ZEOTS-21 | QUESTIONSzephyrentrance.in/wp-content/uploads/2020/05/ZEOTS-21.pdfspeed along AB is 250...

PAGE: 1 ZEOTS-21 NEET MODEL EXAMINATION

TRIVANDRUM KOLLAM ERNAKULAM ZEPHYR

ZEOTS-21 | QUESTIONS

1. An aeroplane flies around a square field ABCD of each side 1000 km. Its speed along AB is 250 kmh–1, along BC 500 kmh–1, along CD 200 kmh–1, and along DA 100 kmh–1. Its average speed (in kmh–1) over the entire trip is

(1) 225.5 (2) 175.5 (3) 125.5 (4) 190.5

2. The maximum height of a projectile is

half of its range on the horizontal. If the velocity of projection is u, its range on the horizontal is

(1) 22

5ug

(2) 23

5ug

(3) 2u

g (4)

245ug

3. The position of a particle is given by

22 3 4r t i t j k∧ ∧ ∧

= + +r

, where t is in second and the coefficients have proper units for r

r to be in metre. The

( )a tr

of the particle at t = 1s is (1) 4ms–2 along y-direction

(2) 3ms–2 along x-direction (3) 4ms–2 along x-direction (4) 2ms–2 along z-direction

4. Three bricks each of lengths L and

mass M are arranged as shown from the wall. The distance of the centre of mass of the system from the wall is

(1) L/4

(2) L/2 (3) (3/2)L

(4) (11/12)L

5. If an earth satellite of mass m orbiting at a distance 2R from the centre of earth has to be transferred into the orbit of radius 3R, the amount of energy required is (R : radius of Earth)

(1) mgR (2) 3

mgR

(3) 2

mgR (4) 12

mgR

6. A refrigerator with coefficient of

performance 1/3 released 200 J of heat to a hot reservoir. Then the work done on the working substance is

(1) 1003

J (2) 100 J

(3) 2003

J (4) 150 J

7. A particle oscillating under a force

F k x bv= − − is a (k and b are constants)

(1) simple harmonic oscillator (2) Non linear oscillator

(3) Damped oscillator (4) Forced oscillator

Main Centre: Kunnumpuram, Ayurveda College Jn., Trivandrum-1 (: 0471-2473040, 2573040 Branch - Puthussery Bldg, Ernakulam (: 0484-2531040,

Sivajyothi Complex, Polayathodu, Kollam-1 (: 0474-2743040, 2753040 E-mail: [email protected], Website: www.zephyrentrance.in

Wall

L/2 L/4

L

mailto:[email protected]://www.zephyrentrance.in



8. A whistle is blown from the tower of a factory with a frequency of 200 Hz. The apparent frequency of sound heard by a worker moving towards the factory with a velocity of 30 ms–1 is about (Velocity of sound = 330 ms–1)

(1) 280 Hz (2) 200 Hz (3) 300 Hz (4) 220 Hz 9. In the circuit shown, the current

through the 5Ω resistor is

(1) 83

A (2) 913

A

(3) 413

A (4) 13

A

10. A galvanometer of resistance 100Ω is

converted to a voltmeter of range 10V by connecting a resistance of 10kΩ. The resistance required to convert the same galvanometer to an ammeter of range 1A is

(1) 0.4Ω (2) 0.3Ω (3) 1.2Ω (4) 0.1Ω 11. An LCR series ac circuit is at

resonance with 10V each across L, C and R. If the resistance is halved, the respective voltages across L, C and R are

(1) 10V, 10V & 5V (2) 10V, 10V & 10V

(3) 20V, 20V, & 5V (4) 20V, 20V & 10V

12. In the total electromagnetic energy falling on a surface is U, then the total momentum delivered (for complete absorption) is

(1) U/c (2) cU (3) U/c2 (3) c2U

13. An astronomical telescope has an

angular magnification of magnitude 5 for distant objects. The separation between the objective and the eye piece is 36 cm and the final image is formed at infinity. The focal length f0 of the objective and fe of the eye piece are respectively

(1) 45cm & 9cm (2) 50cm & 10cm

(3) 7.2cm & 5cm (4) 30cm & 6cm

14. Two samples X and Y contain equal

amount of radioactive substances. If 1/16th of the sample X and 1/256th of the sample Y, remain after 8 hours, then the ratio of half periods of X and Y is

(1) 2 : 1 (2) 1 : 2 (3) 1 : 4 (4) 1 : 16 15. The collector supply voltage is 6V and

the voltage drop across a resistor of 600Ω in the collector circuit is 0.6V, in a transistor connected in common emitter mode. If the current gain is 20, the base current is

(1) 0.25 mA (2) 0.05 mA (3) 0.12 mA (4) 0.02 mA 16. A full-wave rectifier circuit with an ac

input is shown

ac input

O

2V

2V

2 ohm

2 ohm

+ –

5 ohm



The output voltage across RL is

represented as

(1)

(2) (3)

(4)

17. A stationary bomb explodes into three pieces. One piece of 2 kg mass moves with a velocity of 8 ms–1 at right angles to the other piece of mass 1 kg moving with a velocity of 12 ms–1. If the mass of the third piece is 0.5 kg, then its velocity is

(1) 10 ms–1 (2) 20 ms–1 (3) 30 ms–1 (4) 40 ms–1

18. A block at rest slides down a smooth

inclined plane which makes an angle 60° with the vertical and it reaches the

ground in t1 seconds. Another block is dropped vertically from the same point and reaches the ground in t2 seconds. Then the ratio of t1 : t2 is

(1) 1 : 2 (2) 2 : 1 (3) 1 : 3 (4) 1 : 2 19. A particle of mass m is moving in a

horizontal circle of radius r, under a

centripetal force F = 2k

r− , where k is a

constant (1) The potential energy of the

particle is zero (2) The potential energy of the particle is kr

(3) The total energy of the particle is k2r

−

(4) The potential energy of the

particle is k2r

−

20. If two springs A and B with spring

constants 2k and k, are stretched separately by same suspended weight, then the ratio between the work done in stretching A and B is

(1) 1 : 2 (2) 1 : 4 (3) 1 : 3 (4) 4 : 1

21. An electron moving around the

nucleus with an angular momentum l has a magnetic moment

(1) em

l (2) e2m

l

(3) 2em

l (4) e2 mπ

l

22. The force between two parallel current

carrying wires is independent of (1) Their distance of separation

(2) The length of the wires (3) The magnitude of currents

(4) The radii of the wires

Full wave

rectifier t ac C

RL Output

O t

O t

O t

O t



23. Surface tension has the same dimensions as that of

(1) coefficient of viscosity (2) impulse

(3) stress (4) spring constant

24. A solid material is supplied with heat

at constant rate and the temperature of the material changes as shown. From the graph, the FALSE conclusion drawn is

Temperature

A B

C D

E

CD = 2AB

Heat Input O

(1) AB and CD of the graph represent

phase changes (2) AB represents the change of state

from solid to liquid (3) latent heat of fusion is twice the

latent heat of vaporization (4) CD represents change of state

from liquid to vapour 25. The sum of magnitudes of two forces

acting at a point is 16 N and their resultant 8 3 N is at 90º with the force of smaller magnitude. The two forces (in N) are

(1) 11, 5 (2) 9, 7 (3) 6, 10 (4) 2, 14 26. A billiard ball of mass m and radius r,

moving with a linear velocity v0 in the horizontal direction is hit by a cue at a height h above its centre. The angular velocity ω0 acquired by the ball is

(1) 2

05v r2h

(2) 2

02v r5h

(3) 022v h5r

(4) 025v h2r

27. Two identical thin rings, each of radius 10m carrying charges 5C and 10C are coaxially placed at a distance 10 m apart. The work done in moving a charge q from the centre of the first ring to that of the second is

(1) 0

2 18 2

qπε

+

(2) 0

2 18 2

qπε

−

(3) 0

2 14 2

qπε

+

(4) 0

2 14 2

qπε

−

28. A transformer is used to light a 100

W, 110 V lamp using a 220 V main supply. If the supply current is 0.5 A, then the efficiency of the transformer is

(1) 100 % (2) 99% (3) 90.9% (4) 87.7%

29. Pick out the correct match from the

following Process Feature (1) Isothermal – Pressure constant (2) Isobaric – Volume constant (3) Isochoric – ∆Q = 0 (4) Cyclic – ∆U = 0 30. A 2 kg stone tied at the end of string

1m long is whirled in a vertical circle. At some point, its speed is 4 ms–1. The tension of the string is 51.6 N at same instant. The stone at this instant is

