Intense Revision Plan Indian Polity - Civils...

Intense Revision Plan Indian Polity Q1. Consider the following statement with reference to Parliamentary Accounts

Committee :

1. It was formed under the Government of India Act, 1935.

2. It is a joint committee consisting of 15 members from Lok Sabha and 7 from

Rajya Sabha who are elected according to principle of proportional

representation by means of the single transferable vote.

3. As per its chairman by ‘Rules of Procedure and Conduct of Business’ is

selected from the Opposition parties.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 only

(c) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: b

It has been in existence from 1921 and was formed under the Government of India

Act, 1919.

It is a joint committee consisting of 15 members from Lok Sabha and 7 from Rajya

Sabha who are elected according to principle of proportional representation by

means of the single transferable vote.

Since 1967, its chairman by convention is selected from the Opposition parties.

Q2. Consider the following statements with reference to Inter-State Council (ISC)

:

1. Article 263 provides the establishment of an Inter-State Council to effect

coordination between the states and between Centre and states.

2. It is a permanent constitutional body.

3. The ISC is proposed to meet thrice a year.


(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 1 only

(c) 1 ,2 and 3

(d) 1 and 3 only

Answer: d

Article 263 provides the establishment of an Inter-State Council to effect coordination

between the states and between Centre and states.

It is not a permanent constitutional body. It can be established 'at any time' if it

appears to the President that the public interests would be served by the

establishment of such a Council.

First time it was set up on the recommendation of the Sarkaria Commission and

established the ISC by a presidential ordinance on May 28, 1990.

The ISC is proposed to meet thrice a year, but in 26 years, it has met only 11 times.

Q3. With reference to special status of Jammu and Kashmir consider the

following statements:

1. The state's residents live under a separate set of laws.

2. Indian citizens from other states cannot purchase land or property in Jammu &

Kashmir.

3. The Union government cannot declare emergency on grounds of internal

disturbance or imminent danger unless it is made at the request or with the

concurrence of the state government.


(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: d

Special Status to J&K

Legislative powers: The state's residents live under a separate set of laws, including

those related to citizenship, ownership of property, and fundamental rights, as

compared to other Indians.

Territory: Indian Parliament cannot increase or reduce the borders of the state and

Indian citizens from other states cannot purchase land or property in Jammu &

Kashmir.

Emergency Provisions:

The Union government cannot declare emergency on grounds of internal disturbance

or imminent danger unless it is made at the request or with the concurrence of the

state government.

Centre can declare emergency in the state only in case of war or external aggression.

The Center has no power to declare financial emergency under Article 360 in the state.

Constitutional Amendment: a Constitutional amendment becomes applicable to J&K

only after the President issues an order.

Q4. . Which of the following are related to Right to Equality under the provisions

of Articles 14 - 18 of the Constitution of India ?

1. Prohibition of discrimination on grounds of religion, race, caste, sex or

place of birth

2. Equality of opportunity in matters of public employment

3. Educational and cultural rights to minorities

4. Abolition of untouchability

Select the correct answer using the code given below

(a) 2,3 and 4 only

(b) 1,2,3 and 4

(c) 1 and 4 only

(d) 1,2 and 4 only

Answer: d

Educational and cultural rights to minorities –article 29 and 30

Q5. Consider the following statements regarding Fundamental duties:

1. The Swaran Singh Committee recommended the incorporation of a list of

Fundamental Duties of the people of India.

2. The Article 51A was added by an amendment Act which enumerated 11

Fundamental Duties of the People of India at that time.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

answer : A

Initially 10 FD were added and then 11th FD was added by 86th amendment, RTE Act

2002.

Q6. Consider the following statements:

1. National emergency can be declared only once was has started

2. National emergency is proclaimed for whole of the country

3. 44th constitutional amendment replaced the word “internal disturbance “ with

“armed rebellion” in article 352

Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?

(a) 3 only

(b) 1,2only

(c) 1,3 only

(d) 2 ,3 only

ans: a

1.president can declare national emergency even before the actual occurrence of the

war or external aggression .

2. 42nd CAA enabled president to limit the operation of a national emergency to

specified part of India

3. correct

Q7. Under article 54, the president is elected by the members if an electoral

college consisting of -

1. Members of both houses of parliament

2. members of the legislative assemblies of states , NCT of Delhi and Puducherry


(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer :d

Only elected members of loksabha, rajyasabha and legislative assemblies can

participate in election, nominated members can’t.

Q8. Consider the following statements with reference ‘Eighth Schedule of

Constitution’ :

1. Eighth Schedule of the Constitution contains 18 languages.

2. Bodo, Dogri, Maithili and Santhali were added to ‘Eighth Schedule’ in 2004 .

3. Sitakant Mohapatra Committee was set up to evolve a set of objective criteria

for inclusion of more languages in the Eighth Schedule


(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: b

Eighth Schedule of the Constitution contains 22 languages. 14 languages were

initially in the Constitution.

Sindhi language was added in 1967. Konkani, Nepali and Manipuri were added in

1992.

Bodo, Dogri, Maithili and Santhali were added in 2004.

At present, there is demand for at least 38 more languages in the Eighth Schedule.

Q9. Consider the following statements regarding question hour in parliament :

1. A starred question requires a written answer and supplementary questions can

not follow.

2. An unstarred question requires oral answer and supplementary questions can

follow.

3. A short notice question is answered orally followed by supplementary questions.


(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1, 2 and 3

(d) 3 only

Answer :d) 3 only

A Starred Question is one to which a member desires an oral answer in the House

and which is distinguished by an asterisk mark. When a question is answered orally,

supplementary questions can be asked thereon.

