TOEFL Readng

Đọc đoạn văn sau và trả lời các câu hỏi:

In the early 1800s, to reach the jump-off point for the West, a family from the East of the United States could either buy steamboat passage to Missouri for themselves, their wagons, and their livestock or-as happened more often-simply pile everything into a wagon, hitch up 5 a team, and begin their overland trek right in their front yard.

Along the macadamized roads and turnpikes east of the Missouri River, travel was comparatively fast, camping easy, and supplies plentiful. Then, in one river town or another, the neophyte emigrants would 10 pause to lay in provisions. For outfitting purposes, the town of Independence had been preeminent ever since 1827, but the rising momentum of pioneer emigration had produced some rival jump-off points. Westport and Fort Leavenworth flourished a few miles upriver. St. Joseph had sprung up 55 miles to the northwest; in fact, emigrants 15 who went to Missouri by riverboat could save four days on the trail by staying on the paddle-wheelers to St. Joe before striking overland.

At whatever jump-off point they chose, the emigrants studied guidebooks and directions, asked questions of others as green as themselves, 20 and made their final decisions about outfitting. They had various, sometimes conflicting, options. For example, either pack animals or two-wheel carts or wagons could be used for the overland crossing. A family man usually chose the wagon. It was the costliest and slowest of the three, but it provided space and shelter for children and 25 for a wife who likely as not was pregnant. Everybody knew that a top-heavy covered wagon might blow over in a prairie wind or be overturned by mountain rocks, that it might mire in river mud or sink to its hubs in desert sand-but maybe if those things happened on this trip, they would happen to someone else. Anyway, most pioneers, with their 30 farm background, were used to wagons.

1. What is the topic of this passage?

(A) Important river towns

(B) Getting started on the trip west

(C) The advantages of traveling by wagon

(D) Choosing a point of departure2. All of the following can be inferred from the passage about

travel east of the Missouri EXCEPT that it

(A) was faster than in the West

(B) was easier than in the West

(C) took place on good roads

(D) was usually by steamboat3. The phrase "jump-off point" in lines 1, 13 and 18 is closest in

meaning to

(A) a bridge across a river

(B) a point of departure

(C) a gathering place

(D) a trading post4. Which of the cities that served as a jump-off point can be

inferred from the passage to be farthest west?

(A) Independence

(B) St. Joseph

(C) Westport

(D) Fort Leavenworth5. The word "preeminent" in line 11 is closest in meaning to

(A) oldest

(B) superior

(C) most easily reached

(D) closest6. The author implies in the passage that the early emigrants

(A) knew a lot about travel

(B) were well stocked with provisions when they left their homes

(C) left from the same place in Missouri

(D) preferred wagon travel to other types of travel7. The word "neophyte" in line 9 is closest in meaning to

(A) eager

(B) courageous

(C) prosperous

(D) inexperienced8. All of the following were mentioned in the passage as

options for modes of transportation from the Missouri River to

the West EXCEPT

(A) a wagon

(B) a riverboat

(C) a pack animal

(D) a two-wheel cart9. In line 16, the word "striking" is closest in meaning to

(A) hitting

(B) orienting

(C) departing

(D) marking10. The expression "green" in line 19 is closest in meaning to

(A) frightened

(B) optimistic

(C) inexperienced

(D) weary11. All of the following features of the covered wagon made it

unattractive to the emigrants EXCEPT

(A) the speed at which it could travel

(B) its bulk

(C) its familiarity and size

(D) its cost

12. In line 28, the phrase "those things" refers to

(A) the types of transportation

(B) the belongings of the pioneers

(C) the problems of wagon travel

(D) the overland routes


(A) Important river towns

(B) Getting started on the trip west

(C) The advantages of traveling by wagon

(D) Choosing a point of departure2. All of the following can be inferred from the passage about

travel east of the Missouri EXCEPT that it

(A) was faster than in the West

(B) was easier than in the West

(C) took place on good roads

(D) was usually by steamboat3. The phrase "jump-off point" in lines 1, 13 and 18 is closest in

meaning to

(A) a bridge across a river

(B) a point of departure

(C) a gathering place

(D) a trading post4. Which of the cities that served as a jump-off point can be

inferred from the passage to be farthest west?

