stage of animal life?

Lactation

402.

Which of the following drugs is a CNS stimulant?

Amphetamine403.When calculating the dose of a drug, which is the determinant most often, considered?

Body weight

404.The greatest requirement for iron in the life of a normal animal is during

Growth

405.Wood and coal tar _________ used as _________ and disinfectants _____ _____ _____ _____ which animal:

Cats

406._____ _____ _____ _____ ______ _____ _____ _____ _____ _____

produces thin _____ effect:

Thiamine deficiency

407.

What is the most common cause of bloat in cattle?

Failure or inability to eructate the accumulates gas

408.Which of the following measurement is approximately equal to 1 fluid ounce?

30 ml

409.Lipophilic drugs tend to accumulate in:

Soft tissues

410.The principal site of drug absorption taken from orally in carnivorous an omnivorous animals is in the:

Upper part of small intestine

411.

Which group of antibiotics may cause neuromuscular paralyzing effect by decreasing the release of

acetylcholine from the nerve and also decreasing the sensitivity of the end plates of acetylcholine?

Aminoglycosides

412.The animal suffering from diabetes insipidus is characterized by copious drinking of water and urinates large

quantities of water of low specific gravity because of lack of :


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Vasopressin

413.How does calcitonin lowers the calcium blood level?

Blocks calcium mobilization from the bones

414.In correcting acidosis, the lactate or acetate ions in the fluids administered it metabolized by the liver to:

Bicarbonates

415.Identify the compound which is competitive neuromuscular blocking agent:

Tubecurarine

416.Concerning iron in piglets, the accurate statement is:

Those raised on concrete to reduce parasitic infestation increase their marginal iron deficiency state

417.How is diabetic come brought about?

Excess insulin and hypoglycemia

418.All of the following are pharmacologic effects of physostigmine, except:

Atopy of the bladder thereby causing involuntary urination

419.

An adrenergic nerve is classified as aSympathetic postganglionic nerve

420.

Catecholamine that is most potent myocardial stimulant:

Isoproterenol

421.The most prevalent change in the acid base status in anesthesized animal is:

Respiratory acidosis

422._____ _____ _____ _____ _____ _____ ______ containing how much _____ _____ _____ :

_____ of salt and _____ of dextrose

423.Which of the following is the best agent or measure in promoting and featuring ruminal function in digestive

tract disorder?

Fresh ruminal fluid transfer

424.What are some of the possible hazards of long-term exposure to trace amounts of anesthetic gas?

Neurologic problems, spontaneous abortion, kidney and liver dysfunctions

425.Phenothiazine tranquilizers exert their effect by:

Blocking dopamine receptors

426.Potassium can antagonize the toxic effects of cardiac glycosides by:

Stimulation of active sodium-potassium transport

427.A graded dose-response curve is an indicative of:

The extent of receptors occupancy

428.Ophthalmic preparation of atropine sulfate applied on the eye will cause:

Dilution of the pupil and paralysis

429.The adverse effect resulting from extended glucocorticoid treatment does not include:


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Administration of dexamethasone

447.How ______ ______ ______ _____ ______ ______ _____ _____ _____ _____ :

Inhibition of cyclooxygenase

448.Which B-vitamin requires cobalt is its synthesis by the ruminant stomach microflora?

Cyanocobalamine (B12)

449.Where is the principal source of ruminal water and fluid medium for microbial growth?

Saliva from salivary glands

450.Drugs tightly bound to plasma protein have much longer elimination half-lives and is best exemplified by which

of the following drugs?

Sulfamethoxazole

451.The preponderance of this hormone in blood circulation is diagnostic of Cushings disease:

Cortisol

452.

Which of the following condition will occur if carbonic anhydrase is inhibited?

Rate of aqueous humor formation decreased453.After administering isoproterenol parenterally, which of the following will take place?

Myocardial stimulation

454.Which of the following is the vascular effect of glucocorticoid when administer to an animal?