An Unstarred Question is one which is not called for oral answer in the House and on

which no supplementary questions can consequently be asked. To such a question, a

written answer is deemed to have been laid on the Table after the Question Hour by

the Minister to whom it is addressed. It is printed in the official report of the sitting of

the House for which it is put down.

A Short Notice Question is one which relates to a matter of urgent public importance

and can be asked with shorter notice than the period of notice prescribed for an

ordinary question. Like a starred question, it is answered orally followed by

supplementary questions.

Q10. Consider the following authorities:

1. Chairman of state public service commission

2. Governor of the state

3. State Election Commissioner

Which of the above can be removed only by the President?

(a) 1 , 2 Only

(b) 2 Only

(c) 2 , 3 Only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer : d)1,2,3

Chairman of state public service commission and State election commissioner

:appointed by Governor but removed by The President

Q11. In which of the following cases, the Supreme Court ruled that “judicial review” is

a “basic feature” of the Constitution and hence, it cannot be amended?

(a) Golaknath v. State of Punjab

(b) Kesavananda Bharati v. State of Kerala

(c) Minerva Mills Ltd. v. Union Of India

(d) Miss Bindiya Mukhija v. State Of Punjab

answer : C

Minerva Mills Ltd. v. Union Of India

Q12. Which of the following Article of Constitution states“the Chief Justice of a

High Court for any State may at any time, with the previous consent of the

President, request any person who has held the office of a Judge of that Court or

of any other High Court to sit and act as a Judge of the High Court for that

State.”

(a) 224

(b) 224A

(c) 242

(d) 242A

Answer: B

Article 224-A of Constitution states “the Chief Justice of a High Court for any State

may at any time, with the previous consent of the President, request any person who

has held the office of a Judge of that Court or of any other High Court to sit and act as

a Judge of the High Court for that State.”

Q13. Consider the following statements with reference to pardoning power of

President and Governor:

1. The President’s powers to pardon in Article 72 are different from those granted

to the Governor in Article 161.

2. Governor does not have powers of suspension, commutation and remission of a

death sentence.

3. The President has the right to pardon punishments of sentences given under

Court Martial, whereas the governor does not have this power.


(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 1 and 3 only

(c) 1 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: b

The President’s powers to pardon in Article 72 are different from those granted to the

Governor in Article 161. The President enjoys extensive powers under Article 72 as

compared to what is available to the State Governor.

In case where the convict is sentenced to death penalty, only the President can

exercise the right to pardon him/her. The governor does not have the right to pardon

death sentences, he/she can only suspend, commute or provide remission in case of

death sentences.

The President has the right to pardon punishments of sentences given under Court

Martial, whereas the governor does not have this power.

Both the President and Governor have concurrent powers in cases of suspension,

commutation and remission of a death sentence.

Q14. Consider the following statements with reference to Attorney General Of

India :

1. Attorney General is the highest legal officer in the country.

2. He has the right to speak, to vote and to take part in the proceedings of both

Houses of Parliament and their joint sittings and any committee of Parliament

of which he may be a member.

3. Privileges and immunities of Attorney General are similar to Member of

Parliament.


(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 1, 2 and 3

(c) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1 and 3 only

Answer: d

Article 76 mentions about AG as the highest legal officer in the country.

Article 88 mentions about rights of AG with respect to the Houses of Parliament and

its Committees, which includes:

He has the right to speak and to take part in the proceedings of both Houses of

Parliament and their joint sittings and any committee of Parliament of which he may

be a member. But he does not have the right to vote in the Parliament.

Article 105 defines that powers, privileges and immunities of AG are similar to Member

of Parliament.

Q15. Consider the following statements:

1. Under Article 143, the Supreme court can give opinion on disputes arising out

of pre-constitution treaties and agreements.

2. Every judge of a High court is appointed by the Governor in consultation with

the Chief Justice of India, Chief Justice of the High court of that state with the

prior consent of the President.

3. The maximum age up to which the judges of the Supreme court and High

Court can hold office is 65.


(a) 1 only

(b) 1 and 2 only

(c) 1 ,2 and 3

(d) 2 only

Answer: a)

2. Judges of High Court : appointed by the President with consultation with Governor

of the concerned state

3. retirement age of High court judges is 62.

Q16. Consider the following statements regarding The State Legislature and

choose the correct option:

1. The Constitution provide for the mechanism of joint sitting of two houses of the

State legislature to resolve a deadlock between them over the passage of a Bill.

2. A Bill, originated in the Legislative Council and sent to the Legislative

Assembly, is rejected by the latter, the Bill ends and becomes dead.

3. A bill which has originated in the in the Legislative Council and sent to the

Legislative assembly, if it is rejected by the latter then the mechanism of

passing the Bill for the second time(by The Council) to resolve the deadlock,

applies.

Select the answer using the codes given below:

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 1 and 3 only

(c) 2 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: c

Legislative Council is not a second chamber, but a secondary chamber. So it does not

enjoy the powers of rejecting or amending any bill passed by legislative assembly.

Q17. To ensure the independence of the election commission, the Constitution

has specified which of the following?

1. Election Commissioners can be removed only after a resolution to that effect

has been passed in Parliament with a majority of two-third present and voting.

2. During the tenure, the service conditions of the Election Commissioners

cannot be varied to their disadvantage.

