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Semester Final 2012-13

Multiple ChoiceIdentify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.

____ 1. Which is not something a scientist would study?a. astrology c. biologyb. botany d. anatomy

____ 2. Tasha is testing the effect of blue-colored light on the growth of tomato plants. Which is the independent variable in this experiment?a. light color c. amount of lightb. light intensity d. temperature of light

____ 3. A researcher is interested in the effects of nitrate and phosphate on plant growth and sets up an experiment in which groups of five plants are given 1, 2, and 3 grams of nitrate and 1, 2, and 3 grams of phosphate in all combinations over a period of one month. The researcher measures plant height and weight at the end of the experiment. What is missing in this experimental design?a. a control c. a dependent variableb. an independent variable d. a constant

____ 4. A person studying a particular field has published her findings. The findings are not testable by others. This person is most likely studying which field?a. astrology c. chemistryb. biology d. physics

____ 5. Some birds are known as honey guides because they may be followed by humans to wild beehives. When the humans take honey from the hives, the birds are able to feast on the honey and bees, too. This type of relationship can best be described as ____.a. parasitism c. mutualismb. commensalism d. symbiosis

____ 6. Cougars are predators that often eat weakened or diseased animals. This is a description of the ____ of cougars.a. habitat c. nicheb. community d. none of these

Figure 2-1

____ 7. Referring to Figure 2-1, suppose 10, 000 units of energy are available at the level of the grasses. What is the total number of energy units lost by the time energy reaches the coyote?a. 90 units c. 9900 unitsb. 990 units d. 9990 units

Figure 2-3

____ 8. In the energy pyramid shown in Figure 2-3, which level has the smallest number of organisms?a. fox c. grasshoppersb. birds d. grass

____ 9. Which of the following is the ultimate source of energy for the pyramid in Figure 2-3?a. grass c. sunlightb. heat d. water

flea

Figure 2-4

____ 10. The organism shown in Figure 2-4 is involved in which type of symbiosis?

a. mutualism c. parasitismb. commensalism d. predation

____ 11. Which of the following information could be included in the description of a grasshopper’s niche, but not in a description of its habitat?a. continent where it lives c. plant species it eatsb. locations where it shelters d. temperatures it experiences

____ 12. A researcher is studying reproduction in Taraxacum officinale, the dandelion. She decides to measure only soil temperature. You think her study is poorly-designed. Why?a. biotic factors probably play a large role in dandelion reproductionb. dandelions are not affected by soil temperaturec. it is hard to measure soil temperature accuratelyd. soil temperature varies too much

____ 13. Which of the following would be the easiest way to diagram predatory and parasitic relationships between several species?a. biomass pyramid c. food webb. food chain d. numbers pyramid

____ 14. Which process describes nitrogen fixation?a. animals eat plants containing nitrogen and return it to the soil through urinationb. bacteria take nitrogen from the air and convert it to a form usable by plantsc. organisms die and are decomposed into ammonia in the soild. plants take nitrogen from the air and store it in their roots

____ 15. Your favorite plant is growing very slowly, and you would like to find some way to increase its growth rate. Which of the following should you try increasing first?a. nitrogen c. sodiumb. oxygen d. calcium

____ 16. Some farmers use manure on their crop fields. How does this help the plants?a. protects them from intense sunlightb. keeps insects from eating the cropsc. increases soil nitrogen and phosphorus levelsd. increases soil oxygen and carbon dioxide levels

____ 17. Which of the following allows the flow of energy through an ecosystem to happen?a. abiotic factors c. evaporationb. cycling of nutrients d. predation

____ 18. One of the nutrient cycles moves from an atmospheric gaseous form to the soil through both abiotic and biotic processes, moves through the food web, then is returned to the soil or to the atmosphere. Which cycle fits this description?a. carbon c. phosphorusb. nitrogen d. water

Figure 3-1

____ 19. In Figure 3-1, where will you most likely find the greatest diversity?a. A c. Cb. B d. D

____ 20. In Figure 3-1, which section would have a lack of organisms due to an overabundance of resources?a. A c. Cb. B d. D

____ 21. What type of succession is most likely to happen in Figure 3-2?

Figure 3-2a. primaryb. secondaryc. tertiaryd. climax

Figure 3-4

____ 22. What would be the best time of the year to plant the organism described in Figure 3-4?a. winter c. summerb. spring d. fall

____ 23. If fire were suppressed on a temperate grassland, what species do you think would increase in number?a. trees c. herbsb. grasses d. bison

A team of ecologists measured the salinity of the water in an estuary at various distances from the river mouth. They also sampled populations of two species of clam worm, Nereis occidentalis and Neanthes succinea, at each point. The results are tabulated below.

Table 3-1

____ 24. Which of the following hypotheses is most valuable in explaining the trends seen in the data?a. Nereis occidentalis outcompetes Neanthes succinea at salinities under 14‰.b. Neanthes succinea reproduces most rapidly in areas at least 20 meters from the river

mouth.c. Both Neanthes succinea and Nereis occidentalis can survive at any salinity.

d. Nereis occidentalis is more resistant to salinity than Neanthes succinea.

____ 25. What is the distinction between a zone of tolerance and limiting factors?a. Limiting factors are biotic or abiotic factors that limit the growth of a species, while the

range of tolerance defines the set of conditions in which an organism can survive.b. The range of tolerance defines biotic or abiotic factors that limit the growth of a species,

while limiting factors define the set of conditions in which an organism can survive.c. Limiting factors and zones of tolerance are two terms for the same concepts about species

survival under various environmental conditions.d. Limiting factors are biotic features only, such as interactions with other life forms, that

limit a species, while range of tolerance is based only on abiotic conditions.

____ 26. When an iron nail rusts, what is one product?a. iron c. oxygenb. iron oxide d. water

____ 27. Which is the best description of activation energy?a. Heat added to initiate a reaction.b. Heat released as the reaction proceedsc. Heat stored within the reactant molecules.d. Heat stored within the product molecules.

____ 28. In humans and other multicelluar organisms, which substance plays a central role as an energy source?a. carbohydrate c. proteinb. fat d. water

Figure 7-4

____ 29. Where are you least likely to find water in the structure shown in Figure 7-4?a. A c. Cb. B d. E

____ 30. Which of the following pictures in Figure 7-5 most likely approximate the motion phospholipids make in a plasma membrane?

Figure 7-5

a. A c. Cb. B d. D

____ 31. Both Schwann and Virchow developed important theories about cells in the mid 1800s. Which best explains the reason these theories were made within a few years of each other?a. Hooke’s Micrographia inspired both theories.b. New microscopes provided better viewing of cells.c. Scientists invented the microscope in the mid 1800s.d. The electron microscope was used for the first time.

