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Venkateshwar International School Sector-18, Dwarka, New Delhi-78

Class X SAT

Time Allowed: 1 hr 30mins Total : M.M-80

English__________ Math ___________ Science __________ Total (80) ________

Name of student ________________________________

School Code ___________________________________

Class _________________________________________

Section-A (English) M.M-20

On the basis of reading of the above poem, answer the questions that follow by choosing the correct option.

I Build Walls

I build walls: Walls that protect, Walls that shield,

Walls that say I shall not yield Or reveal

Who I am or how I feel.

I build walls: Walls that hide,

Walls that cover what‟s inside, Walls that stare or smile or look away,

Silent lies, Walls that even block my eyes

From the tears I might have cried.

I build walls: Walls that never let me

Truly touch Those I love so very much.

Walls that need to fall! Walls meant to be fortresses

1) The poet builds walls because they………….. (a) protect him from inclement weather. (b) don’t let any intruder come in.

(c) define the boundary line of his house. (d) help him in hiding his identity and feelings.

2) The walls that the poet makes are made of……….. (a) bricks and cement. (b) green hedge. (c) wire. (d) barriers of his own emotions.

3) The line that shows that the poet doesn‟t always think that walls are good is………. .

(a) Walls that say “I shall not yield” (b) Walls that stare or smile (c) Walls that need to fall! (d) Walls that cover what is inside

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4) The line “Walls that never let me / truly touch/ those that I love so very much” means

these walls don‟t let him ………….. (a) meet his near and dear ones. (b) express his feelings to his loved ones. (c) be in touch with his close relatives. (d) allow his loved ones to come to him.

5) The poetic device used for walls in this poem is………….. . (a) Simile (b) Metaphor (c) Personification (d) Alliteration

Each sentence has one or more blanks, each blank indicates that something has been omitted. Choose the word or set of words that, when inserted in the sentence, best fits the meaning of the sentence as a whole.

6 ) After his stroke, my grandfather‟s speech was largely ____, and only the most _____ of his friends and relatives could understand what he was trying to say.

(a) incoherent – astute (b) indistinguishable - obtuse (c) incomprehensible - ludicrous (d) atonal - judicious

7) Jennifer dislikes small talk, and would sooner engage in heated ____ than exchange

meaningless _____. (a) contemplations – clichés (b) disputes – idioms (c) debate – platitudes (d) discourse – vernacular

A part of each sentence or the entire sentence is underlined; beneath each sentence are four ways of phrasing the underlined material. Choice A repeats the original phrasing; the other three choices are different. If you think the original phrasing produces a better sentence than any of the alternatives, select choice A; if not, select one of the other choices. 8) People visiting relatives in hospital when they themselves are unwell risk infecting

patients on the ward. (a) when they themselves are unwell (b) who are unwell (c) who are unwell themselves (d) when they are themselves unwell 9) Please give the airline prior warning unless you intend to bring oversize luggage on the

flight. (a) unless you intend to bring (b) if you are intending to bring (c) if you intended to bring (d) as soon as you intend bringing Each sentence contains either a single error or no error at all. No sentence contains more than one error. The error, if there is one, is underlined. If the sentence contains an error, select the one underlined part that must be changed to make the sentence correct. If the sentence is correct, select no error. 10) Seasonal changes in the amount of daylight available can have a profound affect on

both animals, and plants, particularly with regards to reproduction, which must be carefully timed.

(a) changes in (b) affect (c) both animals and plants (d) no error

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11) Had Jeremy not told me that you were going to be absent, I wouldn‟t of known

anything about it. (a) Had Jeremy not (b) were going to be (c) wouldn’t of (d) no error 12) Chose the correct word for the phrase „One who is honourably discharged from

service‟. (a) Retired (b) Emeritus

(c) Relieved (d) Emancipated 13) Which of the following words best expresses the meaning of the word „CORPULENT‟? (a) lean (b) gaunt (c) emaciated (d) obese

14) In the question below, the passage consists of six sentences. The first and sixth

sentences are given. The middle four sentences in each have been removed and jumbled up. These are labelled as P, Q, R and S. Find out the proper order for the four sentences.