Reduced lymphocytes and eosinophils

455._____ _____ _____ _____ _____ _____ _____ _____ _____ _____ _____ _____ _____ _____ _____ _____

_____ _____ _____ _____

_____ _____ _____ _____ _____ _____ _____ _____

456.Isoproterenol, epinephrine, and norepinephrine are potent myocardial stimulants. In the order of their strength,

which of these reflects the more potent to the weakest myocardial stimulant?

Epinephrine, norepinephrine, isoproterenol

457.If a practitioner unable to type the blood of a donor and recipient before blood transfusion, which type of blood

could be given safely (assuming that both recipient and donor never have any transfusions prior)?

A-negative

458.What is the main constraint and limitations in the use of antiviral drugs?

While they are toxic on viral cells, they are also toxic on mammalian cells

459.On which muscle tissues will Acetylcholine evoke excitatory response?

Smooth muscle of the GI tract

460.

The central nervous system is more affected to the action of anesthetic than any system of the body because

there are:

More lipid medium and more vascular

461.How does corticosteroids exert its action in the treatment of autoimmune hemolytic anemia?


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Supress erythrophagocytic and antibody binding

462.Prolong administration of barbiturates to an epileptic dog will reduce the response to another convulsant drugs

because of:

Accelarated rate of biotransformation of hepatic microsomal enzyme

463.

How does norepinephrine and phenylephrine decrease the heart rate?

By activating a baroreceptor reflex

464.Which agent causes increase of secretion and synthesis of aldosterone by the adrenal cortex?

Angiotensin II

465.Which of the following is the mechanism of action of heparin in toto?

Antithromboplastin, antiprothrombin, antithrombin

466.The important purpose of administering a positive isotope to a hypotensive anesthesized patient is:

Increase tissue perfusion

467.

Most rapid recovery of consciousness would occur after discontinuing administration of which anesthetic?

Nitrous oxide468.Alpha-adrenergic receptors in the medullary part of the brain when stimulated will:

Produce a decrease in blood pressure and bradycardia

469.This cholinergic blocking drug selectively blocks muscarinic receptors only:

Atropine

470.Dobutamine, a synthetic catecholamine _____ for heart failure belong to which class of drugs?

Beta-1 adrenergic agonist

471.When glucocorticoid is administered in a normal fasting animal the blood sugar level will rise because of:

Decreased oxidation of glucose and accelerated gluconeogenesis

472.

Which of these agents blocks muscarinic receptor in the periphery and central nervous system?

Scopolamine

473.Angiotensin II increases blood pressure by:

Stimulating aldosterone secretion and vasoconstriction

474.How would you minimize the risk of undesirable suppression of hypophyseal-pituitary axis (HPA) when using

short-acting glucocorticoid?

Give twice the normal dose on alternate days

475.How many parts of diluent are there in a 1:5 dilutions?

4

476.

Which of these forms of penicillin can be administered via intra_____ route with relative safety?

Aqueous potassium salts of penicillin G

477.Aspirin exerts its major effects by:

Inhibiting cyclooxygenase

478.The parenteral routes of administration of drugs does not include:


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Aerosole

479.Which of the following is an antimycotic drug?

Nystatin

480.All of the following agents are nonnarcotic analgesic, except:

Meperidine

481.Allaying activity and excitement with drug is referred to as:

Sedation

482.Cross-hypersensitivity exist between cephalosporins and :

Penicillins

483.All of the following are desirable objective which may result from pre-anesthetic medication, except:

Increased dose of anesthetic

484.Which of the following drugs is related to ampicillin but with better oral absorptions?

Amoxicillin

485.

Which of these agents could division the bodys ability to withdraw infections healing power?Glucocorticoids

486.

All of the following agents are bronchodilators, except:

Chlorthiazide

487.Manitol belong to which groups of diuretics?

Osmotic

488.Which of the following drugs is effective antidiarrheal agent that inhibits intestinal peristaltic movement?

Loperamide

489.Which vitamin is required for normal vision?

A

490.