____ 32. What did scientists observe using the earliest microscopes.a. atoms c. moleculesb. cell parts d. tiny organisms

____ 33. Which is present only in eukaryotic cells?a. cell membrane c. DNAb. chromosomes d. nucleus

____ 34. Which substance on the plasma membrane helps identify chemical signals from outside the cell?a. carbohydrate chain c. membrane proteinb. cholesterol d. transport protein

____ 35. Which organelle converts sugars into energy?a. lysosome c. nucleusb. mitochondrion d. ribosome

____ 36. A scientist at the polar ice cap was studying an ice sample from hundred of meters below the surface. While examining the ice, the scientist found some cells from many years ago. Using an electron microscope, the scientist identified these cell structures: a cytoskeleton, mitochondrion, nucleus, cell wall, and ribosomes. What kind of organism did the scientist find?a. animal c. plantb. bacteria d. He did not have enough information.

____ 37. What is a major difference between facilitated diffusion and active transport?a. Active transport moves substances against the concentration gradient.b. Active transport uses proteins in the process.c. Facilitated diffusion moves molecules through the plasma membrane.

d. Facilitated diffusion requires large amounts of energy.

____ 38. What types of materials are expelled from cells during exocytosis?a. large molecules such as hormonesb. positive and negative ionsc. small molecules such as carbon dioxided. water and glycerol

____ 39. Which of the diagrams in Figure 8-1 show how energy is produced in a cell?

Figure 8-1

a. A c. Cb. B d. D

____ 40. What is the main purpose of the cycle shown in Figure 8-3?

Figure 8-3

a. sugar production c. production of ADPb. destruction of CO2 d. production of NADP-

____ 41. In which types of organisms does the process shown in Figure 8-4 take place?

Figure 8-4

a. plants only c. neither plants nor animalsb. animals only d. both plants and animals

____ 42. During photosynthesis light energy is converted to the energy in chemical bonds. What also happens according to the predictions of the second law of thermodynamics?a. chemical energy is converted to light energy

b. matter is lost in the processc. heat is released in the processd. the light and chemical energy are equal

____ 43. Which of the following metabolic pathways is anabolic?a. photosynthesis c. breakdown of actin in musclesb. respiration d. alcohol fermentation

____ 44. In which of the following processes is chemical energy converted to mechanical energy?a. photosynthesis c. cellular respirationb. a rock rolling down a hill d. muscle contraction

____ 45. What results from the removal of a phosphate group from ATP?a. the production of mechanical energyb. the release of energyc. the creation of energyd. the absorption of energy by chlorophyll

____ 46. The energy acquired in the light-dependent reactions is used in the light-independent reactions to build glucose molecules. How is this energy transferred from light-dependent to light-independent reactions? a. in the bonds of ATP and NADPH moleculesb. in the bonds of 5-carbon ribulose moleculesc. in the bonds of 3-carbon phosphoglycerate moleculesd. in the bonds of carbon dioxide molecules

____ 47. Which of the following are produced by reactions that take place in the thylakoids and are consumed by reactions in the stroma?a. carbon dioxide and water c. ATP and NADPHb. carbon dioxide and ATP d. ATP and oxygen

____ 48. The energy acquired in photosynthesis is used to make glucose. Where is the glucose made in plants?a. in the thylakoid c. in the stromab. in the thylakoid membrane d. outside the chloroplast

____ 49. What happens when an aerobic organism is placed in an anaerobic environment?a. Glycolysis stops, stopping the citric acid cycle.b. The electron transport chain stops, stopping the citric acid cycle.c. The citric acid cycle stops, stopping the electron transport chain.d. The citric acid cycle stops, stopping glycolysis.

____ 50. Where does the oxygen used in cellular respiration end up?a. water c. NADHb. ATP d. glucose

____ 51. By the end of prophase, each of the following has occurred except ____.a. tighter coiling of the chromosomesb. breaking down of the nuclear envelopec. disappearing of the nucleolusd. lining up of chromosomes in the cell

____ 52. The chromosomes shown in Figure 9-1 are in which state of mitosis?

Figure 9-1

a. prophase c. anaphaseb. metaphase d. telophase

Figure 9-2

____ 53. Which of the cells depicted in the line graph in Figure 9-2 are most likely cancerous?a. A c. Cb. B d. D

____ 54. If cancer is present, what is the likely explanation for what happened to the cells depicted in the curves labeled B and D in Figure 9-2?a. They thrived with the cancerous cells.b. They were harmed by radiation therapy.c. They died off due to natural causes.d. They died off because the cancerous cells deprived them of nutrients.

____ 55. Which of the following does not occur as a cell grows larger and larger in size?a. difficulty obtaining nutrientsb. difficulty eliminating wastesc. ratio of surface area to volume increasesd. diffusion across the cell membrane is impaired

Figure 9-3

____ 56. Which of the graphs in Figure 9-3 shows the correct changes in the amount of DNA in a cell as it moves through one cell cycle?a. A c. Cb. B d. D

____ 57. Why is the synthesis stage called this?a. because protein synthesis is taking placeb. because DNA synthesis is taking placec. because it combines several smaller stages into oned. because the chromosomes come together

Figure 9-4

____ 58. Figure 9-4 illustrates which stage of mitosis?a. anaphase c. prophaseb. metaphase d. telophase

____ 59. Which of the following occurs in telophase?a. chromosomes condenseb. chromosomes line upc. chromosomes move to opposite polesd. chromosomes relax

____ 60. A cell that is undergoing mitosis is examined with a light microscope. An observation that would allow for identification of the cell as an animal cell rather than a plant cell would be a. the centrioles migrating.b. the chromosome pairs separating from each other.c. the chromosomes twisting about each other.

d. the nucleoli disappearing.

____ 61. DNA replication occurs duringa. anaphase. c. metaphase.b. interphase. d. prophase.

____ 62. Why is it important for the chromosomes to condense during mitosis?a. to facilitate DNA replicationb. to facilitate chromosome movementc. to facilitate cytokinesisd. to facilitate spindle formation

____ 63. The diagram in Figure 10-2 shows a diploid cell with two homologous pairs of chromosomes. Due to independent assortment, the possible allelic combinations that could be found in gametes produced by the meiotic division of this cell are ____.

Figure 10-2a. Bb, Dd, BB, and DD c. BbDd and BDbdb. BD, bD, Bd, and bd d. Bd and bD only

Figure 10-7

____ 64. What fraction of this cross will be recessive for both traits?a. 1/2 c. 1/8b. 1/4 d. 1/16

Figure 10-8

____ 65. In Figure 10-8, which set of chromatids will result if each chromatid crossed with a nonsister chromatid?a. A c. Cb. B d. D

____ 66. Which event during meiosis leads to a reduction in chromosome number from 2n to n?a. Pairs of homologous chromosomes line up at the equator.b. DNA undergoes replication.c. Homologous chromosomes travel to opposite sides of the cell.d. Sister chromatids are pulled apart at the centromere.

