AP Biology II – Summer Assignment # 3 All of the Preview/Review Activities should be e-mailed by 11:59 PM on the due date to Miss Lenz at kiersten.lenz@irsd.k12.de.us. Please include the activity heading in your e-mail subject line. Number your responses from 1-30. If you are answering a multiple choice question, you only need to indicate the letter of your choice. Responses may be typed directly in the e-mail, in an MS Word document or in PDF format. Please make sure you answer the questions completely. The first 10 questions of each assignment are preview questions, so you will need to use your textbook. If you use any other resources, please indicate them and provide a link in your e-mail. Questions 11-30 are all multiple choice questions assessing material covered during AP Biology I.

Preview/Review Activity # 1 Due Friday, July 4, 2014 Preview Questions (Chapter 26) Define the terms below related to the study of phylogeny.

1. Phylogeny

2. Systematics

3. Taxonomy

4. List the levels of hierarchical classification from most inclusive to least inclusive.

5. Provide an example of each hierarchical group that includes humans from the levels listed above. (You may need to look this question up online!)

6. Phylogenetic Tree

7. Cladistics/Clade

8. Monophyletic vs. paraphyletic vs. polyphyletic

9. Outgroup vs. ingroup

10. List the three domains and discuss how the creation of the three domains has affected the Monera and Protista kingdoms.

Review Questions (Biochemistry and cells). Questions 11-18 refer to the following choices:

A. Protein B. Lipid C. Nucleic Acid D. Carbohydrate E. Water

11. Inorganic compound

12. Contains peptide bonds

13. Includes glycogen, chitin and starch

14. The main constituent of cell

membranes

15. Information storage in a cell

16. Include ribose, deoxyribose, glucose, and maltose.

17. Polymer containing five-carbon sugars

18. Most abundant molecule in the cell

19. Which of the following molecules contains the greatest amount of net usable energy per gram for a typical mammal?

a. Cholesterol b. Triglyceride c. Protein d. Ethanol e. Starch

Questions 20-23 Use the graph below to answer questions 20-22.

20. Represents the activation energy of the uncatalyzed forward reaction.

21. Represents the energy difference between the reactants and products.

22. Represents the activation energy of the enzyme-catalyzed forward reaction.

Questions 23-27 Questions 24 – 28 refer to the following choices:

A. Mitochondrion B. Smooth ER C. Rough ER D. Golgi Apparatus E. Lysosome

23. An acidic compartment containing

hydrolytic enzymes

24. Contains circular DNA and ribosomes

25. Synthesizes proteins for secretion

26. Functions in modifying proteins for secretions

27. Contains detoxification enzymes

28. Red blood cells moved from an isotonic medium into distilled water would most likely:

a. Shrivel b. Swell and lyse c. Not change d. Become sickle shaped e. Undergo apoptosis

29. All of the following are true of cells

except: a. The come from preexisting cells b. They all perform aerobic

respiration to make ATP c. They all have membranes d. They all contain DNA and

ribosomes e. Their small size permits the

largest surface area to volume ratio for gas exchange

30. Which of the following best describes the mechanism of transport if a substance is observed to move down its concentration gradient across a cell membrane at a much faster rate than expected by simple diffusion, but without the hydrolysis of ATP?

a. Osmosis b. Facilitated diffusion c. Active diffusion d. Active transport e. Cyclosis

Preview/Review Activity # 2 Due Friday, July 18, 2014 Preview Questions (Chapter 27-28) Prokaryotes (Chapter 27)

1. Describe the difference between gram positive and gram negative bacteria.

2. Describe how bacteria organize their genetic material.

3. Name and describe the method used by bacteria to reproduce.

4. Explain the difference between transformation and transduction.

5. Identify and describe the four nutritional/metabolic pathways used by prokaryotes.

6. Describe the characteristics of Archaea.

Protists (Chapter 28)

7. Describe the major characteristics of the kingdom Protista.

8. Describe endosymbiosis as it relates to protist evolution.

9. Name and describe the protist most closely related to land plants.

10. Name and describe the protist most closely related to animals and fungi.

Review Questions (Energetics and the Cell Cycle) Questions 11-14 Questions 11-14 refer to the following choices.

