Editorial Board

Samanya Gyan Darpan

Upkar Prakashan, AGRA-2

© Publishers

Publishers

UPKAR PRAKASHAN2/11A, Swadeshi Bima Nagar, AGRA–282 002Phone : 4053333, 2530966, 2531101Fax : (0562) 4053330E-mail : care@upkar.in, Website : www.upkar.in

Branch Offices :4845, Ansari Road, Daryaganj,New Delhi—110 002Phone : 011–23251844/66

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63-64, Kailash Marg,Ground Floor,Shreeji Avenue, Malharganj,Indore—452 002 (M.P.)Phone : 9203908088

● The publishers have taken all possible precautions in publishing this book, yet if any mistakehas crept in, the publishers shall not be responsible for the same.

● This book or any part thereof may not be reproduced in any form by Photographic,Mechanical, or any other method, for any use, without written permission from the Publishers.

● Only the courts at Agra shall have the jurisdiction for any legal dispute.

Price : 125·00(Rs. One Hundred Twenty Five Only)

Code No. 1923

Printed at : UPKAR PRAKASHAN (Printing Unit) Bye-pass, AGRA

CONTENTS

● Practice Set–1.............................................................................................................. 3–10

● Practice Set–2.............................................................................................................. 11–19

● Practice Set–3.............................................................................................................. 20–28

● Practice Set–4.............................................................................................................. 29–37

● Practice Set–5.............................................................................................................. 38–46

● Practice Set–6.............................................................................................................. 47–55

● Practice Set–7.............................................................................................................. 56–64

● Practice Set–8.............................................................................................................. 65–73

● Practice Set–9.............................................................................................................. 74–81

● Practice Set–10............................................................................................................ 82–89

● Practice Set–11............................................................................................................ 90–98

● Practice Set–12............................................................................................................ 99–106

● Practice Set–13............................................................................................................ 107–114

● Practice Set–14............................................................................................................ 115–122

● Practice Set–15............................................................................................................ 123–130

● Practice Set–16............................................................................................................ 131–139

● Practice Set–17............................................................................................................ 140–147

● Practice Set–18............................................................................................................ 148–155

● Practice Set–19............................................................................................................ 156–164

GENERAL INFORMATION

● Educational QualificationA candidate must possess the minimum qualification of Graduation in any discipline from a recognizedUniversity or any equivalent qualification recognized as such by the Central Government. The candidate shouldhave passed in English as one of the subjects at SSC/ HSC/Intermediate/ Graduation level. Candidate shouldpossess certificate in proof of passing the qualifying examination as on stipulated date.

Knowledge of Regional Language of the State of Recruitment is essential. Proficiency in the RegionalLanguage of the State/UT (Candidates should know to read, write and speak the Regional Language of theState/UT) for whose vacancies a candidate wishes to apply, is essential. (To ascertain the candidate's familiaritywith the Regional Language of the State/UT, a language test will be conducted before final selection.Candidates not found to be proficient in the Regional language would be disqualified.)

Note : Candidates are advised to satisfy themselves before they apply that they fulfill requirements as to Age,Educational Qualifications and other eligibility criteria and if found ineligible their candidature will becancelled at any stage of recruitment.

● Age (Age on stipulated date)

(i) Minimum Age : 18 years; Maximum Age : 30 years.

(ii) The upper age limit will be relaxable as per Govt.’s Rules.

● Selection ProcedureThe selection process will consist of on-line test (Preliminary & Main Examination). Candidates qualifying inthe Main Examination will be further shortlisted for Regional Language test before the final selection.

Tier I: Preliminary Examination :The Preliminary Examination (Online Objective Test) for 100 marks, would be of one hour duration and willconsist of 3 sections as follows :

Sl. No. Name of the Test No. ofQuestions

Marks Duration

1. Test of English Language 30 30 Composite

2. Test of Reasoning 35 35 Time

3. Test of Numerical Ability 35 35 60 min

TOTAL 100 100

The questions in objective tests, except for the test of English Language, will be made available in English &Hindi.

Candidates will have to qualify in each test by securing passing marks to be decided by the Company. Adequatenumber of candidates state-wise and category-wise as decided by the Company will be shortlisted for the TierII—Main Examination.

( vii )

Tier II : Main Examination :

The structure of Main Examination (Online objective test) will be as follows :

Sl. No. Name of the Test (Objective) No. ofQuestions

Marks Duration

1. Test of Reasoning 40 50

2. Test of English Language 40 50 Composite

3. Test of General Awareness 40 50 Time

4. Test of Computer Knowledge 40 50 120 min

5. Test of Numerical Ability 40 50

TOTAL 200 250

Total Marks obtained shall be proportionately reduced to a base of 35 marks.