(A) Independence

(B) St. Joseph

(C) Westport

(D) Fort Leavenworth5. The word "preeminent" in line 11 is closest in meaning to

(A) oldest

(B) superior

(C) most easily reached

(D) closest6. The author implies in the passage that the early emigrants

(A) knew a lot about travel

(B) were well stocked with provisions when they left their homes

(C) left from the same place in Missouri

(D) preferred wagon travel to other types of travel7. The word "neophyte" in line 9 is closest in meaning to

(A) eager

(B) courageous

(C) prosperous

(D) inexperienced8. All of the following were mentioned in the passage as options for modes of transportation from the Missouri River to

the West EXCEPT

(A) a wagon

(B) a riverboat

(C) a pack animal

(D) a two-wheel cart9. In line 16, the word "striking" is closest in meaning to

(A) hitting

(B) orienting

(C) departing

(D) marking10. The expression "green" in line 19 is closest in meaning to

(A) frightened

(B) optimistic

(C) inexperienced

(D) weary11. All of the following features of the covered wagon made it

unattractive to the emigrants EXCEPT

(A) the speed at which it could travel

(B) its bulk

(C) its familiarity and size

(D) its cost

12. In line 28, the phrase "those things" refers to

(A) the types of transportation

(B) the belongings of the pioneers

(C) the problems of wagon travel

(D) the overland routes

Reading comprehension -TOEFL- Lesson 151 (Đọc hiểu -TOEFL- Bài 151) Đọc đoạn văn sau và trả lời các câu hỏi:

"The economic history of the United States", one scholar has written, "is the history of the rise and development of the capitalistic system." The colonists of the eighteenth century pushed forward what those of the seventeenth century had begun: the expansion and elaboration 5 of an economy born in the great age of capitalist expansion.

Our excellent natural resources paved the way for the development of abundant capital to increase our growth. Capital includes the tools-such as machines, vehicles, and buildings-that make the outputs 10 of labor and resources more valuable. But it also includes the funds necessary to buy those tools. If a society had to consume everything it produced just to stay alive, nothing could be put aside to increase future productions. But if a farmer can grow more corn than his family needs to eat, he can use the surplus as seed to increase the next 15 crop, or to feed workers who build tractors. This process of capital accumulation was aided in the American economy by our cultural heritage. Saving played an important role in the European tradition; it contributed to Americans' motivation to put something aside today for the tools to buy tomorrow.

20 The great bulk of the accumulated wealth of America, as distinguished from that which was consumed, was derived either directly or indirectly from trade. Though some manufacturing existed, its role in the accumulation of capital was negligible. A merchant class of opulent proportions 25 was already visible in the seaboard cities, its wealth the obvious consequence of shrewd and resourceful management of the carrying trade. Even the rich planters of tidewater Virginia and the rice coast of South Carolina finally depended for their genteel way of life upon the ships and merchants who sold their tobacco and rice 30 in the markets of Europe. As colonial production rose and trade expanded, a business community emerged in the colonies, linking the provinces by lines of trade and identity of interest.

1. With what subject is this passage mainly concerned?

(A) Geography

http://luyenthianhvan.org/2007/06/c-hiu-toefl-bi-151.html


(B) Finance

(C) Economics

(D) Culture2. The phrase "paved the way for" in line 7 is closest in

meaning to

(A) paid for

(B) supported

(C) accumulated

(D) resembled

3. In line 10 the word "it" refers to

(A) growth

(B) resources

(C) labor

(D) capital4. According to the passage, capital includes all of the

following EXCEPT

(A) factories

(B) tractors

(C) money

(D) workers

5. In line 10, the word "funds" is closest in meaning to

(A) money

(B) resources

(C) output

(D) support6. The phrase "put aside" in lines 13 is closest in meaning to

(A) hidden

(B) saved

(C) reviewed

(D) consumed7. According to the passage, which of the following would lead

to accumulating capital?