(1) at the top of the circle (2) at the bottom of the circle (3) at horizontal position (4) at infinite distance 31. A tube of length L is filled completely

with an incompressible liquid of mass M and closed at both the ends. The tube is then rotated in a horizontal plane about one of its ends with a uniform angular velocity ω. The force exerted by the liquid at the other end is



(1) Mω2 L / 2 (2) M ω2 L (3) Mω2 L / 4 (4) Mω2 L2 / 2 32. A block of mass 2 kg is placed on the

floor. The coefficient of static friction is 0.4. A force of 2.8 newton is applied on the block as shown in the figure. The force of friction between the block and the floor is

(Take g = 10 m/sec2) (1) 2.8 newton

(2) 8 newton (3) 2.0 newton (4) zero

33. A solid sphere of mass 2 kg rolls

without slipping down an inclined plane making an angle 300 with the horizontal. Then the acceleration of the sphere down the inclined plane is (g = 9.8 m/s2)

(1) 9.8 m/s2 (2) 4.9 m/s2 (3) 3.5 m/s2 (4) 1.4 m/s2

34. The Young’s modulus of the material

of a wire is 2 × 1010 Nm–2. If the elongation strain is 1%, then the energy stored in the wire per unit volume in Jm–3 is

(1) 106 (2) 108 (3) 2 × 106 (4) 2 × 108

35. When a metallic surface is illuminated by a light of wavelength λ, the stopping potential for the photoelectric current is 3 V. When the same surface is illuminated by light of wavelength 2λ, the stopping potential is 1 V. the threshold wavelength for this surface is

(1) 4 λ (2) 3.5 λ (3) 3 λ (4) 2.75 λ

36. A weight W is attached to two weightless strings AB and AC, each of length l and suspended as shown in figure. The tension in each string will be

(1) 2

W (2) 2

W

(3) W2 (4) 2W 37. A particle is moved from (0, 0) to (a,

a) under a force Fur

= 3 4i j∧ ∧

+

from

two paths. Path 1 is OP and path 2 is OQP. Let W1 and W2 be the work done by this force in these two paths. Then

(1) W1 = W2 (2) W1 = 2W2

(3) W2 = 2W1 (4) W2 = 4W1 38. A stretched wire of length 110 cm is

divided into three segments whose frequencies are in the ratio 1 : 2 : 3. Their lengths must be

(1) 20 cm : 30 cm : 60 cm (2) 60 cm : 30 cm : 20 cm (3) 60 cm : 20 cm : 30 cm (4) 30 cm : 60 cm : 20 cm

P (a, a)

Q x

y

O 45°

W

T T

B C

A

F



39. In the following diagram, the charge and potential difference across 8µF capacitance will be respectively

(1) 320 µC, 40 V (2) 420 µC, 50 V

(3) 214 µC, 27 V (4) 360 µC, 45 V 40. Two coils P and Q are placed co-

axially and carry current I and I| respectively

(1) If I' = 0 and P moves towards Q, a

current in the same direction as I is induced in Q

(2) If I = 0 and Q moves towards P, a current opposite in direction to that of I' is induced in P

(3) When I ≠ 0 and I' ≠ 0 are in the same direction, then two coil tend to move apart

(4) None of these 41. A small fish 0.4 m below the surface

of a lake, is viewed through a simple converging lens of focal length 3 m. The lens is kept at 0.2 m above the water surface such that fish lies on the optical axis of the lens. The image of the fish seen by observer will be at

water

43

µ =

(1) A distance of 0.2 m from the water

surface (2) A distance of 0.6 m from the water

surface (3) A distance of 0.3 m from the water

surface (4) The same location of fish 42. In Young’s double slit experiment, the

8th maximum with wavelength λ1 is at a distance d1 from the central maximum and the 6th maximum with a wavelength λ2 is at a distance d2. Then (d1/d2) is equal to

(1) 21

43

λ λ

(2) 12

43

λ λ

(3) 21

34

λ λ

(4) 12

34

λ λ

43. Two identical electric lamps marked

500 W, 220 Vare connected in series and then joined to a 110 V line. The power consumed by each lamp is

(1) 125/ 4W (2) 25/ 4W (3) 225/ 4W (4) 125 W 44. An electromagnetic wave travelling in

free space consists of given electric and magnetic fields

Ex = E0 sin (kz – ωt) ; By = B0 sin (kz – ωt + φ). If C is the speed of the wave in space. Then (magnitude wise)

(1) Ex = cBy (2) By = cEx (3) 2 2x yc E B= + (4) E0 = cB0



45. A capacitor of 4µF is connected as shown in the circuit figure. The internal resistance of the battery is 0.5 Ω. The amount of charge on the capacitor plates at steady state will be

(1) 0 (2) 4µC

(3) 16 µC (4) 8µC 46. Of the following elements, those can

form amphoteric oxide are (i) Be (ii) Al (iii) Ga (iv) As (v) Sb (vi) Sn (1) All of them (2) Only i, ii, iv & vi (3) Only ii, iv, v & vi (4) Except v & vi 47. Which of the following acids forms three

series of salts? (1) H3PO2 (2) H3BO3 (3) H3PO4 (4) H3PO3

48. The number of atoms in 4.25 g of NH3 is

approximately: (1) 1 × 1023 (2) 2 × 1023

(3) 4 × 1023 (4) 6 × 1023 49. The velocity of electron in the hydrogen

atom is 2.2 × 106 m/s. The de Broglie wavelength for this electron is:

(1) 33 nm (2) 45.6 nm (3) 23.3 nm (4) 0.33 nm 50. In the molecular orbital diagram for O2+

ion the highest occupied orbital is (1) σ MO orbital (2) π MO orbital (3) π * MO orbital (4) σ * MO orbital 51. If the electron in the hydrogen is excited

to n = 5, the number of different frequencies of radiation which may be emitted is

(1) 4 (2) 5 (3) 8 (4) 10

52. How many g of O2 are required to burn completely 285 g of octane? (1) 2000 g (2) 1000 g (3) 3000 g (4) 1500 g

53. If osmotic pressure of 1M urea is π, what

will be the osmotic pressure for 0.1 M NaCl at the same temperature?

(1) π (2) 0.1π (3) 2π (4) 0.2π 54. What is the percent ionization (α) of a

0.01 M acid ‘HA’ solution? (Ka = 10–3) (1) 9.5% (2) 1% (3) 10.5% (4) 31.6% 55. Nitric oxide acts as a reducing agent in

the reaction (1) 4 NH3 + 5O2 → 2 NO + 6H2O

(2) 2NO + 3I2 + 4H2O → 2NO3– + 6I– + 8H+

(3) 2NO + H2SO3 → N2O + H2SO4 (4) 2NO + H2S → N2O + S + H2O 56. If 900 J/g of heat is exchanged at boiling

point of water, then what is increase in entropy?

(1) 43.4 J/mole (2) 87.2 J/ mole (3) 900 J/mole (4) Zero 57. Five moles of an ideal gas expands

isothermally and reversibly from a volume of 6 L to 60 L at 300 K . The work during the process is

(1) ─ 28.72 kJ (2) ─84.45 kJ (3) ─32.3 kJ (4) ─ 76.2 kJ 58. In the dissociation of PCl5 as

PCl5(g) É PCl3(g) + Cl2(g) if the degree of dissociation is α at equilibrium pressure P, then the equilibrium constant for the reaction is

(1) KPP

=+αα

2

21 (2) K PP = −

αα

2 2

21

(3) K PP = −α

α

2

21 (4) K PP = −

αα

2

21



59. Consider the following aqueous solutions and assume 100% ionization of electrolytes

1. 0.1 M urea 2. 0.04 M Al2(SO4)3 3. 0.05 M CaCl2 4. 0.005 M NaCl The correct statement regarding the

above solutions is (1) Freezing point will be lowest for

solution 1 (2) Freezing point will be highest for

solution 4 (3) Boiling point will be highest for

solution 4 (4) Vapour pressure will be highest for

solution 2 60. Which of the following has a bond order

of 1.75? (1) ClO3─ (2) ClO4─ (3) CO32─ (4) All have same bond order 61. The

mλ∞ values of CH3COONa, HCl and

NaCl in ohm–1 cm2 mol–1 are 96, 425 and 188 respectively. The molar conductance of 0.01M acetic acid is 16.5 ohm–1cm2 mol–1 at the same temperature. The degree of dissociation of acetic acid at this concentration is

(1) 20.18 (2) 0.0495 (3) 0.165 (4) 6×10–3 62. 60% of a first order reaction is completed

in 12 minutes. Calculate the time taken for 84% completion

(1) 12 (2)60 (3) 36 (4) 24 63. The standard emf of the galvanic cell in

which the cell reaction as follows is 2 32 3 2 3Cr Cd Cr Cd+ ++ → + is Given 0 3 0 2/ 0.72 , / 0.42E Cr Cr V E Cd Cd V+ += − = − (1) 0.3V (2)–0.3V (3) +1.14V (4) –1.14V 64. The successive ionisation enthalpies of

an element M in kJ mol–1 are given as ∆i H1 = 736,

∆i H2 = 1450, ∆i H3 = 7740, ∆i H4 = 10500. Formula of its sulphate is

(1) M2SO4 (2) MSO4 (3) M(SO4)2 (4) M2(SO4)3

65. A crystalline mineral contains cubic unit

cells where Fe atoms occupy the corners of the cube, oxygen atoms at the face centers and tungsten atoms at the body centre. The composition of the mineral is

(1) FeWO2 (2) Fe3WO (3) FeWO3 (4) FeW3O3

66. Copper crystallises in cubic lattice with a

unit cell edge length of 360 pm and a density of 9 g cm-3. The type of cubic lattice in which it crystallises is (atomic mass of Cu = 63.5)

(1) simple (2) face centered (3) body centered (4) edge centered

67. Which one of the following reactions is

not associated with the Solvay process of manufacture of sodium carbonate?