(a) Main Examination will consist of Online Objective Test for 250 marks to be conducted in duration of 120minutes.

(b) The questions in objective tests, except for the test of English Language, will be made available in English& Hindi.

(c) Each candidate will be required to obtain a minimum total score (as decided by the Company) in the mainexamination.

(d) Candidates qualifying in the Online Main Examination will be shortlisted and called for Regional LanguageTest, before final selection. No separate marks will be awarded for Regional Language Test. This test willbe only qualifying in nature.

(e) Final selection will be made on the basis of performance in the online Main examination subject toqualifying the Regional Language Test. Merely satisfying the eligibility norms do not entitle a candidate tobe called for online examinations & Regional Language Test.

Note :

* Penalty for Wrong Answers (Applicable to both—Preliminary and Main examination)

There will be penalty for wrong answers marked in the Online Objective Tests. For each question for whicha wrong answer has been given by the candidate, one fourth of the marks assigned to that question will bededucted as penalty to arrive at corrected score. No marks will be deducted for un-attempted questions.

* The Company reserves the right to modify the structure of the examination which will be intimated throughits Website.

The Final Merit statewise and categorywise List shall be prepared in descending order of the marks secured bythe candidates in the Online Main Examination subject to qualifying the Regional Language Test. Candidateswho fall within the number of vacancies in the merit list shall be considered for appointment subject to MedicalFitness. Candidates will be intimated of the same through the Company's website. The candidates are requestedto check the website regularly.

A contingency List of candidates not exceeding 50% of the number of vacancies may also be prepared and maybe utilized in the event of non-acceptance of employment offer by the candidates selected in the final merit list.

Please note that candidates will not be permitted to appear for the online examination without the followingdocuments :

1. Valid Call Letter for the respective date and session of Examination.

2. Photo-identity proof (as specified) in original bearing the same name and other information as it appears onthe call letter application form and

3. Photocopy of the above photo-identity proof (as detailed shown in advertisement).

( viii )

● Regional Language Test

Candidates shortlisted in the online Main examination will subsequently be called for Regional Language Testto be conducted by the Company, at select centres. The name and address of the Centre, time & date of this testwill be informed to the shortlisted candidates on our website.

Candidates are required to download their call letters for the Regional Language Test from the company'swebsite. Please note that any request regarding change in date, centre etc. will not be entertained. However, theCompany reserves the right to change the date/ time/venue/centre etc. of this test or hold a supplementaryprocess for particular date / session / venue / centre / set of candidates at its discretion, under unforeseencircumstances, if any.

The Regional Language Test will be of qualifying nature only. No Scores will be allotted for the same.

The scores obtained by the candidates in the Online Main Examination will be considered while arriving at thefinal ranking subject to their qualifying the Regional Language Test. A candidate should be sufficiently high inthe merit list to be shortlisted for subsequent recruitment process. Scores of the candidates failing to secureminimum ualifying marks in the Preliminary/Main Examination or otherwise barred from the further processshall be disclosed on Company's website only after the whole exercise is completed.

● Probation PeriodThe newly appointed employees will be on probation for a minimum period of 6 months. Before the probationperiod comes to an end the performance of the newly recruited employees will be evaluated and the probationperiod of those employees whose performance fails to meet Company's expectation, may be extended.

Candidates resigning from the Company during the probationary period and candidateswhose services areterminated by the Company during the probationary period shall be liable to pay the salary received by themduring their entire service in the Company in addition to an amount of Rs.25,000/- towards partial cost oftraining. No lien/bond executed to retain a substantive post with present employer will be binding upon theCompany and no leave, Salary or Pension Contribution will be made.

Practice Sets

Practice Set-1

Reasoning AbilityDirections—(Q. 1 and 2) Study

the given information carefully andanswer the given questions.

Sunil started walking from pointA. He walked 6 metres towards Eastto reach point B. From point B he tooka right turn and walked 3 metres toreach point C. From point C he took aright turn and walked 10 metres toreach point D. From point D he took aleft turn and walked 4 metres to reachpoint E. From point E, he walked 4metres East to reach point F. Point Gis exactly mid-way between point Cand point D.