3. Election Commissioners are barred from accepting any government posts after

retirement.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below :

(a) 2 and 3 only

(b) 2 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1 and 2 only

Answer: b

special majority is required (2/3rd present and voting and absolute majority)

EC members are not barred by the Constitution. This is a major shortcoming and may

influence the decisions of Election Commissioners.

Q18. Consider the following statements with reference to National Human Rights

Commission (NHRC) :

1. It is a constitutional body established in 1993.

2. This apex body is responsible for protecting and promoting human rights

related to life, liberty, equality and dignity of individuals as guaranteed by the

constitution of India and international covenants.

3. It’s Chairman should be a retired Chief Justice of India.

Which the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 3 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 2 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: b

It is a statutory body established in 1993 under the provisions of Protection of Human

Rights Act 1993.

This apex body is responsible for protecting and promoting human rights related to

life, liberty, equality and dignity of individuals as guaranteed by the constitution of

India and international covenants.

It consists of a Chairman and 4 members.

Chairman should be a retired Chief Justice of India. Members should be either sitting

or retired judges of the Supreme Court or a serving or retired Chief Justice of a High

Court and 2 persons having practical knowledge in the field of human rights.

Ex officio members are the chairpersons of National Commission for Scheduled Caste,

National Commission for Scheduled Tribes, National Commission for Minorities and

National Commission for Women.

Q19. Which of the following is/are the criteria for becoming national party in

India ?

1. Secures at least six percent (6%) of the valid votes polled in any four or more

states, at a general election to the House of the People or, to the State

Legislative Assembly; and in addition, it wins at least four seats in the House of

the People from any State or States.

2. Wins at least two percent (2%) seats in the House of the People, and these

members are elected from at least three different States.

3. A party has got recognition as a state party in at least six states.

Select the correct answer from the codes given below:

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: a

Criteria for becoming national party

A political party shall be eligible to be recognised as a National party if any of the given

three criteria is met.

It secures at least six percent (6%) of the valid votes polled in any four or more states,

at a general election to the House of the People or, to the State Legislative Assembly;

and in addition, it wins at least four seats in the House of the People from any State or

States.

It wins at least two percent (2%) seats in the House of the People (i.e., 11 seats in the

existing House having 543 members), and these members are elected from at least

three different States.

A party has got recognition as a state party in at least four states.

Q20. Consider the following statements with reference to Central Bureau of

Investigation (CBI) :

1. It is the main investigation agency of the central government for cases relating

to corruption and major criminal probes.

2. CBI was set up by a resolution of Ministry of Home Affairs in 1963

3. CBI is not a statutory body


(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: d

Central Bureau of Investigation

It is the main investigation agency of the central government for cases relating to

corruption and major criminal probes.

It has its origin in Special Police Establishment set up in 1941 to probe bribery and

corruption during World War II.

CBI was set up by a resolution of Ministry of Home Affairs in 1963 after Santhanam

committee recommendation.

Superintendence of CBI rests with CVC in corruption cases and with Department of

personnel and training in other matters.

Presently it acts as an attached office under DOPT.

Although DSPE Act gives legal power to CBI, CBI is not a statutory body as:

● Word ‘CBI’ is not mentioned in DSPE act.

● Executive order of MHA did not mention CBI to be constituted under DSPE Act.

Functions of CBI include solving:

● Corruption Cases

● Economic Crimes like financial frauds, narcotics, antiques, smuggling etc.

Part 2 1. Consider the following statements regarding executive branch of government:

1. The executive is often involved in framing of policy decisions.

2. The permanent executive in India is directly responsible to people.

Which of the above statements are true ?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

Ans A

Explanation

● Government can be broadly divided into three branches-legislature, executive and

judiciary.

● Even though the function of law making comes primarily within the ambit of legislature,

executive also often plays a significant role in policy decisions especially in a

Parliamentary system of government.

● Executive can be divided into two branches--- political (consisting of elected

representatives) and permanent (consisting of bureaucracy who are not elected but

appointed). The latter is not directly responsible to people but only to the political

executive.

2. Executive based on principle of collective leadership is found in which among the following

system of government ?

1. Constitutional Monarchy.

2. Parliamentary Republic.

3. Semi Presidential system.

4. Presidential System.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 ,2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 , 3 and 4

Ans C

Explanation

3. Consider the following statements.

1. All the members of legislative assemblies of Delhi and Puducherry participate in the

election of President.

2. Members of a dissolved legislative assembly where fresh elections are not held are

eligible for voting in Presidential election.

Which of the statements given above is/are not correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Ans C

Explanation

● The nominated members of both of Houses of Parliament, the nominated members of

the state legislative assemblies, the members (both elected and nominated) of the state

legislative councils (in case of the bicameral legislature) and the nominated members of

the Legislative Assemblies of Delhi and Puducherry do not participate in the election

of the President.

● Where an assembly is dissolved, the members cease to be qualified to vote in presidential

election, even if fresh elections to the dissolved assembly are not held before the

presidential election.

4. Consider the following statements regarding President election..

1. There is equality between states in the process of presidential election.

2. The vote of an MP has a greater value compared to that of an MLA.

3. Presidential election can be declared void by the supreme court.

Which of the above statements are true ?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) All the above

Ans D

Explanation

● The Constitution provides that there shall be uniformity in the scale of representation

of different states as well as parity between the states as a whole and the Union at the

election of the President.

● All doubts and disputes in connection with election of the President are inquired into and

decided by the Supreme Court whose decision is final. If the election of a person as

President is declared void by the Supreme Court, acts done by him before the date of

such declaration of the Supreme Court are not invalidated and continue to remain in

force.