____ 67. Crossing over would most likely occur during which stage of the cell cycle?a. when DNA is being replicatedb. when homologous chromomosomes line up in pairsc. when centromeres are separatedd. when cytokinesis begins

____ 68. What is the role of the spindle fibers?a. to join homologous chromosomes togetherb. to store nucleotides prior to DNA synthesisc. to initiate the formation of the nuclear membraned. to move chromosomes in the cell

____ 69. Suppose an animal is heterozygous AaBbCc, and the traits are not linked. When meiosis occurs, what is the total number of possible combinations of gametes that can be made for these traits?a. 3 c. 8b. 6 d. 12

____ 70. Mendel took the pollen from a tall pea plant and pollinated the flower of a short pea plant. When he did this, he removed the male parts of the flower on the short plant. Why was it important that he remove the male parts from the flower of the short plant?a. because he wanted to prevent self pollinationb. because the short plant was heterozygousc. because he wanted to prevent the development of seedsd. because the short plant was not a true-breeding plant

____ 71. In which situation are the phenotypes of F2 offspring expected to follow the ratio of 9:3:3:1.a. a monohybrid cross for 2 unlinked traitsb. a monohybrid cross for 2 closely linked traitsc. a dihybrid cross for 2 unlinked traitsd. a dihybrid cross for 2 closely linked traits

____ 72. Of the following species used in agriculture, which is most likely a polyploid?a. cow c. henb. goat d. wheat

Figure 11-1

____ 73. Refer to Figure 11-1. If individual III-2 marries a person with the same genotype as individual I-1, what is the chance that one of their children will be afflicted with hemophilia?a. 0% c. 50%b. 25% d. 75%

____ 74. If a female fruit fly heterozygous for red eyes (XRXr) crossed with a white-eyed male (XrY), what percent of their offspring would have white eyes?a. 0% c. 50%b. 25% d. 75%

____ 75. When roan cattle are mated, 25% of the offspring are red, 50% are roan, and 25% are white. Upon examination, it can be seen that the coat of a roan cow consists of both red and white hairs. This trait is one controlled by ____.a. multiple alleles c. sex-linked genesb. codominant alleles d. polygenic inheritance

____ 76. A man heterozygous for blood type A marries a woman heterozygous for blood type B. The chance that their first child will have type O blood is ____.a. 0% c. 50%b. 25% d. 75%

____ 77. What is the origin of nondisjunction for an XXX genotype that produces a phenotype of a nearly normal female? a. meiosis in sperm formationb. meiosis in egg formationc. meiosis I in sperm or egg formationd. meiosis II in sperm or egg formation

____ 78. Nondisjunction is related to a number of serious human disorders. How does nondisjunction cause these disorders? a. alters the number of gametes producedb. alters the number of zygotes producedc. alters the chromosome structured. alters the chromosome number

____ 79. What occurs during the process of meiosis in humans that can lead to a child with the condition of Down Syndrome?a. production of a duplicate chromosome setb. production of gametes which are diploidc. production of gametes with one duplicate chromosomed. production of gametes with one duplicate sex chromosome

____ 80. Which of the following could only be a result of nondisjunction during meiosis of sperm formation and not egg formation? a. XYY c. XXYb. XXX d. XO

____ 81. A man with a certain syndrome marries a woman who is normal for that trait. They have 6 children, three girls and three boys. All of the girls have the same syndrome as the father whereas none of the boys is affected. Which type of heredity is not possible here? a. Y-linked c. X-linked dominantb. X-linked recessive d. autosomal recessive

____ 82. A series of plants, produced through vegetative propagation, have been planted at different altitudes. The researcher observes that the higher the altitude, the shorter the plant will grow. Please make a hypothesis to explain the results.a. Higher altitudes affect the presence of genes that determine height. b. Higher altitudes decrease the expression of genes that promote height. c. The plants at lower altitudes are genetically different from plants at higher altitudes. d. Lower altitudes cause mutations in genes that determine height.

____ 83. Which series is arranged in order from largest to smallest in size?a. chromosome, nucleus, cell, DNA, nucleotideb. cell, nucleus, chromosome, DNA, nucleotidec. nucleotide, chromosome, cell, DNA, nucleusd. cell, nucleotide, nucleus, DNA, chromosome

Figure 12-2

____ 84. The process illustrated in Figure 12-2 is called ____.a. translation c. monoploidyb. replication d. transcription

Help Wanted

Positions Available in the genetics industry. Hundreds of entry-level openings for tireless workers. No previous experience necessary. Must be able to transcribe code in a nuclear environment.

Accuracy and Speed vital for this job in the field of translation. Applicants must demonstrate skills in transporting and positioning amino acids. Salary commensurate with experience.

Executive Position available. Must be able to maintain genetic continuity through replication and control cellular activity by regulation of enzyme production. Limited number of openings. All benefits.

Supervisor of production of proteins—all shifts. Must be able to follow exact directions from double-stranded template. Travel from nucleus to the cytoplasm is additional job benefit.

Table 12-1

____ 85. Applicants for the fourth job of the Help Wanted ad in Table 12-1, "Supervisor," could qualify if they were ____.a. DNA c. tRNAb. mRNA d. rRNA

____ 86. A DNA segment is changed from-AATTAG- to -AAATAG-. This is a ____.a. frameshift mutation c. insertionb. substitution d. deletion

Figure 12-3

____ 87. What type of mutation has occurred in Figure 12-3?a. substitution c. lethalb. frameshift d. insertion

____ 88. What will be the result of the mutation in Figure 12-3?a. it will have no effect on protein functionb. only one amino acid will changec. nearly every amino acid in the protein will be changedd. translation will not occur

____ 89. Where would a DNA substitution probably have the smallest or least effect on the organism?a. exon c. intronb. histone d. operon

____ 90. A particular sequence of parent DNA has four purine bases and two pyrimidine bases. According to base-pairing rules, which of the following sequences could be formed during replication?a. two cytosine, two adenine, two thymineb. two cytosine, two adenine, two uracilc. two adenine, two thymine, one guanine, one cytosined. two adenine, two guanine, two cytosine

____ 91. Which of the following sequences of processes correctly reflects the central dogma?a. protein synthesis, transcription, translationb. protein synthesis, translation, transcriptionc. transcription, translation, protein synthesisd. translation, transcription, protein synthesis

____ 92. You are a medical researcher trying to create a new antibiotic that will interfere with bacterial DNA replication without harming the eukaryotic host. You have found several chemicals that prevent DNA from unwinding and separating. Which of the following is the best chemical to use?a. a chemical that blocks uracil useb. a chemical that cannot pass into the cell nucleusc. a chemical that is neutralized by cytoplasmd. a chemical that works only in the presence of histones