(1) NH3 + CO2 + H2O → NH4HCO3 (2) NaCI + NH4HCO3 → NaHCO3 + NH4CI

(3) 2NaHCO3 → Na2CO3 + H2O + CO2 (4) 2NaOH + CO2 → NaCO3 + H2O

68. Which of the following IUPAC name is

incorrect? (1) 3- Ethylpenta- 1, 4 diene (2) 2- Ethylhex- 1 –en-4-yne (3) 2-(2-Chloroethyl) pentanenitrile (4) 2,2-Dichlorohexan -4-ol 69. A laevo-rotatory optically active alkyl

halide undergoes hydrolysis by SN2 mechanism. The resulting alcohol is :

(1) Dextrorotary (2) Laevorotatory (3) Optically inactive due to recemization (4) May be dextro or laevorotatory 70. Aluminium utensils can be passivated

using (1) Concentrated HCl (2) Concentrated HNO3

(3) Concentrated NaCl (4) Dilute NaCl



71. In diborane, hybridization of Boron is (1) sp3d2 (2) sp (3) d2 sp3 (4) sp3 72. Lactose is made of (1) α-D-glucose only (2) α-D-glucose and β-D-fructose (3) α-D-galactose and β-D-glucose (4) β-D-galactose and β-D-glucose 73. Which of the following cannot react with

sodium hypoiodite (1) Methanol (2) Ethanol (3) 2-Propanol (4) 2-butanone

74. Which of the following with aq.KOH

will give acetaldehyde (1) 1,2 dichloro ethane (2) 1,1-dichloroethane (3) Chloroacetic acid (4) Ethyl chloride

75. The end product of Z in the following

reaction,

Ethylamine 2HNO→ X 5PCl→ Y 3NH→ Z

(1) Methylamine (2) Acetamide (3) ethylamine (4) Propylamine

76. Silver benzoate reacts with bromine to

form (1) (2) (3) (4) C6H5Br 77. Reaction of Chlorobenzene with Mg in

presence of dry ether will give the compound A. Compound A reacts with aqueous halogen acid give which of the following product

(1) Phenol (2) Phenyl Ether (3) Phenyl ketone (4) Benzene 78. Which of the following is true in respect

of adsorption

(1) ∆G < 0, ∆S >0, ∆H < 0 (2) ∆G < 0, ∆S < 0, ∆H < 0 (4) ∆G > 0, ∆S >0, ∆H < 0 (4) ∆G < 0, ∆S < 0, ∆H > 0 79. Which of the following is not an

ambidentate ligand? (1) CN– (2) SCN– (3) CO (4) NO2– 80. NaCN is sometimes added in the froth

floatation process as a depressant when ZnS and PbS minerals are present together because:

(1) Pb(CN)2 is precipitated while no effect on ZnS.

(2) ZnS forms soluble comples Na2[Zn(CN)4 ] while PbS forms froth

(3) PbS forms soluble complex Na2[Pb(CN)4] while ZnS forms froth.

(4) NaCN is never added in froth floatation process.

81. Among the following series of transition

metal ions, the one where all the metal ions have 3d2 configuration

(1) Ti+3, V+2, Cr+3, Mn+4 (2) Ti+2, V+3, Cr+4, Mn+5 (3) Ti+, V+4, Cr+6, Mn+7+ (4) Ti+2, V+3, Cr+2, Mn+3

82. 1-Phenyl ethanol can be prepared by the

reaction of C6H5CHO with: (1) CH3Mgl, ether followed by

hydrolysis (2) C2H5Br+ H2O (3) CH3CH2Br+ Alc. KOH (4) CH3 Br+ Al4C3 83. The correct order of reactivity of

following alcohols towards conc. HCl/ ZnCl2 is :

I II

III IV

COOBr

COOAg

Br

F O

F

OH

OH

OH Ph



(1) I > II > III> IV (2) I > III> II > IV (3) IV > III > II > I (4) IV > III > I > II 84. Which one of the following is not an

antiseptic drug? (1) lodoform (2) Dettol (3) Gammexane (4) Gention violet 85. Which of the following complexes are

not correctly matched with the hybridization of their central metal ions? (1) [ Ni(PPh3)3 Cl] = dsp2 (2) [ Cu(CN)4 ]3– = sp3 (3) [ Co(H2O)6 Cl]3+ = d2sp3 (4) [ Ni(NH3)6]2+ = sp3d2

86. The product Q is (1) CH3 CHO (2) HCHO (3) HCOOH (4) OHC – CHO

87. ∆G° Vs T plot in the Ellingham diagram slopes downward for the reaction

(1) Mg + 12

O2 → MgO

(2) 2Ag + 12

O2 → Ag2O

(3) C + 12

O2 → CO

(4) CO + 12

O2 → CO2

88. Among the isomers of C5H11Cl, the one

which is chiral (1) 2-methyl-2-chlorobutane (2) 2-chlorobutane

(3) 2-chloropentane (4) 1-chloro-2, 2-dimethylpropane

89. A sample of H2O2 is labeled as 10

volume. Its strength in g/L is approximately

(1) 30.35 (2) 60.7 (3) 15.17 (4) 45.42

90. The polyhalogen compound used for the production of the Freon refrigerant R-22 is

(1) CH2Cl2 (2) CHCl3 (3) CH3Cl (4) DDT

91. The template for protein synthesis is (1) tRNA (2) mRNA (3) Ribosome (4) 23 S rRNA 92. The F2 genotypic ratio 1 : 2 : 1 shows (1) Plieotropic inheritance (2) Incomplete dominance (3) Multiple allelism (4) Lethal gene inheritance 93. A deploid organism is heterozygous for 3

loci and homozygous for 2 loci; it shall produce

(1) 4 types of gametes (2) 16 types of gametes (3) 6 types of gametes (4) 8 types of gametes 94. The frequency of double heterozygote in

F2 dihybrid population is (1) 0 (2) 1/8 (3) 9/16 (4) 4/16 95. In a dihybrid, F2 genotypes are of (1) 4 phenotypic classes (2) 3 phenotypic classes (3) 9 phenotypic classes (4) 16 phenotypic classes 96. In eukaryotes mostly (1) The cistrons are split and

transcription unit is monocistronic (2) The structural gene is single cistron

and unsplit (3) Transcription unit has many cistrons

and they are split (4) Transcription units are polycistronic

and unsplit 97. Find the correct / wrong statement (i) DNA has 3' OH, 5-methyluracil and

hydrogen bonds which confer more stability than RNA

(ii) DNA has evolved from RNA (iii) RNA has methylated cytosine

CHO + CH3CHO .dil NaOH→

CHO P + H2O 3 2/O Zn H O−→ Q +



(1) (i), (ii) correct; (iii) wrong (2) (i) correct; (ii), (iii) wrong (3) (i), (iii) correct; (ii) wrong (4) (ii) correct; (i), (iii) wrong 98. N15 DNA and N14 DNA can be separated

and identified by (1) Autoradiography (2) Centrifugation and autoradiography (3) Centrifugation (4) X-ray diffraction and centrifugation 99. cDNA is formed by the activity of (1) Kornberg enzyme (2) Polynucleotide polymerase (3) DNA dependent DNA polymerase (4) RNA dependent DNA polymerase 100. The RNA polymerase can initiate

transcription (1) When it transienty associate with Rho

factor (2) When it is modulated by the transient

association with sigma factor (3) When it is charged by Nucleoside

triphosphates (4) Both (2) and (3) 101. One of the property of DNA led Watson

and Crick to hypothesis semiconservative mode of replication

(1) Coleniarity of strands (2) Complementarity of strands (3) Antiparallel running of strands (4) Double helix nature 102. tRNA is synthesised (1) In cytoplasm as complementary to

m.RNA (2) In nucleus as complementary to

m.RNA (3) In nucleus as complementary to DNA (4) In cytoplasm as complementary to

