Test Type : MAJOR Test Pattern : AIPMT
TEST DATE : 18 - 01 - 2016
Paper Code : 1001CM302115069
TEST SYLLABUS : FULL SYLLABUS
Hin
di
Form Number :
CLASSROOM CONTACT PROGRAMME(Academic Session : 2015 - 2016)
Corporate Office : CAREER INSTITUTE, “SANKALP”, CP-6, Indra Vihar, Kota (Rajasthan)-324005
+91-744-5156100 [email protected] www.allen.ac.in
1. A seat marked with Reg. No. will be allotted to each student. The student should ensure thathe/she occupies the correct seat only. If any student is found to have occupied the seat ofanother student, both the students shall be removed from the examination and shall have toaccept any other penalty imposed upon them.
2. Duration of Test is 3 Hours and Questions Paper Contains 180 Questions. The Max. Marks are 720.3180720
3. Student can not use log tables and calculators or any other material in the examination hall.
4. Student must abide by the instructions issued during the examination, by the invigilators or thecentre incharge.
5. Before attempting the question paper ensure that it contains all the pages and that no question ismissing.
6. Each correct answer carries 4 marks, while 1 mark will be deducted for every wrong answer.Guessing of answer is harmful.1
7. A candidate has to write his / her answers in the OMR sheet by darkening the appropriate bubble withthe help of Blue / Black Ball Point Pen only as the correct answer(s) of the question attempted.OMR
8. Use of Pencil is strictly prohibited.
Your Target is to secure Good Rank in Pre-Medical 2016
Do not open this Test Booklet until you are asked to do so
Important Instructions /
TARGET : PRE-MEDICAL - 2016
ENTHUSIAST COURSEPHASE - I & II
Note : In case of any Correction in the test paper, please mail to [email protected] 2 days along with Paper code and Your Form No.
Correction Paper codeForm No. [email protected] mail
Pre-Medical : Enthusiast Course/Phase-All/18-01-2016
H-1/361001CM302115069
BEWARE OF NEGATIVE MARKING
HAVE CONTROL HAVE PATIENCE HAVE CONFIDENCE 100% SUCCESS
1. For the system shown in figure, the pulleys are light
and frictionless. The tension in the string will be :-
mm
(1)2
3mg sin (2)
3
2mg sin
(3) 2 mg sin (4) 1
mg2
sin
2. Four holes of radius R are cut from a thin square
plate of side 4R and mass M. The moment of
inertia of the remaining portion about z-axis is :-
y
x
(1)2MR
12
(2)
24MR
3 4
(3) 28 10
MR3 16
(4)
24MR
3 6
3. A Carnot's engine working between 300 K and
600 K has a work output of 800 J per cycle. How
much heat energy is supplied to the engine from
the source in each cycle ?
(1) 1400 J (2) 1500 J
(3) 1600 J (4) 1700 J
4. P-type semiconductor has acceptor levels 57 meV
above the valence band. The maximum
wavelength of light required to create a hole is
(Planck's constant h = 6.6 × 10–34 J-s) :-
(1) 57Å (2) 57 × 10–3 Å
(3) 217100 Å (4) 11.61 × 10–33 Å
1. :-
mm
(1)2
3mg sin (2)
3
2mg sin
(3) 2 mg sin (4) 1
mg2
sin
2. 4R M R
z- :-
y
x
(1)2MR
12
(2)
24MR
3 4
(3) 28 10
MR3 16
(4)
24MR
3 6
3. 300 K 600 K
800 J
?
(1) 1400 J (2) 1500 J
(3) 1600 J (4) 1700 J
4. P- 57 meV
( h = 6.6 × 10–34 J-s) :-
(1) 57Å (2) 57 × 10–3 Å
(3) 217100 Å (4) 11.61 × 10–33 Å
H-2/36
Target : Pre-Medical 2016/Major/18-01-2016
1001CM302115069
5. If E =
E x
a0 i (x - mt) then flux through the
shaded area of a cube is :-
(a, 0)x
y
z
(1) E0a2 (2) Zero
(3) E0a3 (4) - E
0a3
6. A block of mass 5 kg is kept on a rough horizontal
floor. It is given a velocity 33 m/s towards right.
A force of 20 2 N continuously acts on the block
as shown in the figure. If the coefficient of friction
between block and floor is 0.5 the velocity of
block after 3 seconds is (g = 10 m/s2)
45º
20 2 N
5 kg 33 m/s
(1) 2 m/s (2) Zero
(3) 33/12 m/s (4) None of above
7. A copper solid cube of 60 mm side is subjected
to a pressure of 2.5 × 107 Pa. If the bulk modulus
of copper is 1.25 × 1011 N/m2, the change in the
volume of cube is -
(1) – 43.2 m3 (2) – 43.2 mm3
(3) – 43.2 cm3 (4) – 432 mm3
8. Displacement-time equation of a particle
executing SHM is x = A sin
6
t .
Time taken by the particle to go directly from
x = –2
A to x = +
2
A is:
(1)
3(2)
2
(3)
2(4)
5. E =
E x
a0 i (x - )
(a, 0)x
y
z
(1) E0a2 (2) Zero
(3) E0a3 (4) - E
0a3
6. 5 kg 33 m/s 20 2 N 0.5
3
(g = 10 m/s2)
45º
20 2 N
5 kg 33 m/s
(1) 2 m/s (2)
(3) 33/12 m/s (4)
7. 60 mm 2.5 × 107 Pa
1.25 × 1011
N/m2
(1) – 43.2 m3 (2) – 43.2 mm3
(3) – 43.2 cm3 (4) – 432 mm3
8.
x = A sin
6
t
x = – A
2 x = +
2
A
:
(1)
3(2)
2
(3)
2(4)
Pre-Medical : Enthusiast Course/Phase-All/18-01-2016
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9. In a transistor the collector current is always less
than the emitter current because :-
(1) Collector side is reverse biased and the emitter
side is forward biased
(2) A few charge carriers are lost in the base and
only remaining ones reach the collector
(3) Collector being reverse biased, attracts less
electrons
(4) Collector side is forward biased and emitter
side is reverse biased
10. A galvanometer of resistance, G, is connected in
a circuit. Now a resistance R is connected in series
of galvanometer. To keep the main current in the
circuit unchanged, the resistance to be put in
parallel with the series combination of G and R
is-
(1) 2G
GR (2)
2RG
G
(3) 2G
GR (4)
2RG
G
11. A player throws a ball that reaches to the another
player in 4s. If the height of each player is 1.5m,
the maximum height attained by the ball from the
ground level is :
(1) 19.6 m (2) 21.1 m
(3) 23.6 m (4) 25.1 m
12. Water rises in a capillary upto a height of 4 cm.
If it is titled to 30º from the vertical, then the length
of water column in it will be -
(1) 8
cm3
(2) 8 3 cm
(3) 4 cm (4) 2 cm
13. A mixture of 2 moles of helium gas (atomic mass
= 4 amu) and 1 mole of argon gas (atomic mass
= 40 amu) is kept at 300 K in a container. The
ratio of the r.m.s. speeds rms
rms
v (helium)
v (argon)
is
(1) 0.32 (2) 0.45
(3) 2.24 (4) 3.16
9. :-
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
10. G
R
(1) 2G
GR (2)
2RG
G
(3) 2G
GR (4)
2RG
G
11.
4
1.5
(1) 19.6 m (2) 21.1 m
(3) 23.6 m (4) 25.1 m
12. 4 cm 30º
(1) 8
cm3
(2) 8 3 cm
(3) 4 cm (4) 2 cm
13. =4 amu =40 amu 300 K
)(v
)(v
rms
rms
vkWxZu
eghfy;
(1) 0.32 (2) 0.45
(3) 2.24 (4) 3.16
H-4/36
Target : Pre-Medical 2016/Major/18-01-2016
1001CM302115069
14. In the following circuit, the current flowing
through 1k resistor :-
500
10V 5V 1k
(1) 0 mA (2) 5 mA (3) 10 mA (4) 15 mA
15. What will be r.m.s. value of given A.C. over one
cycle.
tT0
V0
V
3T2
T2
(1) V0 (2) 0V
2
(3)0V
2(4)
0V
4
16. A ball is thrown vertically upwards from the top
of a tower at 4.9 ms–1. It strikes the pond near the
base of the tower after 3 seconds. The height of
the tower is :-
(1) 73.5 m (2) 44.1 m
(3) 29.4 m (4) None of these
17. If the distance between centres of earth and moon
is D and the mass of earth is 81 times the mass
of moon, then at what distance from centre of earth
the gravitational force will be zero-
(1) D
2(2)
2D
3
(3) 4D
3(4)
9D
10
18. The equation of a stationary wave is
Y = 10 sin x
4
cos20 t. The distance between
two consecutive nodes in metres is -
(1) 4 (2) 2 (3) 5 (4) 8
14. 1k :-
500
10V 5V 1k
(1) 0 mA (2) 5 mA (3) 10 mA (4) 15 mA
15. A.C
tT0
V0
V
3T2
T2
(1) V0 (2) 0V
2
(3)0V
2(4)
0V
4
16. 4.9 ms–1
3 :-
(1) 73.5 m (2) 44.1 m
(3) 29.4 m (4)
17. D 81
(1) D
2(2)
2D
3
(3) 4D
3(4)
9D
10
18.
