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Anatomy & Physiology

Nervous System, Sense Organs, and Endocrine

Kraemer Invitational

January 7, 2017

Anatomy & Physiology – Nervous System, Sense Organs, and Endocrine

Kraemer Invitational January 7, 2017

STATION 1

1. Label the different parts of the neuron in the diagram

2. What is the function of B? 3. What is the function of D? 4. A. Name one function of the myelin sheath.

B. Myelin sheath is made by which cells in the central nervous system (CNS) and which cells in the PNS? 5. A. Match the type of neurons with their corresponding diagrams a. Unipolar neuron b. Bipolar neuron c. Multipolar neuron

1 2 3



B. Which of the following statement(s) is/are TRUE regarding the types of neurons? a. Bipolar neurons are found in the retina b. Multipolar neurons are the most common neurons in the brain and spinal cord c. Unipolar neurons are mostly found in the inner ear and olfactory cells d. All of the above e. A and B f. A and C Tie Breaker Question 1: The thick outermost layer of the myelin sheath (in the PNS) which contains the nucleus and most of the cytoplasm is called the _____________________________________



STATION 2 6. Name the brain structures labeled as #1, #2, #3, #4, and # 5 on the brain model 7. As a result of a tumor in his brain, a man has nystagmus (repetitive, involuntary rapid eye movements), loses his balance easily while walking, has difficulty with coordination of movements and spatial perception. In which structure of the brain is the tumor? 8. Name the network made up of neuronal bodies intermingled with axons that runs through the core of the brainstem. It controls arousal, sleep, alertness, stretch reflexes, modulation of pain, and is also involved in cardiovascular and respiration control. 9. Which of the following is FALSE about the Medulla Oblongata? a. The corticospinal tracts decussate here b. It controls involuntary functions like heart rate, respiration, and blood pressure c. It arises from the prosencephalon part of the neural tube d. It lies caudal to the pons e. Cranial nerves IX, X, XI, and XII either begin or end here

10. Which of the following statements is FALSE? a. The thalamus is the relay center and integrating center for sensory pathways b. The origin of cranial nerves V, VI, VII, and VIII is in the pons c. The substantia nigra lies in the diencephalon d. The hypothalamus is the center for homeostasis and behavioral drives like hunger, thirst and satiety e. The Corpus Striatum and the Subthalamic Nucleus are part of the basal ganglia



STATION 3

11. A. Label the different lobes of the cerebral cortex

B. Name the groove that separates A and B 12. A. What is the main function of C? B. An injury to which lobe will cause an impairment in hearing, language

comprehension and memory? C. A person develops aphasia (inability to speak) as a result of a stroke. Which specific area in the frontal lobe is likely damaged? 13. Which of the following are functions of A?

a. Voluntary motor functions b. Mood, emotion and aggression c. Sense of taste d. Motivation and reasoning e. A, B, and D f. A, C, and D

14. Which of the following is true about motor control of muscles a. It is considered a higher brain function b. The intention to contract a muscle begins in the prefrontal cortex c. Involves areas of the cerebrum, cerebellum, basal nuclei and the brainstem d. All of the above e. A and B f. A and C



15. Which of the following is true about the limbic system? a. It is involved in formation and consolidation of memory and processing of emotions b. It includes thalamus, hypothalamus, hippocampus, amygdala and the cingulate gyrus c. The fornix connects the hippocampus to the amygdala d. A and B e. All of the above f. A and C

Tie Breaker Question 2: Name the part of the cerebral cortex which contains the cell bodies of the corticospinal tract



STATION 4 16. On the image below of olfactory tissue, what are the blue triangular cells called? a. Supporting epithelial cell b. Basal Cell c. Olfactory Cilia d. Nasal conchae

17. What type of receptors are taste and smell receptors (based on classification by stimulus)? 18. Why is it that when you smell something, you can either like it or dislike it?



19. On the image below, name the structure identified by the red box and the structure outlined in green.

20. As a result of injury to a nerve, a person is unable to taste sweet desserts. Which cranial nerve is likely injured?



STATION 5

21. Name the deep groove that separates the two cerebral hemispheres

22. A right handed man has extensive damage to his left hemisphere due to an intracranial hemorrhage (bleeding). This person will likely have deficits in which of the following functions? a. Language, analytic reasoning, and voluntary movement of the left side of body b. Spatial relationships, artistic skills, and voluntary movement of the left side of the body. c. Language, analytic reasoning, and voluntary movement of the right side of the body d. Spatial relationships, artistic skills and voluntary movement of the right side of the body



23. Label the ventricles of the brain

24. A. Name at least one function of the CSF (Cerebrospinal fluid) B. Name the spongy mass of capillaries on the ceilings of each ventricle which is involved in CSF (cerebrospinal fluid) production 25. Which of the following is FALSE about the blood brain barrier? a. It is a functional barrier that protects the brain from harmful substances in the blood like toxins and blood borne pathogens b. Tight junctions in the brain capillaries are formed by foot processes of astrocytes c. It is absent in certain areas of the medulla and hypothalamus d. It is not very permeable to small lipid soluble molecules



STATION 6

Below is a cross sectional diagram of the spinal cord

26. A. Label the structures G, H, J, K, L, M, N B. What are the functions of H, G, and N?

C. A person has muscle weakness, decreased reflexes and loss of ability to walk. Looking at the left half of diagram, which area of the spinal cord has been damaged. Give the letter and the name.