Chronic consumption of raw fish may cause which vitamin deficiency:

Thiamine

491.Drug of choice for the treatment of chronic arsenic poisoning:

Dimercaprol

492.The primary effect of parathyroid hormone is:

Increased mobilization of calcium from bones

493.All of the following drugs are hyperglycemic agents, except:

Glucagon

494.

Which of the following statements is not accurate regarding dexamethasone?

It has an immuno-dependent potential

495.Which of the following parenteral route will you administered _____ solutions for treating _____ __________ ?

Intrathecal

496.Which of the following parenteral routes will you administer irritating and non-isotonic solutions?


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Intravenous

497.The desirable advantages of oral dosing of drugs does not include:

High degree of drug metabolic transformation

498.Which of the following drugs is contraindicated in idiopathic canine epilepsy?

Acepromazine

499.Considering their therapeutic effects in the digestive system, diphenoxylate, loperamide, paregoric and bismuth

subsalicylate could be conveniently classified as:

Antidiarrheals

500.All the following drugs could stimulate vomiting (emetics), except:

Acepromazine

501.All of the following agents are astringent hemostatics, except:

Epinephrine

502.

Basic use of lubricant laxatives (e.g. mineral oil) could cause which adverse effect?

Fat soluble vitamin deficiency503.Identify which of the following drug _____ ______ ______ _____ ?

Docuoate sodium

504.This systemic antifungal drug is teratogenic and must not be used in pregnant animal:

Griseofulvin

505.Actinomycosis and actinobacillosis in cattle can be effectively treated with:

Sodium iodine

506.Which of the following conditions will you not expect to occur after administering phenothiazine tranquilizers?

Increase heart rate and output

507.

The correct statement regarding the action of morphine sulfate is:

It causes excitatory behavior in cat

508.Fatality from digitalis glycoside toxicity is usually caused by:

Cardiac arrythmias

509.Bradycardia of vagal origin during anesthesia can be prevented by administering :

Atropine

510.The __________ characteristics of aminoglycosides does not include:

Hepatotoxicity

511.Which _______nutritional disease of dogs that can effectively treated with :

_______________

512.Which of the following agents is best effective in controlling aggressiveness and fighting among swine?

_______________

513.Which of the following agents is effective in preventing estrus in bitch?

_______________

514.The appropriate fluid therapy for dehydrated patient is:


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Epinephrine

532.All of the following agents are antimuscarinic drugs, except:

Pilocarpine

533.Identify which of the following diuretics has no carbonic anhydrase inhibiting activity:

Furosemide

534.Which of the following groups of diuretics will you indicate for glaucomatous eye?

Carbonic anhydrase inhibition

535.What appropriate diuretics will you indicate in condition with elevated intraocular and cerebrospinal fluid

pressures?

Mannitol

536.Which of the following drugs causes stimulation of the intestinal and urinary bladder?

Bethanecol

537.

Intestinal _____ ______ therapeutically effective against gastroduodenal _____ ?

__________538.Vitamin associated with role in chemoprevention of cancer:

E

539. Which of the following drugs could have most likely cause keratoconjunctivitis sicca during the extended

treatment of X0 cell life infection in bitch?

Sulfamethoxasole

540.Which of the following drugs has no hepatotoxic activity?

Thiopental sodium

541.Poisoning from which agent can be effectively treated with 100% oxygen:

Carbon monoxide

542.

Spreading and rate of absorption of an injected drug (e.g. subcutaneous) can be facilitated by:

Adding hyaluronidase in the solution

543. Tightly bound to plasma protein drugs have much longer elimination of half-lives and is best exemplified

by which of the following drugs:

Sulfamethoxasole

544. Which of the following drugs is a microsomal enzyme inhibitors:

Chloromphenicol

545. When treating ______ _____of the drug dose rates and frequently must be observed for _____ long at least

after birth?

__________

546. One of the _____ ______ _____ _____ _____ _____ ______ ______ _____ _____ ______ _____:

__________

547. All of the following antiulcerative _____ _____ exert their prophylactic _____ by inhibiting gastric acid

production, except:


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Sucralfate

548. The following agents that increase the movement of ingested material in the GI tract (prokinetic drugs)

does not include:

Dopamine

549.

