GS

1. Minimum oxygen that can be administered in analgesia machine A. 10B. 20C. 30D. 40%

2. Most common mode of spread of retinoblastoma? A. Hematogenous B. Lymphatogenous C. Optic nerve (neural)D. Trans scleral

3. A hemophilia person going for major oral surgery. Blood unit will be given?A. 80-100 unit/12hrB. 80-100 unit/24hrC. 60-80 unit/6hrD. 60-80 unit/12hr

4. Potential for transformation into malignancy A. Syphilitic Glossitis, Mikulicz's Disease B. Plummer Vinson Syndrome, Hepatitis A C. Plummer Vinson Syndrome, Syphilitic

Glossitis D. Hepatitis A, Mikulicz's disease

5. Lymph nodes most difficult to examine? A. Neck B. Axilla C. Abdomen D. Groin

6. 58) false about management of hyperkalemia.

a) iv calcium is contra indicated b) loop diuretics can be used in d managemnt c) insulin n glucose enhance potassium intake into cells d) albuterol is an effective alternativ

7. Nt True about oropharyngeal pack during surgery

A) gvn when pt is under ga B) prevents fluid aspiratn n contaminatn C) prevent blood aspirastions into oesophagus D) given when pt is awake

8. Which disease involves bone and intervertebral disc space radiographically:

(A). Multiple myeloma(B). TB(C). Lymphoma(D). MetastaseS

9. Composite Resection concept According to Gold and ....?

Wide resection of the tumourRemoval of all the involved bone onlyRemoval of all tumor with periphery intactRemoval with involved soft tissue

10. A patient presented with a 4cm tumor in left parietal lobe for which he underwent surgery and radiotherapy .After 2 months he presented with headache and vomiting .which of the following best characterize the lesion in this patient?

1-Gd enhanced Mri2- 99tcHMPAO Spect brain3-digital subtraction angiography with dual source ct4- 18- Fdg pet scan

11. Test used to differentiate between chromosomal pattern of Normal cell and cancer cell?

FISHcomparative genomic hybridisationPcr

12. A 78 yr old male presents with headache, visual disturbances and tenderness over his right temporal region. Biopsy taken from right temporal artery likely shows:(A). Acute abscess(B). Granulomatos inflammation with giant cell(C). Luminal thrombosis(D). Aneurysmal dilatation with sub acute inflammation

13. 3. Leucocyte common antigen is used for the diagnosis for

A. LymphomaB. ewing's sarcomac. embryonal retinoblastoma

14. 4. A 78 yr old male presents with headache, visual disturbances and tenderness over his right tempiral region. A biopsy taken from his right temporal artery is most likely to show

A. Acute organizing thrombus formationB. granulomatous inflammation with giant cellsC. Luminal thrombosisD. Aneurysmal dilation with sub-intimal inflammation

15. 5. An eldery male with uncontolled hypertension and signs of renal failure. A renal biopsy reports fibrinoid necrosis of the walls n onion skinning. The diagnosis is

A. Thromboangitis obliteransB. hyaline arteriosclerosisC. Hyperplastic arteriosclerosisD. Arteriosclerosis obliterans

16. Q1 Riga fede disease is due to a)natal teeth b)taurodontism c)pink tooth of mummery d)???

17. Test for diagnosis of neuromuscular blockade

GM

18. AMPLE history involves all except a)personal history b)medical history c)family history d)last meal taken

19. Most common malignancy seen in AIDS a)BCC b)SCC c)hodgkins tumour d)Kaposi sarcoma 

20. Cooleys anemia is a)beta thallesemia major b)alpha thallesemia c)thallesemia minor d)??????

21. western blot test is for a) RNA b) DNA c) protein d)???