A. O2 B. CO2 C. NADH D. NADP+ E. H2O

11. Reduced during the light reactions of

photosynthesis

12. Product of oxidative phosphorylation

13. Substrate of oxidative phosphorylation produced by the Krebs Cycle

14. Product of the Krebs cycle and substrate of light independent reactions (Calvin cycle) in plants.

15. The Calvin cycle requires energy and reducing power from which of the following?

a. ATP from oxidative phosphorylation, NADPH from the Krebs cycle

b. ATP from light-dependent reactions; NADH from the Krebs cycle

c. ATP from photolysis; NADH from thylakoid electron transport chain

d. ATP from the light-dependent reactions; NADPH from the light-independent reactions

e. ATP and NADPH from the thylakoid electron transport chain and chemiosmosis

16. ATP is produced in all of the following processes except:

a. Cyclic light reactions b. Non-cyclic light reactions c. Glycolysis d. Chemiosmosis e. The Calvin cycle

17. Which of the following is common to

both fermentation and aerobic cellular respiration?

a. Oxygen is consumed b. FADH2 is produced c. ATP is synthesized d. Carbon dioxide is consumed e. All of the energy available in

glucose is released as CO2

18. A reduced rate of photosynthesis or photosynthetic yield can be attributed to any of the following except:

a. Reduce atmospheric CO2 concentration

b. Reduced water availability c. Fewer number of cytochrome

proteins and Calving cycle enzymes

d. Increased stomatal openings e. Increased photorespiration

19. All of the following are true regarding

CAM photosynthesis except: a. CAM photosynthesis is an

alternate pathway of carbon fixation

b. Carbon fixation occurs in bundle sheath cells

c. A four-carbon acid is produced at night when stomata are open

d. Rubisco fixes carbon during the day when the light reactions are occurring

e. Cactus and pineapple are examples of plants that do CAM photosynthesis

20. In an experiment, mice are fed glucose with radio-labeled carbon (14C). In which of the following molecules would the radioactivity be expressed?

a. NADH b. H2O c. CO2 d. ATP e. CH3OH

Questions 21-25 Questions 21-25 refer to the following choices:

A. G1 B. S C. G2 D. Metaphase E. Cytokinesis

21. DNA is replicated

22. Chromosomes attach to the spindle apparatus at the equatorial plate

23. Cells experience a restriction checkpoint to determine if division is necessary

24. The cell membrane and organelles are divided between separate daughter cells

25. Cells experience a checkpoint where DNA is proofread and corrected

26. Meiotic cell division can happen in all of the following organisms except:

a. Mushroom b. Protist c. Dog d. Bacteria e. Tree

27. If a skin cell of a particular animal contains 32 chromosomes, a sperm cell from this animal would be expected to contain how many chromosomes?

a. 32 b. 64 c. 16 d. 8 e. 23

28. All of the following are true of meiosis

except: a. Diploid cells divided to produce

four haploid cells b. Haploid cells divide to produce

four haploid cells c. Genetic recombination occurs

during prophase I d. Microtubules pull

chromosomes to opposite poles of the cells during anaphase I and II

e. Meiosis II is very similar to mitosis

29. Which of the following is true of mitosis?

a. It is also called cytokinesis b. It is the same as binary fission c. It evenly distributes

chromosomes to daughter cells d. DNA replication occurs during

prophase e. It maintains chromosome

number from parent cell to daughter cells

30. All of the following are true regarding the cells of diploid, sexually reproducing, multicellular organisms except:

a. Somatic cells contain the same DNA because the arise from mitotic cell division of the zygote

b. Different types results from differential gene expression

c. Although the cells contain the same DNA, they contain different genes

d. Most cells contain two copies of each autosomal gene

e. Cells are diploid because they inherited one set of chromosomes from reach parent

Preview/Review Activity # 3 Due Friday, August 1, 2014 Preview Questions (Chapters 29-30)

1. What organism did plants evolve from and what evidence do we have to support this relationship?

2. Describe the characteristics of bryophytes and give examples of some bryophytes.

3. Describe the characteristics of seedless vascular plants and give examples of some of these plants.

4. Describe the structure and function of xylem and phloem.

5. What is the adaptive advantage of having leaves?

6. What is a seed? Why are seed advantageous to plants? What types of plants produce seeds?

7. What is pollen and why is it beneficial to plants?

8. Describe gymnosperms and give some examples of gymnosperms.

9. Describe angiosperms and give some examples of angiosperms.

10. Describe the purpose of a flower. What types of plants contain flowers?

Review Questions (Classical Genetics/Heredity) Questions 11-15 Questions 11-15 refer to the following choices:

A. Down syndrome B. Tay-Sachs disease C. Turner syndrome D. Sickle cell anemia E. Red-green colorblindness

11. Only occurs in females

12. Occurs mostly in males

13. Trisomy 21

14. Heterozygotes have resistance to

malaria

15. Enzymes deficiency resulting in the accumulation of fatty deposits

Questions 16-20 Questions 16-20 refer to the following choices:

A. Crossing-over B. Independent assortment C. Translocation D. Nondisjunction E. Segregation

16. Results in aneuploidy

17. The random distribution of each

maternal and paternal chromosome into daughter cells

18. When part of a chromosome breaks off and attaches to a nonhomologous chromosome

19. When part of a chromosome breaks off and attaches to a homologous chromosome

20. The random assortment of tetrads at the metaphase plate

Questions 21-24 Questions 21-24 refer to the following choices. Assume independent assortment of all alleles.

A. 0 B. ¼ C. ½ D. ¾ E. 3/16

21. Probability the dominant phenotype

will be produced by Aa x Aa

22. Probability the genotype AABb will be produced by the parents AaBb x aabb

23. Probability the gamete ab will be produced by parent AaBb

24. The probability that two parents with the genotype AaBb will produce an offspring with a phenotype dominant for A and recessive for B

25. How many different genotypes are possible from the cross Aabb x AaBb?

a. Three b. Four c. Six d. Nine e. Sixteen

26. How many phenotypes are possible

from the cross Aabb x AaBb? a. Two b. Four c. Six d. Eight e. Sixteen

27. Karima is color-blind. Which of the following best explains how this will affect her children?

a. All of Karima’s daughters will be colorblind

b. All of Karima’s sons will be colorblind

c. All of Karima’s children will be colorblind

d. All of Karima’s sons will be colorblind only if her husband is colorblind, too

e. The allele for colorblindness is passed on to sons from their father

28. A couple has four children, only one of whom has sickle cell anemia. What is the probability their fifth child will be phenotypically normal?

a. 0 d. ¾ b. ¼ e. 1 c. ½

Questions 29-30 Questions 29-30 refer to the following situation: Achondroplasia is a dominant genetic trait. The homozygous condition is lethal, but heterozygotes will become dwarfed by a malformation of the skeleton. Jonathon does not express the trait but has a family history of dwarfism. Anna, his wife, has achondroplasia.

29. The genotypes of Jonathon and Anna, respectively, are:

a. Aa, aa d. aa, AA b. aa, Aa e. Aa, Aa c. Aa, AA

30. If Jonathon and Anna have a child, what

is the probability that he or she will have Achondroplasia?

a. 0 percent d. 75 percent b. 25 percent e. 100 percent c. 50 percent

Preview/Review Activity #4 Due Friday, August 15, 2014 Preview Questions (Chapters 30-31) Plants (Chapter 30) Identify each of the structures in the diagram below and give a brief explanation of the function of each structure. If the number includes letters, be sure to identify and explain each letter.

Fungi (Chapter 31)

6. Are fungi more closely related to plants or animals? Explain.

7. Define hyphae.

8. Define mycelium.

9. What type of organisms did fungi evolve from? What evidence do we have to demonstrate this relationship?

10. Using Figure 31.11, name and describe the five major phyla of fungi.

A

B A

B

C

1

2

3

4

5

Review (Molecular Genetics) Question 11-15 Questions 11-15 refer to the following choices:

A. Avery B. Chargaff C. Griffith D. Meselson and Stahl E. Hershey and Chase

11. Transformation is possible but the

transforming factor is unknown.

12. Cultured E. coli in 15N and then 14N to show DNA replication is semiconservative

13. Nucleic acid, not protein, is the genetic material of the T2 bacteriophage

14. When nucleases are added to the transformation reaction, transformation does not occur.

15. The percent composition of guanine equals the percent composition of cytosine in DNA

Questions 16-20 Questions 16-20 refer to the following choices:

A. mRNA B. DNA C. tRNA D. RNA polymerase E. Ribosome

16. Double-stranded molecule passed from

one generation to the next

17. Protein that synthesizes RNA

18. Contains codons

19. Contains an anticodon

20. Made of two subunits, each composed of protein and RNA

21. Which of the following statements is true concerning genes?

a. Genes can exist in alternate forms called introns and exons

b. A gene can code for a polypeptide

c. Genes can cross over during mitosis

d. Recessive alleles are never expressed

e. Genes make up the majority of nucleotide sequences in the human genome

22. Which of the following statements about DNA replication is true?

a. DNA replication begins at the promoter

b. The leading strand of DNA contains Okazaki fragments

c. Hydrogen bonds must be broken in order to replicate DNA

d. Bacteria have more DNA than eukaryotes, and so they take longer to replicate their DNA

e. DNA ligase is necessary to build primers on lagging strands during DNA replication