1. If Sunil walks 4 metres to theSouth of point F, how far and inwhich direction will he be frompoint G ?(A) 1 metre towards East(B) 2 metres towards East(C) 1 metre towards West(D) 2 metres towards West(E) 1·5 metres towards East

2. How far and in which direction ispoint F from point A ?(A) 1 metre towards North(B) 6 metres towards South(C) 8 metres towards South(D) 6 metres towards North(E) None of these

3. Four of the following five are alikein a certain way and hence forma group. Which of the followingdoes not belong to that group ?(A) Think (B) Reflect(C) Speak (D) Consider(E) Ponder

4. How many such pairs ofletters are there in the wordBARGAINED, each of which hasas many letters between them inthe word (in both forward andbackward directions) as theyhave between them in the Englishalphabetical series ?(A) Two (B) Three(C) None (D) One(E) More than three

Directions—(Q. 5–7) Study thegiven information carefully and answerthe given questions.

In a group of six people P, Q, R,S, T and U, each having a differentweight, S is heavier than Q. R islighter than only T and P. Q is not thelightest. P is not the heaviest.

5. Who amongst the following is thelightest ?(A) T (B) P(C) R (D) U(E) None of these

6. Who amongst the following is thesecond heaviest ?(A) R (B) S(C) U (D) T(E) P

7. How many people are lighterthan S ?(A) None (B) Three(C) Two (D) More than three(E) One

8. Which of the following will comenext in the following series ?9 1 9 8 2 9 8 7 3 9 8 7 6 4 9 8 7 65 5 9 8 7 6 5 4 6 9 8 7 6 5 4(A) 7 (B) 8(C) 3 (D) 2(E) 4

9. Which of the following will comein the place of the question mark(?) in the following series basedon the English alphabeticalorder ?

ZA BY XC DW ?(A) VF (B) EU(C) UE (D) EV(E) VE

10. Fifteen girls are standing in astraight line facing North. Sudhais standing eleventh from the rightend. Radha is standing ninth fromthe left end. Meena is standingexactly between Sudha andRadha. How many girls arestanding to the right of Meena ?(A) Eight (B) Seven(C) Nine (D) Six(E) Cannot be determined

Directions—(Q. 11–15) Studythe given information carefully andanswer the given questions—

Eight people P, Q, R, S, T, U, Vand W are sitting around a circulartable facing the centre not necessarilyin the same order. T is sitting third tothe right of P. W is sitting second tothe right of S. S is not an immediateneighbour of either P or T. U and Qare immediate neighbours of eachother. Q is not an immediate neighb-our of P. V is not an immediate neighb-our of W.

11. What is R’s position with respectto V ?(A) Second to the left(B) Second to the right(C) Third to the right(D) Third to the left(E) None of these

12. Four of the following five are alikein a certain way and based ontheir seating positions in theabove arrangement and so form agroup. Which one does notbelong to the group ?(A) RQ (B) PV(C) TP (D) US(E) WT

13. Who is sitting second to the rightof the one who is sitting to theimmediate right of W ?(A) U (B) R(C) V (D) P(E) Q

14. How many people are sitting bet-ween U and W when countedfrom the left side of U ?(A) Three(B) None(C) More than three(D) Two(E) One

15. Who is sitting exactly between Tand S ?(A) U (B) Q(C) W (D) V(E) R

4B | Practice Sets Clerk

Directions—(Q. 16–20) In eachof the questions below, two state-ments are given followed by twoconclusions numbered I and II. Youhave to take the two statements to betrue even if they seem to be atvariance from the commonly knownfacts and then decide which of thegiven conclusions logically followsfrom the given statements disregard-ing the commonly known facts. Giveanswer—

(A) If only conclusion I follows.(B) If only conclusion II follows.(C) If either conclusion I or II

follows(D) If neither conclusion I nor II

follows.(E) If both conclusions I and II

follow.

16. Statements :All stones are pebbles.All pebbles are rocks.Conclusions :I. All stones are rocks.II. All rocks are pebbles.

17. Statements :All kings are rulers.Some rulers are queens.Conclusions :I. Some kings are queens.II. Atleast some queens are

rulers.

18. Statements :Some gardens are parks.Some parks are areas.Conclusions :I. Atleast some areas are parks.II. No garden is an area.

19. Statements :No letter is a fax.All messages are faxes.Conclusions :I. No message is a letter.II. Atleast some faxes are mes-

sages.

20. Statements :Some boards are plains.No plains is a square.Conclusions :I. All squares are boards.II. All plains are boards.

Directions—(Q. 21–25) Studythe given information carefully andanswer the given questions.

Eight people—A, B, C, D, E, F, Gand H are sitting in a straight linefacing North not necessarily in thesame order. F is sitting fifth to the rightof A. D is sitting fifth to the right of E.E is to the immediate right of A. H isthird to the left of D. B is third to theright of G. G is an immediate neighb-our of A.