22. Daily dietary allowance of iodine in a pregnant lady

a) 250 mg b) 100 mg c) 150 mg d) 50 mg

23. The mesurement of Hba1c level can be used for?(a) Asymptomatic diabetic screening(b) Symptomatic diabetic screening(c) Monitering diabetic case(d) Diagnosis of diabetes

24. 14) Done for coronary aretery except? a) Echocardiograph b) ultrasonography c) angiography

25. 79) which is true a) JVP can be examined on both sides b) BP can b measured simultaneously with cuffs on both arms c) radial and ulnar artery should not be examined together d) carotid pulses should be palpated n both sides together

26. 86) was..true atatement about chr malig induced anemia.....

a) serum ferritin reduced b) retixulocyte normal c)

27. Test to diagnose dubin johnson syndrome Bromisulphein test Alanine transferase GGT Hippuric test

28. A child presented with unilateral proptosis which was compressible and increased on bending forwards. No thrill or bruit was present. MRI shows retro-orbital mass with enhancement with echogenic shadows. What is the most probable condition? (AIPG 2009)

A Orbital A V malformation.B Orbital varixC Orbital encephaloceleD NeurofibromatosisAns. B Orbital varix

Orbital varices are uncommon vascular malformations that produce intermittent proptosis, diplopia and venous hypertension, increases on bending forward, coughing, straining etc. They may be simple, consisting of a single tubular venous structure or complex when multiple varices are present. They are usually congenital.

29. carbamazepine is contraindicated in..(a)absence seizures.(b)-generalized tonic clonic(c)medial temporal lobe epilepsy..??

30. Vertibral disc involvment? -Tb -Multiple myeloma

31. Which vaccine should not be administered to pregnant lady????????

a) diptheria b) MMR c) hepatitis B d) rabies

32. Dermal & oral manifestation are seen most common in which type of leukemia-

a.Monocyticb.Myelocyticc.Lymphocyticd.Aleukemia

33. 2) fever blister occurs due to Ans reactivation of hsv1

PATHOLOGY

34. In a specimen of kidney, fibrinoid necrosis is seen and onion peel appearance is also present. Most probable pathology is:-(A). Hyaline degeneration(B). Hyperplastic arteriosclerosis(C). Glomerulosclerosis(D). Fibrillary glomerulonephritis

35. Cell differentiation by surface markers a) G banding b) electrophoresis c) spectrometry d) PCR

36. Leucocyte common antigen is used for the diagnosis for

A. Lymphoma B. ewing's sarcoma c. embryonal retinoblastoma

PHARMA

37. An epileptic lady taking phenytoin & phenobarbitone comes to pregnancy & contraception department . What is the best advice for her with current medication 

a )there will be no abnormality in the new born b )contraception is effective in both epileptic & nonepileptic women c)fits are increased during pregnancy 

d) stop current medication before planning pregnancy

38. Maximum dose of articaine in a healthy patient

a ) 7 mg/kg b ) 4 mg/kg c) 2 mg/kg d) 1.3 mg/kg

39. Q. Patient admistered Penicillin has reaction after 2 days..he also has auto hemolytic anaemia...circulating antibodies are present...what is the type of allergic reaction?

type a. I b. II c. III d. IV

40. minimal inhibitory concentrations for antibiotics in head and neck infections

41. 16) true about metformin a) excreted unchanged in urine b) contraindicated in decompensated heart failure c) decrease hepatic glucose production d)

42. 36) Factor 8 dose a) 80-100 mg every 24 hour b) 80-100 mg in 12 h c)

43. 37) not a second generation antihistamine a) cyclizine b) c)

44. 53)which of following is least likely to cause seizure in children

a) ibuprofen b) lidocaine c) mannitol

45. 77) like Ach wich one is ultra short acting a) rucurorioum b) teubrocurorium c) d)

Ans. A

46. 78) iv drug injection wats most important criteria..

a) vol of distribution b) age of pt c) plasma clearance

47. Cytotoxic and expired drugs should be disposed by

a) autoclaving b) secure landfill after 10 years c) secure landfill d)incineration?????

48. which shory actin muscle relaxant shud be used after succinyl co a--

(a)rocucurium.(b)atracurium.(c)pancurium

49. All of the following true for phenytoin except a)it causes hirsutism b)it is teratogenic c)blood plasma level required to be monitored d)has narrow therapeutic index

50. methemoglobinemia is caused by procaine ,prliocaine

51. Which of the following drug is not associated with seizures in children?

MannitolBrufenCiprofloxacinLidocaine

52. Most preferred drug in hypertensive emergency case:(A). Na nitroprusside(B). Hydralazine(C). Dopamine(D). Diazoxide(E). Nitroglycerin

53. Q) how erythromycin benefits in decreased intestinal motility a)by incrreasing bacterial load b) by decreasing bacterial load c)¿??????