Which is the least effective drug against skin infection in dogs commonly cause by the B-lactamase

producing Staphylococcus infection:

Penicillin

550. Drug of choice for sporothrichosis in animals:

Potassium iodine

551. This antiparasitic is not indicated in certain types of canine breeds (e.g. Collies, Shetland & Old sheepdogs)

because it readily crosses their blood-brain-barrier thus, causing CNS toxicity:

Ivermectin

552.

Which of the following conditions does not occur during glucocorticoids administration?

Neutropenia553. This antinematodal drug stimulates cell-mediated immunity in immunologically depressed patients (e.g.

aged animals):

Levamisole

554. Which of the following drugs will cause _____ _____ _____ _____ extended period at high rate?

Amprolium

555. _____ _____ _____ _____ _____ with which drug will control flea infestation in digs and cats rendering

larvae unable to:

Lufenoron

556.

Which of the following agents is a prokinetic (one that increased the movement of ingesta in GI tract)

drugs:

Metoclopramide

557. Anesthesia is undesirably prolonged if this drug is administered in surgical patient:

Cloramphenicol

558. Which of the following drugs will most likely cause toxic _____ _____ when administered even under

normal conditions?

Amphotericin B

559. Flea and tick infestation can be treated or prevented in dogs and cats by spraying their coat with this

antiparasitic agent at monthly intervals:

Fibronil

560. For expulsions of uterine contents in pathologic (e.g. pyometra ) conditions, the drug of choice is:

Prostaglandin F2 alpha

561. Drug of choice in reversing the sedative effect of xylazine in cats:

Tolazoline


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562. Acute, uncomplicated _____ _____ _____ _____ _____ ______ _____ _____ _____ _____ _____ _____:

Trimethoprim -sulfa

563. Bactericidal enzymatic inactivation of b- lactamase antibiotics (e.g. penicillin, cephalosporins) can be

prevented by concurrent administration of:

Sublactam

564. Immunosuppressive drugs does not include:

Staphage lysate

565. Where there is hypofunction of the _________ muscle or bladder atony this cholinergic agonist will be

useful:

Bethanicol chloride

566. When there is a need for urine alkalinization in a dog, which of the following agents is the drug of choice?

Potassium citrate

567.

An ideal anesthetic should not posses which undesirable property?

Eliminated solely by the liver568. Which of the following antiepileptic agent has the undesirable effect of causing megaloblastic anemia,

ataxia and gingival hyperplasia?

Phenytoin

569. Which of the following statement aptly describes methicillin?

It is a parenteral penicillin that is resistant to B-lactamase

570. All of the following nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) produced their anti-inflammatory

effect by inhibiting cyclooxygenase:

Acetaminophen

571.

How does heparin _____ _____ _____ _____ _____:

__________________________________________

572. Reversible cholinesterase _____ _____ __________:

Echotiophate iodine

573. Irreversible cholinesterase inhibitors includes all of the following drugs, except:

Physostigmine

574. Malignant hyperthermia associated with halothane anesthesia characterized by muscle rigidity can be

cured by which skeletal-muscle relaxant?

Dantrolene

575.

The greatest and most important factor that requires adjustment of drug and frequencies in neonates is:

Deficiency of hepatic microsomal function

576. Which of the following systemic hemostatic is most effective infecting rodenticide toxicity, moldy sweet

clover poisoning, _________ and sulfaquinoxaline toxicity?

Vitamin K

577. Ivermectin and Milbemycin exert their antiparasitic effects by:


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Potentiating the release and effects of gamma-aminobutyric acid (GABA)

578. Griseofulvin acts against fungi by:

Inhibiting cell wall synthesis and nucleic acid synthesis and mitosis

579. Immune-mediated ________________ (e.g. _________, lupus erythematosus) are best treated with which

__________ pharmacologic agents?

Glucocorticoids

580. Which glucocorticoids preparation will you _____ _____ _________ situation, _____ _____ _____ ______

________?

Hydrocortisone sodium succinate

581. Fluid therapy of choice in acute renal failure where hyperkalemia or hypercalcemia is present:

0.9% saline

582. _____ _____ _____ _____ _____ _____ _____ _____ _____ _____:

Pseudomonas spp.