(A) Training workers who produce goods

(B) Studying the cultural history of the country

(C) Consuming what is produced

(D) Planting more of a crop than is needed8. It can be inferred from the passage that the European

ancestors of early Americans

(A) sent many tools to America

(B) taught their skills to their offspring

(C) were accustomed to saving

(D) were good farmers9. According to the passage, the emergence of a business

community in the colonies was a result of

(A) efficient saving

(B) the immigration of wealthy bankers

(C) the success of production and trade

(D) the existence of manufacturing


Scientists do not yet thoroughly understand just how the body of an individual becomes sensitive to a substance that is harmless or even wholesome for the average person. Milk, wheat, and egg, for example, rank among the most healthful and widely used foods. Yet these foods 5 can cause persons sensitive to them to suffer greatly. At first, the body of the individual is not harmed by coming into contact with the substance. After a varying interval of time, usually longer than a few weeks, the body becomes sensitive to it, and an allergy has begun to develop. 10 Sometimes it's hard to figure out if you have a food allergy, since it can show up so many different ways. Your symptoms could be caused by many other problems. You may have rashes, hives, joint pains mimicking arthritis, headaches, irritability, or depression. The most common 15 food allergies are to milk, eggs, seafood, wheat, nuts, seeds, chocolate, oranges, and tomatoes. Many of these allergies will not develop if these foods are not fed to an infant until her or his



intestines mature at around seven months. Breast milk also tends to be protective. Migraines can be set off by foods containing tyramine, phenathylamine, 20 monosodium glutamate, or sodium nitrate. Common foods which contain these are chocolate, aged cheeses, sour cream, red wine, pickled herring, chicken livers, avocados, ripe bananas, cured meats, many Oriental and prepared foods (read the labels!). Some people have been successful in treating their migraines with supplements of B-vitamins, 25 particularly B6 and niacin. Children who are hyperactive may benefit from eliminating food additives, especially colorings, and foods high in salicylates from their diets. A few of these are almonds, green peppers, peaches, tea, grapes. This is the diet made popular by Benjamin Feingold, who has written the book Why your Child is 30 Hyperactive. Other researchers have had mixed results when testing whether the diet is effective.

1. The topic of this passage is

(A) reactions to foods

(B) food and nutrition

(C) infants and allergies

(D) a good diet2. According to the passage, the difficulty in diagnosing

allergies to foods is due to

(A) the vast number of different foods we eat

(B) lack of a proper treatment plan

(C) the similarity of symptoms of the allergy to other problems

(D) the use of prepared formula to feed babies3. The word "symptoms" in line 12 is closest in meaning to

(A) indications

(B) diet

(C) diagnosis

(D) prescriptions4. The phrase "set off" in lines 19 is closest in meaning to

(A) relieved

(B) identified

(C) avoided

(D) triggered5. What can be inferred about babies from this passage?

(A) They can eat almost anything.

(B) They should have a carefully restricted diet as infants.

(C) They gain little benefit from being breast fed.

(D) They may become hyperactive if fed solid food too early.6. The word "hyperactive" in line 25 is closest in meaning to

(A) overly active

(B) unusually low activity

(C) excited

(D) inquisitive7. The author states that the reason that infants need to avoid certain foods related to allergies has to do with the infant's

(A) lack of teeth

(B) poor metabolism

(C) underdeveloped intestinal tract

(D) inability to swallow solid foods

8. The word "these" in line 27 refers to

(A) food additives

(B) food colorings

(C) unnutritious foods

(D) foods high in salicylates9. Which of the following was a suggested treatment for

migraines in the passage?

(A) Eating more ripe bananas

(B) Avoiding all Oriental foods

(C) Getting plenty of sodium nitrate

(D) Using Vitamin B in addition to a good diet

10. According to the article the Feingold diet is NOT

(A) verified by researchers as being consistently effective

(B) available in book form

(C) beneficial for hyperactive children

(D) designed to eliminate foods containing certain food additives


While most desert animals will drink water if confronted with it, for many of them the opportunity never comes. Yet all living things must have water, or they will expire. The herbivores find it in desert plants. The carnivores slake their thirst with the flesh and blood 5 of living prey. One of the most remarkable adjustments, however, has been made by the tiny kangaroo rat, who not only lives without drinking but subsists on a diet of dry seeds containing about 5% free water. Like other animals, he has the ability to manufacture water in his body by a metabolic conversion of carbohydrates. But 10 he is notable for the parsimony with which he conserves his small supply by every possible means, expending only minuscule amounts in his excreta and through evaporation from his respiratory tract.