S1:In the middle of one side of the square sits the Chairman of the committee, the most important person in the room.

P :For a committee is not just a mere collection of individuals. Q :On him rests much of the responsibility for the success or failure of the committee. R :While this is happening we have an opportunity to get the 'feel' of this committee. S :As the meeting opens, he runs briskly through a number of formalities. S6:From the moment its members meet, it begins to have a sort nebulous life of its own.

The proper sequence should be:

(a) RSQP (b) PQRS (c) SQPR (d) QSRP

15) Find the correctly spelt word. (a) treachrous (b) trecherous (c) trechearous (d) treacherous 16) In the question below, the sentence has been given in Active/Passive voice. From the

given alternatives, choose the one that best expresses the given sentence in Passive/Active voice.

After driving professor Kumar to the museum she dropped him at his hotel.

(a) After being driven to the museum, Professor Kumar was dropped at his hotel. (b) Professor Kumar was being driven dropped at his hotel. (c) After she had driven Professor Kumar to the museum, she had dropped him at his hotel. (d) After she was driven Professor Kumar to the museum, she had dropped him at his hotel.

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17 ) In the question below, the sentences have been given in Direct/Indirect speech. From the given alternatives, choose the one that best expresses the given sentence in Indirect/Direct speech.

"If you don't keep quiet I shall shoot you", he said to her in a calm voice.

(a) He warned her to shoot if she didn't keep quiet calmly. (b) He said calmly that I shall shoot you if you don't be quiet. (c) He warned her calmly that he would shoot her if she didn't keep quiet. (d) Calmly he warned her that be quiet or else he will have to shoot her.

18) Select the pair which has the same relationship as MUNDANE:SPIRITUAL:

(a) common:ghostly (b) worldly:unworldly (c) routine:novel (d) secular:clerical

19) Pick out the most effective word(s) from the given words to fill in the blank to make the

sentence meaningfully complete.

If you smuggle goods into the country, they may be ________ by the customs authority.

(a) possessed (b) punished (c) confiscated (d) fined 20) The sentence below consists of a word or a phrase which is bold. It is followed by four

words or phrases. Select the word which is closer to the OPPOSITE in meaning of the bold word. “The inhabitants of the island were barbarians.”

(a) civilized (b) uncivilised (c) cruel (d) bad

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SAT Class- X

Section- B (Mathematics) M.M.-30

Name of the student :_________________ School Code : ________________

Q1: If the product of the integers a, b, c and d is 3094 and if 1<a<b<c<d, then what is the

product of b and c? (a) 26 (b) 91 (c)133 (d) 221

Q2:In Sabarmati Express, there are as many as wagons as there are the number of seats in which each wagon and not more than one passenger can have the same berth(seat).If the middlemost compartment carrying 25 passengers is filled with 71.428% of its capacity, then find the maximum number of passengers in the train that can be accommodated if it has minimum 20% seats always vacant.

(a) 500 (b) 786 (c) 980 (d) can’t be determined

Q3:In the figure, AD=12cm, AB=20cm and AE=10cm.Find EC:

(a) 14cm (b) 10cm (c) 8cm (d)15cm

Q4:If x=2 31

+2 31

then the value of 2x3-6x will be: (a) 5 (b) -5 (c) 1 (d) 0

Q5:The expression (x+y)-1 (x-1+y-1) is equivalent to: (a) 1 (b) (xy)-1 (c) xy (d) xy-1+x-1y

Q6:In a right triangle ABC, A is a right angle, DE is parallel to BC and the length of DE is 65% the length of BC, what is the area of ADE, if the area of ABC is 68cm2? (a) 27.83cm2 (b) 41.6cm2 (c)28.73cm2 (d) none of these

Q7:In a 1600 m race, A beats B by 80m and C by 60m. If they run at the same time then by what distance will C beat B in a 400m race?