27. Which of the following statements about the spinal cord is FALSE? A. Motor neurons develop from the basal plate B. 31 pairs of spinal nerves emerge from the spinal cord C. The gray matter is divided into funiculi which are columns composed of ascending and descending tracts of axons D. It contains neural networks responsible for locomotion E. It is attached to the vertebrae via denticulate ligaments



28. As the result of a car accident, a woman has damage to her spinal cord which has been completely transected (cut) at the C4 (cervical) level. As a result of this, she will: A. Have loss of bowel and bladder control B. Have a loss of motor function of her arms and legs C. Have a loss of motor and sensory function of her arms D. Have a loss of motor and sensory function of her arms and legs E. A and D F. A and C

29. Which cranial nerves have fibers that decussate to the opposite side of the body? A. Vagus nerve(X) and Facial nerve(VII) B. Olfactory nerve(I) and Optic Nerve(II) C. Oculomotor nerve(III) and Facial nerve(VII) D. Optic nerve(II) and Trochlear nerve(VI) E. Trigeminal nerve(V) and Trochlear nerve(VI)

30. List the 3 cranial nerves that have a sensory function only?



STATION 7 31. Match the components of the peripheral nervous system with its characteristic or function

1. Somatic Nervous System 2. Autonomic Nervous System

a. Regulates functions of internal organs such as heart, stomach, lungs, and intestines

b. Has a single efferent neuron that goes from CNS to skeletal muscle

c. Pathway is made up of 2 neurons in series that connect the CNS and effector cells (preganglionic and postganglionic neurons)

d. All axon terminals release Acetylcholine which has an excitatory effect

32. Which of the following is TRUE about the sympathetic nervous system?

A. It has fibers in cranial nerves III, VIII, IX and X B. It exerts long-lasting, diffuse effects, partly because of neuronal divergence C. Its preganglionic fibers either synapse in a ganglion or pass through the chain ganglion without synapsing D. All of the above E. B and C F. A and B

33. Fill in the blanks: A. Effectors in the abdominal cavity are innervated by sympathetic fibers carried in the _____________ nerve B. Effectors in the body wall are innervated by sympathetic fibers carried in the _____________ nerve C. Effectors in the head and thoracic cavity are innervated by sympathetic fibers carried in the ______________ nerve



34. Which of the following is TRUE about the parasympathetic nervous system? A. In the parasympathetic nervous system acetylcholine is secreted by preganglionic neurons and norepinephrine is secreted by postganglionic neurons B. Atropine blocks parasympathetic effects C. The effect of acetylcholine binding to nicotinic receptors can be inhibitory or excitatory D. All of the above E. A and C F. B and C 35. Which of the following statements is FALSE? A. The cerebral cortex, hypothalamus, brainstem and spinal cord are involved in control of the ANS (autonomic nervous system) B. The effects of old age on the autonomic nervous system result in constipation, dry eyes, and orthostatic hypotension C. Examples of dual innervation of cells/organs by sympathetic and parasympathetic fibers where the effects of the two systems are antagonistic, include control of heart rate, control of blood pressure, and control of dilation/constriction of the pupils. D. Preganglionic neurons are derived from the embryonic neural tube E. Most visceral organs are innervated by both sympathetic and parasympathetic fibers Tie Breaker Question 3: Name the drug used to treat Myasthenia Gravis and explain how it works.



STATION 8

36. Refer to the above picture. On the left side is a normal section of the brain. On the right side is diseased section of the brain. Symptoms of this progressive neurodegenerative disorder include reduction of movements, slow movements, muscular rigidity, and tremor at rest.

A. What is the name of this disease?

B. What is the area of the brain indicated by the arrows which undergoes degeneration?

C. Which neurotransmitter is reduced as a result of degeneration of this area?

37. Which of the following is TRUE about epilepsy? A. It results from abnormal synchronous firing of large number of neurons in the brain B. The EEG which measures the electrical activity of the brain is often, but not always abnormal C. Clinical manifestations always include uncontrolled movements like shaking and jerking and loss of consciousness D. All of the above E. A and B F. A and C



38. A 70-year old patient comes to your office with his daughter, who reports to you that her father’s behavior has changed in the past few months. Sometimes he stops talking in mid sentence and has difficulty finding the words to finish his sentences. He confuses names of relatives, and has difficulty finding items like his glasses or keys. At times, he has gotten lost while walking home from the corner store, a route that he has walked for many years. Some features of the disease that you diagnose him with are: A. Its an autoimmune disease B. There is abnormal deposition of Amyloid plaques and Neurofibrillary tangles in the brain C. Its an irreversible brain disorder D. Abnormal protein aggregates called Lewy bodies accumulate in the brain E. B and C F. A, C and D 39. Which part of the tissue in the brain is damaged in Multiple Sclerosis and describe what leads to this damage? 40. A 45-year old woman has come to see you in the office. She tells you that she has been playing the piano for 20 years, but recently has had difficulty with moving her fingers on the piano keys. She is also dropping her spoon while eating and has difficulty using the knife to cut vegetables while cooking. She used to lift weights in the gym, but now has trouble with that. She also trips more often while walking. She feels that her muscles are becoming weaker and notices that they twitch sometimes. What is the most likely diagnosis? A. Parkinson’s Disease B. Amyotrophic Lateral Sclerosis C. Alzheimer’s Disease D. Huntington’s Disease E. Multiple Sclerosis



STATION 9

Above is a diagram of the ear 41. Name the structures numbered 13, 15, 19, 8, 9 42. A. How does the tympanic membrane and the 3 ossicles in the middle ear help with the transmission of sound? B. What is the function of the Organ of Corti? 43. The following is true about the inner ear A. The medium of transmission of sound is fluid B. The movement of stereocilia on the hair cells opens up ion channels that allow Na+ to flow in which leads to depolarization and release of neurotransmitter C. The distal end of the basilar membrane responds to lower pitch sounds D. All of the above E. A and B F. A and C 44. What type of hearing loss occurs with Otitis Media?



