Name: KEY Last First ID#___________________________ Lab. Date and Time____________________ Lab. TA____________________

Biological Sciences 1B – Dr. Herrlinger Summer Sessions I 2001

Final Exam August 3, 2001

DO NOT OPEN EXAM UNTIL INSTRUCTED TO DO SO

Please Read the Instructions First

Check your pages. There are 17 pages in this exam. You are responsible for making sure that you have all the pages.

This examination is worth 130 points. Write your name, ID#, and Lab. Section on your scantron.

Multiple Choice Questions 1. Indicate your answers on the scantron sheet using a number 2 or test scoring pencil. Press

heavily, don’t stray out of the margins, and completely erase any changed answers. 2. If you think that a multiple choice question is ambiguous or confusing, use the “gripe sheet” at

the end of the examination to explain the problem. 3. There are 45 multiple choice or true/false questions worth 2 points each. Fill-in Questions 1. Use pen only (no grade corrections for pencil or white–out). 2. Write only one answer per question. You can elaborate on an answer, but you will not be

given any credit if you write two different answers to the question. 3. Spelling rules: ½ credit for 2–3 letters wrong or transposed. No points will be given if the

misspelling alters the meaning of the word. 4. There are 12 fill–in questions worth 40 points in total.

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Choose the one best answer: 1. What is the total number of different phyla represented by all of the following?

• a sea anemone • a sea cucumber • a sea hare • a sea lion • a sea snake • a sea star • a sea urchin

A. 2 B. 3 C. 4 D. 5 E. 6 2. When the same herbicide (plant poison) is applied to a lawn year after year, the surviving

lawn vegetation will have experienced A. disruptive selection B. extinction C no selection D. strong directional selection E. weak stabilizing selection 3. A reproductive system of pattern reversal where females compete with each other to give

eggs for the male to carry, is found in A. elephant seals B. ostriches C. poison arrow frogs D. trout E. zebras 4. A complete gut is found in A. all invertebrates B. cnidarians C. flatworms D. sponges E. the trochophore larva 5. Consider the following hypothetical, 3–dimensional organisms. On a hot day, which

organism would be able to dissipate heat most efficiently?

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A B C A. Species A B. Species B C. Species C D. They would all be expected to survive equally. 6. The water vascular system of sea stars serves the same function as the _______________ of

gastropods. A. foot B. heart C. mantle D. mantle cavity E. shell 7. When constructing a cladogram to show ancestor–descendant relationships, scientists should

use A. embryological information B. larval patterns C. morphological similarities D. recent molecular data E. all of the above should be considered 8. In 1982, the California condor population reached its lowest level of 22 individuals. If the

population rebounds to occupy its former range with a huge increase in numbers, what could be said about the population’s genetic structure?

A. Females will likely have more alleles than males. B. The life span of condors will be longer in the new population. C. The new population will be in Hardy–Weinberg equilibrium. D. The population has gone through a bottleneck. E. There will be significantly more alleles in the new population than in the pre–1982

population.

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9. In holometabolous insects, the larva and adult A. are both sexually mature B. are products of asexual reproduction C. have biramous appendages D. usually both have wings E. usually feed in different habitats 10. The parents of an obese boy decide to have him undergo massive liposuction to remove some

of his fat. They decide to do this before puberty when his reproductive system has not matured. The procedure drops his weight from 245 lbs to 110 lbs. What can you predict about the size of the boy’s future children?

A. Only the boys will be obese. B. They will all be obese. C. They will be normal–sized. D. They will be thin because of the emotional distress of their father’s ordeal. E. It’s impossible to say because his childrens’ size will be determined by their parents’

genes and the environment, not the effect of the liposuction. 11. True or False. Due to artificial selection, there is now more phenotypic variation within the

“dog” group in terms of skull morphology than in the entire “wild dog family”. A. True B. False 12. As ancestors of modern reptiles made the transition to land, what features were most

important in their future terrestrial survival? A. the amniotic egg B. internal fertilization C. finding water to place their eggs in D. all of the above E. A and B 13. A population of sea stars is in Hardy–Weinberg equilibrium. The number of sea star arms is

controlled by a single gene with two alleles. The five–arm F allele is dominant to the six–arm f allele. If the F allele has a frequency of 0.9, what is the genotype frequency of sea stars with the six–armed phenotype?