21. What is E’s position with respectto C ?(A) Second to the left(B) Third to the right(C) Fourth to the right(D) Third to the left(E) None of these

22. Who is sitting third to the right ofthe one who is sitting sixth fromthe right end of the abovearrangement ?(A) D (B) C(C) E (D) H(E) None of these

23. Who amongst the following aresitting at the extreme ends of theline ?(A) G and D (B) A and D(C) G and F (D) E and D(E) A and B

24. Four of the following five are alikein a certain way based on theirseating positions in the abovearrangement and so form a group.Which one does not belong tothe group ?

(A) HD (B) BE

(C) EC (D) AH

(E) GB

25. If all eight persons are asked tosit in an alphabetical order fromright to left, the positions of howmany will remain unchanged ascompared to their original seatingposition ?(A) Three (B) More than three(C) One (D) Two(E) None of these

Directions—(Q. 26–30) In thesequestions, relationships between diffe-rent elements is shown in the state-ments. These statements are followedby two conclusions. Give answer—

(A) If only conclusion I follows.

(B) If only conclusion II follows.

(C) If either conclusion I or con-clusion II follows.

(D) If neither conclusion I norconclusion II follows.

(E) if both conclusions I and IIfollow.

26. Statements :

G ≤ F = L ≤ J; J ≤ K = H

Conclusions : I. H = G

II. G < H

27. Statements : P < R < S < T < U

Conclusions : I. U < R

II. T > P

28. Statements :

T > U ≥ V > W; X < Y = W > ZConclusions : I. Z > U

II. W < T

29. Statements :K < L < M < N; M < O < P

Conclusions : I. P > KII. N > O

30. Statements :

B < A < C; A > D ≤ E

Conclusions : I. B ≤ EII. C > E

31. In the given figure, circles repre-sent students studying threedifferent subjects. How manystudents study all the threesubjects ?

3

21 7

6

54

(A) 3 (B) 4

(C) 1 (D) 2

32. Which one of the following dia-grams best depicts the relation-ship among Mammals, Cowsand Crows ?

(A) (B)

(C) (D)

33. In a row at a bus stop, ‘A’ is 7thfrom the left and ‘B’ is 9th fromthe right. They both interchangetheir positions. Now A becomes11th from the left. How manypeople are there in the row ?

(A) 20 (B) 19

(C) 18 (D) 10

Practice Sets Clerk | 5B

34. If ‘JUNE’ is written as ‘PQRS’and ‘AUGUST’ is written as‘WQFQMN’. How can ‘GUEST’be written in this same codinglanguage ?(A) FQSMN (B) FQSNM(C) FQTMN (D) FPSMN

35. If DELHI is coded as 73541 andCALCUTTA as 82589662, thenhow would CALICUT be coded inthat code ?(A) 8251896 (B) 8543691(C) 5279431 (D) 5978213

Numerical AbilityDirections—(Q. 36–45) What

should come in place of the questionmark (?) in the following questions ?

36. 417·25 – 41·72 – 4·53 = ?(A) 380·06 (B) 371(C) 348 (D) 315(E) None of these

37. 896 – (?)3 = 4608 ÷ 12

(A) 2 (B) 23

(C) 82 (D) 42

(E) 24

38. 273 ÷ 3 – 9·1 = ?(A) 81·9 (B) 62·3(C) 84·9 (D) 91·8(E) None of these

39. 3969 ÷ 1·4 = ? × 2·5(A) 18 (B) 112·5(C) 16 (D) 24(E) None of these

40. 15·8 × 3 + 8·1 – 21·5 = ? + 14·6(A) 14·9 (B) 20·1(C) 18·4 (D) 19·4(E) None of these

41. 8327·3 ÷ 831·4 × 8346·8 = 8331·9 + ?

(A) 64·1 (B) 41·9(C) 40·8 (D) 39·1(E) None of these

42. 43% of 586 = 341·2 – ?(A) 76·28 (B) 49·53(C) 82·99 (D) 48·96(E) None of these

43. (504·14 ÷ 14) ÷ 13 = ?(A) 2·77 (B) 2·56(C) 3·14 (D) 2·17(E) None of these

44. 4431 + 431 – 31 = ?(A) 4530 (B) 3969(C) 4831 (D) 4031(E) None of these

45. 2 1317 +

417 = ?

(A) 5 (B) 2·9(C) 7 (D) 4(E) None of these

Directions—(Q. 46–50) Whatapproximate value should come inplace of the question mark (?) in thefollowing questions ?

(Note : You are not expected tocalculate the exact value)46. (10·97)2 + (4·13)3 × 3·79 = ?