Y = 10 sin x
4
cos20 t
( ) -(1) 4 (2) 2 (3) 5 (4) 8
Key Filling
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19. Threshold wavelength of a metal surface is
5 × 10–10 m. When it is illuminated by light of
wavelength 2 × 10–10 m , stopping potential is V0
what will be stopping potential if wavelength of
light is doubled :-
(1) 0V
2(2) 2V0
(3) > (0.5 V0) (4) < (0.5 V0)
20. Two small spherical balls
Q Q
120°each carrying a chargeQ = 10 C (10 micro-coulomb) are suspended by
two insulating threads of equal lengths 3 m
each, from a point fixed in the ceiling. It is foundthat in equilibrium threads are separated by anangle 120° between them, as shown in the figure.What is the tension in the threads
(Given : 0
1
(4 ) = 9 × 109 Nm/C2)
(1) 0.2
N3
(2) 1.8 N
(3) 0.2
N5
(4) None of the above
21. Measure of two quantities along with the precision
of respective measuring instrument is:
A = 2.5 ms–1 ± 0.5 ms–1, B = 0.10s ± 0.01 s
The value of AB will be
(1) (0.25 ± 0.08) m
(2) (0.25 ± 0.5) m
(3) (0.25 ± 0.05) m
(4) (0.25 ± 0.135) m
22. Two particles of equal mass go round a circle of
radius R under the action of their mutual
gravitational attraction. The speed of each particle
is-
(1) 1 1
v2R Gm
(2) Gm
v2R
(3) 1 Gm
v2 R
(4) 4Gm
vR
19. 5 × 10–10 m 2 × 10–10 m
V0
:-
(1) 0V
2(2) 2V0
(3) > (0.5 V0) (4) < (0.5 V0)
20.
Q Q
120°
10 µC
3
120°
(: 0
1
(4 ) = 9 × 109 Nm/C2)
(1) 0.2
N3
(2) 1.8 N
(3) 0.2
N5
(4) None of the above
21. :
A = 2.5 ms–1 ± 0.5 ms–1, B = 0.10s ± 0.01 s
AB :-(1) (0.25 ± 0.08) m
(2) (0.25 ± 0.5) m
(3) (0.25 ± 0.05) m
(4) (0.25 ± 0.135) m
22. R
(1) 1 1
v2R Gm
(2) Gm
v2R
(3) 1 Gm
v2 R
(4) 4Gm
vR
H-6/36
Target : Pre-Medical 2016/Major/18-01-2016
1001CM302115069
23. In an EM wave propagating along X-direction
magnetic field oscillates at a frequency of 3 × 1010 Hz
along Y-direction and has an amplitude of 10–7 T.
The expression for electric field will be :-
(1) Ez = 30 sin 2(100x – 3×1010 t) V/m
(2) Ez = 300 sin 2(100x – 3×1010 t) V/m
(3) Ey = 30 sin 2(100x – 3×1010 t) V/m
(4) Ez = 300 sin 2(100x – 3×1010 t) V/m
24. A photon of energy h is absorbed by a free
electron of a metal having work function
< h :–
(1) The electron is sure to come out
(2) The electron is sure to come out with a
kinetic energy h–.
(3) Either the electron doen’t come out or it
come out with a kinetic energy h–
(4) It may come out with kinetic energy less
than h–
25. Electrostatic field of a long uniformly charged
wire varies with distance (r) according to relation:
(1) Er (2) Er
(3) 2
Er
(4)
3E
r
26. If the position vector of a particle is
ˆ ˆ ˆr cos ti sin tj 18tk
then what is the magnitude of its acceleration ?
(1)0 (2) 1 (3) sin2 t (4) cos t
27. 1 kg of ice at – 10°C is mixed with 4.4 kg of water
at 30°C. The final temperature of mixture is :
(specific heat of ice is 2100 J/kg/k)
(1) 2.3°C (2) 4.4°C
(3) 5.3°C (4) 8.7°C
28. In young's double-slit experiment, the intensity
at a point where path difference is /6 is I'. If I0
denotes the maximum intensity, then I'/I0 is equal
to :-
(1) 3
4(2)
1
2
(3) 3
2(4)
1
2
23. 3 × 1010 Hz 10–7 T :-(1) Ez = 30 sin 2(100x – 3×1010 t) V/m
(2) Ez = 300 sin 2(100x – 3×1010 t) V/m
(3) Ey = 30 sin 2(100x – 3×1010 t) V/m
(4) Ez = 300 sin 2(100x – 3×1010 t) V/m
24. h < h,
:–(1) (2) h–
(3) h–
(4) h–
25. (r)
(1) Er (2) Er
(3) 2
Er
(4)
3E
r
26.
ˆ ˆ ˆr cos ti sin tj 18tk
?(1)0 (2) 1 (3) sin2 t (4) cos t
27. 1 kg – 10°C 4.4 kg 30°C 2100 J/kg/k)
(1) 2.3°C (2) 4.4°C
(3) 5.3°C (4) 8.7°C
28. /6 I' I0
I'/I0
:-
(1) 3
4(2)
1
2
(3) 3
2(4)
1
2
Use stop, look and go method in reading the question
Pre-Medical : Enthusiast Course/Phase-All/18-01-2016
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29. At t = 0, number of active nuclei in a sample is N0.
How much no. of nuclei will decay in time
between its first mean life and second half life?
(1) 0N
e(2)
0 0N N
e 4
(3) 0 0N N
2 e (4)
0N
4
30. If a copper rod carries a direct current, the
magnetic field associated with the current will be :-
(1) Only inside the rod
(2) Only outside the rod
(3) Both inside and outside the rod
(4) Neither inside nor outside the rod
31. System shown in figure is released from rest.
Pulley and spring are massless and the friction is
absent everywhere. The speed of 5 kg block,
when 2 kg block leaves the contact with ground
is :-
(take force constant of
the sprign k = 40 N/m
and g = 10 m/s2)
(1) 2 m/s
5kg
2kg
(2) 2 2 m/s
(3) 2 m/s
(4) 4 2 m/s
32. Two rods are connected as shown. The rods are
of same length and same cross sectional area. In
steady state, the temperature () of the interface
will be –
(1) 60°C (2) 73.3°C
(3) 46.7°C (4) 37.3°C
29. t = 0 N
0
?
(1) 0N
e(2)
0 0N N
e 4
(3) 0 0N N
2 e (4)
0N
4
30.
:-
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
31.
2kg 5 kg
:-
(k = 40 N/m
g = 10 m/s2)
(1) 2 m/s
5kg
2kg
(2) 2 2 m/s
(3) 2 m/s
(4) 4 2 m/s
32.
,
() :–
(1) 60°C (2) 73.3°C
(3) 46.7°C (4) 37.3°C
H-8/36
Target : Pre-Medical 2016/Major/18-01-2016
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33. A telescope has an objective lens of 10 cm
diameter and is situated at a distance of 1 km from
two objects. The minimum distance between
these two objects which can be resolved by the
telescope, when the mean wavelength of light is
5000 Å, is the order of :-
(1) 0.5 m (2) 5 m (3) 5 mm (4) 5 cm
34. The binding energies of nuclei X and Y are E1
and E2 respectively. Two atoms of X are fused
to give one atom of Y and an energy Q is released.
Then
(1) Q = 2E1 – E2 (2) Q = E2–2E1
(3) Q = 2E1 + E2 (4) Q = 2E2 + E1
35. Circular loop of a wire and a long straight wire
carry currents Ic and I
e, respectively as shown in
figure. Assuming that these are placed in the same
plane. The magnetic fields will be zero at the
centre of the loop when the separation H is :-
R
Wire
Ic
H
Ie
Straight
(1) e
c
I R
I (2) c
e
I R
I (3) c
e
I
I R
(4)
e
c
I
I R
36. Two identical balls A and B are released from the
positions shown in figure. They collide elastically
on horizontal portion MN. The ratio of the heights
attained by A and B after collision will be :-
(neglect friction)
h
4h
60º45º
A
B
M N
(1) 1 : 4 (2) 2 : 1 (3) 4 : 13 (4) 2 : 5
33. 10 cm 1 km 5000 Å :-
(1) 0.5 m (2) 5 m
(3) 5 mm (4) 5 cm
34. XY E1 E2
XY
Q
(1) Q = 2E1 – E2 (2) Q = E2–2E1
(3) Q = 2E1 + E2 (4) Q = 2E2 + E1
35. Ic Ie
H :-
R
Wire
Ic
H
Ie
Straight
(1) e
c
I R
I (2) c
e
I R
I (3) c
e
I
I R
(4)
e
c
I
I R
36. A B MN A B :-
h
4h
60º45º
A
B
M N
(1) 1 : 4 (2) 2 : 1 (3) 4 : 13 (4) 2 : 5
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37. The motion of a particle varies with time
according to the relation y = a (sin t + cos t)
(1) the motion is oscillatory but not S.H.M.