45. A. What type of movement is detected by the semicircular canals? B. Name the calcium protein granules in the vestibular system which add to weight

and inertia of the surrounding fluid and enhance the sense of gravity and motion?

Tie Breaker Question 4: What is binaural hearing and which part of the brain is responsible for this function?



STATION 10 46. Which of the following is FALSE about alcohol’s effect on the brain: A. Because cell membranes are not highly permeable to alcohol, it takes time

to diffuse throughout the various tissues in the body B. Release of epinephrine, norepinephrine and dopamine give it some properties of

a stimulant C. Effects depend on a variety of factors, including: amount consumed, gender,

amount of food eaten prior to drinking, genetics, etc. D. Memory loss and dementia are effects of long term abuse 47. As the result of regularly using an illicit substance, a high school student has become more moody, has difficulty with his school work and his grades are falling, has enhanced sensitivity to colors and sounds, and experiences a “high” and altered sense of time shortly after using this drug. His urine drug screen will be positive for which substance?

48. Which receptors does caffeine bind to in the brain and how does this cause a temporary decrease in drowsiness and fatigue?

49. Match the type of brains waves in the graph below with each of these Mental states:

a. Alert, awake, attentive, problem solving, decision making, also associated with stress, anxiety, and depression

b. Awake and resting, relaxed, peaceful, meditation

c. Deep dreamless sleep (stage 3 and 4 of NREM sleep), best state for strengthening immune system, healing, and restoration d. First stage of sleep, associated with insight, intuition, dream like imagery, answers to important questions can be found



50. Which of the following pairings is correct? A. Stage one- lasts five minutes, eyes move slowly, muscle activity slows down, chemicals produced in the brain block the senses making it difficult to be awakened B. REM sleep- begins 70 to 90 minutes after falling asleep, dreaming occurs at this stage, eyes move rapidly, breathing shallows, low level of brain activity, heart rate and blood pressure increase C. Stage 3/4- deepest stage of sleep, blood flow is directed away from your brain and towards your muscles, growth hormone is released during this stage D. Stage 2- lasts 25-30 minutes, eye movement stops, heart rate increases, body temperature increases



STATION 11 51. Which of the following is not true about the Resting Membrane Potential (RPM)? a. RMP exists because of unequal electrolyte distribution across the cell membrane; b. RMP is a result of ions diffusing down their concentration gradient through membrane channels; c. RPM is a result of the fact that plasma membrane channels are selectively permeable and allow some ions to pass easier than others; d. RPM is an exclusive characteristic of neurons. 52. In the diagram below, indicate which of the action potential phase represents the repolarization and what main plasma channel protein type is involved.

53. Which of the following is true about the local potential: a. Local potentials and action potentials are the same thing b. Local potentials are long-range “spreading” change in the plasma membrane voltage c. Local potentials are decremental as they get weaker the farther they spread from the point of stimulation d. Local potentials always trigger action potentials in the affected cell 54. What is the name the phase that follows the action potential when no stimulus of any strength can trigger an action potential?



55. Link each number with the definition below: a. These chemicals diffuse across the synapse (the gap) and bind with receptor molecules on the membrane of the next neuron. b. This triggers the nerve-ending of a neuron to release chemical messengers called neurotransmitters. c. An electrical impulse travels along an axon d. The receptor molecules on the second neuron bind only to the specific chemicals released from the first neuron. This stimulates the second neuron to transmit the electrical impulse



STATION 12 56. Name 5 types of sensory receptors 57. The image below shows a section of a fingertip and points to a specific receptor implicated in discrimination of fine details. Name the receptor.

58. The image below shows the Pacinian corpuscles in the skin. What do these receptors sense?



59. Which of the following is true about pain receptors? a. There are two types of pain receptors, somatic and visceral nociceptors; b. They respond to stretch, lack of O2, and chemicals released from damaged cells and inflammatory cells; c. Visceral pain afferents do not travel along the same pathways as somatic pain afferents d. A and B e. B and C 60. Where are the cold receptors located in the skin?



STATION 13 61. Name the three tunics (layers) of the human eye 62. Which of the following is NOT true about the accommodation of the lens a. The lens is flexible and can change curvature according to the light and object distance b. For far away objects, the zonule fibers provide tension to the lens giving it an elongated shape c. The lens is convex to intensify the focusing power d. For close objects, the ciliary muscles contract giving the lens a rounder shape 63. One of the following is NOT true about the optic disk, the area on the retina where: a. No vision is possible b. Blood vessels originate c. Optic nerve fibers exit d. Only a few photoreceptors are present 64. Which of the following are true about the process of vision: a. images formed by the lens are upside down and backwards when they reach the retina b. There are three types of cones which distinguish the three colors – blue, red, green c. The two Optic Nerves come together at the Optic Chiasm located just under the hypothalamus d. Cones are mostly responsible for daytime vision, while rods are mostly involved in nighttime vision e. A, B, and C f. All of the above

65. Myopia is a common eye condition characterized by: a. The eyeball being too long or the cornea being too steep b. Light rays focus in front of (instead of on) the retina c. Eyeglasses or contact lenses which use convex lenses can treat this defect d. Distant objects being blurry, but close objects being in focus e. A, B, and C are true f. A, B, and D are true



Tie Breaker Question 5: Looking at the image below of the retina, identify structures A (red spot) and B (white/yellow spot)



STATION 14 66. What is the main function of the endocrine system as a whole? 67. The schematic representation below shows the mechanism used by some hormones. Name the chemical classes of hormones that would use such mechanism.

68. What fat-soluble hormone has the following characteristics? a. Is secreted by the adrenal gland b. Controls the rate of metabolism of carbohydrates, fats, and proteins c. Is a steroid hormone d. It is released in response to stress 69. What water-soluble hormone is represented below?