A. 0.01 B. 0.09 C. 0.1 D. 0.18 E. 0.81

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C B

A

5

4

3

2

1

crocodilians

snakes

lizardsbirds

frogsturtles

mammals

salamanders

lungfishes

ray–finned fishes 14. Refer to the cladogram above. What is the sister taxon of the turtles? A. clade A (snakes and lizards) B. clade B (birds and crocodilians) C. clade C (snakes, lizards, birds, and crocodilians) D. snakes E. mammals 15. Refer again to the cladogram above. Which node is the last shared common ancestor of

lizards and mammals? A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4 E. 5 16. Malaria is caused by A. a parasite B. an apicomplexan C. Plasmodium D. drinking water with fecal contamination E. A, B, and C 17. True or False. All vertebrates have either scales, feathers, or hair. A. True B. False (lampreys and hagfishes do not have scales, feathers, or hair.) 18. What type of skeleton is seen in echinoderms? A. endoskeleton

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B. exoskeleton C. hollow D. hydrostatic E. siliceous 19. For 2001, the California Department of Fish and Game quarantined the taking of mussels

from May 1st through October 31st. This action was designed to A. improve the population by having larger eggs laid on rocks in the intertidal B. increase food for sea lions C. increase the thickness of byssal threads in mussels D. prevent paralytic shellfish poisoning E. protect the species from trampling by school children on field trips 20. Sea urchins are primarily A. deposit feeders B. filter–feeders C. herbivores D. scavengers E. predators 21. The notochord in Cephalochordates A. enlarges in the larva to form the brain in the adult B. is hollow C. originates from mesoderm D. provides a stiff structure for the muscles to work against E. all of the above 22. Which of the following is a distinguishing characteristic of the Phylum Echinodermata? A. aboral madreporite B. Aristotle’s lantern C. pedicellariae D. suckers on tube feet E. water vascular system

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23. The water vascular system in echinoderms functions in A. locomotion B. prey capture C. respiration D. A and B E. A, B, and C 24. Which of the following is true regarding the tunicate larva? A. after settlement, it undergoes metamorphosis B. it has a solid, ventral nerve cord C. it has a brain D. it is sessile E. pharyngeal gill slits are present in the larva, but lost in the adult 25. Members of the Class Holothuroidea can be distinguished from other classes in their phylum

by the presence of A. cephalization B. five rows of tube feet C. myotomes D. papulae E. small ossicles that are sparsely distributed throughout the body 26. Why do biologists think that heterochrony was important in the evolution of the

cephalochordates (Branchiostoma) from a tunicate ancestor? A. because both cephalochordates and tunicates are filter–feeders B. because juvenile cephalochordates resemble juvenile tunicates C. because some cephalochordates metamorphose into sessile adults D. because the adult cephalochordate has the features of a larval tunicate E. because the larval cephalochordate has the features of an adult tunicate 27. Which of the following is a true statement regarding the cuticle in insects? A. The tracheal system is an invagination of the cuticle. B. Wings are an evagination of the cuticle. C. The cuticle is thinnest at the joints. D. All of the above are true. E. A, B, and C are all false.

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28. If all the zooxanthellae on earth died tomorrow, which of the following would likely happen? A. Herbivorous mammals would be unable to digest cellulose because they would lack these

symbiotic microbes in their guts. B. Reef–building corals would die, leading to the loss of the earth’s coral reefs. C. There would be a dramatic increase in the amount of photosynthesis occurring in the

marine plankton. D. Vertebrates would be much healthier because they would no longer be infected by these

parasites. E. Not much would happen because zooxanthellae do not play a major role in the earth’s

ecosystems. 29. You visit a marine lab and are invited to a potluck party where all the graduate students are

encouraged to bring their research organism to eat. The peer pressure to eat this food is relentless and you force yourself to eat small portions of abalone, clams, crab, lobster, scallops, sea cucumber, shark, shrimp, and squid. How many different taxonomic Classes have you consumed?