5. Which of the following cabinet committees is NOT headed by the Prime Minister?

(a) Political Affairs Committee

(b) Economic Affairs Committee

(c) Appointments Committee

(d) Parliamentary Affairs Committee

Ans D

Explanation

● The Political Affairs Committee deals with all policy matters pertaining to domestic and

foreign affairs.(Most powerful committee).

● The Economic Affairs Committee directs and coordinates the governmental activities in

the economic sphere.

● Appointments Committee decides all higher level appointments in the Central

Secretariat, Public Enterprises, Banks and Financial Institutions.

● Parliamentary Affairs Committee looks after the progress of government business in

the Parliament.

● The first three committees are chaired by the Prime Minister and the last one by the

Home Minister

6. Regarding the seat seat of the supreme court consider the following:

1. The Constitution declares Delhi as the seat of the Supreme Court.

2. No other places can be a seat of Supreme Court without amendment of constitution under

Article 368.

Which of the above statements is/are true?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 and 2

Ans A

Explanation

● SEAT OF SUPREME COURT

○ The Constitution declares Delhi as the seat of the Supreme Court.

○ But, it also authorises the chief justice of India to appoint other place or places as

seat of the Supreme Court. He can take decision in this regard only with the

approval of the President.

○ This provision is only optional and not compulsory. This means that no court

can give any direction either to the President or to the Chief Justice to appoint any

other place as a seat of the Supreme Court.

7. Consider the following statements regarding delegated legislation:

1. Indian Constitution does not allow the practice of delegated legislation.

2. The concept of delegated legislation goes against the principles of separation of powers

and parliamentary democracy.


(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Ans B

Explanation

● Delegated legislation (sometimes referred as secondary legislation or subordinate

legislation or subsidiary legislation) is a process by which the executive authority is given

powers by primary legislation to make laws in order to implement and administer the

requirements of that primary legislation.

● Delegated legislation is permitted by the Indian Constitution. It exists in form of bye

rules, regulations, orders, bye laws etc.

● Since it provides the power to form laws to the executive, it goes against the principles of

separation of powers and parliamentary democracy.

8. Original jurisdiction of the Supreme Court extends to which among the following?

1. Disputes between different units of the Indian Federation.

2. A dispute arising out of any pre-Constitution treaty, agreement etc.

3. Inter-state water disputes.

4. Any suit brought before the Supreme Court by a private citizen against the Centre or a

state.


(a) 1 only

(b) 1, 2 and 3

(c) 1, 2 and 4

(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Ans A

Explanation

● Learn list of topics under original jurisdiction and its exemptions from laxmikant under

Chapter :Supreme court.

9. Consider the following statements.

1. The Speaker of Lok sabha advises the President regarding summoning and proroguing of

the sessions of Parliament.

2. The Speaker of Lok Sabha can arrange a secret sitting on the request of a minister.

3. The oath of Speaker is administered by the Protem speaker.


(a) 2 only

(b) 3 only

(c) 1 and 2

(d) 1,2 and 3

Ans D

Explanation

● The Prime Minister is the leader of the Lower House.He advises the President with

regard to summoning and proroguing of the sessions of the Parliament.

● Speaker can allow a ‘secret’ sitting of the House at the request of the Leader of the

House. When the House sits in secret, no stranger can be present in the chamber,lobby or

galleries except with the permission of the Speaker.

● The Speaker and the Deputy Speaker, while assuming their offices, do not make and

subscribe any separate oath or affirmation.

10.Consider the following statements.

1. Union territories does not have representation in Rajya Sabha.

2. Only elected members are present in Lok Sabha.


(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Ans C

Explanation

● The representatives of each union territory in the Rajya Sabha are indirectly elected

by members of an electoral college specially constituted for the purpose. This

election is also held in accordance with the system of proportional representation by

means of the single transferable vote. Out of the seven union territories, only two (Delhi

and Puducherry) have representation in Rajya Sabha. The populations of other five union

territories are too small to have any representative in the Rajya Sabha.

● The president can nominate two members from the Anglo-Indian community if the

community is not adequately represented in the Lok Sabha

11. With reference to Central Administrative Tribunals (CAT) , which of the following

statements are true?

1. CAT has original jurisdiction in relation to recruitment and all service matters of all public

servants covered by it.

2. Members of defence forces are not covered under it, however, civilian employees of defence

forces comes under jurisdiction of CAT.

3. CAT is bound to function by the procedure laid down by CRPC and Indian Evidence Act.


(a) 1 only

(b) 1 and 2 only

(c) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1 , 2 and 3

Ans B

Explanation

● 42nd amendment added two articles 323 A and B which enables creation of tribunals for

settlement of various issues.

● CAT exercises original jurisdiction in relation to recruitment and all service matters of public

servants covered by it. Its jurisdiction extends to the all-India services, the Central civil

services, civil posts under the Centre and civilian employees of defence services. However,

the members of the defence forces, officers and servants of the Supreme Court and the

secretarial staff of the Parliament are not covered by it.

● CAT is not bound by the procedure laid down in the Civil Procedure Code of 1908. It is

guided by the principles of natural justice. These principles keep the CAT flexible in

approach.

12. Consider the following statements regarding Union Territories:

1. Delhi and Puducherry are the only UTs with a legislative assembly.

2. The Parliament can make laws on any subject of three lists for all UTs except Puducherry

and Delhi.