70. Two of the following disorders are associated with hormone hyposecretion. a. Addison’s disease b. Gigantism c. Myxedema d. Cushing’s syndrome e. Diabetes insipidus f. A, C, and E g. A and D



STATION 15 71. Which glands are shown in the picture below?

72. Which hormones (2) are secreted by the pancreas and what do they do? 73. Associate the disease with its description: a. Grave’s disease b. Cushing’s Syndrome c. Goiter d. Acromegaly 1. Enlarged thyroid gland 2. Hypersecretion of GH during adulthood 3. Autoimmune disease, the most common form of hyperthyroidism 4. Hypersecretion of cortisol by the adrenal cortex 74. At a routine check-up, a 60-year old man tells his doctor that lately he has been feeling particularly thirsty, his hands and feet are often numb, and a cut on his leg is taking a very long time to heal. His BMI is 31 Kg/m2 and it has been like that for several years. His sight has also declined in the past few years.

What could be the symptoms of? 75. Diabetes insipidus is a disease caused by hyposecretion of a specific hormone: a. What is the name of such hormone? b. Where is it produced? c. What gland stores and releases it?



STATION 1

1. A. …………………………………………………………………………………….

B. …………………………………………………………………………………….

C. …………………………………………………………………………………….

D. …………………………………………………………………………………….

2. ………………………………………………………………………………………………… 3. ……………………………………………………………………………………………….. 4.

A. ……………………………………………………………………………………….

B. ………………………………………………………………………………………. 5. A.

a. …………………………… b. ……………………………

c. ……………………………

B. …………………………………………………………………………………….. Tie Breaker Question 1: …………………………………………………………………………………………………



STATION 2 6. #1…………………………………………………………………………………………. #2………………………………………………………………………………………….

#3…………………………………………………………………………………………. #4…………………………………………………………………………………………. #5………………………………………………………………………………………….

7. ………………………………………………………………………………………………… 8. ………………………………………………………………………………………………... 9. …………………………………………………………………………………………………

10. ……………………………………………………………………………………………….


Kraemer Invitational January 7, 2017 STATION 3

11. A. A………………………………………………………………………………………… B………………………………………………………………………………………… C………………………………………………………………………………….......... D……………………………………………………………………….………………..

B. ……………………………………………...……………………………………….. 12. A. ………………………………………………………………………………………. B. ……………………………………………………………..………………………… C. ……………………………………………………………………………………….. 13. ………………………………………………………………………………………………

14. ………………………………………………………………………………………………

15. ………………………………………………………………………………………………

Tie Breaker Question 2: …………………………………………………………………………………………………………….


Kraemer Invitational January 7, 2017 STATION 4 16. …………………………………………………………………………………………………

17. …………………………………………………………………………………………………

18. ………………………………………………………………………………………………….

19. Red box:…………………………………………………………………………………..

Green box:……………………………………………………………………………….

20. ………………………………………………………………………………………………..



21. …………………………………………………………………………………………… 22. …………………………………………………………………………………………… 23. #1……………………………………………………………………………………. #2……………………………………………………………………………………. #3……………………………………………………………………………………. #4……………………………………………………………………………………. 24. A. ………………………………………………………………………………………. B. ………………………………………………………………………………………. 25. …………………………………………………………………………………………..



26. A.

G

H

J

K

L

M

N

B.

G

H

N

C. …………………………………………………………………………………………..

27. …………………………………………………………………………………………………. 28. ………………………………………………………………………………………………….

29. …………………………………………………………………………………………………. 30. 1……………………………………………………………………………………………. 2……………………………………………………………………………………………. 3…………………………………………………………………………………………….


Kraemer Invitational January 7, 2017 STATION 7 31.

a….………………………….. b……………………………… c………………………………. d……………………………….

32. ………………………………………………………………………………………………

33. A. ………………………………………………………………………………………….. B. ……………………………………………………………………………………………

C. …………………………………………………………………………………………… 34. ………………………………………………………………………………………………. 35. ………………………………………………………………………………………………. Tie Breaker Question 3: ……………………………………………………………………………………………………..



A. ……………………………………………………………………………………………

B. …………………………………………………………………………………………..

C. ………………………………………………………………………………………….. 37. ……………………………………………………………………………………………….. 38. ………………………………………………………………………………………………. 39. ………………………………………………………………………………………………. 40. ………………………………………………………………………………………………..



13

15

19

8

9

42.

A. …………………………………………………………………………………………

B…………………………………………………………………………………………. 43. ……………………………………………………………………………………………….. 44. ………………………………………………………………………………………………. 45.

A. ……………………………………………………………………………………….. B………………………………………………………………………………………….

Tie Breaker Question 4: …………………………………………………………………………………………………….


Kraemer Invitational January 7, 2017 STATION 10 46. ……………………………………………………………………………………………..

47. ……………………………………………………………………………………………

48. …………………………………………………………………………………………….

49. a. ……………………………………………………………………………..

b………………………………………………………………………………..

c. …………………………………………………………………………….. d. ……………………………………………………………………………..

50. ……………………………………………………………………………………………..


Kraemer Invitational January 7, 2017 STATION 11 51. ……………………………………………………………………………………………. 52. #……………………………………...

……………………………………………………………………………………………. 53. …………………………………………………………………………………………….. 54. …………………………………………………………………………………………….. 55. a. …………………………... b. …………………………... c. ………………………….. d. ……………………………



1……….…………………………………………………………………………….

2……………………………………………………………………………………. 3…………………………………………………………………………………….. 4…………………………………………………………………………………… 5…………………………………………………………………………………….

57. ……………………………………………………………………………………... 58. …………………………………………………………………………………….. 59. ……………………………………………………………………………………. 60. …………………………………………………………………………………….