____ 93. This is a template DNA sequence: 3'AATCGC5'. This is a partially-completed mRNA strand transcribed from the DNA template: 3'GCGA5'. What is the next nucleotide that RNA polymerase will attach?a. A c. Tb. C d. U

____ 94. A bacterium that was once able survive in a tryptophan-free environment is now unable to synthesize its own tryptophan. The bacterium is otherwise unaffected. Where is the most likely location for the mutation causing the change?a. the trp repressor c. the histoneb. the trp promoter d. the RNA polymerase

____ 95. Using DNA sequencing, you discover that a bacterium has experienced a deletion mutation that removed three nucleotides. The bacterium appears completely unaffected in all its functions. Where is the mostly likely location for the mutation?a. an exon c. a promoterb. an intron d. a repressor

Table 12-2

____ 96. Three samples of DNA contain the percentages of nitrogenous bases listed in Table 12-2. According to Chargaff’s law, which two samples probably belong to the same species?a. 1 and 2b. 1 and 3c. 2 and 3d. cannot tell without data on guanine and thymine

____ 97. You have a building toy set consisting of parts that can be connected together. You are going to use it to model a piece of DNA. You have decided that each part of DNA will be represented by a different type of toy piece. You have chosen the following four pieces so far: adenine = large red cube; guanine = large green cube, thymine = small orange cube; cytosine = small blue cube. How many other types of pieces do you need to represent the remaining parts both the 3-prime and the 5-prime strands of a section of DNA?a. 0 c. 2b. 1 d. 4

____ 98. DNA replication of a leading strand involves which enzymes?a. primase, polymerase c. helicase, primase, ligaseb. primase, polymerase, ligase d. helicase, primase, polymerase, ligase

____ 99. In pea plants, inflated pods (R) are dominant to constricted pods (r). Which of the following is a cross between inflated pods and constricted pods?a. RR X RR c. RR X rrb. RR X Rr d. Rr X Rr

____ 100. Which DNA sequence in Figure 13-5 will be cleaved by EcoRI, which cuts AATT/TTAA?

Figure 13-5

a. A c. Cb. B d. D

Semester Final 2012-13Answer Section

MULTIPLE CHOICE

1. ANS: ABecause astrology is considered a pseudoscience, a scientist would not study it.

FeedbackA That's correct!B Botany is the study of plants.C See pages 11–12 for more information.D Anatomy is the study of the body.

PTS: 1 DIF: Bloom's Level B REF: 11–12NAT: IS_2e TOP: 1-4

2. ANS: AShe is testing the effect of the color of light on the plants’ growth; therefore, light color is the independent variable.

FeedbackA That's correct!B See page 19 for more information.C That's not quite it.D Try again.

PTS: 1 DIF: Bloom's Level C REF: 19NAT: IS_1b TOP: 1-8

3. ANS: AA control would involve growing plants without added phosphate or nitrate.

FeedbackA That's correct!B The amounts of nitrate and phosphate are the independent variables.C No, what do you think are the dependent variables?D There are probably many constants in the experiment, but these are not discussed.

PTS: 1 DIF: Bloom's Level F REF: 19NAT: IS_1b TOP: 1-4

4. ANS: AAstrology is a pseudoscience. Those studying pseudoscience may publish their findings, but these findings are untestable.

FeedbackA That's correct!B Try again.C Findings published in a chemistry journal are usually testable.D See pages 12–13 for more information.

PTS: 1 DIF: Bloom's Level E REF: 12–13NAT: IS_2e TOP: 1-5

5. ANS: CBoth the bird and the human benefit from the relationship.

FeedbackA Check page 40 for the definition of parasitism.B Both the bird and the human benefit.C That's correct!D Can you tell anything more specific about who benefits from the relationship?

PTS: 1 DIF: Bloom's Level B REF: 39–40NAT: LS_4c TOP: 2-2

6. ANS: CThe role the cougar plays in the ecosystem, and the relationships it has with other animals, is part of its niche.

FeedbackA You're on the right track.B What's the definition of a community?C That's correct!D Look at page 38 for a clue.

PTS: 1 DIF: Bloom's Level C REF: 38NAT: LS_5e TOP: 2-3

7. ANS: D9000 units are lost between the grass and the mouse, 900 between the mouse and the cat, and 90 between the cat and the coyote.

FeedbackA How much energy is transferred between the grass and the mouse?B Review the pyramid model on page 44.C You're on the right track.D That's correct!

PTS: 1 DIF: Bloom's Level E REF: 42–44NAT: LS_5f TOP: 2-6

8. ANS: AThe fox-containing trophic level, at the top, will have both the smallest biomass and the smallest number of individuals.

FeedbackA That's correct!B You're on the right track.C Where are the grasshoppers on the diagram?D Try counting the blades of grass.

PTS: 1 DIF: Bloom's Level A REF: 44NAT: LS_5f TOP: 2-6

9. ANS: CThe Sun provides the ultimate source of energy for all food chains based on photosynthetic producers.

FeedbackA Where does the grass get its energy?B You're on the right track.C That's correct!D Water is a nutrient.

PTS: 1 DIF: Bloom's Level D REF: 41 | 44NAT: LS_5b TOP: 2-5

10. ANS: CFleas benefit from their hosts (mammals), but the hosts experience negative effects. This is a parasitic relationship.

FeedbackA Who benefits from this relationship?B Commensalism means one member of the relationship is neither helped nor harmed.C That's correct!D Review the definition of a predator on page 38.

PTS: 1 DIF: Bloom's Level A REF: 38–40NAT: LS_4c TOP: 2-2

11. ANS: CThe habitat description for an organism includes all the physical factors of its environment, but the relationships it has with other species are part of its niche.

FeedbackA Check page 38 for clues.B What is the definition of habitat?C That's correct!D A full description of the habitat could include temperature ranges.

PTS: 1 DIF: Bloom's Level D REF: 38NAT: LS_5e TOP: 2-3

12. ANS: AReproduction is likely to involve other members of the same species, as well as relationships with other species such as pollinators.

FeedbackA That's correct!B Think about what you know about plants.C There is highly accurate technology for measuring temperature of soil.D How would this weaken the researcher's design?

PTS: 1 DIF: Bloom's Level F REF: 35NAT: LS_4c TOP: 2-1

13. ANS: C

A food web is the only one of these four methods that would allow a detailed and accurate representation of several different types of relationships.

FeedbackA How would you show the difference between predation and parasitism?B You're on the right track.C That's correct!D Review the numbers pyramid on page 44.

PTS: 1 DIF: Bloom's Level F REF: 38 | 40 | 43–45NAT: LS_4b TOP: 2-6

14. ANS: BNitrogen fixation is performed by specialized bacteria that convert nitrogen gas into ammonia.

FeedbackA This happens during the nitrogen cycle, but it is not called fixation.B That's correct!C Check page 48.D You're on the right track.