Which of the above statements is/are not correct

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Ans B

Explanation

● The Union Territories of Puducherry (in 1963) and Delhi (in 1992) are provided with a

legislative assembly and a council of ministers headed by a chief minister. The remaining

five union territories do not have such popular political institutions.

● But, the establishment of such institutions in the union territories does not diminish the

supreme control of the President and Parliament over them

13. Consider the statements regarding 73rd Amendment Act of 1992:

1. It provided statutory status to Panchayati Raj Institutions.

2. Uniformity in structure to Panchayati Raj Institutions were brought about by the amendment.

3. Act provides for a Gram Sabha as the foundation of the Panchayati Raj System.


(a) 1 and 2

(b) 2 and 3

(c) 1 and 3

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Ans B

Explanation

● 73rd Amendment Act provided Constitutional status to the Panchayati Raj System not

Statutory. Dear student please understand the difference between constitutional and statutory

status.

● The act provides for a Gram Sabha as the foundation of the panchayati raj system. It is

a body consisting of persons registered in the electoral rolls of a village comprised within the

area of Panchayat at the village level.

● The act provides for a three-tier system of panchayati raj in every state, that is,

panchayats at the village, intermediate, and district levels3. Thus, the act brings about

uniformity in the structure of panchayati raj throughout the country. Exemption to this was

given to state with less than 20 lakh population.

14. Consider the following statements:

1. A candidate to Rajya Sabha has to be an elector in the state from where he is to be elected.

2. The Prime Minister of the country has to be invariably a member of the Lok Sabha.


(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Ans D

Explanation

● Rajya sabha members need not be elected from the states from which they were registered as

voter.

● PM can be member of Rajya sabha or lok sabha (eg: manmohan Singh was elected from

Rajya Sabha). He can even be a non member of both houses for a period of max 6 months

before which he needs to get elected to either of the houses.

15. Which of the following Urban Local Bodies do not have any elected members in it?

1. Notified Area Committee

2. Town Area Committee

3. Cantonment Board

4. Township

5. Port Trust


(a) 1,3 and 5

(b) 1,2 and 4

(c) 1 and 4

(d) All of the above.

Ans C

Explanation

● Please go through the features of each urban local government systems. Refer Laxmikant for

the same

16. Which of the following statements are true regarding reservation of seats in Panchayati

Raj System in India:

1. Act provided for 33 percent reservation of seats for Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes.

2. One-third of the total number of offices of chairpersons in the Panchayats at each level is

reserved for women by the act.

3. Act authorises the legislature of a state to make reservation of seats in favour of backward

classes.


(a) 1 and 2

(b) 2 and 3

(c) 1 and 3

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Ans B

Explanation

● The act provides for the reservation of seats for scheduled castes and scheduled tribes in

every panchayat (i.e., at all the three levels) in proportion of their population to the total

population in the panchayat area.

● Not less than one-third of the total number of offices of chairpersons in the panchayats

at each level shall be reserved for women.

● The act also authorises the legislature of a state to make any provision for reservation of

seats in any panchayat or offices of chairperson in the panchayat at any level in favour of

backward classes.

17. Consider the following statements regarding election procedure:

1. Seeking votes of overseas electors by going abroad by the candidates or their agents or party

leaders is prohibited under the law

2. Any inducement to overseas electors by offering to bear the travel expenses to come to India

for the purpose of voting, would amount to the electoral offence of ‘bribery’

Which of the statements above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 and 2

Ans B

Explanation

● It is likely that as part of election campaign party leaders and candidates may travel to

overseas countries for the purposes of canvassing in their favour to seek votes of the overseas

electors residing in those countries. In this context, the Commission clarifies that though

seeking votes of overseas electors by going abroad by the candidates or their agents or

party leaders is not prohibited under the law, all expenditure incurred by those candidates,

their agents or party leaders on their travel, boarding, lodging, etc., in those countries would

be deemed to be the expenditure incurred or authorized by the candidates concerned in

connection with their election.”

● “The Commission further clarifies that any inducement to overseas electors by way of Air

tickets or any other allurements to them, in cash or kind, to come to India for the

purpose of voting at the aforesaid elections would amount to the electoral offence of

‘bribery’

● http://pib.nic.in/newsite/PrintRelease.aspx?relid=142602

18. Which of the following are not covered under Right To Information Act (RTI) ?

1. Local Self Governments

2. Judiciary

3. Political parties

4. Intelligence Bureau


(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 1, 3 and 4 only

(c) 2 , 3 and 4 only

(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Ans C

Explanation

19. Consider the following statements regarding to Fundamental rights enshrined in the

constitution:

1. They are automatically enforceable and do not require any separate legislation for their

implementation.

2. They are positive instructions to state to establish a just and equitable society.


(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Ans A

Explanation

● Fundamental rights are automatically enforceable means an aggrieved person can

approach court for its violation even when the said rights is not protected by a separate

legislation.

● Fundamental rights are negative in nature means the put restriction on exercise of state

power from being excessive and arbitrary.

● The positive instructions to government are given in the form of DPSP to increase the

responsibility of government and to create a welfare state.

20. Suppose an important constitutional amendment passed by Lok sabha has been turned

down by Rajya Sabha. What are the options available to government to get the amendment

passed ?

(a) Call for a joint sitting of both houses presided by Lok sabha speaker.

(b) Refer the matter to President who uses his discretionary powers to decide whether to give

assent or not.

(c) Override Rajya sabha’s decision by getting consent from more than half of the state

legislatures.

(d) There are no constitutional avenues to clear such a deadlock.

Ans D

Explanation

● Constitution has not provided any options in case a deadlock arrives with regards to a

constitutional amendment. Not even joint sitting is allowed in the case of amendments.