DNA 103. Polymorphism is considered if one

variant at a locus occurs in human population with a frequency greater than

(1) 0.1 (2) 0.01 (3) 0.001 (4) 0.1%

104. The commonly used vector to transfer gene to plant cell is

(1) Agrobacterium (2) YAC (3) BAC (4) Cosmid 105. Mobile genetic elements are also known

as (1) Introns (2) Transposons (3) Constituting genes (4) Microgenes 106. An inverted ovule is (1) Orthotropous (2) Amphitropous (3) Anatropous (4) Hemitropous 107. Multicarpellary apocarpous gynoecium is

found in (1) Citrus (2) Michelia (3) Abelmoshcus (4) Alliumcepa 108. Chromosome number in Meiocyte of

Onion (1) 24 (2) 48 (3) 20 (4) 16 109. Which is not a defining property of life? (1) Consciousness (2) Self consciousness (3) Cellular organisation (4) Metabolism 110. Which belongs to solanaceae? (1) Petunia (2) Datura (3) Belladona (4) All of these 111. Red dianoglagellates belongs to (1) Chrysophytes (2) Protista (3) Euglenoids (4) Monera 112. Which of the following are

Basidimycetes? (1) Albugo, Puffballs, Ustilago, Morels (2) Puffballs, Buffles, Morels, Puccinia (3) Buffles, Puccinia, Bracket fungi,

Trichoderma (4) Puffballs, Ustilago, Puccinia,

Agaricus 113. Viruses were considered as “contagium

vivum fluidum” by



(1) Louis Pasteur (2) D. J. Ivanowsky (3) W.M. Stanely (4) Beijernick. M. W 114. Stored food is manitol, has unequal

lateral flagella and fucoxanthin. These algae belongs to

(1) Cyanophyceae (2) Phaeophyceae (3) Rhodophyceae (4) Chlorophyceae 115. Which is an example for lateral

meristem? (1) Interfascicular cambium (2) Cork cambium (3) Intrafascicular cambium (4) All of these 116. Which is not a dedifferentiated tissue? (1) Phelloderm (2) Phellogen (3) Secondary phloem (4) Both (1) and (3) 117. Find the correct match (1) Transport saturates – Fascilitated

diffusion (2) PEP case – Mesophyll cells of C3

plants (3) Substratephosphorelation – Calvin

cycle (4) Carbohydrate translocation – Calcium 118. Consider the following and choose

option showing wrong matches (1) Cytokinin – Nutrient mobilisation (2) Cytochrome oxidase – Complex IV (3) Succinyl Co. A – 4 carbon (4) Alcohol dehydrogenase – Zn (5) Chlorophyll-b – Bright green (1) 1 and 5 (2) 2 and 5 (3) 4 only (4) 5 only 119. Down’s syndrome is caused due to (1) Transduction (2) Translocation (3) Non-disjunction (4) Monosomy 120. The reading frame of a gene would be

altered from the point of

(1) Insertion or deletion of one base (2) Insertion or deletion of two bases (3) Transition (4) Both (1) and (2) 121. In breeding depression can be overcome

by (1) Hybridisation (2) Outcrossing (3) Cross breeding (4) Artificial insemination 122. E. coli plasmid has (1) Tetracycline resistance (2) Chloramphenicol resistance (3) Ampicillin resistance (4) ‘Ori’ 123. Secondary wall of plants are formed (1) Inner to primary wall (2) Outer to primary wall (3) Outer to middle lamella (4) Impregnated in the primary wall 124. The ‘R’ group is methyl in (1) Proline (2) Alanine (3) Serine (4) Lysine 125. Aerobic decomposition of glucose yield (1) 2NADH2 (2) 8NADH2 (3) 10NADH2 (4) 5NADH2 126. Photorespiration will be negligible in C4

plants under conditions of (1) High Co2 Con: (2) Low Co2 Con: (3) High light condition (4) All of these 127. Which PGR is useful in brewing industry (1) Cytokinesis (2) Ethephon (3) ABA (4) Gibberellin 128. The Avena curvature is used for bioassy of (1) GA2 (2) Ethylene (3) Cytokinin (4) IAA 129. Stems modified into cylindrical and

green structure are seen in (1) Opuntia (2) Euphorbia (3) Accasia (4) Casuarania



130. Specialised epidermal cells that surrounds the guard cells are called

(1) Complementary cells (2) Transfusion cells (3) Subsidiary cells (4) Lenticels 131. Tyloses often develops in (1) Secondary phloem (2) Secondary xylem (3) Pith (4) Hypodermal cortex 132. Post pollination development of pollen

grain is (1) Ex-situ (2) In-situ (3) Invitro (4) Precocious 133. Non membraneous organelle among the

following is (1) Microbody (2) Nucleolus (3) Centriole (4) All of these 134. Ovary is one chambered but become two

chambered due to formation of false septum in

(1) Lemon and Tomato (2) Mustard and Turnip (3) Dianthus and Hibiscus (4) Sunflower and Marigold 135. Choose the option that contain incorrect

statement regarding chromosomes A. At prophase early, the chromatin

material get condensed to form chromosome

B. Each chromosome, during metaphase has two chromatids held by kinetochores

C. Kinetochore constiture actual site of attachment of spindle fibre to chromosome

D. Telomere promote fusion of one chromosome with homologous member during crossing over

(1) B & D (2) B & C (3) A & D (4) B, C & D 136. Select the incorrect statement

(1) Lichens can be used as industrial pollution indicators (2) Evolution is a stochastic process based on chance events in nature and chance mutation in the organisms.

(3) Evolution is a direct process in the sense of determinism. (4) Excess use of herbicides, pesticides etc has only resulted in selection of resistant varieties in a much lesser time scale

137. The Graafian follicle ruptures to release____ (1) Primary oocyte (2) Secondary oocyte after completing meiosis-II (3) Secondary oocyte after completing meiosis-I and with the release of 1st polar body (4) Mature ovum

138. The role of the Na+/K+ pump in the

nervous system is to (1) generate the nerve impulse when the neuron is stimulated. (2) maintain proper ionic concentration gradients across the neuron membrane. (3) transmit the nerve impulse across the synaptic cleft between neurons. (4) provide a source of Na+ and K+ by splitting NaCl and other appropriate molecules.

139. Which of the following statements

regarding shortening of skeletal muscle fibre is not true? When a skeletal muscle fibre shortens… (1) the sarcomeres shorten. (2) the distance between Z lines decreases. (3) the myofilaments shorten. (4) the myofilaments slide past each other.

140. What is incorrect about vital capacity?

(1) It is the volume change of the lung between a full inspiration and a maximal expiration. (2) Vital capacity increases with height and decreases with age. (3) It is greater in men than in women of similar age and height. (4) It is equal to the sum of inspiratory and expiratory reserve volumes.



141. Cardiac output is: (1) the volume of blood pumped per beat

by both ventricles. (2) the volume of blood flowing through

the systemic circulation each minute. (3) inversely proportional to heart rate. (4) measured using sphygmomanometer 142. The aortic valve

(1) prevents the backflow of blood into the aorta during ventricular diastole. (2) prevents the backflow of blood into the left ventricle during ventricular diastole. (3) prevents the backflow of blood into the left ventricle during ventricular systole. (4) closes when the first heart sound is heard.

143. The largest white matter structure in the

brain, consisting of 200–250 million axons is:

(1) Hippocampus (2) Corpora quadrigemina

(3) Amygdala. (4) Corpus callosum

144. Antibodies which can pass through

placenta, found abundantly in colostrum and involved in allergy respectively are: (1) IgE, IgA and IgG (2) IgG, IgE and IgA (3) IgA, IgE and IgG (4) IgG, IgA and IgE

145. About 70 % carbon dioxide is

transported through blood as bicarbonates. What is the role of bicarbonates in blood? (1) They help to increase the breathing rate. (2) They increase the percentage saturation of haemoglobin with oxygen. (3) They function as important buffer system in the acid-base homeostasis. (4) They reduce the chances of coagulation of blood.

146. Which of the following intrinsic

mechanisms provide autoregulation of Glomerular filtration?