(A) 428 (B) 376(C) 197 (D) 204(E) 302

47. 12·13% of 935·81 + 1498% of25·85 = ?(A) 500 (B) 550(C) 478 (D) 341(E) 596

48. √⎯⎯3

65 × 23·93 – 31·04 = ?(A) 98 (B) 65(C) 102 (D) 35(E) 79

49. 1624·12 × 3·891 = ?(A) 6100 (B) 6900(C) 6000 (D) 6400(E) 6500

50. 3018·19 ÷ 2·87 – 841·02 = ?(A) 365 (B) 90(C) 387 (D) 1000(E) 200

Directions—(Q. 51–55) Whatshould come in place of the questionmark (?) in the following series ?51. 5 6 16 57 ? 1245

(A) 244 (B) 148(C) 296 (D) 271(E) None of these

52. 12 ? 168 504 1260 2520(A) 96 (B) 59(C) 61 (D) 48(E) None of these

53. 4 9 29 ? 599 3599(A) 117 (B) 347(C) 258 (D) 174(E) None of these

54. 177 170 159 146 ? 110(A) 132 (B) 106(C) 129 (D) 127(E) None of these

55. 2 3 11 38 102 ?(A) 402 (B) 182(C) 227 (D) 168(E) None of these

56. On a particular day, sweets wereto be equally distributed among495 students of a school. How-ever, on that particular day 396students from a nearby schoolalso joined them. Hence eachstudent present on that day gotfour sweets less. How manysweets were distributed ?(A) 5445 (B) 4950(C) 4455 (D) 3960(E) None of these

57. A student requires 324 pencils in6 years. How many dozen pencilswill he require in 14 years ?(A) 52 (B) 64(C) 59 (D) 62(E) None of these

58. In how many different ways canthe letters of the word ‘REPLACE’be arranged ?(A) 2630 (B) 5040(C) 1680 (D) 2580(E) None of these

59. A particular sum was dividedamong A, B and C in the ratio 2 :6 : 7 respectively. If the amountreceived by A was 4,908, whatwas the difference between theamounts received by B and C ?(A) 2,454 (B) 3,494(C) 2,135 (D) 2,481(E) None of these

60. The average of four consecutiveeven numbers P, Q, R and Srespectively (in increasing order)is 51. What is the product of Pand R ?(A) 2592 (B) 2400(C) 2600 (D) 2808(E) None of these

61. What is the least number to beadded to 4523 to make it a per-fect square ?(A) 101 (B) 34(C) 238 (D) 121

(E) None of these

6B | Practice Sets Clerk

62. The product of two consecutiveeven numbers is 7568. What is150% of the sum of the two num-bers ?(A) 204 (B) 261(C) 304 (D) 198(E) None of these

63. Length of the floor of a rect-angular auditorium is 6 m morethan the radius of a circle with acircumference of 572 m. Theperimeter of the floor of the rect-angular auditorium is 356 m.What will be cost of flooring theauditorium (only the floor of theauditorium), if the cost of flooringis 12/m2 ?(A) 87,954 (B) 91,236(C) 94,284 (D) 75,490(E) None of these

64. A car covers a distance of 528km in a certain time at a speed of66 km/hr. How much distancewould a truck cover at an averagespeed which is 24 km/hr less thanthat of the speed of the car intime which is 7 hours more thanthat taken by the car ?(A) 336 km (B) 682 km(C) 598 km (D) 630 km(E) None of these

65. The average age of a man andhis son is 30 years. The ratio oftheir ages four years ago was10 : 3 respectively. What is thedifference between the presentages of the man and his son ?(A) 28 years (B) 16 years(C) 26 years (D) 44 years(E) None of these

66. What would be the compoundinterest obtained on an amount of 7,790 at the rate of 10 p.c.p.a

after two years ?

(A) 1532·60 (B) 1495·90

(C) 1653·50 (D) 1635·90

(E) None of these

67. The difference between 20% of a

number and 45th of the same

number is 2499. What is 27th of

that number ?

(A) 2156 (B) 1190

(C) 1090 (D) 1465(E) None of these

68. The average height of 27 per-sons was recorded as 162 cm. Ifthe height of Shreyas was dele-ted from the observation, theaverage height reduced by 1 cm.What was Shreyas’ height ?(A) 184 cm (B) 226 cm(C) 179 cm (D) 186 cm(E) None of these

69. The cost of 14 keyboards and 8mouse-pads is 26,240. What isthe cost of 35 keyboards and 20mouse-pads ?(A) 65,600(B) 58,800(C) 76,550(D) Cannot be determined(E) None of these

70. In order to pass in an examina-tion, a student is required to get342 marks out of the aggregatemarks. Neha got 266 marks andwas declared fail by 8 per cent.What is the minimum passingpercentage of the examination ?(A) 28 (B) 36(C) 33 (D) 26(E) None of these

English LanguageDirections—(Q. 71–80) Read

the following passage carefully andanswer the questions given below it.Certain words/phrases have beenprinted in bold to help you locatethem while answering some of thequestions.