23. DNA from a specific organism is determined to contain 20 percent cytosine. Which of the following can be concluded about the DNA of this organism?

a. It contains 30 percent G b. It contains 80 percent G c. It contains 40 percent A and 40

percent T d. It contains 20 percent T and 20

percent A e. It contains 30 percent T and 30

percent A

24. DNA analysis of adult and developing frogs reveals that the same genes are present in all the cells of the frog throughout its development. However, certain proteins found in developing frogs are absent from adult frogs. Which of the following best explains this observation?

a. Developmental genes are not expressed in adults

b. No genes expressed in adults are expressed in developing organisms

c. Proteins are not modified as an organism develops

d. Proteins are greatly modified as an organism develops

e. Most genes in cells are never expressed

Questions 26-30 Questions 26-30 refer to the following choices:

A. DNA synthesis B. Transcription C. Translation D. Reverse transcription E. Posttranscriptional

processing

25. Typically occurs before cell division

26. Polypeptides are assembled at ribosomes

27. The process by which a strand of DNA is made complimentary to an RNA molecule

28. Splicing out introns

29. Beings and the origin of replication

30. A 5’ cap and poly-A tail are added to an RNA molecule

Preview/Review Activity #5 Due Friday, August 29, 2014 Preview (Chapter 32) Animal Diversity

1. How do animals differ from plants and fungi in how they gain nutrients?

2. Name and describe the two types of cells that are unique to animals.

3. Name and describe the phase of embryonic development seen in almost all animals.

4. Describe the difference between radial and bilateral symmetry. Give an example of an animal that shows each type of symmetry.

5. Name the three major germ layers (hint: look for the suffix “derm”) and describe the types of tissues they will eventually give rise to.

6. Define the term coelom. Describe the difference between coelomates, pseudocoelomates and acoelomates.

7. Describe the difference between spiral cleavage and radial cleavage. What type of cleavage did you undergo during development?

8. Describe the difference between determinate cleavage and indeterminate cleavage. What type of cleavage can result in identical twins forming?

9. What major animal phyla do humans belong to? What characteristics of humans allow them to be classified in this manner? (Chapter 34)

10. Pick any of the major animal phyla (other than the one humans are a part of) and describe the major characteristics of that phylum and give some examples of organisms that are a part of that phylum (Chapters 33 or 34).

Review (Biotechnology and Evolution).

11. A yeast cell can be used to express an animal gene. Which of the following best explains why this is possible?

a. Yeast and animals have mostly the same genes

b. Yeast and animals are both eukaryotes

c. The genetic code is universal d. DNA replication is similar in

yeast and animals e. Yeast and animals share a

recent common ancestor

12. Which of the following is true of mutations?

a. They are harmful to the organism but good for the species

b. They are irreversible c. They are only useful when they

occur in germ cells d. They are a source of variation e. They drive evolution by creating

selective pressures

13. Analysis of DNA sequences from two

individuals of the same species results

in a greater estimate of genetic

variability than does analysis of amino

acid sequences from the same

individuals because:

a. Different DNA sequences code for the same amino acid

b. Some amino acid sequences cannot be detected by protein electrophoresis

c. DNA sequencing is a more reliable technique than protein electrophoresis

d. Proteins are more easily damaged than DNA

e. DNA is more heat sensitive and therefore varies more

14. Which of the following best describes

why the polymerase chain reaction

(PCR) is standard technique used in

molecular biology research?

a. It uses inexpensive materials and produces perfect results

b. It can purify specific sections of a DNA molecule

c. It can produce large amounts of specific DNA sequences

d. It can duplicate the entire human genome

e. It can produce large amounts of mRNA

15. In bacteria, a small circle of DNA found outside the main chromosome is called a:

a. Plasmid b. cDNA c. RFLP d. PCR e. Genetic fingerprint

16. What is the enzymatic function of

restriction enzymes? a. to add new nucleotides to the

growing strand of DNA b. to join nucleotides during

replication c. to join nucleotides during

transcription d. to cleave nucleic acids at

specific sites e. to repair breaks in sugar-

phosphate backbones

17. What is the most logical sequence of steps for splicing foreign DNA into a plasmid and inserting the plasmid into a bacterium?