Investigation into how the kangaroo rat can live without drinking 15 water has involved various experiments with these small animals. Could kangaroo rats somehow store water in their bodies and slowly utilize these resources in the long periods when no free water is available from dew or rain? The simplest way to settle this question was to determine the total water content in the animals to see if 20 it decreases as they are kept for long periods on a dry diet. If they slowly use up their water, the body should become increasingly dehydrated, and if they begin with a store of water, this should be evident from an initial high water content. Results of such experiments with kangaroo rats on dry diets for more than 7 weeks showed that 25 the rats maintained their body weight. There was no trend toward a decrease in water content during the long period of water deprivation. When the kangaroo rats were given free access to water, they did not drink water. They did nibble on small pieces of watermelon, but this did not change appreciably the water content in their bodies, 30 which remained at 66.3 to 67.2 during this period.

This is very close to the water content of dry-fed animals (66.5), and the availability of free water, therefore, did not lead to any "storage" that could be meaningful as a water reserve. This makes 35 it reasonable to conclude that physiological storage of water is not a factor in the kangaroo rat's ability to live on dry food.




(A) Kangaroo rats

(B) Water in the desert

(C) Desert life

(D) Physiological experiments

2. The word "expire" inline 3 is closest in meaning to

(A) become ill

(B) die

(C) shrink

(D) dehydrate3. Which of the following is NOT a source of water for the

desert animals?

(A) Desert plants

(B) Metabolic conversion of carbohydrates in the body

(C) The blood of other animals

(D) Streams

4. The word "it" in line 3 refers to

(A) a living thing

(B) the desert

(C) the opportunity

(D) water5. The author states that the kangaroo rat is known for all of

the following EXCEPT

(A) the economy with which it uses available water.

(B) living without drinking water.

(C) breathing slowly and infrequently.

(D) manufacturing water internally.6. The word "parsimony" in line 10 is closest in meaning to

(A) intelligence.

(B) desire.

(C) frugality.

(D) skill.7. It is implied by the author that desert animals can exist with

little or no water because of

(A) less need for water than other animals.

(B) many opportunities for them to find water.

(C) their ability to eat plants.

(D) their ability to adjust to the desert environment.8. The word "deprivation" inline 26 is closest in meaning to

(A) preservation.

(B) renewal.

(C) examination.

(D) withholding.9. According to the passage, the results of the experiments

with kangaroo rats showed that

(A) kangaroo rats store water for use during dry periods.

(B) kangaroo rats took advantage of free access to water.

(C) there was no significant change in body weight due to lack of water or accessibility to water.

(D) a dry diet seems detrimental to the kangaroo rat's health.


Until recently, most American entrepreneurs were men. Discrimination against women in business, the demands of caring for families, and lack of business training had kept the number of women entrepreneurs small. Now, however, businesses owned by women account for more than 5 $40 billion in annual revenues, and this figure is likely to continue rising throughout the 1990s. As Carolyn Doppelt Gray, an official of the Small Business Administration, has noted, "The 1970s was the decade of women entering management, and the 1980s turned out to be the decade of the woman entrepreneur". 10 What are some of the factors behind this trend? For one thing, as more women earn advanced degrees in business and enter the corporate world,



they are finding obstacles. Women are still excluded from most executive suites. Charlotte Taylor, a management consultant, 15 had noted, "In the 1970s women believed if they got an MBA and worked hard they could become chairman of the board. Now they've found out that isn't going to happen, so they go out on their own".

In the past, most women entrepreneurs worked in "women's" fields: cosmetics 20 and clothing, for example. But this is changing. Consider ASK Computer Systems, a $22-million-a-year computer software business. It was founded in 1973 by Sandra Kurtzig, who was then a housewife with degrees in math and engineering. When Kurtzig founded the business, her first product was software that let weekly newspapers keep tabs 25 on their newspaper carriers-and her office was a bedroom at home, with a shoebox under the bed to hold the company's cash. After she succeeded with the newspaper software system, she hired several bright computer-science graduates to develop additional programs. When these were marketed and sold, ASK began to grow. It now has 200 employees, 30 and Sandra Kurtzig owns $66.9 million of stock.

Of course, many women who start their own businesses fail, just as men often do. They still face hurdles in the business world, especially problems in raising money; the banking and finance world is still 35 dominated by men, and old attitudes die hard. Most businesses owned by women are still quite small. But the situation is changing; there are likely to be many more Sandra Kurtzigs in the years ahead.

1. What is the main idea of this passage?

(A) Women today are better educated than in the past, making them more attractive to the business world.

(B) The computer is especially lucrative for women today.

(C) Women are better at small businesses than men are.