OMFS

54. Paraesthesia of lower lip is caused by fracture of a)body b)angle c)symphysis d)condyle 

55. Transient paralysis during IAN block is caused by injection into a)buccinator b)parotid c)massetor 

56. Hanging Drop sign in fracture of a)maxilla b)mandible c)blow out fracture of orbit d)zygomatic

57. CSF rhinorrhoea occurs from a) Frontal sinus b) Ethmoidal sinus c) Maxillary sinus d) ????????????

58. Not a theory of TMJ ankylosis a) condylar burst

b) fusion with zygomatic arch due to increased condylar distance c) synovial fluid attracting Ca ions

d) calcification around joint

59. following bilateral mandibular fracture in the canine region the following muscles will tend to pull the mandibular back- Geniglossus and anterior belly of digastric

60. 25) Which z most commonly seen in cleft lip patient?

a) post cross bite b) ant open bite

61. 69) True for lidocaine is? a) Most cardiotoxic na channel blocker b) Acts on both active and inactive Na channel

62. 88) facial nerve damaged in a) longitudinal fracture of petrous temple b) transverse fracture of petrous temple

63. Patient with ludwigs angina reports to emergency deptt .Treatment???(options may vary from original)

a)Incision & drainage b)tracheostomy?????????? c)nasotracheal intubation???????? d)start antibiotics

64. nasal intubation contraindicated in..??(a)maxillary fracture (b)ethmoid

65. normal dental care under LA usually usually feasible in ?

a) Mentally retarded b) adults c) Pscycological pt d) children

66. To diagnose CSF rhinorrhea which of the following cannot be used as a criteria ?(A). High glucose content(B). High protein content(C). Tram line pattern(D). BETA-2 Transferrin

67. Patient with prosthetic valve is under surgery to avoid sub-acute endocarditis which regimen should be given(A). 2 mg amoxicillin 1hour before surgery(B). 2 gm amoxicillin 1hour before surgery(C). 500 gm penicillin 1 hour before surgery(D). 1 gm amoxicillin 2 hour before surgery

68. Young individual reported with fluctuant swelling infection of left lateral incisor. On clinical examination, entire left side of face is swollen and tooth is tender on percussion. The patient is unable to chew and as well as he has a fever of 102 degree. What should be the treatment plan:-(A). Incision and drainage(B). Antibiotic,heat and fluid(C). Extraction(D). Antibiotics and heat production

69. Infection spreading via lymphatics from lower lips first enter the blood stream at? (a) Branchiocephalic vein(b) Inferior labial

vein(c) Inferior labial artery(d) Pterygoid venous plexus

70. About lidocaine all are true, except :(a) It acts on sodium channels in both active and inactive state(b) It is most cardiotoxic local anesthetic(c) It is given I.V. in cardiac arrhythmias

71. patients on steroids therpy came fo extraction given- antibiotics

72. Techniques not used in cleft lip repair-Von- Langenback flap technique

73. A patient with extract ed 3rd molar complains of loss of blood clot ; pain with no fever and swelling best treated by- irrigation of socket with sedative placement and analgesic

74. orthognathic procedure for anterior open bite correction- Lefort1 osteotomy

75. following bilateral mandibular fracture in the canine region the following muscles will tend to pull the mandibular back- Geniglossus and anterior belly of digastric

PERIO

76. diameter of bristles of soft toothbrush 0.07

0.100.120.14

77. Which of these is the best method to check perfusion of free flap:(A). Prick test(B). Pulse oxymetry(C). Laser Doppler flowmetry(D). Fluroscopy

78. Localised Juvenile Periodontitis caused by a) A. actinomycetumcomitans b) P. gingivalis c) P. intermedia d) Actinomyces