Once upon a time there lived astone cutter is a small village. Heworked hard throughout the day, pre-paring the shapes that were orderedby his customers. His hands wererough and his clothes were dirty. Oneday he went to the mountain to cut abig stone. It was difficult to work asthe weather was extremely hot. Afterworking for several hours, he satdown in the shade of a nearby treeand soon fell asleep. After sometime,he heard the sound of a procession.He woke up and saw many soldiersand attendants walking in the sun,alongside the king who not only rodean elephant but also had an umbrellato keep the sun away. “How wonder-ful it must be to be a king”, thoughtthe stone cutter. He wondered howhappy would he be if he were the kinginstead of a poor stone cutter. As he

thought so, a strange thing happened.The stone cutter found himselfdressed in silk clothes and shiningjewels. His hands were soft and hewas sitting on the elephant. He lookedaround at the attendants and thought,“how easy it is to be a king, thesepeople are here to serve me.” Theprocession moved on and the sungrew hotter.

The stone cutter, now the king,became too warm for comfort. Heasked the procession to stop so thathe could rest for some time. At oncethe chief of the soldiers bent beforethe king and said, “Your Majesty, thismorning you swore to have mehanged to death if we did not reachthe palace before the sun set.” Thestone cutter felt sorry for him and letthe procession go on its way again. “Iam powerful, it is true, but how morepowerful the sun is. I would rather bethe sun than a king”, he thought. Atonce, he became the sun, shiningdown on the earth.

Its new power was hard to con-trol. It shone too brilliantly and burnedup the fields with its rays. But nomatter how hard it shone, it could notsee through the clouds. It was evidentthat the clouds were even strongerand more powerful than the sun. Thesun wished that it would rather be acloud. Suddenly it found itself turnedinto a huge dark cloud. It started usingits new power. It poured rain down onthe fields and caused floods. All thetrees and houses were swept awaybut the boulder, which once it hadbeen cutting when it was a stonecutter was unmoved and unchanged.No matter how hard it poured downon the stone, the stone did not move.

The cloud wondered, “That rockis more powerful than I am. Only astone cutter could change the rock byhis skill.” No sooner had it said thesewords, he found himself sitting on astone. He picked up his tools andbegan working.

Directions—(Q. 71 and 72)Choose the word/phrase which ismost similar in meaning to theword/phrase printed in bold as usedin the passage.

71. Keep the Sun away(A) Maintain darkness(B) Delay the sunset(C) Block the sun

Practice Sets Clerk | 7B

(D) Stock the shade(E) Enjoy little shade

72. Evident(A) Obvious (B) Transparent(C) Known (D) Public(E) Active

Directions—(Q. 73–75) Choosethe word which is most oppositein meaning to the word printed inbold as used in the passage.73. Let

(A) Stopped (B) Punished(C) Allowed (D) Admitted(E) Disciplined

74. Hard(A) Mockingly (B) Badly(C) Leisurely (D) Soft(E) Aimlessly

75. Strange(A) Wonderful (B) False(C) Erratic (D) Orthodox(E) Usual

76. Which of the following is themost appropriate title for thestory ?(A) The Stone cutter(B) The King’s Procession(C) The power of nature(D) Experiments of a king(E) A dream of a king

77. Why could the king’s processionnot be stopped ?(A) The King had promised thequeen that he would reach thepalace in time(B) It was getting dark and itwas unsafe to halt(C) It was about to rain and thepalace was close by(D) The soldiers were in a hurryto reach the palace as they werevery hungry(E) None of these

78. Why did the sun wish to becomea cloud ?(A) It wanted to cool down theearth by raining(B) It did not want to set in theevening and be visible even inthe night(C) It assumed that the cloudswere stronger than the sun(D) It wanted to wander in thesky like the clouds did(E) None of these

79. What problem did the cloudface ?(A) The cloud could not affectthe boulder(B) The cloud had to rain all thetime(C) The cloud brought about ahuge flood for which it waspunished by the king

(D) The cloud needed the sunfor its formation

(E) None of these

80. Why did the king desire tobecome the sun ?

(A) The sun was troubling theking and the king desired to takerevenge

(B) The king desired to be morepowerful than he already was

(C) The chief of the soldierssuggested the king to be the sun

(D) The king would be able tolive in the sky, once he were thesun

(E) None of these

Directions—(Q. 81–85) In eachquestion below a sentence with fourwords printed in bold type are given.These are lettered as (A), (B), (C) and(D). One of these four words printedin bold may either be misspelt orinappropriate in the context of thesentence. Find out the word which iswrongly spelt or inappropriate ifany. The letter of that word is youranswer. If all the words printed in boldare correctly spelt and also appro-priate in the context of the sentence,mark (E) i.e. ‘All correct’ as youranswer.