(2) the motion is S.H.M. with amplitude a
(3) the motion is S.H.M. with amplitude a 2
(4) the motion is S.H.M. with amplitude 2a
38. For the angle of minimum deviation of a prism
to be equal to its refracting angle, the prism must
be made of a material whose refractive index :-
(1) between 2 & 1 (2) between 2 & 2
(3) less than 1 (4) Greater than 2
39. The energy stored in the capacitor is 'U'. If an
uncharged capacitor of same capacity is connected
in parallel with it, then energy stored in each
capacitor is
(1) U
6(2)
U
4(3)
U
2(4) U
40. A mgnetic needle is kept in a non-uniform
magnetic field. It experiences :-
(1) A force and a torque
(2) A force but not a torque
(3) A torque but not a force
(4) Neither a torque nor a force
41. Two particles of equal masses have velocities
1ˆv 2i m/s
and
2ˆv 2 jm/s
. The first particle
has an acceleration 21
ˆ ˆa (3i 3 j)m/s
, while the
acceleration of the other particle is zero. The
centre of mass of the two particles moves in a :-
(1) circle (2) parabola
(3) straight line (4) ellipse
42. An ideal gas follows a process PT = constant. The
correct graph between pressure & volume is :-
(1) (2)
(3) (4)
37.
y = a (sin t + cos t)
(1) (2) a
(3) a 2
(4) 2a
38. :-
(1) 2 1 (2) 2 2 (3) 1 (4) 2
39. 'U'
(1) U
6(2)
U
4(3)
U
2(4) 8 U
40.
:-(1) (2) (3) (4)
41. 1
ˆv 2i m/s
2ˆv 2 jm/s
21
ˆ ˆa (3i 3 j)m/s
:-(1) (2) (3) (4)
42. PT =
(1) (2)
(3) (4)
H-10/36
Target : Pre-Medical 2016/Major/18-01-2016
1001CM302115069
43. Young's double-slit experiment is carried out by
using green, red and blue light, one colour at a
time. The fringe widths recorded are G, R and
B respectively. Then :-
(1) G > B > R (2) B > G > R
(3) R
> B >
G(4)
R >
G >
B
44. Fig. shows rough sketch of meter bridge.
(G) deflects zero at length cm. Now R1 and R2
are interchanged then balancing length increases
by 25 cm. Find R1/R2 :-
R1 R2
G
a c
E
(1) 3
5(2)
2
5
(3) 2
3(4)
5
2
45. A flexible wire bent in the form of a circle is
placed in a uniform magnetic field perpendicular
to the plane of the coil.The radius of the coil
changes as shown in figure. The graph of induced
emf in the coil is represented by :-
Y
O Xt(s)
r
(1)
Y
O X1 2 t(s)
e (2)
Y
O X1 2 t(s)
e
(3)
Y
O X1 2 t(s)
e(4)
Y
O X1 2 t(s)
e
43. G, R B
(1) G
> B >
R(2)
B >
G >
R
(3) R
> B >
G(4)
R >
G >
B
44. (G) cm R1
R2
25 cm. R1/R2 :-
R1 R2
G
a c
E
(1) 3
5(2)
2
5
(3) 2
3(4)
5
2
45.
:-
Y
O Xt(s)
r
(1)
Y
O X1 2 t(s)
e (2)
Y
O X1 2 t(s)
e
(3)
Y
O X1 2 t(s)
e(4)
Y
O X1 2 t(s)
e
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46. The conversion of oxygen to ozone occurs to the
extent of 15% only. The mass of ozone that can
be prepared from 67.2 L of oxygen at 1 atm and
273 K will be :-
(1) 14.4 gm (2) 96 gm
(3) 640 gm (4) 64 gm
47. During the conversion of peroxide ion to
superoxide ion electron is removed from :-
(1) 2py(2) 2pz
* (3) 2py* (4)
2pz
48. In which molecule all bonds are not equal :-
(1) SiF4
(2) BF4
– (3) XeF4
(4) SF4
49. CH –CH=CH3 2I Br Product (A) is :-
(1)
Br
I(2)
Br
I
(3)
Cl
Br(4)
Br
Br
50. How many chloride ions are there around sodium
ion in sodium chloride crystal?
(1) 3 (2) 8 (3) 4 (4) 6
51. The energy of separation of an electron in a
Hydrogen like atom in excited state is 3.4 eV. The
de-Broglie wave length (in Å) associated with the
electron is :-
(Given radius of first orbit of H-atom is 0.53Å)
(1) 3.33 (2) 6.66
(3) 13.31 (4) None of these
52. Which bond angle gives maximum dipole
moment for triatomic molecule XY2 :-
(1) = 90° (2) = 120°
(3) = 180° (4) Both 2 and 3
53. Complex [Co(NH3)5Br]SO4 and [Co(NH3)5SO4]Br
can be identified by :-
(1) BaCl2(2) AgNO
3
(3) PbCl2
(4) All of these
54.F
Ph KOHEtOH X, X is :-
(1) Ph
CH2 (2) Ph
(3) PhCH3 (4) Ph
CH3
OEt
46. 15%
1 273 K 67.2
?
(1) 14.4 (2) 96
(3) 640 (4) 64
47. :-
(1) 2py
(2) 2pz* (3) 2py
* (4) 2pz
48. :-(1) SiF4 (2) BF4
– (3) XeF4 (4) SF4
49. CH –CH=CH3 2I Br (A) :-
(1)
Br
I(2)
Br
I
(3)
Cl
Br(4)
Br
Br
50. NaCl Na+ Cl– ?(1) 3 (2) 8 (3) 4 (4) 6
51. 3.4 eV H- 0.53Å (Å ) (1) 3.33 (2) 6.66
(3) 13.31 (4) 52.
XY2 :-
(1) = 90° (2) = 120°
(3) = 180° (4) 2 3 53. [Co(NH3)5Br]SO4 [Co(NH3)5SO4]Br
:-(1) BaCl2
(2) AgNO3
(3) PbCl2
(4) All of these
54.F
Ph KOHEtOH X, X :-
(1) Ph
CH2 (2) Ph
(3) PhCH3 (4) Ph
CH3
OEt
Take it Easy and Make it Easy
H-12/36
Target : Pre-Medical 2016/Major/18-01-2016
1001CM302115069
55. In a closed packed array of N spheres, the number
of tetrahedral holes is :-
(1) N/2 (2) N (3) 4N (4) 2N
56. For a gas deviation from ideal behaviour is
maximum at :-
(1) 0°C and 1.0 atm
(2) 100°C and 2.0 atm
(3) –13°C and 1.0 atm
(4) –13°C and 2.0 atm
57. Which oxide of Mn is acidic in nature :-
(1) MnO (2) Mn2O
7
(3) Mn2O3 (4) MnO2
58. The most paramagnetic complex is :-
(1) [Sc(CN)6]–3 (2) [Co(CN)
6]–3
(3) [Fe(CN)6]–4 (4) [Cr(CN)6]
–3
59. Arrange in order of increasing SN1 reaction rate.
(i) Ph Br (ii) Br
(iii) Br (iv) Cl
(1) iv < ii < iii < i (2) i < ii < iii < iv
(3) iv < i < iii < ii (4) iv < i < ii < iii
60. Which concentrations can be calculated if the
mole fraction and density of an aqueous solution
of HCl are known?
1. Molality 2. Molarity 3. Percentage by mass
(1) 1 only (2) 3 only
(3) 1 and 2 only (4) 1, 2 and 3
61. For the hypothetical reaction
A2(g) + B
2(g) 2AB(g)
rG° and rS° are 20 kJ/mol and –20 JK–1 mol–1
respectively at 200 K.
If rC
p is 20 JK–1 mol–1 then
rH° at 400 K is :
(1) 20 kJ/mol (2) 7.98 kJ/mol
(3) 28 kJ/mol (4) None of these
62. Which metal is ultrapurified by carbon monoxide :-
(1) Cu (2) Zr
(3) Al (4) Ni
55. 'N' :-(1) N/2 (2) N (3) 4N (4) 2N
56.
:-
(1) 0°C 1.0
(2) 100°C 2.0
(3) –13°C 1.0
(4) –13°C 2.0 57. Mn
:-(1) MnO (2) Mn
2O
7
(3) Mn2O3 (4) MnO2
58. :-(1) [Sc(CN)6]
–3 (2) [Co(CN)6]–3
(3) [Fe(CN)6]–4 (4) [Cr(CN)
6]–3
59. SN1
(i) Ph Br (ii) Br
(iii) Br (iv) Cl
(1) iv < ii < iii < i (2) i < ii < iii < iv
(3) iv < i < iii < ii (4) iv < i < ii < iii
60. HCl
?
1. 2. 3. %(W/W)
(1) 1 (2) 3
(3) 1 2 (4) 1, 2 3
61. A2(g) + B
2(g) 2AB(g)
rG° r
S° 200 K
20 –20 K–1 –1
rCp = 20 K–1 –1 400 K rH°
:
(1) 20 (2) 7.98 (3) 28 (4)
62. :-(1) Cu (2) Zr
(3) Al (4) Ni
Pre-Medical : Enthusiast Course/Phase-All/18-01-2016
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63. Configuration of Yb+2 is :-
(1) [Xe]4f14 5d1 (2) [Xe]4f14
(3) [Xe]4f146s2 (4) [Xe]4f145d16s2
64. What is the major product of the following
reaction?