A. 4 B. 5 C. 6 D. 7 E. 8 30. Sexual reproduction occurs in which of the following groups? 1. protists 4. polychaetes 2. cnidarians 5. molluscs 3. trematodes 6. mammals A. 5, 6 B. 4, 5, 6 C. 3, 4, 5, 6 D. 2, 3, 4, 5, 6 E. 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6 31. Which of the following features make ring species interesting to biologists? A. They may represent one stage in the process of cladogenesis. B. They show that some gene flow can occur indirectly among populations. C. They show that natural selection favors hybrid offspring most of the time. D. A and B E. A, B, and C 32. A science fiction movie features an insect that is as big as an elephant. In reality, body size

in insects is limited by A. the weight of the cuticle

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B. their reliance on a well–developed coelom C. their reliance on book lungs for respiration D. their reliance on trachea for respiration E. A and D 33. The Subphylum Urochordata includes all of the following EXCEPT A. colonial salps B. pelagic salps C. pelagic larvaceans D. ostracoderms E. solitary tunicates 34. The modern day remnants of the early jawless fishes are A. cephalochordates B. eels C. lampreys and hagfishes D. Osteichthyes E. sharks, skates, and rays 35. If you put a small freshwater guppy in the coral reef tank in the lobby of Storer Hall it would

probably be eaten immediately by predators. But if it were safe within a mesh cage, which of these problems would it face?

A. an overproduction of TMO (trimethylamine oxide) in its blood B. ions would exit its body C. water would enter its body D. water would exit its body E. B and C 36. Based on simple lungfish morphology, we think lungs evolved by A. an increase in the size and complexity of pockets in the digestive tract B. development and internalization of gills C. expansion of nasal passages D. outpocketing of the inner ear sinuses E. vascularization of the fish’s mantle cavity

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37. What did aboriginal Australians take with them when they crossed their desert? A. camel stomachs full of water B. lungfishes C. poison arrow frogs D. protection from the Anopheles mosquito E. water–holding frogs 38. When traits characteristic of juvenile ancestors are retained by adult descendants, this is A. neoteny B. paedomorphosis C. progenesis D. all of the above E. none of the above 39. True or False. Evidence for a single evolution of life is supported by the fact that all metazoa

have mono–ciliate (flagellate) sperm with a 9+2 arrangement of microtubules in the cilia and flagella.

A. True B. False 40. What one diagnostic characteristic is used to classify the protozoa? A. method of locomotion B. number of nuclei C. presence of chloroplasts D. presence of contractile vacuoles and the ability to osmoregulate E. parasitic or free–living lifestyle 41. Which of the following is NOT a true statement about cyanobacteria? A. Cyanobacteria are photosynthetic. B. Cyanobacteria are single, prokaryotic cells. C. Cyanobacteria can form colonies. D. Cyanobacteria reproduce sexually and have undergone tremendous evolution since

their first appearance on earth 3.5 million years ago. E. Descendants of ancient cyanobacteria can be seen today in living stromatolites from

Western Australia.

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42. The slits in the chordate pharynx probably first evolved as what type of structure? A. circulatory B. digestive C. filter–feeding D. locomotory E. sensory 43. Lynn Margulis’s idea of how eukaryotes arose through intimate relationships between

various prokaryotic cells is called the A. cellular aggregation theory B. colonial theory C. crummy theory D. serial endosymbiont theory E. syncytial theory 44. Which of the following structures would be unlikely in a freshwater flagellate? A. structures for circulation B. structures for locomotion C. structures for nutrition D. structures for osmoregulation E. structures for reproduction 45. What structures do insects and the Myriapoda have in common? A. compound eyes B. holometabolous development C. poison fangs D. uniramous appendages E. wings

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Short Answer and Fill–In 46. Construct a cladogram using the lizard images above. Notice differences in limbs, tails, eyes,

and head spines. Draw lines and use letters (instead of drawings) to show the position of each species on your cladogram. Make the most parsimonious cladogram with the images above. You do not need to list character states on the cladogram. Hint: Species E is now extinct. (6 pts)

F EDB CA

Answer: 47. Name one advantage and one disadvantage to a male that controls a harem. (2 pts)