81. The need to be grow should not(A)

be mistaken for dissatisfaction

(B) (C)

with one’s current state.

(D)

All correct

(E)

82. He laiy in the bed to rest, and

(A) (B)

within no time dozed off to sleep.

(C) (D)

All correct

(E)

83. It was disappointing to know(A)

that despite his best attempts,(B) (C)

he had failed in the exam.(D) All correct

(E)

84. He was so scared after watching(A) (B)

the movie that he didn’t sleep for(C)

three nights after that.(D) All correct

(E)

85. Vijay had always been keen on(A) (B)

getting as much education as he(C) (D)

could. All correct(E)

Directions—(Q. 86–90) Rear-range the following five sentences(1), (2), (3), (4) and (5) in a propersequence so as to form a meaningfulparagraph, and then answer the ques-tions given below :

1. But Gandhiji stuck to hisprinciples and did not copy,thus, having to face scoldingand ridicule after the inspec-tor left.

2. Gandhiji wrote four wordscorrectly, but he could notspell the fifth word ‘Kettle’.

3. The Inspector of Schoolsvisited Gandhiji’s School.

4. Having noticed that exceptGandhiji all the other studentshad spelt all the five words,the teacher prompted Gandhijito copy the word from hisneighbour’s slate.

5. He read out five Englishwords to the class and askedall the boys to write themdown.

86. Which of the following should bethe LAST (FIFTH) sentence afterthe rearrangement ?(A) 2 (B) 1(C) 5 (D) 4(E) 3

87. Which of the following should bethe FIRST sentence after therearrangement ?(A) 4 (B) 2(C) 3 (D) 5(E) 1

8B | Practice Sets Clerk

88. Which of the following should bethe THIRD sentence after therearrangement ?(A) 3 (B) 2(C) 5 (D) 1(E) 4

89. Which of the following should bethe FOURTH sentence after therearrangement ?(A) 1 (B) 3

(C) 4 (D) 2

(E) 5

90. Which of the following should bethe SECOND sentence after therearrangement ?(A) 5 (B) 2

(C) 4 (D) 3(E) 1

Directions—(Q. 91–100) Readeach sentence to find out whetherthere is any grammatical error in it.The error, if any, will be in one part ofthe sentence. The letter of that part isthe answer. If there is ‘No error’, theanswer is (E).

(Ignore the errors of punctuation,if any)

91. People who play / their radios(A) (B)

too / loud have no / considera-(C)

tions for others.(D) No error

(E)

92. The novel has neither / an(A)

interesting / plot, nor any /(B) (C)

interesting character.(D) No error

(E)

93. If you were given a / chance to(A) (B)

live in / some other country,(C)

which / one would you have(D)

chosen ? No error(E)

94. Having lived to / Paris for two /(A) (B)

years, Prakash understands /(C)

French reasonably well.(D)

No error(E)

95. Reema decided not to / watch the(A) (B)

movie because / she had to study(C)

for the / quiz to be hold the next(D)

day. No error(E)

96. Athletes do various / kinds of(A) (B)

warm / up activities before / they(C)

start to running.(D) No error

(E)

97. Ramesh will lives / will Ram(A) (B)

until he / finds a separate / house(C) (D)

for himself. No error

(E)

98. Cows, goats and / other such(A) (B)

domestic / animals together is /(C)

called livestock.(D) No error

(E)

99. Students are likely to / work on(A) (B)

the evenings, / during the(C)

weekends, / or summer breaks.(D)

No error(E)

100. Being able to / remember a lot of(A) (B)

informations is / not the same as /(C)

being able to think.(D) No error

(E)

Answers with HintsFor Q. 1 and 2 :

N

S

W E

E F6 m

5 m 5 m

4 m

4 m

D G C

BA

3 m

1. (C) 2. (A) 3. (C)

4. (B) B A R G A I N E D

GI, DE, AB

For Q. 5 to 7 :

● > ● > ● > ● > ● > ●

T P R S Q U

5. (D) The lightest is ‘U’.

6. (E) 7. (C)

8. (C) 91, 982, 9873, 98764,987655, 9876546, 9876543.