CH3CH3
+ ?Br2
H O2
(1) CH3CH3
BrOH
(2) CH3CH3
OHBr
(3) CH3CH3
OH (4) CH3CH3
BrBr
65. Compound PdCl4 .6H2O is a hydrated complex;
1 molal aqueous solution of it has freezing point
269.28 K. Assuming 100% ionization of complex,
calculate the molecular formula of the complex
(Kf for water = 1.86 K kg mol–1) :-
(1) [Pd(H2O)
6]Cl
4
(2) [Pd(H2O)
4Cl
2]Cl
2.2H
2O
(3) [Pd(H2O)3Cl3]Cl.3H2O
(4) [Pd(H2O)2Cl4].4H2O
66. Substance A2B(g) can undergoes decomposition
to form two set of products :
A B(g)2
A (g) + B(g); H°=40 kJ/mol2
A(g) + AB(g); H°=50 kJ/mol
If the molar ratio of A2(g) to A(g) is 5 : 3 in a
set of product gases, then the energy involved in
the decomposition of 1 mole of A2B(g) is :
(1) 48.75 kJ/mol (2) 43.75 kJ/mol
(3) 46.25 kJ/mol (4) None of these
67. Which hydride is most stable :-
(1) CsH (2) NaH (3) LiH (4) KH
68. Which of the following compound is wrongly
named ?
(1) CH CH CH CHCOOH3 2 2
Cl
; 2-Chloropentanoic acid
(2) CH C CCHCOOH3
CH3
; 2-Methyl hex-3-enoic acid
(3) CH3CH
2CH=CHCOCH
3; Hex-3-en-2-one
(4) CH –CHCH CH CHO3 2 2
CH3
; 4-Methyl pentanal
63. Configuration of Yb+2 is :-
(1) [Xe]4f14 5d1 (2) [Xe]4f14
(3) [Xe]4f146s2 (4) [Xe]4f145d16s2
64. ?
CH3CH3
+ ?Br2
H O2
(1) CH3CH3
BrOH
(2) CH3CH3
OHBr
(3) CH3CH3
OH (4) CH3CH3
BrBr
65. PdCl4 .6H
2O
1 269.28 K 100% ?(Kf
for water = 1.86 K kg mol–1) :-
(1) [Pd(H2O)
6]Cl
4
(2) [Pd(H2O)4Cl2]Cl2.2H2O
(3) [Pd(H2O)3Cl3]Cl.3H2O
(4) [Pd(H2O)2Cl4].4H2O
66. A2B(g)
A B(g)2
A (g) + B(g); H°=40 2
A(g) + AB(g); H°=50
A2(g) A(g) 5 : 3
A2B(g) :
(1) 48.75 (2) 43.75
(3) 46.25 (4) 67. :-
(1) CsH (2) NaH (3) LiH (4) KH
68.
(1) CH CH CH CHCOOH3 2 2
Cl
; 2-
(2) CH C CCHCOOH3
CH3
; 2--3-
(3) CH3CH
2CH=CHCOCH
3; -3--2-
(4) CH –CHCH CH CHO3 2 2
CH3
; 4-
H-14/36
Target : Pre-Medical 2016/Major/18-01-2016
1001CM302115069
69. Alkene (X) KMnO4
O OH
O+
X is :-
(1) (2)
(3) (4)
70. At 25°C, the values of rate constant, activation
energy and Arrhenius constant of a reaction are
3 × 10–4 sec–1, 129 kJ/mol and 2 × 1015 sec–1
respectively.
The value of rate constant as T is :-
(1) zero (2) 2 × 1015
(3) 3 × 10–4 (4) 6 × 1011
71. AB3(g) is dissociates as
AB3(g) AB
2(g) +
1
2B
2(g)
When the initial pressure of AB3 is 800 torr and
the total pressure developed at equilibrium is
900 torr. What fraction of AB3(g) is dissociated?
(1) 10% (2) 20% (3) 25% (4) 30%
72. Which statement regarding H2O2 is correct :-
(1) Diamagnetic in nature
(2) Antiseptic due to oxidising nature
(3) H3PO4 added as antidecomposed material
(4) All of these
73. Zieglar-Natta catalyst is :-
(1) R3Al (2) TiCl
4
(3) R3Al + TiCl4 (4) R3B + TiCl2
74. CH –CH –CH –C CH3 2 2 HClExcess
?
(1) CH3–CH
2–CH
2–CH
2–CHCl
2
(2) CH3–CH2–CH2–CCl2–CH3
(3) CH –CH–CH –CH –CH –Cl3 2 2 2
Cl
(4) CH –CH –C–CH –CH3 2 2 3
Cl
Cl
69. Alkene (X) KMnO4
O OH
O+
X :-
(1) (2)
(3) (4)
70. 25°C
3 × 10–4 sec–1, 129 kJ/mol 2 × 1015 sec–1
T ?
(1) zero (2) 2 × 1015
(3) 3 × 10–4 (4) 6 × 1011
71. AB3(g)
AB3(g) AB
2(g) +
1
2B
2(g)
AB3 800
900 AB3(g)
?
(1) 10% (2) 20% (3) 25% (4) 30%
72. H2O
2 :-
(1)
(2)
(3) H3PO4
(4)
73. :-
(1) R3Al (2) TiCl4
(3) R3Al + TiCl
4(4) R
3B + TiCl
2
74. CH –CH –CH –C CH3 2 2 HCl
?
(1) CH3–CH2–CH2–CH2–CHCl2
(2) CH3–CH2–CH2–CCl2–CH3
(3) CH –CH–CH –CH –CH –Cl3 2 2 2
Cl
(4) CH –CH –C–CH –CH3 2 2 3
Cl
Cl
Pre-Medical : Enthusiast Course/Phase-All/18-01-2016
H-15/361001CM302115069
75. Arrhenius equation is represented as :
aE / RTk Ae
The activation energy Ea of the reaction can be
calculated by plotting
(1) k against T (2) k against1
logT
(3) log k against 1/T (4) log k against1
logT
76. What is the concentration of Ba2+ when
BaF2(K
sp = 1.0 × 10–6) begins to precipitate from
a solution that is 0.30 M F– ?
(1) 9.0 × 10–7 (2) 3.3 × 10–5
(3) 1.1 × 10–5 (4) 3.0 × 10–7
77. BCl3 + H
2O Product, here product :-
(1) H3BO3 + HCl (2) B2O3 + HOCl
(3) B2H6 + HCl (4) B2O3 + HCl
78. Which of the following is non reducing sugar :-
(1) Sucrose (2) Starch
(3) Cellulose (4) All of these
79. In the following compounds :
OH OH
CH3
OH
NO2
OH
NO2
(I) (II) (III) (IV)
the order of acidity is :
(1) III > IV > I > II
(2) I > IV > III > II
(3) II > I > III > IV
(4) IV > III > I > II
80. On electrolysis, which of the following does not
give out oxygen ?
(1) Acidic water using Pt electrode
(2) Fused NaOH using Pt electrode
(3) Dilute H2SO
4 using Pt electrode
(4) Dilute H2SO
4 using Cu electrode
75. :
aE / RTk Ae
Ea
?
(1) k against T (2) k against1
logT
(3) log k against 1/T (4) log k against1
logT
76. F–0.30 M Ba2+ BaF
2(K
sp = 1.0 × 10–6)
?
(1) 9.0 × 10–7 (2) 3.3 × 10–5
(3) 1.1 × 10–5 (4) 3.0 × 10–7
77. BCl3 + H
2O :-
(1) H3BO
3 + HCl (2) B
2O
3 + HOCl
(3) B2H6 + HCl (4) B2O3 + HCl
78. :-(1) (2)
(3) (4)
79. :
OH OH
CH3
OH
NO2
OH
NO2
(I) (II) (III) (IV)
(1) III > IV > I > II
(2) I > IV > III > II
(3) II > I > III > IV
(4) IV > III > I > II
80. O2
?
(1) [Pt ]
(2) NaOH [Pt ]
(3) H2SO
4 [Pt ]
(4) H2SO
4 [Cu ]
H-16/36
Target : Pre-Medical 2016/Major/18-01-2016
1001CM302115069
81. 2 mole of N2H
4 loses 16 mole of electron is being
converted to a new compound X. Assuming that
all of the N appears in the new compound. What
is the oxidation state of 'N' in X ?
(1) –1 (2) –2 (3) +2 (4) +4
82. Order of liquification of noble gases is :-
(1) He > Ne > Ar > Kr > Xe
(2) Xe > Kr > Ar > Ne > He
(3) Ar > Kr > Xe > He > Ne
(4) Xe > Kr > Ne > He > Ar
83. Which of the following compound does not react
with Na ?
(1) CH3OH (2) CH3–CCH
(3) Ph–OH (4)
84. Which of the following compounds is chiral?
(1) CH3 Cl
CH3 Cl
H
H
(2) CH3 Br
CH3 Cl
H
H
(3) CH3 Br
CH3 Cl
CH3
CH3
(4) CH3 Cl
CH3 Cl
CH3
CH3
85. Which of the following reactions occur at the
cathode during the charging of lead storage
battery?