PTS: 1 DIF: Bloom's Level B REF: 48NAT: LS_4a TOP: 2-7

15. ANS: ANitrogen is a limiting factor for plants and farmers often add nitrogen in the form of fertilizer to increase plant growth rate.

FeedbackA That's correct!B Oxygen is readily available in the atmosphere.C Sodium is not a limiting nutrient.D Is calcium usually a limiting nutrient?

PTS: 1 DIF: Bloom's Level E REF: 41 | 45–48NAT: LS_5e TOP: 2-5

16. ANS: CManure is a natural fertilizer that releases nutrients into the soil. Nitrogen and phosphorus are especially useful to plants.

FeedbackA The manure lies on the soil, at the base of the plants.B Do you think insects would stay away from manure?C That's correct!D You're on the right track.

PTS: 1 DIF: Bloom's Level C REF: 48–49NAT: LS_5e TOP: 2-8

17. ANS: DPredator/prey interactions are an important process for transferring energy from one trophic level to the next.

FeedbackA How is energy transferred between trophic levels?B Matter is recycled, but energy flows in one direction only.C Review the section on food webs.D That's correct!

PTS: 1 DIF: Bloom's Level D REF: 43NAT: LS_4b TOP: 2-4

18. ANS: BNitrogen is the only nutrient that goes into the soil through both biotic (nitrogen-fixing bacteria) and abiotic (lightning) processes.

FeedbackA Carbon dioxide is taken up by plants directly from the atmosphere.B That's correct!C Review the phosphorus cycle on page 49.D How does water get out of the atmosphere?

PTS: 1 DIF: Bloom's Level D REF: 45–49NAT: LS_4a TOP: 2-9

19. ANS: CSection C is the most favorable environment with respect to this factor.

FeedbackA At limits of range, fewer species can survive.B Close, try again.C Right!D At the upper limit of tolerance, fewer species can adapt.

PTS: 1 DIF: Bloom's Level C REF: 61NAT: LS_4c TOP: 3-2

20. ANS: DThe overabundance of the factor is on the right end of the range at section D.

FeedbackA This end of the graph represents fewer resources.B Don't give up.C Organisms are plentiful here.D Right answer!

PTS: 1 DIF: Bloom's Level C REF: 61NAT: LS_4d TOP: 3-2

21. ANS: BSecondary succession occurs after a fire disturbance.

FeedbackA Check definition of primary succession on page 62.B Correct!C Re-read the section on succession and try again.

D Check the definition of a climax community on page 63.

PTS: 1 DIF: Bloom's Level A REF: 62–63NAT: LS_4c TOP: 3-3

22. ANS: C

FeedbackA Days are shortest in winter.B Not bad, but when are days the longest?C Correct answer.D Days are getting shorter in the fall.

PTS: 1 DIF: Bloom's Level E REF: 61NAT: LS_5e TOP: 3-2

23. ANS: AFire will destroy young, woody plants.

FeedbackA Good job.B Try again.C See page 70.D Review information on temperate grasslands.


24. ANS: DThis is the only hypothesis that is consistent with the data.

FeedbackA Look carefully at the table and try again.B The data do not support this conclusion.C Data for all salinities are not provided in the table.D Correct!

PTS: 1 DIF: Bloom's Level F REF: 78NAT: IS_1a TOP: 3-9

25. ANS: AThis is the correct distinction.

FeedbackA Correct.B See page 61.C Recheck definitions and try again.D Re-read the material and try again.

PTS: 1 DIF: Bloom's Level F REF: 61NAT: LS_4d | LS_5e TOP: 3-2

26. ANS: BWhen the iron nail rusts, it reacts with oxygen to produce iron oxide.

FeedbackA This is a reactant.B Correct.C This is a reactant.D Water does not participate.


27. ANS: AThe activation energy is the energy needed to initiate a reaction. Often this energy can be added as heat.

FeedbackA Correct.B See page 158.C Additional heat must be added to initiate the reaction.D See page 158.

PTS: 1 DIF: Bloom's Level E REF: 158NAT: LS_1b TOP: 6-6

28. ANS: ACarbohydrate is the key substance for energy metabolism. Fat is used for storage but not typically as a direct energy source.

FeedbackA Well done.B This is mostly for energy storage, not use.C This can be used for energy but that is not its main role.D Water does not provide energy, though it is essential for life.

PTS: 1 DIF: Bloom's Level C REF: 168NAT: LS_5b TOP: 6-13

29. ANS: DThe nonpolar tails of the phospholipids repel water. The polar heads face the environment inside and outside of the membrane. The nonpolar tails are in the middle, at position E.

FeedbackA Look at page 188 for more information.B Think about it some more.C Look more closely at the diagram.D That's right.

PTS: 1 DIF: Bloom's Level D REF: 188NAT: LS_1a TOP: 7-5

30. ANS: CPhospholipids have nonpolar tails that always face toward the middle of the membrane. The polar heads always face away from the middle. The phospholipids can move sideways but cannot move apart or away from the membrane. Only C shows this movement.

FeedbackA The layers must stay together.B Think about it some more.C That's correct!D The polar heads can't move that way.


31. ANS: BBetter microscopes allowed scientists to see the workings of cells more clearly. This led to the formulation of the cell theory.

FeedbackA No, try again.B Right!C The microscope was invented in the 1600s.D Check the timeline on page 183.

PTS: 1 DIF: Bloom's Level C REF: 183NAT: IS_2c TOP: 7-1

32. ANS: DThe earliest microscopes did not have very high resolution. Scientists could not observe very small substances such as atoms and molecules. They could observe small organisms and see that they were composed of cells, but they could not observe the cell parts.

FeedbackA No, atoms are much too small.B You're close.C Try again.D Correct!

PTS: 1 DIF: Bloom's Level B REF: 182NAT: IS_2c TOP: 7-1

33. ANS: DAll cells have cell membranes, chromosomes, and DNA. Only eukaryotic cells have a nucleus.

FeedbackA Read the information on page 186.B Try again.C Think about it some more.D Correct!

PTS: 1 DIF: Bloom's Level B REF: 186NAT: LS_3e TOP: 7-4

34. ANS: ACarbohydrate chains sit on the outside of a cell. These chains can identify chemical signals. None of the other substances perform this function.

Feedback

A Correct!B No, cholesterol is found in the middle of the membrane.C Try again.D Read the information on page 189.

PTS: 1 DIF: Bloom's Level B REF: 189NAT: LS_1a TOP: 7-6

35. ANS: BAll the choices are organelles. A mitochondrion is the organelle that converts sugar to energy.

FeedbackA Look at the summary chart on page 199.B Correct.C Try again.D No, ribosomes manufacture proteins.

PTS: 1 DIF: Bloom's Level A REF: 197NAT: LS_1a | LS_5c TOP: 7-7

36. ANS: CThe organism could not have been a bacterium because it had a nucleus. It couldn’t have been an animal because it had a cell wall. The organism was a plant.