79. 89) change in color texture of gingiva seen in what stage of gingivitis

a) stage -1, b) 2 c) 3 d) 4

80. Hiv associated gingivitis also calledA.anugB.linear gingiva erythmaC.ulcerative gingivitisD.,,??

81. aggressive periodontitis associated bacteria- Actinomycetemcomitans

82. gingival lesion in HIV termed- necrotisig ulcerative gingivitis

83. coloured toot Caused by bacteria called- chlorodontia

84. Dose of predlisolone in desquamative gingivitis

DM

85. Which of the following is not an antiflux?A. GraphiteB. Boric acidC. Iron oxideD. Calcium carbonate in alcohol

86. To avoid fatigue to eyes, shade matching should be done within A. 10 sec B. 15 sec C. 20 sec D. 5 sec 

87. Metallic oxides in porcelainA. Increase strength B. Improve bonding with metal C. Impart color D. All

88. Ceramic containing Lithia disilicate crystalsA. IPS impress 1B. IPS impress 2C. CaptekD. Cerestore

89. Incomplete casting in centrifuging machine is due to A. Narrow sprue diameterB. C. D.

Kindly build up the other options

90. Non shrinkage type ceramic is A. DicorB. IPS empressC. -D. -

91. Metallic taste after application of stannous fluoride varnish is due toA. Stannous trifluorophosphateB. Stannic trifluorophosphateC. Calcium trifluorostannateD. Tin hydroxyl phosphate

92. Shrink free ceramicA. Cerestore

B. C. D.

Kindly build up the other options

RADIOLOGY

93. exposure dose in IOPA for normal adults? 5 microsV 200 microsV 26 microsV 500 microsV

94. Halo effect around root is seen in a) horizontal root fracture b ) widened pdl c ) acute periostitis d) acute periapical abscess

95. absorved dose for diagnosing tumor is measured in

A.gray B.sievertC.qurieD.hertz

96. 60) best method to reduce radiation caries is aplication of

a) .5%neutral sodium flouride gel b) 1%neutral sodium flouride gel c) .5% stannous flouride gel d) 1%stannous flouride gel

97. 68) with widening of mandibular canal and endosteal sclerosis..diagnosis is.?

a) Chr. Sclerizng osteomyelitis b) Garres osteomyelitis?

98. 83) Onion skin appearance- a) Periosteal periostitis b) hyaline degenaration c) hyperplastic arteriosclerosis

99. 113) about X rays what is True ? A) x rays do not affect all biological tissues B) For normal adult the effects are temporary and reversible C) Only primary central beam is of importance potentially hazardous?

100. Rda of iodine in pregnant ladiesA.100B.50C.150D.250

101. Medical linear accelerator producesPhoton n electronPhoton n neutron

Photon n protonElectron n proton

102. Most radioresistant among the following:

a)RBC,nerve ,muscle b)RBC,bone,nerve c)??? d)???

PROSTHO

103. Kennedys major connector is a)lingual bar b)lingual plate c)labial bar d)continuous clasp

104. 65) most active component of denture cleanser..?

a) h2o2 b) detergent c) perborates d) alkylating agents?

105. Dimensions of inner bow of facebow are

O.45inch and o.125 inch

ORTHO

106. Increased interincisal angle is seen in:-(A). Bimaxillary protrusion(B). Class II div I(C). Class II div II(D). Mandibular retrusion

107. A child aged 5 years and 4 months is referred to orthodontist for unusually small chin. Distal step molar relation, SNA normal, SNB lowered & FMA DECREASED.What is the treatment of choice?(A). Wait & observe till 6 yrs age(B). Headgear(C). Twin block(D). Functional Regulator

108. 39) whats the ratio of nose length and nose width

a) 70% b) 65% c) 66% d) 62.5%

109. After surgical correction of cleft palate which of the following is seen?(A). Anterior open bite(B). Anterior deep bite(C). Unilateral/Bilateral posterior cross bite(D). Rotated anteriors

110. maximum amount of neural growth is completed by

a) 6-7 years b) 10-12 years c) 18 years d) 13-16 years

111. Tone of upper lip in mouth breathers is

a ) Inceased b) Decreased c) Unaffected d) Lip becomes hypertrophic

112. 2) Adams is made up of which wire ??

a. 22 b. 23 c. 24 d. 25

113. 18) Skeletal clasificatn A) Kartz B) salzman C) angle

114. Baker's anchorage is also known as(A). Intramaxillary anchorage(B). Intraoral anchorage(C). Extraoral anchorage(D). Intermaxillary anchorage

115. A 14 year old boy with Class II Div I malocclusion. Which model analysis method is used to decide, whether to do extraction or not?(A). Bolton’s(B). Peck and peck(C). Ashley Howe’s(D). Pont’s