Kraemer Invitational January 7, 2017 STATION 13 61. ………………………………………………………………………………………….. 62. …………………………………………………………………………………………… 63. …………………………………………………………………………………………… 64. ………………………………………………………………………………………….. 65. ………………………………………………………………………………………….

Tie Breaker Question 5:

………………………………………………………………………………………………………


Kraemer Invitational January 7, 2017 STATION 14 66. ………………………………………………………………………………………… 67. ………………………………………………………………………………………... 68. ……………………………………………………………………………………….. 69. ………………………………………………………………………………………….

70. ………………………………………………………………………………………….


Kraemer Invitational January 7, 2017 STATION 15 71. …………………………………………………………………………………….. 72. …………………………………………………………………………………….

…………………………………………………………………………………….. 73. a. ………………………….. b. ………………………….. c. ………………………….. d. ………………………….. 74. ……………………………………………………………………………………...

75. a. …………………………………………………………………………………….. b. …………………………………………………………………………………….. c. ……………………………………………………………………………………..

Anatomy & Physiology

Nervous, Sense Organs, and Endocrine

Kraemer Invitational

January 7, 2017

STATION 1

1. Label the different parts of the neuron in the diagram

A: Myelin Sheath B: Axon C: Soma or Cell Body D: Dendrites 2. What is the function of B? Conduction of electrical impulses or nerve signals

3. What is the function of D? Primary site to receiving signals from other neurons

4. A. Name one function of the myelin sheath. Provides insulation of neurons which speeds up conduction of nerve signals B. Myelin sheath is made by which cells in the central nervous system (CNS) and which cells in the PNS? CNS: oligodendrocytes PNS: Schwann Cells 5. A. Match the type of neurons with their corresponding diagrams a. Unipolar neuron b. Bipolar neuron c. Multipolar neuron

1 2 3

1. c 2. b 3. a

B. Which of the following statement(s) is/are TRUE regarding the types of neurons? a. Bipolar neurons are found in the retina b. Multipolar neurons are the most common neurons in the brain and spinal cord c. Unipolar neurons are mostly found in the inner ear and olfactory cells d. All of the above e. A and B f. A and C Tie Breaker Question 1: The thick outermost layer of the myelin sheath (in the PNS) which contains the nucleus and most of the cytoplasm is called the _Neurilemma___

STATION 2 6. Name the brain structures labeled as #1, #2, #3, #4, and # 5 on the brain model 1: Cerebrum 2: Corpus Callosum 3: Thalamus 4: Hypothalamus 5: Midbrain 6: Pons 7: Medulla 8: Cerebellum 7. As a result of a tumor in his brain, a man has nystagmus ( repetitive, involuntary rapid eye movements), loses his balance easily while walking, has difficulty with coordination of movements and spatial perception. In which structure of the brain is the tumor? Cerebellum 8. Name the network made up of neuronal bodies intermingled with axons that runs through the core of the brainstem. It controls arousal, sleep, alertness, stretch reflexes, modulation of pain, and is also involved in cardiovascular and respiration control. Reticular Formation 9. Which of the following is FALSE about the Medulla Oblongata? a. The corticospinal tracts decussate here b. It controls involuntary functions like heart rate, respiration, and blood pressure c. It arises from the prosencephalon part of the neural tube d. It lies caudal to the pons e. Cranial nerves IX, X, XI, and XII either begin or end here

10. Which of the following statements is FALSE? a. The thalamus is the relay center and integrating center for sensory pathways b. The origin of cranial nerves V, VI, VII, and VIII is in the pons c. The substantia nigra lies in the diencephalon d. The hypothalamus is the center for homeostasis and behavioral drives like hunger, thirst and satiety e. The Corpus Striatum and the Subthalamic Nucleus are part of the basal ganglia

STATION 3

11. A. Label the different lobes of the cerebral cortex

A: Frontal Lobe B: Parietal Lobe C: Occipital Lobe D: Temporal Lobe B. Name the groove that separates A and B Central Sulcus (Rolando) 12. A. What is the main function of C? It’s the primary visual center of the brain B. An injury to which lobe will cause an impairment in hearing, language

comprehension and memory? Temporal Lobe C. A person develops aphasia (inability to speak) as a result of a stroke. Which specific area in the frontal lobe is likely damaged? Broca’s Area 13. Which of the following are functions of A?

a. Voluntary motor functions b. Mood, emotion and aggression c. Sense of taste d. Motivation and reasoning e. A, B, and D f. A, C, and D

14. Which of the following is true about motor control of muscles a. It is considered a higher brain function b. The intention to contract a muscle begins in the prefrontal cortex c. Involves areas of the cerebrum, cerebellum, basal nuclei and the brainstem d. All of the above e. A and B f. A and C

15. Which of the following is true about the limbic system? a. It is involved in formation and consolidation of memory and processing of emotions b. It includes thalamus, hypothalamus, hippocampus, amygdala and the cingulate gyrus c. The fornix connects the hippocampus to the amygdala d. A and B e. All of the above f. A and C

Tie Breaker Question 2: Name the part of the cerebral cortex which contains the cell bodies of the corticospinal tract The Primary Motor Cortex which lies in the precentral gyrus

STATION 4 16. On the image below of olfactory tissue, what are the blue triangular cells called? a. Supporting epithelial cell b. Basal Cell c. Olfactory Cilia d. Nasal conchae

17. What type of receptors are taste and smell receptors (based on classification by stimulus)?

Answer: Chemoreceptors 18. Why is it that when you smell something, you can either like it or dislike it? Answer: The pathway is connected to the limbic system.