FeedbackA No, not with a cell wall.B No, not with a nucleus.C Yes, that's right.D The scientist had enough information.

PTS: 1 DIF: Bloom's Level D REF: 199NAT: LS_1a | LS_3e TOP: 7-8

37. ANS: ABoth active transport and facilitated diffusion use proteins in the process of moving substances through the plasma membrane. However, active transport moves substances against the concentration gradient while facilitated diffusion moves materials with the gradient.

FeedbackA Yes, that's right.B No, both process use proteins.C Look on page 204.D No, facilitated diffusion doesn't need extra energy.

PTS: 1 DIF: Bloom's Level D REF: 202 | 205NAT: LS_1a TOP: 7-9

38. ANS: AExocytosis is a process for expelling large molecules. None of the other materials requires exocytosis.

FeedbackA Correct.B No, think about it.

C Read the material on page 207.D Try again.

PTS: 1 DIF: Bloom's Level A REF: 207NAT: LS_1a TOP: 7-11

39. ANS: BA phosphate is added to ADP to produce ATP, requiring energy, while a phosphate is removed from ATP to produce ADP, releasing energy.

PTS: 1 DIF: Bloom's Level B NAT: LS_5cTOP: 8-3

40. ANS: AThe Calvin cycle takes the energy produced in the light reactions and stores it in the bonds in glucose.


41. ANS: DGlycolysis occurs in both plants and animals and in many other organisms.

PTS: 1 DIF: Bloom's Level D REF: 229NAT: LS_5c TOP: 8-7

42. ANS: CThe second law predicts a loss of energy in the form of heat, an increase in entropy of the system.

FeedbackA Refer to pages 218–219 for more information.B Carefully read both laws of thermodynamics and try again.C Correct!D Did you consider all the factors?

PTS: 1 DIF: Bloom's Level D REF: 218–219NAT: LS_1e TOP: 8-1

43. ANS: A

Anabolism is a process that builds larger molecules. During photosynthesis, a six-carbon molecule, glucose, is synthesized from carbon dioxide, a one-carbon molecule.

FeedbackA That's correct!B Check out page 220 for more information.C You're on the right track.D Did you consider all the factors?


44. ANS: D

Chemical energy is a form of potential energy related to the breaking and forming of chemical bonds. Mechanical energy is the energy of motion or position. During muscle contraction the energy in chemical bonds is used to move a muscle.

FeedbackA Refer to page 221 for more information.B Did you consider all the factorsC Not quite, keep trying. Does cellular respiration involve mechanical energy?D Good job!

PTS: 1 DIF: Bloom's Level D REF: 221NAT: LS_5c TOP: 8-1

45. ANS: BWhen ATP is broken down, energy is released..

FeedbackA Refer to page 221 for more information.B That's correct!C Can energy be created?D Think again! You are getting close.

PTS: 1 DIF: Bloom's Level B REF: 221NAT: LS_5c TOP: 8-3

46. ANS: A

The energy of the light-dependent reactions is stored in the bonds in ATP and NADPH molecules which are used to create the bonds needed to produce glucose.

FeedbackA Good job! You're right!B Keep trying.C Close. Try again.D Refer to page 222 for more information.


47. ANS: CATP and NADPH are produced during the light reactions in the thylacoids. They are then consumed during the light-independent reactions that take place in the stroma.

FeedbackA Refer to page 223 for more information.B Almost! Check your text again.C Good job! This was a tough one!D Did you consider all the factors?


48. ANS: D

The glucose is made outside the chloroplast from the glyceraldehyde 3-phosphate (G3P) produced by the Calvin cycle.

FeedbackA Refer to page 226 for more information.B This contains the electron transport and photosystems.C This is where the Calvin cycle takes place.D Correct!


49. ANS: BOxygen is the final electron accepter in the electron transport chain. In the absence of oxygen the electron transport chain cannot operate, which stops the citric acid cycle (and the production of ATP) leading to death.

FeedbackA But glycolysis is an anaerobic pathway.B That's right!C Is oxygen consumed in the citric acid cycle?D Refer to page 229–231 for more information.

PTS: 1 DIF: Bloom's Level E REF: 229–231NAT: LS_5c TOP: 8-8

50. ANS: A

In cellular respiration, protons and electrons join with oxygen to produce water.

FeedbackA Correct!B Check your text again.C You're on the right track.D Refer to pages 228–231 for more information.

PTS: 1 DIF: Bloom's Level D REF: 228–231NAT: LS_5c TOP: 8-8

51. ANS: DIn prophase, the cell’s chromatin tightens into chromosomes. Near the end of this stage, the nuclear envelope breaks down and disappears. Finally, the spindle starts to form.

FeedbackA See page 248 for help.B Good try.C That occurs during prophase.

D That's correct!

PTS: 1 DIF: Bloom's Level B REF: 248–250NAT: LS_1d TOP: 9-4

52. ANS: CIn anaphase, the chromatids are pulled apart. The microtubules of the spindle apparatus begin to shorten, which pulls the centromere and breaks it. This causes the sister chromatids to separate.

FeedbackA Prophase is an earlier stage.B Try againC That's correct!D No, telophase is the final stage before cell division.

PTS: 1 DIF: Bloom's Level B REF: 249–251NAT: LS_1d TOP: 9-4

53. ANS: ACancer is the uncontrolled growth and division of cells.

FeedbackA That's correct!B No, the number of cells is going down.C Try again.D Did you consider all the factors?

PTS: 1 DIF: Bloom's Level D REF: 254NAT: LS_1d TOP: 9-7

54. ANS: DWhen unchecked, cancer cells can kill an organism by crowding out normal cells, resulting in loss of tissue function.

FeedbackA Look at the graph again.B Try again.C See page 254 for help.D That's correct!

PTS: 1 DIF: Bloom's Level E REF: 254NAT: LS_1d TOP: 9-7

55. ANS: CIf a cell continues to grow, the ratio of surface area to volume will decrease. This means the cell will have difficulty supplying nutrients and expelling enough waste products. Diffusion across the cell membrane will not be affected.

FeedbackA Try again.B Did you consider all the factors?C That's correct!D See page 245 for help.


56. ANS: BThe amount of DNA doubles during the S phase and is then halved after cytokinesis.

FeedbackA Does the DNA increase four times at any point?B Do you end up with half the amount of DNA you started with as shown?C That's right!D The amount of DNA does change with time during the cell cycle.

PTS: 1 DIF: Bloom's Level D REF: 247NAT: LS_1d TOP: 9-2

57. ANS: B“Synthesis” refers to the synthesis of DNA during this phase.

FeedbackA This is not what is being made.B That's correct!C It refers to something being made.D Review the material on page 247.