● Please learn those features of a constitutional amendment which makes it different from a

normal bill.

Part 3

Consider the statements regarding Public Accounts Committee:

1. It has been in existence from 1921 and was formed under the Government of India Act,

1919.

2. It is constituted by the Parliament each year for parliamentary oversight over finances

3. It is not empowered to call witness and provide statements


(a) 1 and 2

(b) 2 and 3

(c) 1 and 3

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer A

Explanation

PUBLIC ACCOUNTS COMMITTEE

○ It has been in existence from 1921 and was formed under the Government of

India Act, 1919.

○ It is constituted by the Parliament each year for parliamentary oversight over

finances

○ 15 members from Lok Sabha and 7 from Rajya Sabha

○ proportional representation by means of the single transferable vote

○ All the deliberations of the committee are confidential

○ empowered to call witnesses

○ All the deliberations of the committee are confidential

○ The government submits an Action Taken Report on the recommendations of the

PAC which is then laid before the parliament.

3. Which of the following statements is/are true regarding National Human Rights

Commission?

1. The commission is not empowered to inquire into any matter after the expiry of one year

of incident.

2. NHRC is an accredited member of Global Alliance for National Human Rights

Institutions (GANHRI),


(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 and 2

Answer A

Explanation

● First statement is correct

● Global Alliance for National Human Rights Institutions (GANHRI),

○ affiliated to the UN High Commissioner for Human Rights, has deferred National

Human Rights Commission (NHRC) re-accreditation until November 2017

○ Accreditation confers international recognition and protection of the National

Human Rights Institution besides its compliance with the Paris Principles

○ Paris Principles

○ UN Paris Principles provide the international benchmarks against which NHRIs

can be accredited

4. Which of the following statements is/are true regarding Electoral Bonds?

1. Political party will be provided with the identity of bond donor.

2. Electoral Bonds could only be bought using cheques or digital payments.


(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 and 2

Answer B

Explanation

● Electoral bonds The bonds will only be issued by a notified bank. It could only be

bought using cheques or digital payments. The bonds purchased by donor will be given

to a political party for a fixed period of time. A political party using their notified bank

account can convert these bonds into money. All political parties are required to notify

their bank account to the Election Commission. This bond will be like a bearer cheque

which will facilitate donor's anonymity

5. Which of the following statements is/are true regarding criteria for National Party

Status?

1. A party’s performance over previous Lok Sabha or assembly elections is considered for

granting recognition as a national party.

2. A party has got recognition as a state party in at least four states is eligible for National

Party Status


(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 and 2

Answer B

Explanation

● Under the revised rules of EC, a party’s performance over two consecutive Lok Sabha or

assembly elections is considered, as opposed to one previously, for granting recognition

as a national party.

● The Election Commission amended rules that, from now onwards, it will review the

national and state party status of political parties every 10 years instead of the present

five years. o Amendment has been brought regarding this in Election Symbols

(Reservation and Allotment) Order, 1968 o The criterion of recognizing them as national

or state party remains the same

6. Which of the following comes under the purview of Article 13 of the Indian

Constitution?

1. Bye Laws

2. Ordinances

3. Constitutional Amendment

4. Laws enacted by state assemblies

5. Custom or usage having the force of law.


(a) 1, 2 and 5

(b) 1, 2, 3 and 4

(c) 1, 2,4 and 5

(d) All the above

Answer C

Explanation

● Constitutional Amendment is not covered under Article 13

●

7. . Which of the following are related to Right to Equality under the provisions of Articles

14 - 18 of the Constitution of India ?

1. Prohibition of discrimination on grounds of religion, race, caste, sex or place of birth

2. Equality of opportunity in matters of public employment

3. Educational and cultural rights to minorities

4. Abolition of untouchability


(a) 2 and 3 only

(b) 1,2 and 4 only

(c) 2, 3 and 4 only

(d) 3 and 4 only

Answer B

Explanation

● Educational and cultural rights to minorities –article 29 and 30

8. Consider the following provisions under the Directive Principles of State Policy as

enshrined in the Constitution of India:

1. Securing for citizens of India a uniform civil code

2. Organizing village Panchayats.

3. Promoting cottage industries in rural areas

4. Securing for all the workers reasonable leisure and cultural opportunities

Which of the above are the Gandhian Principles that are reflected in the Directive

Principles of State Policy?

a) 2 and 3 only

b) 1,2 and 3

c) 2, 3 and 4 only

d) 3 and 4 only

Answer A

Explanation

● To organise village panchayats and endow them with necessary powers and authority to

enable them to function as units of self-government (Article 40).

● To promote cottage industries on an individual or co-operation basis in rural areas

(Article 43).

● To promote voluntary formation, autonomous functioning, democratic control and

professional management of co-operative societies (Article 43B).

● To promote the educational and economic interests of SCs, STs, and other weaker

sections of the society and to protect them from social injustice and exploitation (Article

46).

● To prohibit the consumption of intoxicating drinks and drugs which are injurious to

health (Article 47).

● To prohibit the slaughter of cows, calves and other milch and draught cattle and to

improvevtheir breeds (Article 48)

9. Which of the following statements is/are correct?

1. National emergency can be declared only once war has started.

2. National emergency is proclaimed for whole of the country.

3. 44th constitutional amendment replaced word ‘internal disturbance’ with ‘armed

rebellion’ in article 352.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

(a) 3 only

(b) 1 and 2 only

(c) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1 and 3 only

Answer A

Explanation

● President can declare a national emergency even before the actual occurrence of the war

or external aggression or armed rebellion, if he is satisfied that there is an imminent

danger. 42nd constitutional amendment enabled the president to limit the operation

of a national emergency to a specified part of India. In 1978, Morarji Desai

government brought 44th constitutional amendment to replace word ‘internal

disturbance’ with ‘armed rebellion’ in article 352.