(1) Myogenic mechanism (2) Cardiac mechanism (3) Tubular secretion (4) Kreb-Hanseleit cycle

147. Choose the incorrect statement about

gastric lipase. (1) Gastric lipase is an acidic lipase

secreted by the chief cells of gastric gland. (2) It has a pH optimum of 7-8. (3) It does not require bile acids for

optimal enzymatic activity. (4) It more active in human neonates.

148. Which of the following is TRUE

concerning the pancreatic hormone secretion? (1) Insulin is secreted from alpha cells in response to elevated blood glucose. (2) Glucagon is secreted from alpha cells in response to decreased blood glucose. (3) Elevated blood glucose stimulates glucagon secretion from the alpha cells. (4) Beta cells secrete insulin at a constant rate irrespective of blood glucose level.

149. Following a vasectomy (1) spermatogenesis ceases. (2) semen volume is decreased.

(3) sperms are not produced by the testes (4) sperm cells are not transported into

the urethra. 150. Which of the following statement is not

correct about submucosal layer of alimentary canal?

(1) It is made up of loose areolar connective tissue

(2) It contains myenteric plexus or Auerbach’s plexus

(3) It is richly supplied with blood capillaries and lymph capillaries

(4) Both 1 & 3 151. Auditory signals are transduced to action

potential by: (1) the ear ossicles within the middle ear

cavity. (2) the hair cells in organ of Corti (3) the hair cells of crista ampullaris (4) the otolith organ within macula.



152. At what stage of muscle contraction is ATP is hydrolysed into ADP and Pi? (1) before the cross bridge of myosin can attach to actin (2) during the power stroke when the myosin cross bridge flexes (3) during the breakage of cross bridge from actin filament (4) when calcium ions bind with troponin.

153. Which among the biomes are the

research areas of Ramdeo Misra? (1) Tundra and Temperate forest (2) Desert and Grassland (3) Tropical forest and Desert (4) Tropical forest and Grassland

154. Disease caused by hypo and

hypersecretion of Collip’s hormone are respectively: (1) Tetany and Osteoporosis (2) Osteoporosis and Tetany (3) Tetany and Asphyxia (4) Asphyxia and Cretinism

155. An endemic species is best defined as a

species that: (1) has only few individuals remaining in

the wild (2) is facing a high threat of extinction

due to alien species invasion (3) occurs in a single geographical area

and nowhere else (4) is critically endangered due to

anthropogenic activities. 156. The independent evolution of a similar

trait in two different species, not derived from a recent, common ancestor is referred to as:

(1) founder effect (2) branching descent

(3) convergent evolution (4) divergent evolution

157. Study the flow chart shown below and

select the option which gives correct words for all four blanks A, B, C and D:

A B C D (1)

Embryo

Zygote Morula Gastrula

(2)

Zygote

Morula Blastocyst

Gastrula

(3)

Embryo

Blastocyst

Gastrula

Cleavage

(4)

Zygote

Morula Gastrula

Cleavage

158. Worm-like marine animals with

cylindrical bodies belong to the phylum (1) Echinodermata (2) Mollusca (3) Coelenterata (4) Hemichordata 159. Which one of the following phyla is

correctly matched with its two general characteristics?

(1) Mollusca – Normally oviparous and development through trochophore or veliger larva

(2) Arthropoda – Body divided into head, thorax and abdomen and respiration always by tracheae.

(3) Chordata – Notochord at some stage and separate anal and urinary opening to the outside

(4) Echinodermata – Pentamerous radial symmetry and mostly internal fertilisation



160. Choose the correct statement about human evolution.

(1) Man and apes evolved from two different ancestors.

(2) Homo sapiens is the only living species of its genus.

(3) Homo erectus is the first species of the genus Homo.

(4) Evolution of man and ape is an example of convergent evolution.

161. Select the correct statement from the

following. (1) Activated sludge sediment is a rich

source of aerobic bacteria. (2) Biogas is produced by the action of

aerobic bacteria on animal waste. (3) Methanobacterium is an aerobic

bacterium found in the rumen of cattle. (4) Biogas, commonly called gobar gas is

pure methane. 162. Diaphragms and vaults are

contraceptives that help in birth control by:

(1) inducing phagocytosis of sperms (2) forming a barrier between egg and

sperm (3) preventing ovulation and

implantation (4) reducing motility of sperms 163. How many statements are correct? A. The number of trophic levels in the

grazing food chain is never restricted B. Some of the organisms of DFC are

prey to the GFC animals C. Predators help in maintaining species

diversity in a community D. Decomposition is largely an oxygen-

requiring process (1) Three (2) One (3) Two (4) All are true. 164. Identify the hormones that are secreted in

large amount prior to ovulation? (A) LH (B) FSH (C) Progesterone (D) Estrogen (1) Only A (2) Only A and D (3) A, B & D (4) A, B, C & D

165. About succession, which of the following statement is correct?

(1) In xerosere, xeric conditions progress to hydric conditions

(2) In hydrosere, mesic environment progress to hydric conditions

(3) In hydrosere hydric environment progress to mesic conditions

(4) Abandoned farm lands show primary succession

166. How many statements are correct?

A. Domestic sewage contains biodegradable organic matter B. A scrubber removes gases like sulphur dioxide C. Electrostatic precipitator can remove 99% particulate matter present in exhaust from thermal power plants D. Particulate size 2.5 µm or less in diameter are not harmful for human health

(1) Two (2) One (3) Four (4) Three 167. Identify the correct and incorrect

statements A. Human skeleton has 206 bones B. There are 12 pairs of ribs in human C. Sternum is present on the dorsal side

of the thorax D. Patella is present at the dorsal side of

knee joint E. All mammals (except a few) have 7

cervical vertebrae. (1) A, B & C correct; D & E incorrect (2) A, B & D correct; C & E incorrect (3) A, B & E correct; C & D incorrect (4) A, C & D correct; B & E incorrect

168. Match the columns I, II and II and

choose the correct combination from the options given

Column-I Column-II Column-

III A Testes (i) 2nd – 6th

Segments P 1 Pair

B Ovaries (ii) 4th – 6th Segments

Q 1 Pair

C Spermat-hecae

(iii) 6th – 7th Segments

R Double

D Mushroom gland

(iv) 6th Segment

S Single



(1) A-(ii)-R; B-(i)-Q; C-(iii)-P; D-(iv)-P (2) A-(ii)-P; B-(i)-Q; C-(iv)-P; D-(iii)-S (3) A-(i)-Q; B-(ii)-P; C-(iv)-R; D-(iii)-S (4) A-(iii)-P; B-(iv)-R; C-(i)-Q; D-(ii)-S

169. The correct classification of Trygon is (1) Chordata → Protochordata →

Vertebrata → Pisces → Chondrichthyes (2) Chordata → Gnathostomata →

Pisces → Osteichthyes (3) Chordata → Gnathostomata →

Pisces → Chondrichthyes (4) Chordata → Agnatha →

Cyclostomata 170. The major threats to stratospheric ozone are:

(1) chlorine and fluorine (2) bromine and fluorine (3) chlorine and bromine (4) methane and bromine

171. Which of the following assist in locomotion?

(1) Cnidoblasts in Obelia (2) Clitellum in Pheretima (3) Spiracles in Periplaneta (4) Parapodia in Nereis 172. Cristae and maculae are:

(1) Groups of sensory cells found in the olfactory epithelium (2) Thermoreceptors found in the skin (3) Groups of sensory hair cells that detect changes in body position (4) Groups of sensory hair cells that detect vibrations in the basilar membrane

173. Four statements (I to IV) are given.

I. Glucocorticoids are hypoglycemic hormones.

II. Pineal gland is under hypothalamic control.

III. Adrenaline and noradrenaline are antagonistic hormones.

IV. Relaxin is a steroid hormone secreted by ovary.

The incorrect statements are: (1) I, III and IV (2) II, III and IV (3) I and II (4) II and IV

174. Which group of drugs suppresses intense pain and produces a feeling of well being? (1) Opium, morphine, heroin, pethidine (2) Barbiturates, benzadiazepines, diuretics (3) Caffeine, amphetamine, cocaine, heroin (4) LSD, marijuana, hashish, nicotine

175. Which movements in man are directly

concerned with locomotion? (1) Rotation of head of humerus within glenoid cavity (2) Rotation of skull over the odontoid process of axis vertebra (3) Contraction of heart to bring about circulation of blood (4) Rotation of head of femur within acetabulum

176. Of the following four statements (I to IV)

about nephron, find the two incorrect ones.