PTS: 1 DIF: Bloom's Level B REF: 247NAT: LS_1d TOP: 9-3

58. ANS: BDuring metaphase, the spindle apparatus aligns the sister chromatids in the center, or equator, of the cell.

FeedbackA Try again.B That's correct!C See page 250 for help.D Look at what the chromosomes are doing.

PTS: 1 DIF: Bloom's Level B REF: 250NAT: LS_1d TOP: 9-4

59. ANS: DIn telophase, the chromosomes arrive at the poles and begin to relax, or decondense.

FeedbackA That's prophase.B That's metaphase.C That's anaphase.D That's correct!

PTS: 1 DIF: Bloom's Level A REF: 251NAT: LS_1d TOP: 9-4

60. ANS: A

All of the events can happen in both plant and animal cells except choice A. Plant cells do not have centrioles.

FeedbackA That's correct!B Try again.C See page 250 for help.D Both plant and animal cells have nucleoli.


61. ANS: BDuring the second stage of interphase, called synthesis, a cell copies its DNA in preparation for cell division.

FeedbackA DNA replication has already occurred by this point.B That's correct!C See page 247 for help.D Try again.

PTS: 1 DIF: Bloom's Level A REF: 247NAT: LS_1d TOP: 9-3

62. ANS: BThe decondensed chromosomes are so long and diffuse that they could not be disentangled when they are dragged to the poles of the dividing cell.

FeedbackA You're not considering when condensation takes place.B That's right!C The chromosomes aren't involved in cytokinesis.D The chromosomes aren't involved in spindle formation.

PTS: 1 DIF: Bloom's Level D REF: 248–252NAT: LS_1d TOP: 9-4

63. ANS: BChromosomes separate so that one of each gamete contains one member of each pair. Thus, B and b would not be found together, nor would D and d. However B can be combined with either D or d, and similarly b can be combined with either D or d.

FeedbackA Homologous pairs would separate from one another.B Correct.C Each gamete would have one copy of each homologous pair.D Four combinations are possible.

PTS: 1 DIF: Bloom's Level E REF: 275–276NAT: LS_2b TOP: 10-7

64. ANS: D

This is a classic F1 cross for two independent traits. The ratio is 9:3:3:1. Of the sixteen possible combinations, only one or 1/16 has a genotype with completely recessive alleles.

FeedbackA Check page 282.B See page 282.C Only one in 16 are expected to have both recessive traits.D Well done.

PTS: 1 DIF: Bloom's Level C REF: 277–281NAT: LS_2b TOP: 10-6

65. ANS: CThis would result in recombination on all the chromatids, producing two Ab chromatids and two aB chromatids.

FeedbackA This is the result of one crossover.B Try again.C Correct.D There must be two B alleles.


66. ANS: CReduction in chromosome number occurs when homologous pairs of chromosomes are separated during meiosis I.

FeedbackA The cell is still 2n at this point.B Check page 272.C Correct.D The cells are already n at this point.

PTS: 1 DIF: Bloom's Level B REF: 272–274NAT: LS_2b TOP: 10-1

67. ANS: BCrossing over refers to the exchange of DNA, which occurs when homologous chromosomes form pairs.

FeedbackA Check page 272.B Well done.C Crossing over occurs before this.D Try again.


68. ANS: DSpindle fibers attach to centromeres and move chromosomes.

FeedbackA See pages 272 and 274.B See pages 272 and 274.C Spindle fibers attach to chromosomes.D Correct.

PTS: 1 DIF: Bloom's Level B REF: 272–274NAT: LS_2b TOP: 10-2

69. ANS: CEach of the following 8 combinations are possible: ABC, ABc, AbC, aBC, Abc, aBc, abC, and abc.

FeedbackA Remember that the traits assort independently.B Consider all possible combinations of the three alleles.C Well done.D There are 2 x 2 x 2 possible combinations.


70. ANS: AHe removed the male parts on the short plant because he wanted to avoid letting the plant self-pollinate. He wanted the pollen to come only from a tall plant.

FeedbackA CorrectB Both plants were true-breeding homozygous.C Mendel used the seeds.D Mendel used only true-breeding plants.

PTS: 1 DIF: Bloom's Level D REF: 277NAT: IS_1a TOP: 10-4

71. ANS: CThis ratio is expected in the F2 generation of a dihybrid cross when independent assortment takes place. This is the case when two traits are unlinked, or found on different chromosomes.

FeedbackA In this case, a 3 to 1 ratio is expected.B Try again.C Correct.D If the traits are linked the results will be skewed from this ratio.


72. ANS: DPlants are often polyploids, while animals are not.

FeedbackA Animals are not usually polyploids.B Polyploid animals are not usually robust.

C Check page 284.D Correct.


73. ANS: A

FeedbackA You are right.B You are on the right track.C Please consider the pattern in the pedigree again.D Please refer to page 299.

PTS: 1 DIF: Bloom's Level E REF: 299NAT: LS_2b TOP: 11-1

74. ANS: C

FeedbackA Please consider all the factors.B You are on the right track.C You are correct.D Please refer to pages 296-300.


75. ANS: B

FeedbackA You are on the right track.B You are right!C Please consider again the inheritance pattern.D You are heading in the right direction.


76. ANS: B

FeedbackA Be careful to distinguish between genotype and phenotype.B You are correct.C Try writing out the cross.D Review the information on human blood types.


77. ANS: BNondisjunction during meiosis of egg formation would produce gametes that are XX and O. The male gamete would give one X, thus forming XXX.

FeedbackA What genotypes of sperm would this produce?B You are correct!C You are on the right track.D Consider the possible source of two of the X chromosomes.

PTS: 1 DIF: Bloom's Level F REF: 312–314NAT: LS_2c TOP: 11-9

78. ANS: DNondisjunction occurs during cell division in which the homologous chromosomes fail to separate properly in meiosis I or in which the sister chromatids fail to separate in meiosis II. This results in gametes with an inaccurate number of chromosomes.

FeedbackA Please review the process of meosis.B Please review the formation of gametes.C You are on the right track.D You are correct!

PTS: 1 DIF: Bloom's Level C REF: 312–314NAT: LS_2c TOP: 11-9

79. ANS: CNondisjunction of chromosome 21 occurs during meiosis I, resulting in gametes with two copies of that chromosome.

FeedbackA You are on the right track.B This would produce a polyploid zygote.C You are correct.D You are on the right track.

PTS: 1 DIF: Bloom's Level C REF: 312–314NAT: LS_2c TOP: 11-9

80. ANS: AThe genetic cause of this syndrome is paternal non-disjunction during meiosis that results in YY sperm.

FeedbackA You are right!B Work through the possibilities in each parent.C You are on the right track.D Work through the possibilities in each parent.

PTS: 1 DIF: Bloom's Level F REF: 312–314NAT: LS_2c TOP: 11-9

81. ANS: AAll modes of inheritance are possible except Y linkage, which is not possible because female offspring are affected.