C BF

E

D A

ancestor

common to all 12

Advantage: higher relative fitness (passes more of his genes to future generations) Disadvantage: energetically costly to keep other males from mating with the females 48. In certain species of whiptail lizards, all individuals are females and they undergo

parthenogenesis. What problem do these animals face if their environment changes drastically? (1 pt)

They have no genetic diversity where some individuals of the species can survive

environmental change. 49. What is the nature of the association between ants and aphids and how are ladybugs

involved? (2 pts) Ants and aphids have a symbiotic (mutualistic) relationship where aphids provide a

honeydew reward to ants. Ants protect aphids by driving off predatory ladybugs. 50. Insects often develop resistance to chemical pesticides. Such resistance may be coded by a

single “resistance” allele (for example, in mosquitoes and houseflies). Consider a dominant resistant allele R and the recessive non–resistant allele r in a population of 100 mosquitoes. The frequency of the R allele is 0.7 and the frequency of the r allele is 0.3. If the population is in Hardy–Weinberg equilibrium, what would be the expected number of phenotypic resistant and non–resistant mosquitoes in the next generation? You must show all your work to receive credit. (4 pts)

Frequency of resistant allele = p = 0.7 (p2 + 2pq) * 100 = number of mosquitoes with resistant phenotype [(0.7)2 + 2(0.7)(0.3)] * 100 mosquitoes = 91 Frequency of non–resistant allele = q = 0.3 q2 * 100 = number of non–resistant mosquitoes (0.3)2 * 100 mosquitoes = 9 OR, subtract the frequency of the resistant allele calculated in the first part of the

problem from the population total (100) to obtain the frequency of the non–resistant allele. 51. Name one structure or feature of ophiuroids that distinguishes them from other classes within

their phylum. (2 pts) Accept any of the following:

Five narrow arms that are distinctly offset from the oral disk Locomotion by articulated arms No anus No suckers on tube feet

13 4

3 5

Oligochaeta Hirudinea

67

8 9

Polychaeta

52. a. For the cladogram above, give the numbers of all the characters shared by the taxa

Oligochaeta and Hirudinea. Do not guess! Incorrect responses will be penalized ½ point each. (2 pts)

1, 2, 4, 5 b. What is the character at position 3 that distinguishes Class Polychaeta from Oligochaeta

and Hirudinea? (2 pts) parapodia 53. Which of the following types of organisms form a blastula during development? Indicate all

the correct answers on the line below. Do not guess! Incorrect responses will be penalized ½ point each. (3 pts)

1. cestode 5. radiolarian 2. clam 6. sea urchin 3. flagellate 7. tunicate 4. gastropod 8. turtle 1, 2, 4, 6, 7, 8 54. Name one aquatic phylum whose members are incapable of osmoregulation. (2 pts) Porifera or Echinodermata

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Echinodermata ChordataAnnelida MolluscaPorifera Cnidaria Platyhelm. Arthropoda

55. One the cladogram above, label the first occurrence of each of the following: (6 pts)

cephalization

complete gut

metamerism

tagmatization

gastrulation, incomplete gut

A. cephalization B. complete gut C. gastrulation D. incomplete gut E. metamerism F. tagmatization

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56. a. Choose just ne of the three pictures above and write the name of the life stage directly

below the picture. (1 pt) o

b. What type of reproduction produces these stages? (2 pts)

sporocyst redia cercaria

asexual reproduction c. For the stage on the right, what is its habitat after it is released and where must it end up to

continue to the next life stage? (2 pts) The cercaria are aquatic and must penetrate a second intermediate host (such as a

fish) or encyst on vegetation to become a metacercaria. 57. List the developmental characteristics for protostomes and deuterostomes. (3 pts)

Developmental Characteristic

Protostome Deuterostome

Cleavage spiral

(determinate or mosaic development)

radial

(indeterminate or regulative development)

Coelom formed by schizocoely enterocoely

Blastopore becomes mouth anus

**Enjoy the rest of your summer!**

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Name: ___________________________ Last First ID#________________________

Gripe Sheet Instructions: 1. Put your name at the top of the page (I tear it off from the rest of the exam). 2. If you think that a question is ambiguous or confusing, indicate the question number, the

answer you gave, and the reason that you gave this answer. Question # Answer you gave Gripe