I. Urine becomes hypertonic as it passes through descending limb of Henle’s loop

II. Tubular secretion helps to absorb cations from filtrate

III. Descending limb of vasa recta is not permeable to NaCl

IV. Water reabsorption from distal tubules is conditional

(1) I and IV (2) I and II (3) II and III (4) III and IV

177. In laboratory experiments two species of

the protist Paramecium (Species 1 & 2) were grown alone and in the presence of the other species. The following graphs show growth of species 1 & 2, both alone and when in mixed culture with the other species

.



Which of the following conclusions can

be drawn from the graphs? (1) Competition exclusion occurred in these experiments (2) Both species are affected by interspecific competition, but species 1 is affected less. (3) Both species are affected by interspecific competition, but species 2 is affected less. (4) Both species are affected equally by the interspecific competition

178. Find the true statement.

(1) Those who take drugs intravenously are much more likely to acquire infections like syphilis and gonorrhea. (2) Atropine is anti-adrenergic. (3) Nicotine has an inhibitory effect on gastric acid release. (4) With repeated use of drugs, the tolerance level of the receptors increases.

179. During forensic investigation, a pelvic girdle was found and that of a female. How does they concluded that it was of female and not male? (1) Pelvic girdle diameter is less in female than in male (2) Pelvic diameter is more in female than in male (3) Female pelvis has one obturator foramen (4) Pubic symphysis is not fused in females

180. The “Rivet Popper Hypothesis” explains (1) How tropics are rich in species

diversity compared to temperate areas. (2) How the quality of life is affected if a

few species are lost from the community (3) How did the diversification of species

in the earth come about?

(4) The relationship between species richness and area.



ANSWER KEY

1 4 31 1 61 2 91 2 121 2 151 2

2 4 32 1 62 4 92 2 122 4 152 1

3 3 33 3 63 1 93 4 123 1 153 4

4 4 34 1 64 2 94 4 124 2 154 1

5 4 35 1 65 3 95 1 125 3 155 3

6 4 36 1 66 2 96 1 126 4 156 3

7 3 37 1 67 4 97 4 127 4 157 2

8 4 38 2 68 4 98 3 128 4 158 4

9 4 39 3 69 1 99 4 129 2 159 1

10 4 40 2 70 2 100 2 130 3 160 2

11 4 41 4 71 4 101 2 131 2 161 1

12 1 42 2 72 4 102 3 132 2 162 2

13 4 43 1 73 1 103 2 133 3 163 1

14 1 44 4 74 2 104 1 134 2 164 3

15 2 45 4 75 3 105 2 135 1 165 4

16 4 46 1 76 4 106 3 136 3 166 4

17 4 47 3 77 4 107 2 137 3 167 3

18 2 48 4 78 2 108 4 138 2 168 2

19 3 49 4 79 3 109 2 139 3 169 3

20 1 50 3 80 2 110 4 140 4 170 3

21 2 51 4 81 2 111 2 141 2 171 4

22 4 52 2 82 1 112 4 142 2 172 3

23 4 53 4 83 3 113 4 143 4 173 1

24 3 54 4 84 3 114 2 144 4 174 1

25 4 55 2 85 1 115 4 145 3 175 4

26 4 56 1 86 4 116 4 146 1 176 3

27 2 57 1 87 3 117 1 147 2 177 3

28 3 58 4 88 3 118 4 148 2 178 4

29 4 59 2 89 1 119 3 149 4 179 2

30 2 60 2 90 2 120 4 150 2 180 2



DETAILED ANSWERS

1. Average speed = tan 4000

1 1 1 11000250 500 200 100

Total dis ceTotal time

= + + +

= 400021

= 190.5 km h–1

2. tan 14 2

HR

θ= = . Since H =

2R

tan θ = 2; sin θ = 25

; cos θ = 15

R = 2 22sin cos 4

5u u

g g× θ θ

=

3. (3) drvdt

= = 4ti + 3 j∧

dvadt

= = 4i

a is 4ms–2 along x-direction 4. (4)

RCM =

52 4

3

L LM ML M

M

+ + = 11

12L

5. (4) T.E = 2

GMmr

−

r1 = 2R; r2 = 3R Energy required

= E2 – E1 = 1 2

1 12

GMmr r

−

= 12 12

GMm mgRR

= since gR = GMR

6. (4) Coefficient of performance

η = 2QW

= 21 2

QQ Q−

Q1 = 200 J

22

1200 3

QQ

=−

Q2 = 50 J

W = Q1 – Q2 = 150 J

7. (3) (- kx) is restoring force (- bv) is damping force It is a damped oscillator 8. (4) Listener moving towards stationary

source

' LV Vf fV+ =

; VL = 30 ms–1

V = 330 ms–1 f = 200 Hz Solving, 'f = 218 Hz ≈ 220 Hz

9. (4) Enet = 1 2 2 11 2

E r E rr r

++

Here E1 = E2 = 2V; Enet = 2V

rnet = 2r = 1Ω

Total resistance = R + rnet = 6Ω

I = 2 16 3

net

net

ER

= = A

10. (4) Conversion to volt meter

R = V GIg

−

10000 = 10 100Ig

−

Ig = 11010

A ≈ 10–3 A

Conversion to ammeter

S = IgGI Ig−

Ig = 10–3 A

= 10–1 = 0.1 Ω G = 100Ω I – Ig = 1 – 0.001 ≈ 1 11. (4) At resonance supply voltage V = VR =

10V and XL = XC

When '2RR = ; '

'SVI

R= = 2I

But V = 10 volt = VR VL = VC = ' LI X = 20 V 12. (1) For complete absorption

U = pC; p = UC

13. (4) For astronomical telescope under

normal adjustment, f0 + fe = 36;

Wall

•M •M

•M

5L/4 L/2



M = 5 = 0e

ff

; f0 = 5fe

fe = 366

= 6cm; f0 = 30cm

14. (1) No constant

Nx = 016N ; Ny = 0

256N

0

12n

NN

=

2 xn = 24; nx = 4 = 1/ 2

8T

; Tx = 2 hrs

2 yn = 28; ny = 8 = 1/ 2

8T

; Ty = 1

21

x

y

TT

=

15. (2) IC = 0.6 1600 1000

= A = 1mA

β = 20 = CB

II

IB = 120

mA = 0.05 mA

16. (4) Output is DC with (+) voltage

capacitor acts as filter. Hence DC output is not pulsating

17. (4) pi = 0 = 1 2 3p p p+ + ; p1 = 16; p2 = 12 1 2p p+ =

2 216 12+ = 20

= p3 = m3v3

v3 = 200.5

= 40 ms–1

18. (2)

AB = l = 12

g sin 30 × t12 ..... (1)

AC = h = 12

g t22 ...... (2)

sin 30 = 12

= hl

= 2

22

1sin 30t

t

21

tt

= sin 30 = 12

12

tt

= 2

19. (3) F = 2

2

K mvr r

=

mv2 = Kr

; KE = 212

mv = 2Kr

..... (1)

F = dudr

−

du = - Fdr u = F dr−∫ = 2kr dr−+∫

= 1 kKr r

− − + =

TE = KE + PE

2 2k k kr r r

− −+ =

20. (1) F constant

W = 2 1

2F

k k∝

WA : WB = 1 1:

A BK K = KB : KA = 1 : 2

21. (2) Magnetic moment µ = 2elm

22. (4) F = 0 1 22

i id

µπ

Nm–1; Total force = Fl

independent of radii 23. (4) Surface tension

= FL

same dimension as K = Fx

24. (3) Length AB = Q = mL1 L1 = Latent heat of fusion Length CD = Q2 = ML2 L2 = Lat heat of vaporisation Q2 = 2Q1 since CD = 2AB L2 = 2L1

60°

30°

A

C B



25. (4) R = 8 3 N; P < Q R2 = 64 × 3 = Q2 – P2 = (Q + P) (Q – P) 192 = 16 (Q – P)

Q – P = 19216

= 12

2Q = 28; Q = 14N; P = 2N 26. (4) Angular impulse = change in angular

momentum

mv0h = Iω = 25

mr2ω0

ω0 = 0252v hr

27. (2) Q1 = 10C; Q2 = 5C Distance 0102 = 10m W = q (V2 – V1) V1 = Potential at 01 due to Iring + potential

at 01 due to II ring

1 22 2

0

14

Q QR R R

+

π∈ + ..... (1)

V2 = Potential at 02 due to both rings

= 2 10

14 2

Q QR R

+ π∈ .... (2)