583.

The antimicrobial agent that has _____ _____ _____ ____ _____ _____ _____ infections caused by __________ _____:

Gentamicin

584. Praziquantel is used to treat:

_______________________

585. All of the following _____ _____ _____ their antimicrobial effect inhibition of protein synthesis, except:

Cephalosporins

586. Which of the following aminoglycosides is not effective _____ _____ _____ _____?

Dihydrostreptomycin

587.

A _____ __________, the longest-acting tetracycline is:

Doxycycline

588. _____ _____ _____ _____ _____ _____ _____ _____ _____ _____

______________________

589. _____ _____ _____ _____ _____ _____ _____ _____ _____ _____

______________________

590. _____ _____ _____ _____ _____ _____ _____ _____ _____ _____

______________________

591. Absorption of drugs following oral administration is:

Commonly through passive diffusion

592. Drug associated with severe muscular irritation and inflammation when administered via the intramuscular

route:

Chloral hydrate

593. The following drugs can impair renal functions, except:

Erythromycin


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594. Identify the drug which doses cross the placenta in significant amount?

Xylazine

595. A therapeutically essential class of antibiotics whose usefulness is restricted by their nephrotoxic and

ototoxic potential:

Aminoglycosides

596. Which of the following agents should not be mixed with lactated Ringers solution in infusion battle as it

cause drug inactivation (e.g. precipitate):

Sodium bicarbonate

597. Which of the following drugs is useful in controlling myasthenia gravis-like syndrome in dog?

Neostigmine

598. The most important use of _______ is:

Pain relief

599.

Drug commonly used as cough depressant:

Codeine600. The therapeutic use of thiazide is:

Diuretic

601. The following drugs are useful in preventing motion sickness in dogs, except:

Apomorphine

602. The following may cause hypercalcemia, except:

Lactation

603. The antimicrobial drug which inhibit folic acid metabolism is:

Trimethoprim

604.

Metronidazole is not effective in treating:

Anaplasmosis

605. All of the following antimicrobials are therapeutically useful in treating pseudomonas infections, except:

Tetracycline

606. Lyme disease can be effectively treated with:

Tetracycline

607. Drug of choice for anaphylactic shock:

Adrenaline

608. The following infections/ infestations are correctly paired with their appropriate treatment, except:

Salmonellosis penicillin

609. Which of the following statement is not correct concerning Gentamicin:

It is highly effectvie on anaerobic bacterial infections

610. Adverse effect associated with penicillin include:

Hypersensitivity

611. All of the following drugs has activity against TB, except:


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Amikacin

612. The following drugs are correctly paired with their known unwanted effects, except:

Dexamethasone anti-inflammatory

613. Which statement is not true concerning dichlorvos?

It has a wide margin of safety

614. Drug of choice for congestive heart failure

Digitalis

615. How does the opioids diphenoxylate and loperamide bring about their anti-diarrheal effect?

Cause segmental gut contractions

616. Drug of choice forBordetella bronchisepticsinfection in dog is:

Doxycycline

617. Melarcomine dihydrochloride is used as:

Anti-canine filariasis

618.

What is the desirable effect of furosemide when indicated in congestive heart failure?Diuresis and accordingly recovers edema fluids

619.

Famotidine and Ranitidine are both H2 receptor antagonist which are the same pharmacologic class with:

Cimetidine

620. Acepromazine is an ideal preanesthetic agent except that it has this undesirable effect:

Hypotensive

621. Cross-resistance is usually observed in these paired antibiotics:

Penicillin/Cephalosporin

622. Which of the following drugs is useful in treating warfarin poisoning in dog or coumarin toxicosis in cattle?

Aquamephyton (vitamin K)

623.