(1) Pb2+ + 2e– Pb
(2) 2 24 4Pb SO PbSO
(3) Pb Pb2+ + 2e–
(4) 24 2 2 42 4 2PbSO H O PbO H SO e
86. In given graph which represents an alkali metal
with least atomic number
1 Ionisationenergy
st
Atomic number
T
S
R
Q
Z
Y
P
X
(1) X (2) T(3) S (4) P
81. 2 N2H
4, 16
'X' X
N X N
(1) –1 (2) –2 (3) +2 (4) +4
82. :-(1) He > Ne > Ar > Kr > Xe
(2) Xe > Kr > Ar > Ne > He
(3) Ar > Kr > Xe > He > Ne
(4) Xe > Kr > Ne > He > Ar
83. Na
(1) CH3OH (2) CH
3–CCH
(3) Ph–OH (4)
84. ?
(1) CH3 Cl
CH3 Cl
H
H
(2) CH3 Br
CH3 Cl
H
H
(3) CH3 Br
CH3 Cl
CH3
CH3
(4) CH3 Cl
CH3 Cl
CH3
CH3
85. ?
(1) Pb2+ + 2e– Pb
(2) 2 24 4Pb SO PbSO
(3) Pb Pb2+ + 2e–
(4) 24 2 2 42 4 2PbSO H O PbO H SO e
86.
1 Ionisationenergy
st
Atomic number
T
S
R
Q
Z
Y
P
X
(1) X (2) T
(3) S (4) P
Pre-Medical : Enthusiast Course/Phase-All/18-01-2016
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87. Correct statement is :-
(1) F – F > Cl – Cl bond dissociation energy
(2) HI > HBr > HCl > HF thermal stability
(3) HI > HBr > HCl > HF reducing power
(4) None of these
88. What are the major products from the following
reaction ?
O CH2 ?HIheat
(I)I CH OH2
+
(II)OH CH I2
+
(III)OCH OH2 I
+
(IV)OCH I2 OH
+
(1) I (2) II
(3) III (4) IV
89. Which of the following compound will not
undergo tautomerism?
(1)
OH
(2)
O
(3)
O
(4)
O
90. In case of autocatalysis :-
(1) reactant catalyses
(2) heat produced in the reaction catalyses
(3) product catalyses
(4) slovent catalyses
87. :-
(1) F – F > Cl – Cl
(2) HI > HBr > HCl > HF
(3) HI > HBr > HCl > HF
(4)
88.
O CH2 ?HIheat
(I)I CH OH2
+
(II)OH CH I2
+
(III)OCH OH2 I
+
(IV)OCH I2 OH
+
(1) I (2) II
(3) III (4) IV
89.
(1)
OH
(2)
O
(3)
O
(4)
O
90. :-
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
H-18/36
Target : Pre-Medical 2016/Major/18-01-2016
1001CM302115069
91. What is common in wheat, mammals dogs and
animals :-
(1) These are all taxa at different levels
(2) These all taxa belong to same category
(3) These are all taxa at same level in Linnaeus
hierarchy
(4) These are all categories at different levels
92. How many of the following animals are an
example of protochordates?
Ascidia, Branchiostoma, Salpa, Balanoglossus,
Saccoglossus, Doliollum, Ophiura. Antedon.
(1) Three (2) Four (3) Five (4) Two
93. During which of the following phase of cell
division, chromosomes are moved to pole ?
(1) Prophase (2) Metaphase
(3) Anaphase (4) Telophase
94. Choose the correct match :-
Anticodon Amino acid
(3'5')
(a) AAA Phenylalanine
(b) UAC Methionine
(c) CAC Valine
(d) CUC Glutamic acid
Options :-
(1) a and b (2) c and d
(3) a only (4) a, b, c and d
95. Read the following four statement (a – d) :
(a) Fisheries include rearing, catching and selling
of fishes, mollusca etc.
(b) More then 70 percent of the world livestock
population is in India.
(c) Milk yield is primarily dependent on the
quality of breeds in the farm.
(d) The feeding of cattle should be carried out in
scientific manner.
How many of the above statements are right ?
(1) Four (2) One (3) Two (4) Three
96. In which type of placentation the placenta forms a
ridge along the ventral suture of the ovary and the
ovules are born on the ridge forming two rows ?
(1) Axile (2) Perietal (3) Basal (4) Marginal
97. AB–blood group is an example of ?
(1) Multiple allele
(2) Incomplete dominance
(3) Co-dominance
(4) Lethal gene
91. :-
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
92.
(1) (2) (3) (4) 93.
(1) (2) (3) (4)
94. :-Anticodon Amino acid
(3'5')
(a) AAA (b) UAC (c) CAC (d) CUC Options :-
(1) a and b (2) c and d
(3) a only (4) a, b, c and d
95. (a – d) (a)
(b) 70
(c)
(d)
(1) (2) (3) (4)
96. (1) (2) (3) (4)
97. AB– ?(1) (2) (3) (4)
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98. When foreign DNA is inserted into any vector,
it results in inactivation of any marker gene. This
is used for the selection of _____?
(1) Cancerous cells
(2) Non-transformant cells
(3) Transformant cells
(4) Recombinant cells
99. The concentration of DDT is increased at
successive trophic levels, say if it starts at
_________ in water, it can ultimately can reach
_________ in fish eating birds, through
__________.
(1) 0.003 ppb, 25 ppm, Eutrophication
(2) 25 ppm, 0.003 ppm, Cultural eutrophication
(3) 0.003 ppb, 25 ppm, Biomagnification
(4) 0.003 ppm, 25 ppm, Succession
100. A
B
C
Identify the A, B and C in figure :-
(1) Zygomatic, nasal, lacrymal.
(2) Sphenoid, Ethmoid, Vomar.
(3) Sphenoid, Vomar, Ethmoid.
(4) Sphenoid, Ethmoid, lacrymal
101. The speed of binary fission in Escherichia coli
is :-
(1) Considerably slower than mitosis of advanced
organism since bacteria are primitive
(2) Considerably faster than mitosis of advanced
Organism
(3) Essentially the same speed as mitosis in
advanced Organism
(4) Considerably slower than meiosis of advanced
organism
102. Which of the following character is incorrect for
non-chordates :-
(1) Notochord absent
(2) Central nervous system is ventral, solid and double
(3) Gills slits are present
(4) Heart is dorsal (if present)
98. DNA _____
(1) (2) (3) (4)
99. DDT _________
_________ __________
(1) 0.003 ppm, 25 ppm,
(2) 25 ppm, 0.003 ppm,
(3) 0.003 ppb, 25 ppm,
(4) 0.003 ppm, 25 ppm, 100. A
B
C
A, B C (1) (2) (3) (4)
101. :-
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
102. :-(1) (2) (3) (4)
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103. ER, Golgicomplex, lysosomes and vacuoles are
includes in endomembrane system because.
(1) Their Function are similar
(2) Their structure are same
(3) Their function are co-ordinated
(4) Golgi complex, lysosomes and vacuoles are
originated from the ER
104. Find out the correct match from the following
table?
Column I Column II Column III
1 Maltose (1–2)Linkage
Hydrolysisof starch
2 Glycogen (1–4) and(1–6)Linkage
Stored inliver
3 Lactose (1–4)Linkage
Milk
(1) 2 only (2) 2, 3 only
(3) 3 only (4) 1, 2, 3
105. Which type of breeding exposes harmful
recessive genes :-
(1) Out – crossing
(2) In breeding
(3) Cross – breeding
(4) Interspecific hybridisation
106. Ebr K2+2
C4 A
2+4 G
(2) floral formula
representing which plant group ?
(1) Cauliflower, Radish
(2) China rose, Cotton
(3) Potato, Tomato
(4) Onion, Tomato
107. The height of a plant is under control of polygenic
inheritance. The plant having genotype 'aabb' has
20 cm height and height of plant having genotype
AaBb is 50 cm, what will be height of a plant
having AABB genotype ?
(1) 45 cm (2) 60 cm
(3) 80 cm (4) 15 cm
103. ER, :-(1) (2) (3)
(4)
104.
Column I Column II Column III
1 Maltose (1–2)Linkage
Hydrolysisof starch
2 Glycogen (1–4) and(1–6)Linkage
Stored inliver
3 Lactose (1–4)Linkage
Milk
(1) 2 only (2) 2, 3 only
(3) 3 only (4) 1, 2, 3
105. (1) (2) (3) (4)
106. Ebr K2+2
C4 A
2+4 G
(2)
(1) ,
(2) ,
(3) ,
(4)
107.
aabb 20 cm
AaBb 50
AABB ?
(1) 45 cm (2) 60 cm
(3) 80 cm (4) 15 cm
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108. The puffed-up appearance of dough is due to:-
(1) Growth of LAB
(2) Production of O2 & ethanol
(3) Production of CO2
(4) Growth of yeast Monascus
109. What is a keystone species ?
(1) A common species that has plenty of biomass,
yet has a fairly low impact on the community's
organization.