(D) Women today are opening more businesses of their own.2. The word "excluded" in line 13 is closest in meaning to

(A) not permitted in

(B) often invited to

(C) decorators of

(D) charged admission to3. All of the following were mentioned in the passage as

detriments to women in the business world EXCEPT

(A) women were required to stay at home with their families

(B) women lacked ability to work in business

(C) women faced discrimination in business

(D) women were not trained in business

4. In line 17, "that" refers to

(A) a woman becomes chairman of the board

(B) women working hard

(C) women achieving advanced degrees

(D) women believing that business is a place for them5. According to the passage, Charlotte Taylor believes that

women in the 1970s

(A) were unrealistic about their opportunities in business management

(B) were still more interested in education than business opportunities

(C) had fewer obstacles in business than they do today

(D) were unable to work hard enough to succeed in business6. The author mentions the "shoebox under the bed" in the

third paragraph in order to

(A) show the frugality of women in business

(B) show the resourcefulness of Sandra Kurtzig

(C) point out that initially the financial resources of Sandra Kurtzig's business were limited

(D) suggest that the company needed to expand

7. In line 20, the word "this" refers to

(A) women becoming entrepreneurs

(B) women buying cosmetics and clothing

(C) women working in "women's fields"

(D) women staying at home8. The expression "keep tabs on" in line 24-25 is closest in

meaning to

(A) recognize the appearance of

(B) keep records of

(C) provide transportation for

(D) pay the salaries of9. The word "hurdles" in line 33 can be best replaced by

(A) fences

(B) obstacles

(C) questions

(D) small groups10. It can be inferred from the passage that the author believes that businesses operated by women are small

because

(A) women prefer a small intimate setting

(B) women can't deal with money

(C) women are not able to borrow money easily

(D) many women fail at large businesses11. The author's attitude about the future of women in

business is

(A) skeptical

(B) optimistic

(C) frustrated

(D) negative


This rapid transcontinental settlement and these new urban industrial circumstances of the last half of the 19th century were accompanied by the development of a national literature of great abundance and variety. New themes, new forms, new subjects, new regions, new authors, 5 new audiences all emerged in the literature of this half century. As a result, at the onset of World War I, the spirit and substance of American literature had evolved remarkably, just as its center of production had shifted from Boston to New York in the late 1880s and the sources of its energy to Chicago and the Midwest. No longer 10 was it produced, at least in its popular forms, in the main by solemn, typically moralistic men from New England and the Old South;



no longer were polite, well-dressed, grammatically correct, middle-class young people the only central characters in its narratives; no longer were these narratives to be set in exotic places and remote times; no 15 longer, indeed, were fiction, poetry, drama, and formal history the chief acceptable forms of literary expression; no longer, finally, was literature read primarily by young, middle class women. In sum, American literature in these years fulfilled in considerable measure the condition Walt Whitman called for in1867 in describing Leaves 20 of Grass: it treats, he said of his own major work, each state and region as peers "and expands from them, and includes the world ... connecting an American citizen with the citizens of all nations." At the same time, these years saw the emergence of what has been designated "the literature of argument," powerful works in sociology, 25 philosophy, psychology, many of them impelled by the spirit of exposure and reform. Just as America learned to play a role in this half century as an autonomous international political, economic, and military power, so did its literature establish itself as a producer of major works.

1. The main idea of this passage is

(A) that the new American literature was less provincial than the old

(B) that World War I caused a dramatic change in America

(C) that centers of culture shifted from East to West

(D) that most people were wary of the new literature2. It can be inferred from lines 1-3 that the previous passage

probably discussed

(A) the importance of tradition to writers

(B) new developments in industrialization and population shifts

(C) the fashions and values of 19th century America

(D) the limitations of American literature to this time

3. The word "evolved" in line 7 is closest in meaning to

(A) became famous

(B) turned back

(C) diminished

(D) changed


(A) the population

(B) the energy

(C) American literature

(D) the manufacturing

5. The word "exotic" in line 14 is closest in meaning to

(A) urban

(B) unusual

(C) well-known

(D) old-fashioned6. The author uses the word "indeed" in line 15 for what

purpose?