(a) 5 15

77 𝑚 (b) 5

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76 𝑚 (c) 15

5

77 𝑚 (d) none of these

Q8:Difference between the interior and exterior angles of regular polygon is 600.The number of sides in the polygon is: (a) 5 (b) 6 (c) 8 (d)9

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Q9:In the figure, BAD=a, ABC=b , BCD=c and ADC=d, find the value of ABC in terms of a , c and d:

(a) c-(a+d) (b) a-(c+d) (c) b-(c+d) (d) none of these

Q10:The difference between downstream speed and upstream speed is 3km/h and the total time taken during upstream and downstream is 3 hours. What is the downstream speed, if the downstream and upstream distance are 3km each?

(a) 2.5km/h (b) 4.33km/h (c) 4km/h (d) 3.3km/hm

Q11:A ladder 6.5m long is standing against a wall and the difference between the base of the ladder and wall is 5.2m.If the top of the ladder now slips by 1.4m, then by how much will the foot of the ladder slip? (a)1.2m (b) 0.8m (c) 0.75m (d) can’t be determined

Q12:When do the hands of a clock coincide between 5 and 6?

(a) 5:30 (b)5:27:16 (c) 5:32:16 (d)5:28:56

Q13:A cone, a hemisphere and a cylinder stand on equal bases of radius R and have equal heights H. Their whole surfaces are in the ratio:

(a)( 3 +1):3:4 (b)( 2 +1):7:8 (c)( 2 +1):3:4 (d) none of these

Q14:A square ABCD in which O is the point of intersection of diagonals AC and BD. Four

squares of maximum possible area are formed inside each four triangles AOB, BOC , COD and AOD. What is the total area of these 4 squares?

(a) 400 sqcm (b)100sqcm (c) 80sqcm (d) none of these

Q15:In a trapezium ABCD , AB is a parallel to CD. BD is perpendicular to AD.AC is perpendicular to BC. If AD=BC=15cm and AB=25cm, then the area of the trapezium ABCD is: (a) 192cm2 (b) 232cm2 (c)172cm2 (d) none of these

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Q16:In the triangle ABC,BC=CD and (ABC- BAC)=300.The measure of ABD is : (a) 300 (b) 450 (c)150 (d) can’t be determined

Q17: If m2-4m+1=0, then the value of (m3+3

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m) is:

(a) 48 (b) 52 (c) 64 (d) none of these

Q18: 2092 xx 32122 xx = :68252 _2 xx

(a) 4,9 (b)3,9 (c) 2,4 (d)2,6

Q19:If (3x)2+(27x3 k/1 -15)x+4=0 has equal roots, then k = (a) -2 (b)-1/2 (c)1/2 (d)0

Q20: Three circles touch each other externally. The distance between their centre is 5cm, 6cm and 7cm.Find the radii of the circles: (a) 2cm,3cm,4cm (b) 3cm,4cm,1cm (c) 1c()m,2.5cm,3.5cm (d)1cm,2cm,4cm

Q21:In a right triangle ABC, right angled at C, CD is the perpendicular on the hypotenuse AB. If BC=15cm, AC=20cm, then CD is equal to:

(a)18cm (b)12cm (c)17.5cm (d) can’t be determined.

Q22: The HCF of two polynomials is (x-2) (x+3) and their LCM is (x-2)2 (x+3) (x+1).If one of the polynomial is x2-x-2, find the other:

(a)(x-2)2 (x+3)2 (b)(x+2)2 (x-3)2 (c)(x-2)2 (x+3) (d)none of these Q23:The probability that A hits the target is 1/3 and the probability that B hits the target is

2/5.What is the probability that the target will be hit, if each one of A and B shoots the target? (a) 5/6 (b)3/5 (c)11/15 (d)1/6

Q24: A reduction of 20% in the price of sugar enables a housewife to purchase 6kg more for Rs240.What is the original price per kg of sugar? (a) Rs10 per kg (b)Rs8 per kg (c) Rs6 per kg (d) Rs5 per kg