116. 75) most steble procidure for orthodontic corection

a) le fort 1 b) segital split ostiotomy c) invart L otiotomy

117. 84) inter incisal angle incres in a) class 2 div 2 b) class 2 div 1 

118. Spheno occipital synchondrosis closes at

Ans 16yrs

119. In case of Orthodontically treated midline diastemma which retainer should be used?(A). Hawley appliance for 6 months(B). Hawley appliance for 12 months(C). No need of retainer as it is self corrected(D). Lingual bonded retainer

120. Lip thickness of males is maximum at which age?(a) 21 years(b)18 years(c) 16 years(d) 25 years

121. Orthodontics problem associated with proximal caries-loss of arch length

DADH

122. Minimum number of lobes for tooth development a)2 b)3 c)4 d)5

123. Calcification of permanent teeth starts

a) at birth b) at 1 year c) at 5 years d) in utero

124. Tonicity Upper lip in Mouth breather-increased-decreased -not affectedslightly affected

ANATOMY

125. Muscle responsible for opening of mandible a) lateral pterygoid b) medial pterygoid c) temporalis d) buccinators

126. Cavernous sinus thrombosis is due to infection of a) pterygoid plexus b) submental space c) maxillary space d) submandibular space 

127. Lymphatic drainage of tongue by all except

a) ventral vessal b) central vessal c) lateral vessal d) dorsal vessal

128. All are true for facial N.except a) carries parasympathetic secretomotor fibres to nasal n palatine glands b) carries a large motor root n a small sensory root c) supplies ant belly of digastric n mylohyoi

129. 87) Not a branch of cavernous part of ICA

A) oph. artery B) meningeal artery C) inf. hypophyseal artery

130. which of d following muscle spared in accessory nerve Injury

a.stylopharyngeus b palatopharyngrus c d

131. Facial nerve supply all are true accept-

a. Ant belly of diagastric b. Post belly of diagastric c. Buccinator d. Stapedius

132. Which is the Dangerous area of scalp?(A). Skin(B). Connective tissue(C). Aponeurosis(D). Loose areolar tissue

133. Lymph from tongue not drained by following vessels(a) Posterior vessels(b) Central vessels- (c) Marginal vessels(d) Ventral vessels

CONS & ENDO

134. A child (age=5yrs???)suffers trauma which causes lateral luxation of the primary central incisor. C I is not in occlusion & does not causes interference. Treatment? a) repositioning & splinting b) reduce the opposite tooth c) reduce both the traumatized & opposite tooth d) no treatment required ,will reposition itself 

135. The cotton applied in gluteraldehyde pulpotomy to the pulpal stumps should be kept for

a)5 mins b)10 mins c)15 mins d)2 mins

136. A patient comes with history of oral injury,metallic sound on percussion of the affected tooth.Based onexamination,What would be the most likely diagnosis after oral examination?(a) Lateral luxation(b) Subluxation(c) Concussion(d) Extrusive luxation

137. Intracanal irrigating solution for an acute periapical abscess

a) sod hypochlorite b) EDTA c) hydrogen peroxide d) saline

138. 5) second generation apex locator a) resistance b)impedence c) frequency d) conduction

139. 27) the highest incidence of pulp necrosis is associated with?

a) classV prepratn on root surface b) inlay preparation c) partial veneer preparation d) full crown preparation

140. 52) Nt seen in caoh repair for root perforation

a) zone of necrosis b) zone of calcification c) proliferation zone

141. The most phisiologic media for tooth whch cn not be reimplantd immediately??

-Hbss -Vispan -Saline -Cold milk

142. which of the following is true about etching in case of flurosis affected teeth?

a. etching with phosphoric acidb. etching with citric acidc. etching with HCLd. no need of etching

143. If biocompatible filling material fill in perforated root canal which histologically not seen-

a.Zone of proliferationb.Zone of calcificationc.Zone of necrosisd.Zone of stimulation

144. The most important criteria in children using irrigation solution is?(A). Volume of irrigant(B). Thickness of syringe used(C). Concentration of irrigant(D). None of above

145. wavelength of ND:YG laser is- 1.06micron

PEDO

146. Overhanging margins of a stainless steel crown on a primary molar is causing pain & inflammation in gingiva because of A. Cement in excess B. Accumulation of plaque C. Irritation by crown margins D. Engaging undercut 