(2) A rare species that has minimal impact on the
biomass and on other species in the
community.
(3) A dominant species that constitutes a large
proportion of the biomass and which affects
many other species.
(4) A species which makes up only a small
proportion of the total biomass of a
community yet has a huge impact on the
community's organization and survival.
110. Which group of plants do not show CO2
fertilisation effect ?
(1) Plants with lowest water utilisation efficiency
(2) Plants with highest transpiration ratio
(3) Plants requiring 3ATP per CO2 fixation
(4) Plants with chloroplast dimorphism
111. Consider the following four statements (a–d) and
select the option which includes all the correct
ones only regarding decomposer :-
(a) They may be prokaryotes or eukaryotes
(b) They may be unicellular or multicellular
(c) They are essentialy present in every type of
food chain
(d) They play a great role in mineral cycling
Option :-
(1) Statement b, c and d
(2) Statement a, b and c
(3) Statement a, b and d
(4) Statement c and d
112. In which animal air bladder is present which
regulates buoyancy :-
(1) Scoliodon (2) Catla
(3) Ichthyophis (4) Corvus
108. Dough appearance (1) LAB (2) O2 (3) CO2 (4) Monascus
109. (1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
110. CO2
(1) (2) (3) CO
2 3ATP
(4)
111. (a–d)
:-
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
:-
(1) Statement b, c and d
(2) Statement a, b and c
(3) Statement a, b and d
(4) Statement c and d
112. :-(1) (2) (3) (4)
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113. Consider the figure in which it's part labelled from
A to E. Select the correct option :-
DE
B
C
A
(1) C form a number of infolding called A
(2) A and C divide its lumen distinctly into two
aqueous compartments
(3) D is the site for photophosphorylations
(4) D and E both contain its own specific enzymes
114. Which one of the following is correct regarding
the excretion ?
(1) Large amount of water from renal filtrate is
reabsorbed in DCT and a less amount is
reabsorbed by PCT
(2) The descending limb of loop of Henle is
completely impermeable to NaCl salt.
(3) Malpighian corpuscle is found in medulla
region of kidney.
(4) The colour of urine is pale yellow and is
slightly alkaline in nautre.
115. Identify the correct match from the column-I, II,
and III :-
I II II
A Progesterone a Corpusluteum
i Maintain theendometrium
B Oestrogen b Placenta ii Help inparturition
C Relaxin c Thecainterna
iii Milk ejectionreflex
D Oxytocin d Post.pituitary
iv Proliferationof endometrium
(1) A-a-i B-d-ii C-b-iii D-c-iv
(2) A-a-i B-c-iv C-b-ii D-d-iii
(3) B-a-iv A-b-iii C-c-ii D-d-i
(4) D-c-iii C-b-ii A-d-iv D-a-i
113. A E :-
DE
B
C
A
(1) C A (2) A C
(3) D (4) D E
114.
(1)
(2) NaCl
(3)
(4)
115. -
I II II
A a
i
B b ii
C c
iii
D d
iv
(1) A-a-i B-d-ii C-b-iii D-c-iv
(2) A-a-i B-c-iv C-b-ii D-d-iii
(3) B-a-iv A-b-iii C-c-ii D-d-i
(4) D-c-iii C-b-ii A-d-iv D-a-i
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116. Monoecious plants prevent :-
(1) Autogamy and geitonogamy
(2) Geitonogamy and xenogamy
(3) Geiotonogamy, xenogamy and autogamy
(4) Only autogamy
117. In man gene for polydactyly shows :-
(1) Complete penetrance
(2) Incomplete penetrance
(3) Variable expressivity
(4) 2 and 3 both
118. Which of the following statement is false ?
(1) Spleen contains lymphocytes and act as SLO
(2) In secondary lymphoid organs immature
lymphocytes differentiate into antigen-
sensitive lymphocytes.
(3) Both bone-marrow and thymus provide
micro-environments for the development and
maturation of lymphocytes.
(4) MALT also has a large reservoir of Lymphocyte.
119. Pesticides are sprayed regularly in field, these are
leached into water sources where they are taken
up by different aquatic plants and fishes at each
trophic level. The correct figure representing
pesticides at each trophic level is :-
(1) (2)
(3) (4)
120. Read the following four statements (A-D) :-
(A) Ingenhousz showed that it is only the green
part of the plants that could release oxygen
(B) Each photosystem has all the pigments(except one molecule of chlorophyll a)forming a light harvesting system.
(C) Proton gradient is broken down due tomovement of protons across the membrane tothe stroma through peripheral membraneprotein (F
0) of the ATPase(D) Tropical plants have higher temperature
optimum than the plants adapted to temperateclimates
How many of the above statements are right ?
(1) Four (2) Three (3) Two (4) One
116. :-(1) (2) (3) (4)
117. :-(1) (2) (3) (4) 2 3
118. ?
(1) SLO
(2)
(3)
(4) MALT 119.
:-
(1) (2)
(3) (4)
120. (A-D) :-(A)
(B) LHC
(3) ATPase (F
0)
(4)
(1) (2) (3) (4)
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121. The figure below shows the life cycle of plant
body. Select the correct option regarding life
cycle of plant body :-
Fusion Sporophyte Meiosis Spore
Gametes Mitosis GametophyteGermination
(1) Sporophyte and gametophtyte are haploid and
diploid respectively
(2) Spores produce sporophyte while gametes
produce gametophyte
(3) Both spores and gametes are represent the
gametophytic generation
(4) Both spores and sporophyte are represent the
sporophytic generation
122. When some permanent cells get back to
meristematic activity, it is referred to as :-
(1) Differentiation
(2) Dedifferentiation
(3) Meristematic shift
(4) Initiation
123. Nucleolus is a site for-
(1) Active ribosomal protein synthesis
(2) Active m-RNA synthesis
(3) Active ribosomal RNA synthesis
(4) Active lipid synthesis
124. Read the following four statements (a-d)
(a) The absorbed substances finally reach the
tissues which utilise them for their activities
(b) Fatty acids and glycerol are first incorporated
into small droplets called micelle which move
into the intestinal mucosa
(c) Active transport occurs along concentration
gradient hence requires energy
(d) In human, saliva is mainly produced by three
pairs of salivary glands
Which of the above statements are wrong ?
(1) a and b (2) c only
(3) b and c (4) c and d
121.
:-
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
122. :-(1) (2) (3) (4)
123. (1) (2) m-RNA (3) RNA (4)
124. (a-d)
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
?
(1) a b (2) c
(3) b c (4) c d
Time Management is Life Management
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125. Which of the following hormons level is increased
during pregnancy in the maternal blood :-
(a) FSH (b) Progesterone
(c) Thyroxin (d) Cortisol
(e) LH (f) Estrogen
(1) a, b, e, f (2) a, b, c, d, e
(3) c, d, a (4) b, d, c, f
126. In which plant, endosperms is completely
consumed by developing embryo :-
(1) Maize (2) Pea
(3) Wheat (4) Castor
127. Which of the following cross is used to find out
homozygosity or heterozygosity of a dominant
individual ?
(1) Reciprocal cross (2) Test cross
(3) Out cross (4) Monohybrid cross
128. Read the following statements.
(A) Non-specific type of defence.
(B) It is characterised by memory.
(C) It is present at the time of birth.
(D) When it encounters a pathogen for the first
time produces primary response.
How many of above statements are true for "Innate
Immunity" :-
(1) (B) and (D) both (2) (A) and (C) both
(3) (A), (B) and (C) (4) (A), (B), (C), (D)
129. Which one is correct ?
(1) In cold region, big organism, large surface area
(2) Warm region, big organism, small surface area
(3) Cold region, small organism, large surface area
(4) Warm region, small organism, large surface area
130. Auxin, Gibberellin, Ethylene, Cytokinin, ABA.
How many of above hormones in the list are
synthesized from amino acids ?
(1) Four (2) Three
(3) Two (4) One
131. The predominant stage of the life cycle of moss
is gametophye which consists of two stages they
are respectively :-
(1) Protonema, Prothallus
(2) Spore mother cell, protonema
(3) Protonema, leafy stage
(4) Protonema, Zygote
125. :-(a) FSH (b) (c) Thyroxin (d) Cortisol
(e) LH (f) Estrogen
(1) a, b, e, f (2) a, b, c, d, e
(3) c, d, a (4) b, d, c, f
126. :-(1) (2) (3) (4)
127.
?
(1) (2)
(3) (4)
128. (A-D).
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
"" :-
(1) (B) (D) (2) (A) (C)
(3) (A), (B) (C) (4) (A), (B), (C), (D)
129. (1) (2) (3) (4)
130. ABA
(1) (2) (3) (4)
131. :-
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
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132. The tunica is characterized by :-
(1) Anticlinal division only
(2) Periclinal division only
(3) Divisions in all planes
(4) Division in three planes only
133. Sweet potato and potato are modification of
respecively :-
(1) Root and stem (2) Stem and Root
(3) Root and leaf (4) Root and Root
134. Which of the following sequence is incorrect?
(1) Starch Amylase disaccharides
(2) Fats Lipases diglycerides
(3) Nucleic acids Nucleases nucleotides
(4) Lactose Lactase glucose + glucose
135. How many of the contraceptive methods in the list
given below have almost no side effects ?