09. (E) Z B X D V

A Y C W E

10. (A) Radha Meena Sudha

N

S

W E

For Q. 11 to 15 :

VS

R

WP

U

Q

T

To right To left

11. (B)

12. (C) In all the rest, there are3 people between each.

13. (E) There is ‘P’ is immediate rightof ‘W’ and second to right of ‘P’ isQ.

14. (E) 15. (D)

16. (A)

Rocks

Pebbles

Stones

17. (B)

Kings

Queens

Rulers

OR

Kings

Queens

Rulers

Practice Sets Clerk | 9B

18. (A) Parks

Gardens Areas

OR

ParksGardens

Areas

19. (E)

Messages

Letters

Faxes

20. (D)

Plains

Boards Square

OR

PlainsBoards

Square

For Q. 21 to 25 :G A E B H C F D● ● ● ● ● ● ● ●

21. (D)

22. (B) 6th from the right end is ‘E’and 3rd to the right of ‘E’ is ‘C’.

23. (A)

24. (B) There are 2 people betweeneach in all the rest.

25. (C) G A E B H C F D● ● ● ● ● ● ● ●

H G F E D C B A

26. (C) H ≥ J ≥ GEither H = Gor H > G

27. (B) T > P

28. (B) Z < W < U

T > U ≥ V > W

∴ W < T

29. (A) P > M > K

N > M < O

30. (D) B < A > D ≤ E

C > A > D ≤ E31. (A) 32. (B)

33. (B) Required number of people inthe row = 7 + 3 + 9 = 19.

34. (A) As,J U N E⏐↓

⏐↓

⏐↓

⏐↓

P Q R S

and A U G U S T⏐↓

⏐↓

⏐↓

⏐↓

⏐↓

⏐↓

W Q F Q M NSame as,

G U E S T⏐↓

⏐↓

⏐↓

⏐↓

⏐↓

F Q S M N35. (A) As,

D E L H I⏐↓

⏐↓

⏐↓

⏐↓

⏐↓

7 3 5 4 1and C A L C U T T A

⏐↓

⏐↓

⏐↓

⏐↓

⏐↓

⏐↓

⏐↓

⏐↓

8 2 5 8 9 6 6 2Same as,

C A L I C U T⏐↓

⏐↓

⏐↓

⏐↓

⏐↓

⏐↓

⏐↓

8 2 5 1 8 9 636. (B) ? = 417·25 – 41·72 – 4·53

= 37137. (B) 896 – (?)3 = 4608 ÷ 12

= 384∴ (?)3 = 896 – 384

= 512∴ ? = 8 = 23

38. (A) ? = 273 ÷ 3 – 9·1= 91 – 9·1= 81·9

39. (A) ? × 2·5 = 3969 ÷ 1·4= 63 ÷ 1·4

? =452·5 = 18

40. (D) ? + 14·6 = 15·8 × 3 + 8·1 – 21·5= 47·4 + 8·1 – 21·5= 34·00

∴ ? = 34·00 – 14·6= 19·4

41. (C) (83)31·9 + ? = 8327·3

÷ 831·4 × 8346·8

= 8327·3 – 1·4 + 46·8

= 8372·7

31·9 + ? = 72·7

∴ ? = 72·7 – 31·9= 40·8

42. (E)43100 of 586 = 341·2 – ?

586 × 43100 = 341·2 – ?

251·98 = 341·2 – ?

∴ ? = 341·2 – 251·98

= 89·22

43. (A) ? = (504·14 ÷ 14) ÷ 13

= 36·01 ÷ 13

= 2·77

44. (C) ? = 4431 + 431 – 31

= 4831

45. (E) ? = 21317 +

417

= 2 + 13 + 4

17

= 346. (B) ? = (10·97)2 + (4·13)3 × 3·79

= (11)2 + 43 × 4= 121 + 256= 377= 376 (App.)

47. (A) ? =12·13100 of 935·81 +

1496100

of 25·85

=12100 of 936 +

1500100 of 26

= 112·32 + 390

= 502·32

= 500 (App.)

48. (B) ? =3

65 × 23·93 – 31·04

= 4 × 24 – 31

= 96 – 31

= 65

49. (E) ? = 1624·12 × 3·891

= 1624 × 4

= 6496

= 6500 (App.)

50. (E) ? = 3018·19 ÷ 2·87 – 841·02

=3018

3 – 841

= 1006 – 841

= 165

= 200 (App.)

51. (A)

× 1 + (1)2

× 2 + (2)2

× 3 + (3)2

× 4 + (4)2

× 5 + (5)2

5

6

16

57

244

1245

52. (D)

× 4

× 3·5

× 3

× 2·5

× 2

12

48

168

504

1260

2520

continue

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