Cephalosporins are considered as bactericidal because they:

Inhibit development of the bacterial cell wall

624. Moduramicin, clopidol, amprolium, monensin are of common therapeutic usefulness as:

Anticoccidiasis

625. The anti-infective drug highly effective in the treatment of chlamydia, rickettsia and mycoplasma infections

is:

Tetracycline

626. Niacin can effectively treat this nutritional disease of dogs:

Blacktongue

627. Wheat bran, prunes and psyllium seeds belong to the same category of therapeutic agents as:

Bulk laxatives

628. This is the only domestic animal whose young needs iron prophylactic treatment:

Pig


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629. When an animal is hypersensitive to penicillin, the other drug to witch that most likely cause similar

reactions is:

Cephalosporin

630. Laryngospasm is most prevalently encounters during induction of barbiturates anesthetic in this specie:

Feline

631. Deficiency of which nutrient will cause nutritional muscular dystrophy:

Selenium

632. Digitalis and chloramphenicol must NOT administered orally to this specie because they will be rendered

therapeutically ineffective:

Cattle

633. Milk must NOT be taken orally with this drug:

Tetracycline

634.

What is the rationale in mixing local anesthetic with epinephrine for site infiltration?

Retard systemic absorption, then prolonging anesthesia635. Meperidine (demerol) is seldom used to relieve pain in dogs and cats because:

It is rapidly inactivated by the liver

636. Identify the agent which is ineffective in controlling persistent capillary bleeding:

Sodium oxalate

637. Which of the following conditions may be caused by high-dose of glucocorticoid (e.g. dexamethasone) in a

horse?

Laminitis

638. The depressive effect of which drug can be reversed by naloxone:

Morphine

639.

When using aminoglycoside antibiotics, it is prudent to monitor the blood serum to check this undesirable

effect:

Nephrotoxocity

640. Frequently used agent in emergency treatment of certain cases of poisoning because of its absorbent

property:

Activated charcoal

641. This drug is useful in prolonging the effect of penicillin by inhibiting its renal tubular excretion:

Probenecid

642.

Diabetes insipidus can be effectively controlled by this hormone:

Vasopressin

643. Which of these agents is hyperglycemic?

Insulin

644. The adverse effect of glucocoriticoids treatment which usually results to adrenal cortex atrophy can be

avoided by:


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Administer orally in alternate days

645. Which of the following drugs is not recommended at any dose for any therapeutic purpose in cats?

Acetaminophen

646. The undesirable effects of glucocorticoids does not include:

Depresses allergic reaction and inflammation

647. Identify the hemorrhagic disease-causing agent in cattle derived from spoiled sweet clover:

Dihydroxy coumarin

648. The drug with widest therapeutic index (margin of safety) is:

Penicillin

649. Following initial systemic administration of morphine, excitatory behavioral change is seen in:

Cat

650. Prudence and care must be observed when this anti-infective drug is used because it has caused the highest

incidence of anaphylactoid reactions:

Penicillin651. The anti-oxidant vitamins are:

A,C,E

652. Which animal is not sensitive to phenothiazine?

Horse

653. Which animal is most sensitive to xylazine?

Cattle

654. When large dose of corticosteroid is administered, one of the following adverse conditions may ensue:

Hepatopathy

655.

The drug effective as anticestodal in cat is:

Praziquantel

656. Often cause of death during anesthesia because of absence or lack of it:

Oxygen

657. All of the following drugs are useful in the management of epilepsy, except:

Pentothal

658. Anti-infective that could readily penetrate the blood-brain-barriers, placental barriers and ocular tissues:

Chloramphenicol

659. Which part of the body of the dog is LEAST affected by the analgesic effect of xylazine?

Extremities

660. Neomycin, streptomycin, bacitracin and succinylsulfathiazole have this important characteristics in

common:

All are poorly absorbed from the gastro-intestinal tract

661. Which of the following hormones can be administered orally because of its potency is not altered by the

digestive juices:


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