Q25:Capacity of tap Y is 60% more than that of X. If both the taps are opened simultaneously, they take 40h to fill the tank. The time taken by Y alone to fill the tank is: (a) 60h (b) 65h (c) 70h (d) 75h

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Q26:The number of times the digit 8 will be written when listing the integers from 1 to 1000

is: (a)100 (b) 200 (c) 300 (d) 400

Q27:If 4x-y=16 and x-2y =8 are system of the equations, then the value of x+y is:

(a)12 (b)16 (c)4 (d) none of these Q28:In the figure, if ar(ABC)=28cm2, then ar(AEDF)=

(a) 21cm2 (b)18cm2 (c)16cm2 (d)14cm2

Q29: A letter lock consists of 4 rings, each ring contains 9 non-zero digits. This lock can be opened by setting a 4 digit code with the proper combination of each of the 4 rings. Maximum how many codes can be formed to open the lock? (a) 49 (b) 94 (c) 9x4 (d) cannot be determined

Q30:The radius of the wire is decreased to one-third and its volume remains the same. The new length is how many times the original length? (a) 2 times (b) 4times (c) 5times (d) 9times

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SAT

Class- X

Section- C (Science) M.M.-30

Name of the student :_________________ School Code : ________________

1. When the same amount of zinc is treated separately with excess of dil.H2SO4 and excess of NaOH, What is the ratio of volumes of H2 evolved? (a) 1 : 1 (b)1 : 2 (c) 2 : 1 (d) 9 : 4

2. The isotopes of an element X are ZXA, ZXA+1, ZXA+2 respectively. What is the ratio of number of nucleons in these respective isotopes ?

(a) A : (A + 1) : (A + 2) (b) 1 : 1 : 1

(c) (A –Z) : ((A + 1) – Z) : ((A + 2) – Z) (d) 1 : 2 : 3

3. A salt of binary acid H2S is M2S3. Find the valency of metal ‘M’ ?

(a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) 4

4. Carbon and oxygen react to produce carbon dioxide. What is the weight of oxygen

required to convert 1.5 g of carbon to carbon dioxide ?

(a) 2 g (b) 6 g (c) 1 g (d) 4 g

5. An element X combines with oxygen to form compounds P and Q. If the ratio of valency of element X in P to element X in Q is 3 : 5 respectively. What could be the probable compounds P and Q?

P Q

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

CO

N2O3

H2O

P2O5

CO2

N2O5

H2O2

P2O3

6.Find the number of atoms which are same as the number of molecules as contained in 32 g of O2.

(a) 16 g of O2 (b) 71 g of Cl2 (c) 28 g of N2 (d) 2 g of H2

7. Selenium ingested in the amount of 90 micrograms per day causes loss of hair. How

many selenium atoms are in this size sample? (Atomic weight of Se = 79) (a) 6.9 x 1023 (b) 8.8 x 1017 (c) 8.8 x 1022 (d)6.9 x 1017

8. If the formula of a chloride of a metal M is MCl3, then the formula of the phosphate of metal M will be:

(a) MPO4 (b) M2PO4 (c) M3PO4 (d) M2(PO4)3

9. Which of the following is the pair of isobar ?

(a) 7N15, 7N

16 (b) 6N13, 7O

14 (c) 6N13, 7O

13 (d) 8O16, 8O

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10. Besides CO2, other greenhouse gas is : (a) CH4 (b) N2 (c) Ar (d) O2

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11. Which cell out of the following can change its shape? (a) RBC (b) WBC (c) Nerve Cell (d) Skin Cell 12. The microorganisms that reproduce only inside the cells of the host are: (a) Bacteria (b) Viruses (c) Fungi (d) Algae 13. A weed is grown in an earthen pot for conducting a study. Mineral salts are added to

make the weed grow faster, but after sometime it dies. This may be due to: (a) Endosmosis (b) Exosmosis (c) Exosmosis and plasmolysis (d) Endosmosis and Deplasmolysis 14. Which of the following epithelium is seen in the fallopian tube? (a) Columnar Epithelium (b) Cuboidal Epithelium (c) Simple Ciliated Columnar Epithelium (d) Simple Ciliated Cuboidal Epithelium 15. Fertilisation that takes place in birds is of which type?