V2 – V1 = 2 1 2 10

1 1( ) ( )4 2

Q Q Q QR

− − − π∈

= 2 1

0

1 2 1( )4 2

Q QR

−− π∈

= 0

(10 5) ( 2 1)(4 )10 2

− −π∈

= 0

1 ( 2 1)8 2

−π∈

28. (3) Ep = 220V; IP = 0.5 A P0 = 100 W Pi = EpIp = 110 W

Efficiency = 0 100100 100110i

PP

× = ×

= 90.9% 29. (4) Isothermal = Temperature constant Isobaric – P constant Isochoric – V constant Cyclic = U constant ∆U = 0 30. (2)

In general, T – Mg cos θ = 2mv

r

51.6 – 19.6 cos θ = 2 161×

19.6 cos θ = 19.6; cos θ = 1; θ = 0° At the bottom of the circle 31. (1) For uniform tube Mass acts at centre

F = 22LM ω

32. (1) F = 2.8 N Force of limiting friction fs = µsmg = 0.4 × 2 × 10 = 8N F < fs ∴ Force of friction = Fext = 2.8 N

33. (3) a = 2 2sin

1 /g

k rθ

+;

2

2

25

kr

=

= 5 57× = 3.5 ms–2

Q Q

R

P

h

01 02

Q1 Q2

θ T



34. (1) Energy per unit volume = 12

× stress

× strain = 2( )

2Y strain×

Y = 2 × 1010

strain = 1100

= 10–2

Energy per unit volume = 106 Jm–3

35. (1) hC W−λ

= 3eV ..... (1)

2hC W−

λ = 1eV ...... (2)

Eliminating RHS

3 32

hC hCW W− = −λ λ

2W = 12

hCλ

W = 04

hC hC=

λ λ

λ0 = 4λ 36. (1) By Lami’s theorem

sin135

T = sin 90

W

T = W sin 135 = W sin 45 = 2

W

37. (1) (3 4 )F i j= + ; S a i a j∧ ∧

= + W = .F S = 3a + 4a = 7a W1 = W2

38. (2) f ∝ 1l

; l1 : l2 : l3 = 1 2 3

1 1 1:f f f

=

= 1 : 12

: 13

= 6 : 3 : 2

l1 = 6

11 × 110 = 60cm

l2 = 30cm l3 = 20cm

39. (3)

6p 4p8 = 18µC Let PD across AB = v1 PD across BC = v2 v1 : v2 = c2 : c1 = 36 : 18 = 2 : 1

v1 = 23

× 40 = 803

= 26.7 volt

≈ 27 volt Charge on 8µF = 8 × 26.7 µC = 213.6 µC ≈ 214 µC 40. (2) If I = 0 and Q moves towards P, emf

induced in P opposes the approaching coil Q. Hence I will be induced in opposite direction.

41. (4) Apparent depth of the image of the

fish = Re 0.4 3 0.34w

al depth m= × =µ

Distance in the medium = 0.3m; µm = 43

Distance in air = dair = 0.3 × 43

= 0.4 m

Hence dair = 0.4m in the original location of fish

42. (2) y = Dd

∆x ∝ ∆x

d1 ∝ 8 λ1 d2 ∝ 6λ2

1 1 12 2 2

8 46 3

dd

λ λ= = λ λ

135° 135° 90°

36µF

6µF

4µF

8µF

A B

C



43. (1) Rnet = 2R

H = 2

2V

R = 110 V

R = 2(220)

500

H = 1252

W for both lamps together

= I2 × 2R For each lamp, H1 = H2 = I2R

= 1 125 1252 2 4

× = watt

44. (4) Theory based 45. (4) Under steady state, no current in the

capacitor branch. Hence current in 2Ω

= 2.52 0.5

ER r

=+ +

= 1A

P.D across 2Ω = PD across 4µF = I × 2 = 2 volt Q = CV = 4 × 2 = 8µC 46. (1) All these elements form oxides which

are amphoteric 47. (3) H3PO4 is a tribasic acid, which can

form three type salts with anions H2PO4−, HPO42− and PO43−

48. (4) 17 g NH3 → 4 x 6.022 x 1023 atoms

4.25 NH3 → 234 6.022 10 4.25

17× × ×

= 6.022 x 1023 atoms

49. (4) 34

31 6

h 6.625 10mv 9.11 10 2.2 10

−

−

×λ = =

× × ×

= 0.33 x 10-9 m = 0.33 nm 50. (3) The last electron in 2O

+ is either in *

x2Pπ or in *

y2Pπ .

51. (4) Number of spectral lines = n(n 1)

2−

= 5(5 1) 10

2−

=

52. (2) 8 18 2 2 225C H O 8CO 9H O2

+ → +

114 g 400 g 285 g xg

∴ x = 400 285 1000g

114×

=

53. (4) i MRTπ = ×

1 1 12 2 2

i M 1 1i M 2 0.1

π ×= =

π ×

2

10.2

π=

π

2 0.2π = × π

54. (4) 3

2

10 0.1 0.31610

KaC

−

−α = = = =

% α = 31.6% 55. (2) NO oxidised to nitrate and Iodine get

reduced to iodide. 56. (1) ∆H = 900 × 18 = 16200 J/mol

16200 43.4373

HST

∆∆ = = =

57. (1) w = –2.303 nRT 21

log VV

= –2.303 × 5 × 8.314 × 300 × 60log6

= –28.72 kJ 58. (4) 5 3 2PCl PCl Cl+É 1 – –

11 1 1

P P P − α α α + α + α + α

2 2

2(1 ) (1 ) 1PP PK α α= =

+ α − α − α

59. (2) 0.005 M NaCl contains least number

of particles and hence depression in FP is less

60. (2) For molecules with resonance,

B.O = Total no. of bonds between two atoms / Total no. of resonating structures



Bond order = 7 1.754

=

61. (2)

0m 3

0 0 0m 3 m m

CH COOH

CH COONa HCl NaCl

λ =

λ + λ − λ

= 96 + 425 – 188 = 333 cm 3CH COOHλ = = 16.5 Degree of dissociation ( α )

= cm0m

16.5 0.0495333

λ− =

λ

62. (4) 100% → 40% → 16% t84% = t64%

x 2 63. (1) 0 0 0cell C AE E E= − = – 0.42 – –0.72 = 0.72 – 0.42 = 0.30 V 64. (2) Since ∆1H3 is largely diff. from ∆1H2

and hence M valency of M is 2 ∴ M2+SO42– → MSO4 65. (3) Fe occupy corners ∴ Number of Fe atoms = 1 Oxygen occupy face centres ∴

number of O = 3 W atoms at body centre ∴

number of W = 1 ∴ Molecular formula is FeWO3

66. (2) d = 3A

ZMa N

Z = 3

Ad a NM

× ×

= 10 3 239 (360 10 ) 6.02 10

63.5

−× × × × = 4

∴ face centred 67. (4) The reaction involved in Solvay

process are NH3 + H2O + CO2 → NH4 HCO3 NH4HCO3+ NaCl → NaHCO3+ NH4Cl 2NaHCO3 ∆ → Na2CO3 + CO2 + H2O

68. (4) 2, 2-Dichlorohexan-4-ol is incorrect and its correct name is 5, 5-Dichlorohexan-3-ol

69. (1) SN2 reactions occur with inversion of

configuration 70. (2) Aluminium metal undergo

passivation by forming an impervious oxide coating on its surface in concentrated HNO3 and the best method for passivation is anodisation.

71. (4) 72. (4) 73. (1) Methanol will not give haloform

reaction due to the absence of CH3COgroup

74. (2) CH3CHCl2

.aq KOH→ CH3CH(OH)2 → CH3CHO + H2O

75. (3) X = C2H5OH Y= C2H5Cl Z=C2H5NH2 76. (4)

C6H5COOAg 2 4,Br CCl→ C6H5Br +

CO2 + AgBr This is Hunsdiecker reaction

77. (4) Grignard reagents react with compound containing acidic hydrogen to give hydrocarbons

78. (2) All are negative for adsorption 79. (3) CO is not an ambidentate ligand 80. (2) 81. (2)

82. (1) Benzaldehyde give secondary alcohol

with Grignard reagent 83. (3) Stability of carbonium ion 84. (3) Gammexane is an insectiside

Cl O

O O

O–



85. (1) In Ni [(PPh3)3Cl] nickel atom undergoes sp3 hybridisation. So it is tetrahedral.