147. In a 4 year old child, primary central incisor has undergone intrusion injury. Treatment isA. Wait & watch B. Extract primary central incisor C. Will resorb on its own D. Reposition & splint

148. In Glutaraldehyde pulpotomy procedure, cotton pellet kept on pulp stem forA. 2 minB. 4 min C. 5 secD. 30 sec

149. When should a child be first exposed for using a tooth brushA. At eruption of the first tooth B. 1 year C. 2 yearsD. Primary school year

150. Localization of pain is not possible in acute pulpitis in children. BecauseA. Proprioceptors not present in pulpB.

C. D.

Kindly build up remaining options

151. Preventive resin restoration is placed on A. Cavitated pit and fissuresB. C. D.

Kindly build up remaining options

152. A pregnant lady uses fluoridated drinking water. All of the following are true regarding exposure of the fetus to fluoride exceptA. Placenta acts as a regulator and reduces the

concentration of fluoride reaching the fetusB. Placenta acts as a regulator and increases

the concentration of fluoride reaching the fetus

C. Placenta has no role in fluoride regulation to fetus

D. Placenta acts as a barrier to fluoride ions

MICRO

153. Not true about leptospirosis a) Man is dead end host b) Lice is a vector c) It is zoonosis d) Man is accidental host 

154. 6) not a component of PCR a) DNA template b) dideoxynucleotide c) deoxynucleotide d) dna polymerase

155. 12) swab taken one was regarding cystic fibrosis, and mucoid colonies of organism (psedomonas nt sure) form, which indicates

a) the organism has formed layer on the respiratory tract of the patient ..... b) was sumthing regarding toxin c) was resistant to bacteriocin..

156. 26) A nursing lady refused to take influenza vaccine. Later she developed pnuemonia after contracting flu. she died of acute pneumonia after a week.the causative agent is -

a) staph aureus, b) cmv, c) measles d) leiognella

157. Immunisation of 5 year old by NIS(a) Pentavalent vaccine – Vitamin A(b) Booster DT(c) DT, OPV, vitamin A(d) DPT, vitamin AAns. (c) DT, OPV, vitamin A

158. 74) In angular cheilitis organism that can be cultured from corner of mouth ?????

a) candida b) tubercular bacilli

159. 80) nocardia

A diarrhoea B disseminated infection

160. 81) staining true? a) gm+ve black b) gm-ve red c) g. gormethamine silver stain fungi green d) calcaflour stainung white sumthing

161. In an experiment, a scientist injected myeloid stem cells in an abalated animal. At the end of incubation period he found colonies of:-(A). Erythrocytes(B). T lymphocytes(C). Fibroblasts(D). Hematopoetic stem cells

162. True about endemic typhus- Flea is a vector of disease

163. herpes causing chicken pox is associated with- varicella group

164. 9) true about conjugation in bacteria a) sex pili is used b) double strands f dna transferred c)? d)?

BIOCHEM

165. NAD is reduced by following except (not sure about options)

a) alpha keto-gluterate dehydrogenase b) malonyl transferase c) transketolase d) branched chain keto acids ???????

166. Within the RBC, hypoxia stimulates glycolysis by which of the following regulating pathways?

A. Hypoxia Stimulates pyruvate dehydrogenase by increased 2,3 DPGB. Hypoxia inhibits hexokinaseC. Hypoxia stimulates release of all Glycolytic enzymes from Band 3 on RBC membraneD. Activation of the regulatory enzymes by high PHCorrect answer : C. Hypoxia stimulates release of all Glycolytic enzymes from Band 3 on RBC membraneHypoxia stimulates RBC glycolysis by promoting release of all glycolytic enzymes from Band 3 on RBC membrane.

OP

167. Presence of sclerotic bone in medullary cavity & periosteal new bone formation A. Chronic non-suppurative osteomyelitis B. Garre's osteomyelitis

C. Acute osteomyelitis D. Osteopetrosis

168. Burning sensation of tongue is not seen in? A. Ranula B. Diabetes mellitus C. Pernicious anemia D.

169. Decalcification and fixing of bone tissue can be done by?A. Formic acid + formalineB. Nitric acid + formalineC. EDTA + formic acidD. Nitric acid + EDTA

170. Tooth within a tooth is seen in? A. Lateral incisor max B. Mandibular lateral and central incisors C. Mandibular 1st premolar D. Maxillary and mandibular lateral incisors