(A) To emphasize the contrast he is making

(B) For variety in a lengthy paragraph

(C) To wind down his argument

(D) To show a favorable attitude to these forms of literature

7. The phrase "these years" in line 18 refers to

(A) 1850-1900

(B) the 1900s

(C) the early 1800s

(D) the present8. It can be inferred from the passage that Walt Whitman

(A) disliked urban life

(B) was disapproving of the new literature

(C) wrote Leaves of Grass

(D) was an international diplomat9. All of the following can be inferred from the passage about

the new literature EXCEPT

(A) It was not highly regarded internationally

(B) It introduced new American themes, characters, and settings

(C) It broke with many literary traditions of the past

(D) It spoke to the issue of reform and change10. This passage would probably be read in which of the

following academic courses?

(A) European history

(B) American literature

(C) Current events

(D) International affairs


When Daniel Boone died peacefully in bed in his son Nathan's elegant stone Missouri farmhouse on September 26, 1820, the surge of emigrants along the Oregon Trail was still a generation away. But Boone already exemplified the pioneer at his best. He was neither the physical 5 giant (five feet nine) nor the innocent child of nature that legend has made of him. He was an intelligent, soft spoken family man who cherished the same wife for 57 years. He befriended Indians, preferred company to solitude, and when he told his wife it was time to move because a newcomer had settled some 70 miles away, he was joking. 10 Pennsylvania-born, Boone was one of 11 children in a family of Quakers who migrated to North Carolina. There Boone was recruited at age 40 to undertake a scheme designed to open up Kentucky to settlers and establish it as a 14th colony. He arranged a deal by which the 15 Cherokees sold 20 million acres for $20,000 worth of goods to Boone's employers, the Transylvania Company. It was all fair and square-the Indians had an attorney, an interpreter, and the sound advice of their squaws. The deal completed, Boone led a party from Tennessee through the Cumberland Gap, hacked out the Wilderness Road, and set 20 up a town- Boonesboro-and a government. Elected a legislator, he introduced on the first session's first day a bill to protect game against wanton slaughter and a second bill to "improve the breed of horses." He got 2,000 acres for his work, but after the Revolution-in which Boone won considerable fame as a militia commander-the scheme 25 of the Transylvania Company was declared illegal and Boone lost his land. Undaunted, he staked out more claims-and lost them because he impatiently neglected to register his deeds. Ever hopeful, he accepted an invitation from Spanish-held Missouri to come and settle there and bring others with him. The Spanish gave him 8,500 acres 30 and made him a judge. But the Louisiana Purchase, which embraced Missouri, again left him-but not his children-landless. Old and broke, Boone cheerfully continued hunting and trapping long after his hands shook. Shortly before he died, he was talking



knowledgeably with young men about the joys to be experienced in settling California.

1. What is the author's purpose in writing this passage?

(A) To chronicle the life of a model pioneer

(B) To romanticize the legend of Daniel Boone

(C) To show Boone's many successes on the frontier

(D) To trace Boone's explorations in Kentucky, Missouri, and Louisiana

2. The word "surge" in line 2 is closest in meaning to

(A) remains

(B) attraction

(C) rush

(D) rumor3. It can be inferred that one area in which Boone was NOT

successful was

(A) politics

(B) hunting and trapping

(C) business

(D) the military4. The phrase "fair and square" in lines 16 is closest in

meaning to

(A) honest

(B) simple

(C) efficient

(D) lucrative

5. It can be inferred from the passage that Boone died

(A) a rich man

(B) an eternal optimist

(C) in California

(D) a lonely trapper6. According to the passage, where is Boone's namesake city

located?

(A) In North Carolina

(B) In Transylvania

(C) In Kentucky

(D) In Missouri

7. The Transylvania Company wanted Boone to

(A) settle Kentucky

(B) be fair to the Indians

(C) ensure animal rights

(D) claim Missouri8. The word "undaunted" in line 26 is closest in meaning to

(A) unscrupulous

(B) fearless

(C) undiscouraged

(D) uninformed

9. According to the passage, the Louisiana Purchase

(A) legitimized Boone's land claim in Missouri

(B) revoked the earlier Spanish bequest to Boone

(C) drove the Spanish from the East

(D) excluded Missouri from its jurisdiction10. What can be inferred from the passage about Boone's

children?

(A) They were better off financially than Boone.

(B) They supported Boone's desire to settle new areas.

(C) They lived in Kentucky.