86. (4) Ph – CHO + CH3 – CHO .dil NaOH∆→ Ph – CH = CH – CHO Ozonolysis→

87. (3) ∆H is negative and ∆S is positive for

1 mole of oxygen 88. (3) 2-choloropentane has a chiral carbon

atom 89. (1) g/L = 34x V/ 11.2 90. (2) CHCl3 91. mRNA is translated into polypeptide

chain 92. For incomplete dominance, the

heterozygotes are medium phenotype. 93. When heterozygous for 3 loci, gamates

are 8 types 94. 4 95. 1 96. 1 97. 3' OH is engaged in phosphodiester

bonding in polynucleotides No methylated nitrogen base other than

thymine 98. N15 is heavy isotope. Hence

centrifugation is employed for separation and identification

99. eDNA is complementary DNA 100. Sigma factor is initiation factor of

prokaryotes

101. 2 102. tRNA is then transported to cytoplasm 103. tDNA is part of plasmid of

Agrobacterium tumifaceans which easily infect and integrate plant.

104. The plasmid of Agrobacterium tumifaceans

can naturally integrate plant cell 105. Tansponsons can transposition 106. Anatropous is typical and common form 107. Apocarpons gynoecium has free carpals 108. Diploid number of Onion 109. Self consciousness found only in Human 110. 4 111. 2 112. Puffballs, Ustilago, Puccinia, Agaricus 113. ie infective lining fluid 114. 2 115. 4 116. Phelloderm and secondary phloem are re-

differentiated 117. Fascilitated diffusion employ transport

protein which can saturate 118. Chl. b is yellowish green. 119. Non-disjunction is nonseparation 120. Transition is a kind of substitution which

will not after the coding frame of the gene

121. Out crossing is mating the inbreed line

with unrelated member of same breed.

122. Plamids have efficient ‘ori’

CHO | + Ph – CHO CHO



123. The cell wall layers are secreted by the cytoplasm of the cell.

124. Alanine 125. C3H4O3 is pyruvic acid 126. C4 plants have anatomical features that

prevent Rubisco combining oxygen 127. Gibberellin is used in beverage industry

due to its malting process by stimulating the enzyme amylase

128. Avena curvature test help assessing the

effect of auxin on plant growth by measuring phototropic curvature.

129. Euphorbia 130. Subsidiary cells 131. Tyloses are baloon like bulging of xylem

parenchyma into lumen of vessel which store various chemical which make xylem of wood more obliterated and durable.

132. In-situ 133. Centriole 134. Mustard and Turnip 135. (1) 2. In-situ is in natural condition (2) 3. Microbody has single membrane.

Nucleolus is not an organelle (3) 2. In members of Brassicaceae, the

false septum present (4) 1. Chromatids are held together by

centromere Telomeric end of chromosome prevent fusion between chromosomal ends

136. Evolution is not a direct process in the

sense of determinism. 137. At the time of ovulation, female gamete

is in the secondary occyte stage arrested at metaphase II with first polar body already released.

138. Sodium pump is a transmembrane protein that actively pumps out 3 Na+ ions for every 2 K+ inside.

139. Actin and myosin filaments never

shorten in length during contraction. They only overlap.

140. Vital capacity is the maximum amount of

air that can be inspired after a forcible expiration. It is the sum of TV, IRV and ERV.

141. Cardiac output is stroke volume

multiplied by heart rate. 142. Towards the end of ventricular systole, the

ventricular pressure reaches maximum and the aortic valve is forced open and blood moves into aorta. After systole left ventricular pressure drops and aortic valve closes.

143. Corpus callosum interconnects the two

cerebral hemispheres. 144. IgG is the smallest antibody with a MW of

15000 daltons. It can cross the placenta. IgA is present in bodily secretions like milk, saliva and nasal secretions.

145. Bicarbonates are the major buffer systems

of blood to maintain constant pH. 146. Myogenic mechanisms in the kidney are

part of the autoregulation mechanism which maintains a constant renal blood flow at varying arterial pressure. GFR depends on renal blood flow. When the renal blood flow decreases, the afferent arteriole dilates to increase blood flow to glomerulus and there is an increase in capillary blood pressure. When the renal blood flow increases, the afferent arteriole constricts, decreasing the blood flow to glomerulus and there is a drop in blood pressure.

147. Gastric lipase is the major acidic lipase. In

adults, lipid digestion is mainly accomplished by the pancreatic alkaline lipase. Gastric lipase digests unemulsified fat in the stomach at a lower pH of 3- 6.



148. Insulin is secreted by beta cells. Elevated blood glucose stimulates insulin secretion. Beta cells secrete insulin at a varying rate.

149. Vasectomy will not prevent spermatogenesis

150. Auerbach’s plexus are metwork of

autonomic nerves found between the circular and longitudinal muscles of gut wall. Submuosa contains Meissner’s plexus.

151. Plasma membrane of hair cells of organ

of Corti gets depolarized in response to sound signals and release glutamate as neurotransmitter to the synaptic cleft.

152. Cross bridge formation needs ATP

hydrolysis. Cross bridge breakage needs a new ATP to bind to myosin head.

153. Ramdeo Misra is the father of Indian

ecology. His research laid the foundations for understanding of tropical communities and their succession, environmental responses of plant populations and productivity and nutrient cycling in tropical forest and grassland ecosystems.

154. Collip’s hormone is Parathyroid hormone

(PTH) having 84 amino acids. It is a hypercalcemic hormone.

155. Endemic species are confined to a

particular region. High degree of endemism is a criterion to designate a region as hot spot.

156. Taxonomically diverse groups living in

similar habitats may develop similar traits due to convergent evolution.

157. After implantation of the blastocyst, the

inner cells mass differentiate in to three primary germ layers (ectoderm, endoderm and mesoderm). This process is called gastrulation and the embryo then becomes the gastrula.

158. Hemichordata includes acorn worms like Balanoglossus. They are marine tube-dwelling worms.

159. In Arthropoda respiration takes place by

gills (Prawns and crabs) trachea (insects) or book lungs (Scorpions and spiders). In most chordates, except mammals digestive system and urinary system open outside through a common opening called cloacal aperture. In Echinodermata, fertilisation is external.

160. Man and apes evolved from a common

ancestor. Homo habilis is the first species of the genus Homo. Evolution of man and ape is an example of divergent evolution.

161. Biogas is produced by the action of

anaerobic bacteria on animal waste. Methanobacterium is an anaerobic bacterium found in the rumen of cattle. Biogas, commonly called gobar gas is methane+CO2.

162. Diaphragms and vaults are female

barriers that prevent sperm entry into uterus.

163. Statement (1) is wrong. The number of

trophic levels in the grazing food chain is always restricted to 4 or 5 due to loss of energy at each transfer stage.

164. Progesterone secretion increases only

after ovulation. 165. Both hydrosere and xerosere reaches the

same climax stage called mesic stage. 166. Statement (4) is wrong. Particulate size

2.5 µm or less in diameter are harmful for human health

167. Sternum is present on the mid-ventral

side of the thorax. Patella is present at the ventral side of knee joint.

168. It explains the female reproductive

system of Cockroach.



169. Trygon (sting ray) is cartilaginous fish (Chondricthyes) of superclass Pisces.

170. Ozone can be destroyed by a number of

free radical catalysts; the most important are the hydroxyl radical (OH·), nitric oxide radical (NO·), chlorine radical (Cl·) and bromine radical (Br·). A single chlorine atom would continuously destroy ozone (thus a catalyst) for up to two years. Bromine is even more efficient than chlorine at destroying ozone on a per atom basis, but there is much less bromine in the atmosphere at present. Both chlorine and bromine contribute significantly to overall ozone depletion.

171. Cnidoblasts are used in prey capture and

defence. Clitellum is for reproduction. Spiracles for respiration.

172. Cristae are present in ampulla and

macula are present in utricle and saccule. 173. Glucocorticoids are hyperglycemic

hormones. Adrenaline and noradrenaline are agonistic hormones. Relaxin is a peptide hormone secreted by ovary.

174. Opium, morphine, heroin and pethidine

are opiate narcotics which are sedatives and analgesics.

175. Locomotion involves movement of hind

limbs which requires rotation of head of femur within acetabulum

176. Tubular secretion helps to add cations

from blood to filtrate. Descending limb of vasa recta is permeable to NaCl.

177. When each species is cultured alone it

reaches the usual asymptote level. But in the presence of another species, there will be interspecific competition for similar resource and the fitness of each species will be reduced. But species 2 is a superior species and its fitness is less affected.

178. Those who take drugs intravenously are much more likely to acquire infections like AIDS. Atropine is anti-cholinergic. Nicotine has a stimulatory effect on gastric acid release.

179. Pelvis of female is broader than that of

male in order to accommodate a growing embryo during pregnancy. Obturator foramen is an opening in the pelvic girdle for the passage of blood vessels and nerves.

180. “Rivet Popper Hypothesis” was put

forward by Paul Ehrlich to explain the impact of species extinction on ecosystem stability.

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