171. How to differentiate between unilateral fibrous dysplasia of jaws and facial hemi hypertrophy A. Shape of face B. Shape of palate C. Shape of tooth and supporting structures D. Distance of soft tissue landmarks from

midline

172. Most common cleft lip defect isA. Isolated bilateral deformities B. Isolated left unilateral deformities C. Bilateral cleft lip with palate D. Unilateral cleft lip with palate

173. Tooth discoloration due to hyperbilirubinemia is A. ChlorodontiaB. C. D.

174. Neonatal teeth areA. Teeth that erupt within 30days after

birthB. Teeth that erupt after the 120 daysC. Teeth that erupt within 45 daysD. Teeth appearing in 180 days

175. Lesion with finger like projections on lip and index finger?A. Pemphigus B. PapillomaC. D.

176. Lc tumor markerA. Lymphoma B. RhabdomyosarcomaC. D.

177. True about exfoliative cytology A. Transepithelial cell can be obtained B. Hindrance by excess keratinization

C. After applying toluidine blue, wash with saline

D. After applying toluidine blue, wash with water

E. Just apply toluidine blue & take the scrapings with a swab

178. Gingival lesions not found inA. HerpesB. Recurrent aphthaeC. Erythema MultiformeD. Pyogenic granuloma

179. Osteosarcoma can arise from?A. Paget and CherubismB. Cherubism and osteopetrosisC. Paget and polyostotic fibrous dysplasiaD. Polyostotic fibrous dysplasia and Cherubism

180. Bilateral mandibular involvement is seen inA. CherubismB. C. D.

181. A man presents with hyperkeratotic lesion with papillary projection on lower lip & also in thumb, diagnosis isA. Papilloma B. Squamous cell carcinomaC. D.

182. Which tooth is commonly involved in twinning?A. B. C. D.

183. Diagnostic histologic feature of Langerhans cell histocytosis A. Histocytes B. Lymphocytes C. Plasma cells D. Birbeck granules

COMMUNITY

184. Observational Study -community trials -randomized controlled trials -case control study

185. Malocclusion in a population relatd to

Ans prevalance rate

186. Filter used in biological safety cabinet

High efficiency particulate filterSeitz filterBerkfield filterMillipore

187. Space maintainer is an example ifHealth promotion

Specific protectionRehabilitationDisability limitation

188. Power of a statistical test...A.ability of a test to reject null hypothesis is falseB.ability of test to reject null hypothesis when alternate hypothesiis is AVAILABLE

PHYSIOLOGY

189. 70) Which of the following does not affect oxygen saturation ofHb?

a) skin color b) Temperature c) fetal hb d) 2,3 dpg

190. 82) enzymes faund in csf (a) GGT +ALP(b) ALP+CK-MB(c) CK+LDH(d) Deaminase and peroxidase

191. 2.which indicates obstruction of airway?

Ans sternous breathing

192. Ideal way of measuring B.P. a)first in right arm & than left arm b) in both the arms simultaneously c)only in right arm d)??????????

193. The nerve impulse which leads to initiation of muscle contraction

1-Causes opening of the calcium channels which leads to increase in calcium concentration with use of sarcomere2-inhibit Na entry in sarcomere3 -cause both plasma membrane and t tubules to undergoes hyperpolarization4-is initiated by bonding of Ach.to receptors in sarcoplasmic reticulum

194. Peripheral resistance is best given by(a) Mean arterial pressure as it remains constant(b) Diastolic pressure as it decreases at mid thoracic aorta(c) Systolic pressure as it increases in descending aorta(d) Pulse pressure as it relates to stroke volume and aortic compliance

195. Broca area is associated with- Word formation

196. the blood brain barrier is present in all except- Habernacular Trigone

197. Christmas disease is caused due to deficiency of a)plasma thromboplastin component b)plasma thromboplastin antecedent 

c)antihaemophilic globulin d)????

198. Regarding ESI ACT WHICH IS CORRECT(a) Funeral benefit is Rs. 50,000(b) The state Government’s share of expenditure on medical care is 1/8; the ESI Coorporation’s share of expenditure on medical care is 7/8 of total cost(c) Person with daily wages of Rs 70 has to contribute Rs300 towards ESI(d) Employee has to contribute 4.75% and employer contributes 8.75%