19. On the image below, name the structure identified by the red box and the structure outlined in green. Answer: Taste bud(red) Gustatory cell(green)

20. As a result of injury to a nerve, a person is unable to taste sweet desserts. Which cranial nerve is likely injured?

Answer: Facial Nerve

STATION 5

21. Name the deep groove that separates the two cerebral hemispheres Answer: Longitudinal Hemisphere

22. A right handed man has extensive damage to his left hemisphere due to an intracranial hemorrhage (bleeding). This person will likely have deficits in which of the following functions? a. Language, analytic reasoning, and voluntary movement of the left side of body b. Spatial relationships, artistic skills, and voluntary movement of the left side of the body. c. Language, analytic reasoning, and voluntary movement of the right side of the body d. Spatial relationships, artistic skills and voluntary movement of the right side of the body

23. Label the ventricles of the brain

1. 4th Ventricle 2. Lateral Ventricles 3. Third Ventricle 4. Cerebral Aqueduct or Aqueduct of the Midbrain

24. A. Name at least one function of the CSF (Cerebrospinal fluid)

1. Buoyancy 2. Protects the brain from injury 3. Chemical stability 4. rinses away metabolic wastes and regulates chemical environment to maintain homeostasis

B. Name the spongy mass of capillaries on the ceilings of each ventricle which is involved in CSF (cerebrospinal fluid) production

Choroid Plexus 25. Which of the following is FALSE about the blood brain barrier? a. It is a functional barrier that protects the brain from harmful substances in the blood like toxins and blood borne pathogens b. Tight junctions in the brain capillaries are formed by foot processes of astrocytes c. It is absent in certain areas of the medulla and hypothalamus d. It is not very permeable to small lipid soluble molecules

STATION 6 Below is a cross sectional diagram of the spinal cord

26. A. Label the structures G, H, J, K, L, M, N G: Interneuron H:Sensory or Afferent neuron J:Dorsal Root Ganglion K:Receptor L:Effector Muscle or gland M:Spinal Nerve N:Motor or Efferent Neuron

B. What are the functions of H, G, and N? H: Transmits nerve impulse to spinal cord or interneuron G: Transmits nerve impulse from sensory to motor neuron N: Carries nerve impulse to effector or muscle

C. A person has muscle weakness, decreased reflexes and loss of ability to walk. Looking at the left half of diagram, which area of the spinal cord has been damaged. Give the letter and the name. B: Ventral or Anterior Horn

27. Which of the following statements about the spinal cord is FALSE? A. Motor neurons develop from the basal plate B. 31 pairs of spinal nerves emerge from the spinal cord C. The gray matter is divided into funiculi which are columns composed of ascending and descending tracts of axons D. It contains neural networks responsible for locomotion

E. It is attached to the vertebrae via denticulate ligaments 28. As the result of a car accident, a woman has damage to her spinal cord which has been completely transected (cut) at the C4 (cervical) level. As a result of this, she will: A. Have loss of bowel and bladder control B. Have a loss of motor function of her arms and legs C. Have a loss of motor and sensory function of her arms D. Have a loss of motor and sensory function of her arms and legs E. A and D F. A and C

29. Which cranial nerves have fibers that decussate to the opposite side of the body? A. Vagus nerve(X) and Facial nerve(VII) B. Olfactory nerve(I) and Optic Nerve(II) C. Oculomotor nerve(III) and Facial nerve(VII) D. Optic nerve(II) and Trochlear nerve(VI) E. Trigeminal nerve(V) and Trochlear nerve(VI) 30. List the 3 cranial nerves that have a sensory function only? Olfactory (I), Optic (II), Vestibulocochlear (VIII)

STATION 7 31. Match the components of the peripheral nervous system with its characteristic or function

1. Somatic Nervous System 2. Autonomic Nervous System a. Regulates functions of internal organs such as heart, stomach, lungs, and intestines 2

b. Has a single efferent neuron that goes from CNS to skeletal muscle 1

c. Pathway is made up of 2 neurons in series that connect the CNS and effector cells (preganglionic and postganglionic neurons) 2

d. All axon terminals release Acetylcholine which has an excitatory effect 1

32. Which of the following is TRUE about the sympathetic nervous system?

A. It has fibers in cranial nerves III, VIII, IX and X B. It exerts long-lasting, diffuse effects, partly because of neuronal divergence C. Its preganglionic fibers either synapse in a ganglion or pass through the chain ganglion without synapsing D. All of the above E. B and C F. A and B

33. Fill in the blanks: A. Effectors in the abdominal cavity are innervated by sympathetic fibers carried in the _splanchnic_ nerve B. Effectors in the body wall are innervated by sympathetic fibers carried in the ___spinal__nerve C. Effectors in the head and thoracic cavity are innervated by sympathetic fibers

carried in the _sympathetic_nerve 34. Which of the following is TRUE about the parasympathetic nervous system? A. In the parasympathetic nervous system acetylcholine is secreted by preganglionic neurons and norepinephrine is secreted by postganglionic neurons B. Atropine blocks parasympathetic effects C. The effect of acetylcholine binding to nicotinic receptors can be inhibitory or excitatory D. All of the above E. A and C F. B and C

35. Which of the following statements is FALSE? A. The cerebral cortex, hypothalamus, brainstem and spinal cord are involved in control of the ANS (autonomic nervous system) B. The effects of old age on the autonomic nervous system result in constipation, dry eyes, and orthostatic hypotension C. Examples of dual innervation of cells/organs by sympathetic and parasympathetic fibers where the effects of the two systems are antagonistic, include control of heart rate, control of blood pressure, and control of dilation/constriction of the pupils. D. Preganglionic neurons are derived from the embryonic neural tube E. Most visceral organs are innervated by both sympathetic and parasympathetic fibers Tie Breaker Question 3: Name the drug used to treat Myasthenia Gravis and explain how it works. Neostigmine- it inhibits acetylcholinesterase, an enzyme that breaks down acetylcholine

STATION 8

36. Refer to the above picture. On the left side is a normal section of the brain. On the right side is diseased section of the brain. Symptoms of this progressive neurodegenerative disorder include reduction of movements, slow movements, muscular rigidity, and tremor at rest. A. What is the name of this disease? Parkinson’s Disease

B. What is the area of the brain indicated by the arrows which undergoes degeneration?

Substantia Nigra C. Which neurotransmitter is reduced as a result of degeneration of this area?