10. The constitution (Seventy-Third Amendment) Act, 1992, which aims at promoting the

Panchayati raj Institutions in the Country, provides for which of the following ?

1. Constitution of District Planning Committees.

2. State Election Commissions to conduct all panchayat elections.

3. Establishments of State Finance Commissions.


(a) 1 and 2

(b) 2 and 3

(c) 1 and 3

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer D

11.Consider the following statements:

1. An amendment to the Constitution of India can be initiated by an introduction of a bill in

the Lok Sabha only.

2. If such an amendment seeks to make changes in the federal character of the Constitution,

the amendment also requires to be ratified by the legislature of all the States of India.


(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer D

Explanation

● Constitutional amendment can be introduced in both Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha

● Only half of the state legislature needs to be ratify if the federal character of the

constitution is changed.

12. Consider the following statements about privileges and immunities of The President of

India

1. The President is not answerable to any court of law for the exercise of his functions.

2. The President can neither be arrested nor any civil proceedings be instituted against him

in any court of law during his tenure.

3. The President cannot be asked to be present in any court of law during his tenure.

4. President have parliamentary Privileges similar to Member of Parliament.


a) 1,2,3,4

b) 1,2 and 3 only

c) 1,3 and 4 only

d) 1 and 3 only

Answer

Explanation

● The President of India enjoys certain privileges and immunities which include the

following:

● The President is not answerable to any court of law for the exercise of his functions.

● The President can neither be arrested nor any criminal proceedings be instituted against

him in any court of law during his tenure.

● The President cannot be asked to be present in any court of law during his tenure.

● A prior notice of two months time is to be served before instituting a civil case against

him.

● Removal of the President

● The President can only be removed from office through a process called impeachment.

The Constitution lays down a detailed procedure for the impeachment of the President.

He can only be impeached ‘for violation of the Constitution’.

● The following procedure is intentionally kept very difficult so that no President should be

removed on flimsy ground.

● The resolution to impeach the President can be moved in either House of Parliament.

Such a resolution can be moved only after a notice has been given by at least one- fourth

of the total number of members of the House.

● Such a resolution charging the President for violation of the Constitution must be passed

by a majority of not less than two-third of the total membership of that House before it

goes to the other House for investigation. The charges levelled against the President are

investigated by the second House. President has the right to be heard or defended when

the charges against him are being investigated. The President may defend himself in

person or through his counsel. If the charges are accepted by a two-third majority of the

total membership of the second House, the impeachment succeeds. The President thus

stands removed from the office from the date on which the resolution is passed. This

procedure of impeachment is even more difficult than the one adopted in America where

only simple majority is required in the House of Representatives to initiate the

proceedings.

● President do not require any other privileges as he already have more privileges than a

MP

13. Which of the following statements is/are correct?

1. President can promulgate an ordinance only when both the Houses are not in session.

2. Once an ordinance is promulgated, president has no power to withdraw it.

3. An ordinance can take away any of the fundamental rights.


(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 1 and 3 only

(c) 2 and 3 only

(d) None of the above

Answer D

Explanation

● Article 123 of the constitution gives the president power to promulgate the ordinances. If

at any time, except when both Houses of Parliament are in session, the President is

satisfied that circumstances exist which render it necessary for him to take immediate

action, he may promulgate such Ordinances as the circumstances appear to him to

require. It means he/she can promulgate ordinances even if one House is not in session as

bill is required to be pass by both the Houses.

● Under article 123(2) (b), Ordinance may be withdrawn at any time by the President.

Under article 123(2), An Ordinance promulgated under this article shall have the same

force and effect as an Act of Parliament. Article 13 of the constitution says that laws

inconsistent with or in derogation of the fundamental rights shall be void. Here ‘law’

includes ordinance also.

14. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer by using the codes given below

the lists

List I (Functionaries) List II (Oaths or affirmations)

I. President of India (A) Secrecy of Information

II. Judges of the Supreme Court (B) Faithful Discharge of Duties

III. Members of Parliament (C) Faith and Allegiance to the Constitution

of India

IV. Ministers for the Union (D) Upholding the Constitution and the Law


a) I-C, II-D, III-A, IV-B

b) I-D, II-C, III-B, IV-A

c) I-C, II-D, III-B, IV-A

d) I-D, II-C, III-A, IV-B

Answer C

Part 4 1.Which of the following electoral systems have been adopted for various elections in India

?

1. System of direct elections on the basis of adult suffrage.

2. System of proportional representation by means of the single transferable vote.

3. List system of proportional representation.

4. Cumulative system of indirect elections.

Select the correct answer from the codes given below.

a) 1 and 2 only

b) 1, 2 and 3 only

c) 2, 3 and 4 only

d) 3 and 4 only

Answer A

Explanation

● Direct elections on the basis of adult suffrage is used in Loksabha,assemble and

Panchayat elections

● System of proportional representation with STV is used in President Election and in

elections to Rajya sabha

● Other two are not used in India

2. Consider the following statements :

1. The Chairman and the Deputy Chairman of the Rajya Sabha are not the members of that

House.