Feedback

A That's right!B Draw the pedigree and assign possible genotypes.C Draw the pedigree and assign possible genotypes.D Draw the pedigree and assign possible genotypes.

PTS: 1 DIF: Bloom's Level F REF: 305–308NAT: LS_2b TOP: 11-5

82. ANS: BAll plants are genetically equivalent because they were produced through vegetative propagation. Therefore, the phenotype is affected by the environment.

FeedbackA You are on the right track.B You are correct.C Please refer to page 309.D Did you consider all the factors?

PTS: 1 DIF: Bloom's Level D REF: 309NAT: IS_1a TOP: 11-6

83. ANS: BNucleotides are the subunits of nucleic acids like DNA. DNA coils around histone proteins to form chromosomes, which are contained in the nucleus of a cell.

FeedbackA Chromosomes are in the nucleus.B That's correct!C Check page 329.D What is a chromosome made of?

PTS: 1 DIF: Bloom's Level B REF: 329 | 332NAT: LS_1c TOP: 12-3

84. ANS: ATranslation is the process by which the mRNA “template” is used to form polypeptides.

FeedbackA That's correct!B Page 334 shows replication.C Check the definition of monoploidy.D Is any DNA involved in the pictured process?


85. ANS: BmRNA is formed from the template strand of DNA, and it carries the “code” from the nucleus to the ribosomes.

FeedbackA Does DNA leave the nucleus?B That's correct!

C tRNA carries amino acids.D Look at page 336.


86. ANS: BThe number and identities of the bases in the two sequences are the same except for the substitution of an adenine molecule for a thymine.

FeedbackA A frameshift mutation changes the number of bases in the sequence.B That's correct!C Do the two sequences contain the same number of bases?D Check page 346 for the definition of a deletion.


87. ANS: BDeleting a nucleotide causes a frameshift mutation, since the codons following the deletion will code for different amino acids than the original sequence.

FeedbackA Check the definition of a point mutation on page 345.B That's correct!C How do you know what effects the mutation has on the whole organism?D A protein is simply a polypeptide, or chain of amino acids.


88. ANS: CSince the reading “frame” is shifted one place, all amino acids after the deletion will be different from the original sequence.

FeedbackA Protein function is determined by the sequence of amino acids in the protein.B Look closely at the codons that follow the mutation.C That's correct!D Do you see a stop codon?

PTS: 1 DIF: Bloom's Level B REF: 346NAT: LS_2a | LS_2c TOP: 12-11

89. ANS: CIntrons, or intervening sequences, are removed from mRNA before it leaves the nucleus, so they are not used in enzyme synthesis.

FeedbackA You're on the right track.B Histones are proteins.C That's correct!

D What does an operon do?

PTS: 1 DIF: Bloom's Level E REF: 337NAT: LS_2a | LS_2c TOP: 12-7

90. ANS: AAccording to base-pairing rules, the number of purine bases formed must match the number of pyrimidine bases in the parent sequence.

FeedbackA That's correct!B Does uracil occur in DNA?C Count the number of purine bases.D Review base pairing rules on page 329.

PTS: 1 DIF: Bloom's Level E REF: 329–330 | 333NAT: LS_2a TOP: 12-2

91. ANS: CThe central dogma states that DNA is transcribed to mRNA, which is translated to a sequence of amino acids that form a polypeptide.

FeedbackA The central dogma starts with DNA.B Check page 336.C That's correct!D What is the difference between transcription and translation?

PTS: 1 DIF: Bloom's Level B REF: 336–339NAT: LS_1c TOP: 12-8

92. ANS: BThe only chemical that will prevent bacterial replication without interfering with eukaryotic replication is one that cannot enter the eukaryotic nucleus.

FeedbackA Does DNA contain uracil?B That's correct!C Both bacteria and eukaryotic cells have cytoplasm.D Bacterial chromosomes don't have histones.

PTS: 1 DIF: Bloom's Level E REF: 335NAT: IS_1e TOP: 12-3

93. ANS: DThe mRNA strand is being transcribed from the DNA in a right-to-left order. The corresponding base pair to adenine is uracil in RNA.

FeedbackA Is the mRNA being formed from left-to-right or from right-to-left?B Review base pairing on page 329.C You're on the right track.D That's correct!

PTS: 1 DIF: Bloom's Level D REF: 337NAT: LS_1c | LS_2a TOP: 12-7

94. ANS: BThe promoter is the most likely location for the mutation, because if it cannot operate, transcription of the tryptophan-synthesizing enzymes does not take place. The trp repressor plays a role only in the presence of tryptophan.

FeedbackA What would happen if the repressor molecule didn't work?B That's correct!C Histones are part of eukaryotic cells.D If RNA polymerase were affected, the bacterium wouldn't survive at all.

PTS: 1 DIF: Bloom's Level E REF: 342–343NAT: LS_1d | LS_2c TOP: 12-9

95. ANS: BIntrons, or intervening sequences, get processed out of the mRNA before it leaves the nucleus, so removal of an intron would probably have little effect on bacterial functions such as enzyme synthesis.

FeedbackA You're on the right track.B That's correct!C The promoter is involved in gene regulation.D What is a deletion?

PTS: 1 DIF: Bloom's Level E REF: 337NAT: LS_1d | LS_2c TOP: 12-7

96. ANS: BThough the numbers do not match exactly, 1 and 3 have similar percentages of adenine and cytosine.

FeedbackA Keep trying.B That's correct!C Which bases pair up in DNA?D Check page 329 for Chargaff's law.


97. ANS: CThe only pieces still needed represent a sugar and a phosphate—the order of those pieces determines the direction of the strand.

FeedbackA A nucleotide is made of one phosphate, one sugar, and one base.B A sugar and a phosphate group are two different molecules.C That's correct!D What is the difference between the 3-prime strand and the 5-prime strand?


98. ANS: DThe leading strand is formed continuously, but since replication can originate at multiple points along the chromosome, all four enzymes are needed.

FeedbackA How does the DNA unwind?B Check page 334 for hints.C You're on the right track.D That's correct!

PTS: 1 DIF: Bloom's Level E REF: 334NAT: LS_2a TOP: 12-5

99. ANS: CThe phenotype for RR is the inflated pod, and the phenotype for rr is the recessive pod.All of the other choices would be crossing inflated pod phenotypes.

FeedbackA What are the phenotypes of these pods?B What are the phenotypes of these pods?C That's correct!D Refer to page 362 for more information.

PTS: 1 DIF: Bloom's Level B REF: 362NAT: LS_2b TOP: 13-3

100. ANS: CSequence C is the only one that has the base pairs AATT/TTAA.

FeedbackA Check the sequences again.B Refer to page 364 for more information.C Correct!D You're close!

PTS: 1 DIF: Bloom's Level B REF: 364NAT: IS_1e TOP: 13-4

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