(a) External (b) Usually external but sometimes internal (c) Internal (d) Neither external nor internal

16. The property of cell membrane which helps Amoeba to perform endocytosis is: (a) Membrane fluidity (b) Membrane flexibility (c) Membrane asymmetry (d) All of the above 17 When we properly chew the bread, after sometime it starts tasting sweet because: (a) Saliva in the mouth mixes it properly (b) Salivary amylase breaks down starch to maltose (c) Salivary amylase breaks down starch to glucose (d) Lysozymes in saliva kill the germs so the food tastes sweet

18. Which of the following sets of animals belong to a single taxonomic group? (a) Cuttle fish, Jelly fish, Dog fish, Star fish (b) Bat, Pigeon, Butterfly, Frog (c) Monkey, Chimpanzee, Man, Whale (d) Silkworm, Tapeworm, Earthworm, Roundworm

19. Widal Test helps to diagnose: (a) Tetanus (b) Tuberculosis (c) Typhoid (d) Whooping Cough 20. Rotten fruits in a basket can bring about early ripening of the remaining fruits as they : (a) Auxin (b) Cytokinin (c) Ethylene (d) Abcsissic Acid

21. The earth rotates around the sun in elliptical orbit as shown in the figure below:

Where is the velocity of the earth the maximum? (a) At X (b) at Z

(c) at W (d) at Y

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22.If the earth shrinks half in radius its mass remaining the same, then by what percentage will the weight of an object on earth change?

(a) Decreases by 50% (b) Increases by 50% (c) Decreases by 25% (d) Increases by 300%

23. Which of the following involves Newton’s second law of motion? (a) When two bodies of unequal masses are acted upon by the same force for the

same time, the momentum gained by both the bodies is the same. (b) A body at rest moves in the same direction as that of the applied force. (c) A boy hitting a wall with his hand using muscular force experiences pain (d) Both (A) and (B)

24. A force of 60 N acts on a body which moves it through a distance of 4 m on a

horizontal surface. What is the work done, if the direction of force is at an angle of 60O to the horizontal surface?

(a) 100 J (b) 120 J (c) 75 J (d) 120 N cm

25. An insect moves along the sides of a wall of dimensions 12m X 5m starting from one corner and reaches the diagonally opposite corner. If the insect takes 2s for its motion, then find the ratio of average speed to average velocity of insect:

(a) 17:13 (b) 12:5 (c) 13:5 (d) 17:12 26. A body is thrown vertically upwards and rises to a height of 10m. The velocity

with which the body was thrown upwards is (g=9.8 m/s2) (a) 10m/s (b) 20m/s (c) 14 m/s (d) None of these 27. A boy stands between the two walls and claps his hands as shown below:

If ‘x’ is less than 60m and the time between the first and second echo is 0.25s, then calculate the distance ‘x’ (Velocity of sound in air is 344ms-1) (a) 36m (b) 34m (c) 40m (d) 17m

x m 60 m

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28. Which of the following statements is NOT true?

(a) The mass of an object is a measure of its inertia (b) A force produces change of momentum (c) In a high jump an athlete is made to fall on a cushioned bed to decrease his time of fall, and

hence the impact (d) In an isolated system (where there is no external force), the total momentum remains constant

29. The regions of compression and rarefactions of sound wave are established because: (a) the sound wave undergoes diffraction behind obstacles

(b) the reflected sound wave at fixed end interferes with the incident wave

(c) the longitudinal movement of air molecules produce pressure fluctuations

(d) the speed of the sound wave changes as it travels through a medium

30. A ball dropped from a 20m height loses 40% of its energy on hitting the ground. Find out what height does the ball rebound? (a) 28 m (b) 8 m (c) 12 m (d) 20 m