Dopamine

37. Which of the following is TRUE about epilepsy? A. It results from abnormal synchronous firing of large number of neurons in the brain B. The EEG which measures the electrical activity of the brain is often, but not always abnormal C. Clinical manifestations always include uncontrolled movements like shaking and jerking and loss of consciousness D. All of the above E. A and B F. A and C

38. A 70-year old patient comes to your office with his daughter, who reports to you that her father’s behavior has changed in the past few months. Sometimes he stops talking in mid sentence and has difficulty finding the words to finish his sentences. He confuses names of relatives, and has difficulty finding items like his glasses or keys. At times, he has gotten lost while walking home from the corner store, a route that he has walked for many years. Some features of the disease that you diagnose him with are: A. Its an autoimmune disease B. There is abnormal deposition of Amyloid plaques and Neurofibrillary tangles in the brain C. Its an irreversible brain disorder D. Abnormal protein aggregates called Lewy bodies accumulate in the brain E. B and C F. A, C and D 39. Which part of the tissue in the brain is damaged in Multiple Sclerosis and describe what leads to this damage? The myelin sheath is damaged/lost. Antibodies and cells of the immune system attack and destroy myelin sheaths and this leads to scarring and sclerosis. 40. A 45 year old woman has come to see you in the office. She tells you that she has been playing the piano for 20 years, but recently has had difficulty with moving her fingers on the piano keys. She is also dropping her spoon while eating and has difficulty using the knife to cut vegetables while cooking. She used to lift weights in the gym, but now has trouble with that. She also trips more often while walking. She feels that her muscles are becoming weaker and notices that they twitch sometimes. What is the most likely diagnosis? A. Parkinson’s Disease B. Amyotrophic Lateral Sclerosis C. Alzheimer’s Disease D. Huntington’s Disease E. Multiple Sclerosis

STATION 9

Above is a diagram of the ear 41. Name the structures numbered 13, 15, 19, 8, 9 13: External Auditory Canal 15: Tympanic Membrane 18: Cochlea 8: Semicircular canal 9: Vestibulocochlear nerve 42. A. How does the tympanic membrane and the 3 ossicles in the middle ear help with the transmission of sound?

They vibrate to transmit the sound to the inner ear B. What is the function of the Organ of Corti? It converts vibrations into action potentials 43. The following is true about the inner ear A. The medium of transmission of sound is fluid B. The movement of stereocilia on the hair cells opens up ion channels that allow Na+ to flow in which leads to depolarization and release of neurotransmitter C. The distal end of the basilar membrane responds to lower pitch sounds D. All of the above E. A and B F. A and C

44. What type of hearing loss occurs with Otitis Media? Conductive Hearing loss 45. A. What type of movement is detected by the semicircular canals? Angular Acceleration B. Name the calcium protein granules in the vestibular system which add to weight

and inertia of the surrounding fluid and enhance the sense of gravity and motion?

Otoliths

Tie Breaker Question 4: What is binaural hearing and which part of the brain is responsible for this function? Signals from left and right ears are compared to identify the direction from which a sound is coming. This occurs in the superior olivary nucleus.

STATION 10 46. Which of the following is FALSE about alcohol’s effect on the brain: A. Because cell membranes are not highly permeable to alcohol, it takes time

to diffuse throughout the various tissues in the body B. Release of epinephrine, norepinephrine and dopamine give it some properties of

a stimulant C. Effects depend on a variety of factors, including: amount consumed, gender,

amount of food eaten prior to drinking, genetics, etc. D. Memory loss and dementia are effects of long term abuse

47. As the result of regularly using an illicit substance, a high school student has become more moody, has difficulty with his school work and his grades are falling, has enhanced sensitivity to colors and sounds, and experiences a “high” and altered sense of time shortly after using this drug. His urine drug screen will be positive for which substance? Marijuana 48. Which receptors does caffeine bind to in the brain and how does this cause a temporary decrease in drowsiness and fatigue? Caffeine binds to adenosine receptors in the brain (acts like an adenosine receptor antagonist) which prevents adenosine from binding to these receptors. Since adenosine facilitates sleep, the binding of caffeine has the opposite effect.

49. Match the type of brains waves in the graph below with each of these Mental states:

a. Alert, awake, attentive, problem solving, decision making, also associated with stress, anxiety, and depression Beta

b. Awake and resting, relaxed, peaceful, meditation Alpha

c. Deep dreamless sleep (stage 3 and 4 of NREM sleep), best state for strengthening immune system, healing, and restoration Delta

d. First stage of sleep, associated with insight, intuition, dream like imagery, answers to important questions can be found Theta

50. Which of the following pairings is correct? A. Stage one- lasts five minutes, eyes move slowly, muscle activity slows down, chemicals produced in the brain block the senses making it difficult to be awakened B. REM sleep- begins 70 to 90 minutes after falling asleep, dreaming occurs at this stage, eyes move rapidly, breathing shallows, low level of brain activity, heart rate and blood pressure increase C. Stage 3/4- deepest stage of sleep, blood flow is directed away from your brain and towards your muscles, growth hormone is released during this stage D. Stage 2- lasts 25-30 minutes, eye movement stops, heart rate increases, body temperature increases