2. While the nominated members of the two Houses of the Parliament have no voting right

in the presidential election, they have the right to vote in the election of the Vice

President.


a) 1 only

b) 2 only

c) Both 1 and 2

d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer B

Explanation

● Dy. Chairman is the member of Rajya Sabha

● In this context, two things should be noted: (a) the nominated members of either House of

Parliament can participate in the impeachment of the President though they do not

participate in his election; (b) the elected members of the legislative assemblies of states

and the Union Territories of Delhi and Puducherry do not participate in the impeachment

of the President though they participate in his election.

3. Which one of the following statements is correct ? The Prime Minister of India

a) is free to choose his ministers only from among those who are members of either House

of the Parliament

b) can choose his cabinet colleagues after due counselling by the President of India in this

regard

c) has full discretion in the choice of persons who are to serve as ministers in his cabinet

d) has only limited powers in the choice of his cabinet colleagues because of the

discretionary power vested with the President of India

Answer C

4. Consider the following statements:

1. The joint sitting of the two houses of the Parliament in India is sanctioned under Article

108 of the Constitution

2. The first joint sitting of Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha was held in the year 1961

3. Joint sitting can be called for constitutional amendments bills also

Which of these statements are correct?

a) 1,2 and 3

b) 2 only

c) 1 and 2 only

d) 1 only

Answer C

Explanation

● As per Article 108 of Constitution, a Joint session of Parliament can be summoned in the

following situations.

● If after a Bill has been passed by one House and transmitted to the other House— (a) the

Bill is rejected by the other House; or (b) the Houses have finally disagreed as to the

amendments to be made in the Bill; or (c) more than six months elapse from the date of

the reception of the Bill by the other House without the Bill being passed by it, the

President may, unless the Bill has elapsed by reason of a dissolution of the House of the

People, notify to the Houses by message if they are sitting or by public notification if

they are not sitting, his intention to summon them to meet in a joint sitting for the purpose

of deliberating and voting on the Bill

● However, in calculating period of six months, those days are not considered when house

is prorogued or adjourned for more than 4 consecutive days. If the above conditions are

satisfied, the President of India may summon joint sitting of both the houses of

parliament. Not all bills can be refereed to a joint sitting of Parliament. There are two

exception. 1. Money Bill Under the Constitution of India, money bills require approval of

the Lok Sabha only. Rajya Sabha can make recommendations to Lok Sabha, which it is

not required to accept.

● Even if Rajya Sabha doesn't pass a money bill within 14 days, it is deemed to have been

passed by both the Houses of Parliament after expiry of the above period.

● Therefore, a requirement to summon a joint session can never arise in the case of money

bill. 2. Constitution Amendment Bill Article 368 of Indian constitution require that

constitution of India can be amended by both houses of parliament by 2/3 majority. In

case of disagreement between both houses, there is no provision to summon joint session

of parliament.

● Joint session of Indian parliament has been called for only three bills Dowry Prohibition

Act (1961) The Banking Service Commission Repeal Bill (1978) The Prevention of

Terrorist Activities Act (2002)

5. Article 156 of the Constitution of India provides that a Governor shall hold office for a

term of five years from the date on which he enters upon his office. Which of the following

can be deduced from this ?

1. No Governor can be removed from office till completion of his term.

2. No Governor can continue in office beyond a period of five years.

Select the correct answer from the codes given below :

a) 1 only

b) 2 only

c) Both 1 and 2

d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer D

Explanation

● A governor holds office for a term of five years from the date on which he enters upon

his office. However, this term of five years is subject to the pleasure of the President.

Further, he can resign at any time by addressing a resignation letter to the President.

● The President may transfer a Governor appointed to one state to another state for the rest

of the term. Further, a Governor whose term has expired may be reappointed in the same

state or any other state. A governor can hold office beyond his term of five years until his

successor assumes charge. The underlying idea is that there must be a governor in the

state and there cannot be an interregnum

6. Which of the following Statements is not correct?

(a) The President has the power to instruct the Governor of a State to promulgate an

Ordinance applicable to the concerned state.

(b) The President can issue directions for the formation of Tribal Councils even in States not

having Scheduled Areas.

(c) Only President has the legislative power to make regulations relating to Puducherry.

(d) Article 365 paves the way for the President to assume to himself any of the

Governmental powers of the State.

Answer C

Explanation

● Pondicherry has Legislative Asembly

7. Which of the following are correct with respect to division of power between union and

states?

1. On a subject in concurrent list, union law always prevails over state law

2. Union can never make a law on the subject in state list with the two exceptions of

emergency provisions in operation at the time; or a request by the state/s or Rajya Sabha

for the same.

3. The subjects not listed in any list are considered to be part of union list, provision also

known as residuary power

4. Rajya Sabha has the sole authority for the initiation of All India Judicial Services under

article 312.


(a) 1, 2, 3 and 4

(b) 1, 2 and 3 only

(c) 3 and 4 only

(d) 1, 2 and 4 only

Answer C

Explanation

● State Law can prevail in case of permission by President. For international agreements,

Parliament can make laws on state list

8. Consider the following statements regarding The Chief Minister of State and choose the

correct option:

1. The Chief Minister has the privilege to appoint and remove any minister.

2. The advice of the Chief Minister to dissolve the State Legislative Assembly is binding

upon the Governor when the Chief Minister still has the majority support.

3. The State Council of Minister is collectively responsible before the Governor of the State.


(a) 1 and 2

(b) 1 only

(c) 2 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer C

Explanation

● Governor appoints and remove any minister.

● CoM is responsible before state legislature

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