Diaphragm, Lactational amenorrhea, Cervical
Cap, Pills, IUD, Periodic abstinence, Coitus
interruptus, Depoprovera, Norplant.
(1) Six (2) Three
(3) Four (4) One
136. A mature female gametophyte of flowering plant is:-
(1) 8 celled 8 nucleated
(2) 7 celled 7 nucleated
(3) 8 celled 7 nucleated
(4) 7 celled 8 nucleated
137. Match the column–I with column–II and select the
correct answer :-
Column-I Column-II
(A) Monohybrid cross (i) TtRr
(B) Test cross (ii) Tt × TT
(C) Out cross (iii) Tt × tt
(D) True dihybrid (iv) Tt × Tt
(E) Monohybrid (v) Rr
(1) A – iv, B – iii, C – ii, D – i, E–v
(2) A – i, B – ii, C – iii, D – iv, E–v
(3) A – iii, B – i, C – ii, D – iv, E–v
(4) A – ii, B – iv, C – iii, D – i, E–v
138. “Negri bodies” are specific character of
Hydrophobia is ?
(1) Communicable disease
(2) Non communicable disease
(3) Viral disease
(4) 1 & 3 both
132. :-(1) (2) (3) (4)
133. :-
(1) (2)
(3) (4)
134.
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4) + 135. How many of the contraceptive methods in the list
given below have almost no side effects ?
Diaphragm, Lactational amenorrhea, Cervical
Cap, Pills, IUD, Periodic abstinence, Coitus
interruptus, Depoprovera, Norplant.
(1) Six (2) Three
(3) Four (4) One
136. :-(1) 8 8 (2) 7 7 (3) 8 7 (4) 7 8
137. –I –II :-
-I -II
(A) (i) TtRr
(B) (ii) Tt × TT
(C) (iii) Tt × tt
(D) (iv) Tt × Tt
(E) (v) Rr
(1) A – iv, B – iii, C – ii, D – i, E–v
(2) A – i, B – ii, C – iii, D – iv, E–v
(3) A – iii, B – i, C – ii, D – iv, E–v
(4) A – ii, B – iv, C – iii, D – i, E–v
138. “ ” ?
(1) (2) (3) (4) 1 3
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139. Which one is most suitable for Nile perch, water
hyacinth and lantana camara :-
(1) Key stone species (2) Exotic species
(3) Ecospecies (4) Endamic species
140. In what respect auxin and cytokinin are
antagonistic to each other ?
(1) Cell division (2) Flowering
(3) Abscission (4) Apical dominance
141. Which option is not related with phaeophyceae?
(1) Gelatinous coating of algin.
(2) Gametes are pear shaped and bear two
laterally attached flagella.
(3) The food is stored as floridean starch.
(4) They possess chlorophyll a,c, carrotenoids and
xanthophylls.
142. The histogen responsible for the development of
stele is :-
(1) Periblem
(2) Plerome
(3) Dermatogen
(4) Calyptrogen
143. According to darwin, the founder of theory of
natural selection, fitness refers to :-
(1) Built in variation (2) Reproductive fitness
(3) Struggle (4) Physical fitness
144. The blood vessel taking blood into glomerulus
is :-
(1) Afferent arteriole (2) Efferent arteriole
(3) Renal vein (4) Renel portal vein
145. Match the column–A and B about the embryonic
development of human :-
Column-A Column–B
(i) End of one month (a) Most of the major
organ systems
developed
(ii) End of second (b) Appearance of
month hair on the head
(iii) End of three (c) Heart
month formation
(iv) During fifth month (d) Eye-lids separated
(v) End of sixth month (e) Limbs and digits
formation
(1) (i) – e, (ii) – b, (iii) – c, (iv) – a, (v) – d
(2) (i) – e, (ii) – c, (iii) – b, (iv) – b, (v) – d
(3) (i) – c, (ii) – e, (iii) – b, (iv) – a, (v) – d
(4) (i) – c, (ii) – e, (iii) – a, (iv) – b, (v) – d
139. :-(1) (2) (3) (4)
140. (1) (2) (3) (4)
141. ?(1) (2)
(3) (4) a, c
142.
(1) (Periblem)
(2) (Plerome)
(3) (Dermatogen)
(4) (Calyptrogen)
143. :-(1) (2) (3) (4)
144. Glomerulus :-
(1) (2)
(3) (4)
145. –A –B :-
-A –B
(i) (a)
(ii) (b)
(iii) (c)
(iv) (d)
(v) (e)
(1) (i) – e, (ii) – b, (iii) – c, (iv) – a, (v) – d
(2) (i) – e, (ii) – c, (iii) – b, (iv) – b, (v) – d
(3) (i) – c, (ii) – e, (iii) – b, (iv) – a, (v) – d
(4) (i) – c, (ii) – e, (iii) – a, (iv) – b, (v) – d
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146. The labelled ABC respectively represent :-
A
B
C
(1) Scutellum, Epiblast, Coleorhiza
(2) Epiblast, Scutellum, Coleorhiza
(3) Scutellum, Epiblast, Shoot apex
(4) Coleoptile, Epiblast, Shoot apex
147. First transgenic plant was tobacco and it contains
resistant gene for –
(1) Insect resistant (2) Herbicide resistant
(3) Pest resistant (4) Frost resistant
148. “Elephantiasis” is not a viral disease transmitted
by :-
(1) Anopheles (2) Culex
(3) Aedes (4) Culex & Aedes
149.
Solar Radiations (D)
Top consumer
(A)Primary
consumer(B)
Primary Producer
(C)
(A) 10 Kcal/m2/yr
(B) 100 Kcal/m2/yr
(C) 1000 Kcal/m2/yr
(D) 100000 Kcal/m2/yr
In the above energy pyramid for an ecosystem,
the rate of secondary production is :-
(1) Uncertain (2) 100 Kcal/m2/yr
(3) 10 Kcal/m2/yr (4) 110 Kcal/m2/yr
146. ABC :-
A
B
C
(1) , , (2) , , (3) , , (4) , ,
147. ?
(1) (2) (3) (4)
148. “” :-
(1) (2) (3) (4)
149.
(D)
(A)
(B)
(C)
(A) 10 Kcal/m2/yr
(B) 100 Kcal/m2/yr
(C) 1000 Kcal/m2/yr
(D) 100000 Kcal/m2/yr
(1) (2) 100 Kcal/m2/yr
(3) 10 Kcal/m2/yr (4) 110 Kcal/m2/yr
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150. Identify the correct labelling :-
C (Uptake)
Plant biomassDecaying biomass
Animal biomass
A NO3
–
B
Soil 'N' pool
Biological N fixation2
Atmospheric N2
A B C
(1) N2
Nitrification Ammonification
(2) NH3
Electrical N2
fixationAmmonification
(3) NO3– Denitrification Electrical N
2
fixation
(4) NH3
Denitrification Electrical N2
fixation
151. The disease sleeping sickness is caused by :-
(1) Trypanosoma (2) Plasmodium
(3) Entamoeba (4) Wuchereria
152. Exocrine part of pancreas are :-
(1) Apocrine (2) Merocrine
(3) Holocrine (4) Epicrine
153. Which of the following statement is incorrect:-
(1) Any population has built in variation in
characteristics
(2) Natural selection is a mechanism of evolution
(3) The geological history of earth never correlates
with the biological history of earth
(4) According to Darwin, the fitness refers
ultimately and only to reproductive fitness
154. Which of the following pair is matched correctly :-
(1) CNS myelinated axons only
(2) PNS non myelinated axons only
(3) CNS neurilemma present
(4) Tract connects CNS to CNS
150. :-
C
A NO3
–
B
'N'
N 2
Atmospheric N2
A B C
(1) N2
(2) NH3
N2
(3) NO3– N
2
(4) NH3
N2
151. :-
(1) (2) (3) (4)
152. :-(1) (2) (3) (4)
153. :-
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
154. :-
(1) CNS
(2) PNS
(3) CNS
(4) Tract CNS CNS
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155. Correctly matched pairs are :-
(a) Clitoris – Erectile body in female homologous
to penis of man
(b) Colostrum – Secretion of preputial gland
(c) Areola – Pigmented circular area arround
the nipple
(d)Oxytocin – Milk synthesis hormone
(1) a and b (2) a and c
(3) b and c (4) a, c and d
156. Which of the following method is most commonly
used for creation of genetic variation–
(1) Polyploidy
(2) Hybridisation
(3) Mutation
(4) Genetic engineering
157. Which of the following conclusions of Mendel can
be explained by dihybrid cross only ?
(1) Dominance
(2) Unit factor and segregation
(3) Independent assortment
(4) All the above
158. Identify the wrongly matched pair :-
(1) Typhoid – Intestinal ulcer
(2) Malignant malaria – Plasmodium falciparum
(3) Trichophyton – Round worm
(4) Common cold – Rhinovirus
159. Read following statement :-
(A) Heart is mesodermally derived organ.
(B) In amphibians, mixing of oxygenated and
deoxygenated blood occur in ventricle.