STATION 11 51. Which of the following is not true about the Resting Membrane Potential (RPM)? a. RMP exists because of unequal electrolyte distribution across the cell membrane; b. RMP is a result of ions diffusing down their concentration gradient through membrane channels; c. RPM is a result of the fact that plasma membrane channels are selectively permeable and allow some ions to pass easier than others; d. RPM is an exclusive characteristic of neurons. 52. In the diagram below, indicate which of the action potential phase represents the repolarization and what main plasma channel protein type is involved. a. 3, Voltage-gated K+ channels

53. Which of the following is true about the local potential: a. Local potentials and action potentials are the same thing b. Local potentials are long-range “spreading” change in the plasma membrane voltage c. Local potentials are decremental as they get weaker the farther they spread from the point of stimulation d. Local potentials always trigger action potentials in the affected cell 54. What is the name the phase that follows the action potential when no stimulus of any strength can trigger an action potential? Absolute refractory period

55. Link each number with the definition below: a. These chemicals diffuse across the synapse (the gap) and bind with receptor molecules on the membrane of the next neuron. b. This triggers the nerve-ending of a neuron to release chemical messengers called neurotransmitters. c. An electrical impulse travels along an axon d. The receptor molecules on the second neuron bind only to the specific chemicals released from the first neuron. This stimulates the second neuron to transmit the electrical impulse

a. 3 b. 2 c. 1 d. 4

STATION 12 56. Name 5 types of sensory receptors a. Mechanoreceptors b. Thermoreceptors c. Pain receptors d. Chemoreceptors e. Photoreceptors 57. The image below shows a section of a fingertip and points to a specific receptor implicated in discrimination of fine details. Name the receptor. Meissner corpuscle

58. The image below shows the Pacinian corpuscles in the skin. What do these receptors sense? They sense pressure and vibration changes deep in your skin

59. Which of the following is true about pain receptors? a. There are two types of pain receptors, somatic and visceral nociceptors; b. They respond to stretch, lack of O2, and chemicals released from damaged cells and inflammatory cells; c. Visceral pain afferents do not travel along the same pathways as somatic pain afferents d. A and B e. B and C 60. Where are the cold receptors located in the skin? Basal stratum

STATION 13 61. Name the three tunics (layers) of the human eye a. Fibrous/outer layer/cornea and sclera b. Vascular/middle layer/ choroid c. Sensory/inner layer/retina 62. Which of the following is NOT true about the accommodation of the lens a. The lens is flexible and can change curvature according to the light and object distance b. For far away objects, the zonule fibers provide tension to the lens giving it an elongated shape c. The lens is convex to intensify the focusing power d. For close objects, the ciliary muscles contract giving the lens a rounder shape 63. One of the following is NOT true about the optic disk, the area on the retina where: a. No vision is possible b. Blood vessels originate c. Optic nerve fibers exit d. Only a few photoreceptors are present 64. Which of the following are true about the process of vision: a. images formed by the lens are upside down and backwards when they reach the retina b. There are three types of cones which distinguish the three colors – blue, red, green c. The two Optic Nerves come together at the Optic Chiasm located just under the hypothalamus d. Cones are mostly responsible for daytime vision, while rods are mostly involved in nighttime vision e. A, B, and C f. All of the above

65. Myopia is a common eye condition characterized by: a. The eyeball being too long or the cornea being too steep b. Light rays focus in front of (instead of on) the retina c. Eyeglasses or contact lenses which use convex lenses can treat this defect d. Distant objects being blurry, but close objects being in focus e. A, B, and C are true f. A, B, and D are true

Tie Breaker Question 5: Looking at the image below of the retina, identify structures A (red spot) and B (white/yellow spot)

Answer: A: Fovea B: Optic disc

STATION 14 66. What is the main function of the endocrine system as a whole? a. Maintain homeostasis in the body 67. The schematic representation below shows the mechanism used by some hormones. Name the chemical classes of hormones that would use such mechanism. Peptides and amines

68. What fat-soluble hormone has the following characteristics? a. Is secreted by the adrenal gland b. Controls the rate of metabolism of carbohydrates, fats, and proteins c. Is a steroid hormone d. It is released in response to stress Answer: Cortisol 69. What water-soluble hormone is represented below?

Answer: Epinephrine

70. Two of the following disorders are associated with hormone hyposecretion. a. Addison’s disease b. Gigantism c. Myxedema d. Cushing’s syndrome e. Diabetes insipidus f. A, C, and E g. A and D

STATION 15 71. Which glands are shown in the picture below?

Answer: 1. Thyroid Gland

2. Thymus Gland 72. Which hormones (2) are secreted by the pancreas and what do they do?

Answer: 1. Insulin: signals to the liver and muscles to remove sugar from the blood and store it as fat

2. Glucagon: signals to the liver to break down fat stores and release sugar back into the blood

73. Associate the disease with its description: a. Grave’s disease b. Cushing’s Syndrome c. Goiter d. Acromegaly 1. Enlarged thyroid gland 2. Hypersecretion of GH during adulthood 3. Autoimmune disease, the most common form of hyperthyroidism 4. Hypersecretion of cortisol by the adrenal cortex

Answer: a - 3; b - 4; c - 1; d - 2 74. At a routine check-up, a 60-year old man tells his doctor that lately he has been feeling particularly thirsty, his hands and feet are often numb, and a cut on his leg is taking a very long time to heal. His BMI is 31 Kg/m2 and it has been like that for several years. His sight has also declined in the past few years.

What could be the symptoms of? Answer: Diabetes mellitus (type 2)

75. Diabetes insipidus is a disease caused by hyposecretion of a specific hormone: a. What is the name of such hormone? b. Where is it produced? c. What gland stores and releases it?

Answer: a. Antidiuretic Hormone (ADH); b. Hypothalamus; c: Posterior Pituitary Gland.

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