(D) They had no land due to Boone's bad investments.11. The author's attitude toward Daniel Boone in the passage

can be best described as

(A) admiring

(B) critical

(C) admonishing

(D) indifferent


The cause of tooth decay is acid, which is produced by bacteria in the mouth. The acid removes minerals from tooth enamel, allowing tooth decay to begin; the saliva in your mouth encourages remineralization and neutralizes the acid. The rate at which bacteria in the mouth 5 produce acid depends on the amount of plaque on the teeth, the composition of the microbial flora, and whether the bacteria of the plaque have been "primed" by frequent exposure to sugar. To keep your teeth healthy, a regular dental hygiene program should be followed.

10 Removing plaque with a toothbrush and dental floss temporarily reduces the numbers of bacteria in the mouth and thus reduces tooth decay. It also makes the surfaces of the teeth more accessible, enabling saliva to neutralize acid and remineralize lesions. If fluoride is present in drinking water when teeth are forming, some fluoride is 15 incorporated into the enamel of the teeth, making them more resistant to attack by acid. Fluoride toothpaste seems to act in another way, by promoting the remineralization of early carious lesions.

In addition to a regular dental hygiene program, a good way to keep 20 your teeth healthy is to reduce your intake of sweet food. The least cavity-causing way to eat sweets is to have them with meals and not between. The number of times you eat sweets rather than the total amount determines how much harmful acid the bacteria in your saliva produce. But the amount of sweets influences the quality of your 25 saliva. Avoid, if you can, sticky sweets that stay in your mouth a long time. Also try to brush and floss your teeth after eating sugary foods. Even rinsing your mouth with water is effective. Whenever possible, eat foods with fiber, such as raw carrot sticks, apples, celery sticks, etc., that scrape off plaque, acting as a toothbrush. 30 Cavities can be greatly reduced if these rules are followed when eating sweets.

1. What does this passage mainly discuss?

(A) Good nutrition

(B) Food with fiber

(C) Ways to keep your teeth healthy



(D) Fluoridization and cavities2. According to the passage, all of the following statements

about plaque are true EXCEPT

(A) It consists of acid producing bacteria

(B) It is not affected by eating sweets

(C) It can be removed from teeth by brushing and flossing

(D) It reduces the positive effect of saliva3. We can infer from the passage that one benefit of fluoride to

healthy teeth is

(A) It strengthens tooth enamel

(B) It stimulates saliva production

(C) It makes teeth whiter

(D) It is a replacement for brushing and flossing in dental care


(A) dental floss

(B) bacteria

(C) removal of plaque

(D) plaque5. What can be concluded from the passage about sweets?

(A) All sweets should be avoided.

(B) Sweets should be eaten with care.

(C) It is better to eat sweets a little at a time throughout the day.

(D) Sticky sweets are less harmful than other sweets.6. The word "scrape off" in line 29 is closest in meaning to

(A) repel

(B) rub together with

(C) remove

(D) dissolve7. It can be inferred from the passage that foods with fiber are

(A) sugary

(B) expensive

(C) sticky

(D) abrasive8. According to the passage, the value of eating foods with

fiber is that

(A) they contain Vitamin A

(B) they are less expensive than a toothbrush

(C) they are able to remove the plaque from your teeth

(D) they contain no sugar9. The author of the passage states that the amount of acid

produced by the bacteria in your saliva increases

(A) with the amount of sweets you eat

(B) with the number of times you eat sweets

(C) if you eat sweets with your meals

(D) if you eat sticky sweets


There are many theories of aging, but virtually all fall into the category of being hypotheses with a minimum of supporting evidence. One viewpoint is that aging occurs as the body's organ systems become less efficient. Thus failures in the immune system, hormonal system, 5 and nervous system could all produce characteristics that we associate with aging. Following a different vein, many current researchers are looking for evidence at the cellular and sub cellular level. It has been shown that cells such as human fibroblasts (generalized tissue cells) grown in culture divide only a limited number of times 10 and then die. (Only cancer cells seem immortal in this respect.) Fibroblast cells from an embryo divide more times than those taken from an adult. Thus some researchers believe that aging occurs at the cellular level and is part of the cell's genetic makeup. Any event that disturbs the cell's genetic machinery such as mutation, 15 damaging chemicals in the cell's environment, or loss of genetic material, could cause cells to lose their ability to divide and thus bring on aging. Other theories of aging look at different processes.