I. Transform bacteria with recombinant DNA molecule. II. Cut the plasmid DNA using restriction enzymes. III. Extract plasmid DNA from bacterial cells. IV. Hydrogen-bond the plasmid DNA to nonplasmid DNA fragments. V. Use ligase to seal plasmid DNA to nonplasmid DNA.

a. I, II, IV, III, V b. II, III, V, IV, I c. III, II, IV, V, I d. III, IV, V, I, II e. IV, V, I, II, III

18. Bacteria containing recombinant

plasmids are often identified by which process?

a. examining the cells with an electron microscope

b. using radioactive tracers to locate the plasmids

c. exposing the bacteria to an antibiotic that kills cells lacking the resistant plasmid

d. removing the DNA of all cells in a culture to see which cells have plasmids

e. producing antibodies specific for each bacterium containing a recombinant plasmid

19. The DNA fragments making up a genomic library are generally contained in

a. Recombinant plasmids of bacteria.

b. Recombinant viral RNA. c. Individual wells. d. DNA-RNA hybrids e. Radioactive eukaryotic cells

20. Which of the following is used to make complementary DNA (cDNA) from RNA?

a. restriction enzymes b. gene cloning c. DNA ligase d. gel electrophoresis e. reverse transcriptase

21. All of the following statements

concerning the theory of evolution by

natural selection are true EXCEPT:

a. Organisms produce far more offspring than are required for replacement

b. The individuals in a population show variation in survivability and their ability to cope with environmental stress

c. The number of offspring that survive to reproduce varies among individuals

d. The bodies of organisms in a population change by use and disuse, and the changes are inherited in the next generation

e. Some of the variation in adaptation is the result of genetic differences that may be passed on to the next generation

22. The functional similarity of the

mandibles (hinged jaws) of insects and

those of mammals is an example of:

a. Homology b. Analogy c. Divergent evolution d. Adaptive radiation e. Punctuated equilibrium

23. In evolutionary terms, which of the

following organisms is the most

successful?

a. The one that lives the longest b. The one that grows the most

rapidly c. The one that leaves the

greatest number of offspring that survive to reproduce

d. The one that has the best characteristics for the current environment

e. The one that has the biggest territory

24. The functional similarity between the wings of a bird and the wings of an insect is an example of:

a. Common ancestry b. Adaptive radiation c. Homology d. Divergent evolution e. Convergent evolution

25. The best evidence that chimpanzees are

more closely related to humans than baboons comes from:

a. DNA sequence comparison b. Behavioral similarities c. Similar cell structures d. Comparative anatomy e. Comparative embryology

26. Which of the following constitutes the

smallest unit capable of evolution? a. An individual b. A group c. A population d. A clade e. A community

27. Which of the following best explains the

role of variation in natural selection?

a. Variation is not necessary for

evolution, but increases the

speed at which evolution occurs

b. Environmental pressures

eliminate homogeneous

populations

c. Variation impedes natural

selection, but it is an inevitable

consequence of sexual

reproduction

d. Environmental pressures

applied to a population of

genetically different individuals

result in divergent evolution

e. Variations result in new species

regardless of the selective

pressures present

28. The remnants of pelvic and leg bones in a whale:

a. Resulted from artificial selection

b. Provide evidence for inheritance of acquired characteristics

c. Are homologous structures d. Show that wolves evolved from

whales e. Are vestigial structures

29. When cytochrome c molecules are compared, yeasts and molds are found to differ by approximately 46 amino acids per 100 residues (amino acids making up a protein), whereas insects and vertebrates are found to differ by approximately 29 amino acids per 100 residues. What can one conclude from these data?

a. Very little can be concluded unless the DNA sequences from the cytochrome c genes are compared

b. Yeasts evolved from molds, by vertebrates did not evolve from insects

c. Insects and vertebrate diverged from a common ancestor more recently than did yeasts and molds

d. Yeasts and molds diverged from a common ancestor more recently than insects and vertebrates

e. The evolution of cytochrome c occurred more rapidly in yeasts and molds than in insects and vertebrates

30. The best description of natural selection is:

a. The survival of the fittest b. The reproductive success of the

members of a population best adapted to the environment

c. A change in the proportion of alleles within a population

d. The struggle for existence e. The overproduction of offspring

in an environment with limited natural resources