(C) Right ventricle and right atria are separated
by thick, muscular interatrial septum.
(D) Body has ability to alter stroke volume and
cardiac output.
How many of above statements are not incorrect :-
(1) One (2) Two
(3) Three (4) Four
160. Which of the following compounds are electron
and proton acceptor in photosynthesis and
electron and proton donor in respiration
respectively ?
(1) PGA, PGAL (2) DHAP, PGAL
(3) PGAL, PGA (4) PGA, PGA
155. :-(a) –
(b) – (c) –
(d) – (1) a b (2) a c(3) b c (4) a, c d
156. –(1) (2) (3) (4)
157. ?(1) (2) (3) (4)
158. :-(1) – (2) – (3) – (4) –
159. :-(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(1) (2)
(3) (4)
160.
(1) PGA, PGAL (2) DHAP, PGAL
(3) PGAL, PGA (4) PGA, PGA
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161. Which of the following is correct for given
figure :-
(1) Cnidoblast
(2) Digestion is both extra cellular and
intracellular
(3) Asexual reproduction
(4) Development direct
162. End of two long bones are connected by :-
(1) Cartilage (2) Muscles
(3) Tendons (4) Ligaments
163. Fore limbs of whale, bats, cheetah and human are
example of :-
(1) Homologous organ
(2) Analogous organ
(3) Homoplastic organ
(4) Vertigial organ
164. Which of the following statement is false :-
(1) The fluid filled inner ear called labyrinth
consists of two parts the bony and the
membranous labyrinth.
(2) The coiled portion of the labyrinth is cochlea.
(3) The scala vestibuli ends at round window at
the base of cochlea.
(4) Eustachian tube-helps in equalising the
pressure on either sides of the ear drum.
165. A sterile stamen is kown as :-
(1) Tendril (2) Staminode
(3) Stipule (4) Pistillode
166. Embryo culture is mostly used for –
(1) Establishing suspension culture
(2) Recovery of interspecific hybrids
(3) Somatic hybridisation
(4) Haploid plant production
161. :-
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
162. :-
(1) (2)
(3) (4)
163. :-
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
164. :-
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
165.
(1) (2)
(3) (4)
166. –
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
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167. Main basis of DNA finger printing is :-
(1) RFLP (2) VNTR
(3) RAPD (4) None of these
168. During the natural ageing of lake :-
(A) Lakes fertility increases
(B) Plant animal life burgeons
(C) Lake grows shallower and warmer
(D) Organic remains begin to be deposited on the
lake bottom
Options :-
(1) Only A (2) A & D
(3) A, B & C (4) A, B, C & D
169. Which of the following is wrong statement ?
(1) IC = TV + IRV
(2) VC = IC + ERV
(3) TLC = TV + IRV + FRC
(4) FRC = TV + ERV
170. Unloading of mineral ions occur at fine vein
endings through __A__ and __B__ uptake by the
leaf cells :-
(1) A - Diffusion, B - Active
(2) A - Facilitated diffusion, B - Passive
(3) A - Osmosis, B - Passive
(4) A - Active transport, B - Active
171. In the members of which phylum a soft and
spongy layer of skin forms a mantle over the
visceral hump :-
(1) Annelida (2) Hemichordata
(3) Mollusca (4) Ctenophore
172. Carefully read the following statement :
"In cockroach, a ring of 6-8 bind tubules
called (A) is present at the junction of foregut
and midgut, which secrete digestive juice."
What are the (A) in above statement :-
(1) Intestinal caecae
(2) Gastric caecae
(3) Malpighian tubules
(4) Stink gland
167. DNA :-
(1) RFLP (2) VNTR
(3) RAPD (4)
168. :-(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
:-
(1) A (2) A D
(3) A, B C (4) A, B, C D
169.
(1) IC = TV + IRV
(2) VC = IC + ERV
(3) TLC = TV + IRV + FRC
(4) FRC = TV + ERV
170. __A__ __B__
(1) A - B -
(2) A - B -
(3) A - B -
(4) A - B -
171.
:-
(1) (2)
(3) (4)
172. :"6-8 (A) "
(A) :-
(1)
(2)
(3) (4)
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173. Select the incorrect statement :-
(1) Lichens can be used as industrial pollution
indicators
(2) Evolution is a directed process in the sense of
determinism
(3) Evolution is a stochastic process based on
chance event in nature and chance mutation
in the organisms
(4) Similarities in proteins and genes performing
a given function among diverse organisms
give clues to common ancestory
174. Read the following four statements (a-d) :-
(a) Inbreeding increase homozygosity
(b) Artificial insemination helps to overcome all
problems of normal matings
(c) Bee keeping is easy and require some
specialised knowledge
(d) Hilsa, common carp, mackerl are edible
marine fishes
How many of the above statements are correct?
(1) One (2) Two
(3) Three (4) Four
175. Which type of Root is shown in the figure. (A)
and (B) respectively ?
Laterals
(A) (B)
(1) Adventitious roots, Fibrous roots
(2) Tap roots, Adventitious roots
(3) Tap roots, Fibrous roots
(4) Fibrous roots, Adventitious roots
173. :-(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
174. (a-d)
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
(1) (2)
(3) (4)
175. (A) (B)
(A) (B)
(1) ,
(2) ,
(3) ,
(4) ,
H-34/36
Target : Pre-Medical 2016/Major/18-01-2016
1001CM302115069
176. The experiment shown in the figure has been carried
out by Morgan. If in Cross I, genes are tightly linked
and in Cross II, genes are loosely linked then what will
be percentage of recombinants produced in Cross I and
Cross II respectively ?
y
y
y+
y+
y
y+
w
w
w+
w+
w
w+
Parents
F generation1
Cross I
Yellowbody
Yellowbody
Whiteeyed
Whiteeyed
×
×
Wild type
Wild type
w
w
m
m
Parents
F generation1
Cross II
Whitebody
Miniaturewings
×
Wild type
Wild type
w+
m+
w
w+
m
m+
×
w m
Whitebody
Miniaturewings
(1) 98.7% and 62.8%
(2) 1.3% and 37.2%
(3) 37.2 and 1.3%
(4) 62.8% and 98.7%
176.
-I
-II
-I -II
?
y
y
y+
y+
y
y+
w
w
w+
w+
w
w+
Parents
F generation1
Cross I
Yellowbody
Yellowbody
Whiteeyed
Whiteeyed
×
×
Wild type
Wild type
w
w
m
m
Parents
F generation1
Cross II
Whitebody
Miniaturewings
×
Wild type
Wild type
w+
m+
w
w+
m
m+
×
w m
Whitebody
Miniaturewings
(1) 98.7% and 62.8%
(2) 1.3% and 37.2%
(3) 37.2 and 1.3%
(4) 62.8% and 98.7%
Pre-Medical : Enthusiast Course/Phase-All/18-01-2016
H-35/361001CM302115069
177. Match the column-I with column-II and select the
correct answer:-
Column-I Column-II
(A) RFLP (i) Pseudomonas putida
(B) Super bug (ii) PCR–technique
(C) ECORI (iii) Exonuclease
(D) TPA (iv) Restriction
(E) Interferon endonuclease
(v) Antiviral protein
(vi) Blood clot dissolving
agent
(vii) DNA test
(viii) Haemophilia
(ix) Albinism
(x) Agrobacterium
(1) A–vii, B–i, C–iv, D–vi, E–v
(2) A–v, B–x, C–ii, D–i, E–iv
(3) A–vi, B–ii, C–ix, D–x, E–v
(4) A–x, B–i, C–vi, D–ix, E–x
178. Regions with very high levels of species richness
and high degree of endemism are called :-
(1) Biosphere (2) Sacred grooves
(3) Hot spot (4) Amazon forest
179. In the resting muscle fibre, troponin covers:
(1) Ca-binding sites on troponin
(2) Actin binding sites on myosin
(3) Myosin binding sites on actin
(4) Ca-binding sites on actin180.
Substrate
Product
b
a
Transition state
Pote
nti
al e
ner
gy
Progress of reaction
Choose the option with correct statements
regarding above graph ?
(A) This graph is for an endothermic process
(B) The energy difference between product and
transition state is less than activation energy(C) Graph 'a' shows the presence of enzyme
Options :-
(1) A and C (2) A and B
(3) B and C (4) A, B and C
177. –I –II :-–I –II
(A) RFLP (i) (B) (ii) PCR–(C) ECORI (iii) (D) TPA (iv) (E)
(v) (vi)
(vii) DNA (viii) (ix) (x)
(1) A–vii, B–i, C–iv, D–vi, E–v
(2) A–v, B–x, C–ii, D–i, E–iv
(3) A–vi, B–ii, C–ix, D–x, E–v
(4) A–x, B–i, C–vi, D–ix, E–x
178. :-(1) (2) (3) (4)
179. (1) -(2) (3) (4) -
180.
b
a
(A)
(B)
(C) 'a'
:-
(1) A C (2) A B
(3) B C (4) A, B C
Your moral duty is to prove that is
H-36/36
Target : Pre-Medical 2016/Major/18-01-2016
1001CM302115069
SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK /
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