Chronological aging refers to the passage of time since birth and 20 is usually measured in years. While chronological age can be useful in estimating the average status of a large group of people, it is a poor indicator of an individual person's status because there is a tremendous amount of variation from one individual to the next in regard to the rate at which biological age changes occur. For 25 example, on the average, aging results in people losing much of their ability to perform strenuous activities, yet some elderly individuals are excellent marathon runners.

Another type of aging is cosmetic aging, which consists of changes 30 in outward appearance with advancing age. This includes changes in the body and changes in other aspects of a person's appearance, such as the style of hair and clothing, the type of eyeglasses, and the use of a hearing aid. Like chronological aging, it is frequently used to estimate the degree to which other types of aging have occurred. 35 However, it is an inaccurate indicator for either purpose because of variation among individuals and because a person's appearance is affected by many factors that are not part of aging, including illness, poor nutrition, and exposure to sunlight.

1. The author believes the theories of aging are

(A) well-supported hypotheses

(B) poorly supported hypotheses

(C) proven theories

(D) interesting ideas

2. In line 7, the word "evidence" refers to

(A) evidence of aging

(B) evidence of cancer

(C) evidence of human fibroblasts

(D) evidence of cell division

3. The word "vein" in line 6 is closest in meaning to

(A) part of the body

(B) point of view

(C) blood vessel

(D) cellular level

4. The author of the article points out that cancer cells

(A) divide infinitely

(B) divide and then die

(C) divide more in adults than in embryos

(D) bring on aging

5. The word "culture" in line 9 is closest in meaning to

(A) libraries

(B) a special environment

(C) a society's traditions and values

(D) a toxic substance6. It can be inferred from the passage that fibroblast cells

(A) divide fewer times at later stages in human life

(B) are not a focus in cellular research on aging

(C) are similar to cancer cells in rate of division

(D) disfunction in the aging process of the body's immune system7. As explained in this passage, the theory of aging which examines the cellular level would NOT assign which of the

following as a cause of aging?

(A) Mutation

(B) Failure of the body's organ system

(C) Loss of genetic material

(D) Chemical damage from the environment8. According to the passage, chronological aging is not a good indicator of an individual's status regarding aging because

(A) elderly people are often athletic

(B) there is individual variation in the rate of biological aging

(C) strenuous activities are not good measures of age

(D) it is difficult to get accurate records of birth dates9. The author implies all of the following about cosmetic aging

EXCEPT

(A) It does not occur at the same rate for all people

(B) It is a poor indicator of chronological age

(C) Illness, poor nutrition, and exposure to sunlight cause aging to occur

(D) It is described by changes in outward appearance


A binary star is actually a pair of stars that are held together by the force of gravity. Although occasionally the individual stars that compose a binary star can be distinguished, they generally appear as one star. The gravitational pull between the individual stars 5 of a binary star causes one to orbit around the other. From the orbital pattern of a binary, the mass of its stars can be determined: the gravitational pull of a star is in direct proportion to its mass, and the strength of the gravitational force of one star on another determines the orbital pattern of the binary. Scientists 10 have discovered stars that seem to orbit around an empty space. It has been suggested that such a star and the empty space really compose a binary star. The empty space is known as a black hole, a star with such a strong gravitational force that no light is able to get through.

1. A binary star could best be described as

(A) stars that have been forced apart

(B) a star with a strong gravitational force

(C) two stars pulled together by gravity

(D) a large number of attached stars2. According to the passage, what happens as a result of the

gravitational force between the stars?

(A) One star circles the other.

(B) The mass of the binary star increases.

(C) A black hole is destroyed.

(D) The gravitational force decreases.3. According to the passage, what can scientists learn from the

pattern of a binary star's orbit?

(A) The proportion of the star's gravitational pull to its mass

(B) How to distinguish the stars that compose a binary



(C) Why there is no light in a black hole

(D) The mass of the stars that compose the binary

4. According to the passage, what is a black hole?

(A) An empty space around which nothing orbits

(B) A star with close to zero gravity

(C) A star whose gravitational force blocks the passage of light

(D) An empty space so far away that no light can reach it

5. According to the passage, what is a black hole?

(A) An empty space around which nothing orbits

(B) A star with close to zero gravity

(C) A star whose gravitational force blocks the passage of light

(D) An empty space so far away that no light can reach it6. This passage would most likely be assigned reading in a

course on

(A) botany

(B) astrophysics

(C) geology

(D) astrology

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