TEST SERIES 12 CIVICS & REASONING

TEST SERIES – 12

CIVICS & REASONING

1. The concept of Public Administration originated as an independent and separate subject of

study in which country?

a.India

b.America

c.Russia

d.China

Ans : Public Administration as an independent and separate subject of study began in 1887.

Public administration is the implementation of government policies. Specifically, it is the

planning, organizing, directing, coordinating, and controlling of government operations.

2.Who is known as the Father of Public Administration?

a. Woodrow Wilson

b. Paul .H.Appleby

c. F.W.Taylor

d. N.Gladden

Ans : Woodrow Wilson is known as the Father of Public Administration because he laid the

foundation of a separate, independent and systematic study in public administration.

3.Which of the following is NOT a feature of good governance?

a.Inclusiveness

b.Dependability

c.Unanimity

d.Following Rule of Law

Ans : Some of the features of good governance are Participation, Inclusiveness, Unanimity

Accountability, Transparency, Responsive, Effective, efficient and follows the rule of law.

4.The agency for the implementation of public policy is

a.Parliament

b.Tribunals

c.Courts

d.Bureaucracy

Ans : Bureaucracy refers to an administrative policy-implementation group, which is a body

of non-elected government officials. So the executive branch (bureaucracy) is responsible for

the implementation of public policy.

5.Which of the following is/are correct regarding Bureaucracy?

I.The term ‘bureaucracy’ was coined by Max Weber

II.Bureaucratic theory was formulated by Weber.

Choose the correct option from below:

a.I only

b.II only

c.Both I and II

d.Both are incorrect

Ans : The term bureaucracy was coined (as bureaucratic) in the mid-18th century by the

French philosopher Vincent de Gournay.

Bureaucratic theory was formulated by Max Weber. He was a German scientist and he

defined bureaucracy as a highly structured, formalized, and also an impersonal organization.

6.Which of the following does not belong to All India Services?

a.Indian Administrative Service

b.Indian Forest Service

c.Indian Railway Service

d.Indian Police Service

Ans : The All India Services comprises three civil services namely the Indian Administrative

Service and the Indian Police Service and the Indian Forest Service.

7.Which of the following statements is/are incorrect ?

I. Lord Wellesley is known as Father of Indian Civil Service

II. V.P. Menon is known as Father of All India Services

Choose the correct option from below :

a.I only

b.II only

c.Both I and II

d.Neither I nor II

Ans: Lord Cornwallis is known as 'the Father of civil service in India'. Cornwallis introduced

two divisions of the Indian Civil service—covenanted and uncovenanted.

The present-day all-India administrative services owe their origin to Sardar Patel's sagacity

and thus he is regarded as Father of modern All India Services.

8.Who is the present Cabinet Secretary of India?

a.A.R.Pillai

b.Padma Ramachandran

c.Anna Malhotra

d.Rajiv Gauba

Ans : The Cabinet Secretary is the top-most executive official and senior-most civil servant

of the Government of India. The Cabinet Secretary is the ex-officio head of the Civil Services

Board, the Cabinet Secretariat, the Indian Administrative Service, and all civil services under

the rules of business of the government.

9.Which of the following statements is/are correct?

a.The highest ranking civil servant in a State is Chief Secretary.

b.The first Chief Secretary of Kerala was N.E.S.Raghavanachari

c.The present Chief Secretary of Kerala is V.P.Joy


a.I only

b.I and III only

c.I and II only

d.I,II and III

Ans : All the given statements are correct.

10.Travancore Public Service Commission was established in the year

a.1936

b.1935

c.1938

d.1940

Ans : Travancore Public Service Commission was established in 1936. G.D. Nokes was

appointed as the first Public Service Commissioner on 14th June, 1936. The Kerala Public

Service Commission was formed in 1956, which coincided with the formation of the State of

Kerala.

11.The app developed for the purpose of mobile governance as a part of National e-

governance is

a.AKSHAYA

b.E-GOV

c.UMANG

d.SAKHI

Ans : UMANG (Unified Mobile Application for New-age Governance) is the mobile app

developed by the Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology (MeitY) and National

e-Governance Division (NeGD). UMANG provides a single platform for all Indian Citizens

to access pan India e-Gov services ranging from Central to Local Government bodies.

12.The Kerala Government program to provide free internet connection to around 2 lakh BPL

families is

a.KFON

b.E-Keralam

c.UMANG

d.Digital Space

Ans : The Kerala Fiber Optic Network (KFON) project is aimed at providing free internet

connections to Below Poverty Line (BPL) families in the state of Kerala. The state

government had announced in May 2020 that the project would be launched to provide free

internet access to the poor.

13.Who is the present Chief Information Commissioner of India?

a.Deepak Sandhu

b.Sanjay Agarwal

c.Bimal Julka

d.Yashvardhan Kumar Sinha

Ans : Central Information Commission includes one Chief Information Commissioner and

not more than 10 Information Commissioners who are appointed by the President of India on

the recommendations of a Committee. The first Chief Information Commissioner of India

was Wajahat Habibullah.

14.Mazdoor Kisan Shakti Sankhatan, the main association that worked for the enactment of

Right to Information Act, belonged to which State?

a.Punjab

b.Rajasthan

c.Haryana

d.Gujarat

Ans : The Mazdoor Kisan Shakti Sangathan is an Indian political organisation best known for

its demand for the Right to Information Act which grew out of the demand for minimum

wages for workers. The organisation is based in Rajasthan.

15.Which of the following is correct regarding the Right To Information Act?

I.Right To Information (RTI) Act was enacted in India in 2005

II.The first country to pass RTI Act was Sweden

III.The first State to pass RTI Act in India was Tamil Nadu


a.I and II only

b.I and III only

c.II and III only

d.I,II and III

Ans : The Right To Information Act was passed by the Indian Parliament on 12 May 2005

and received Presidential assent on 15 June 2005. It came into force on 12 October 2005.

Tamil Nadu became first Indian state to pass RTI law in 1997.

16.Which of the following is/are incorrect regarding Lokpal?

I.The term ‘Lokpal’ was first coined by Ashoke Kumar Sen

II.The Chairperson of the first Lokpal of India was Pinaki Chandraghosh


a.I only

b.II only

c.Both I and II

d.Neither I nor II

Ans : The term "Lokpal" was coined by Dr. L.M.Singhvi in 1963. The concept of a

constitutional ombudsman was first proposed in parliament by Law Minister Ashoke Kumar

Sen in the early 1960s.

17.Which was the first Indian State to introduce the institution of Lokayukta?

a.Rajasthan

b.Gujarat

c.Maharashtra

d.Odisha

Ans : The Lokayukta is an anti-corruption authority constituted at the state level. It

investigates allegations of corruption and mal-administration against public servants and is

tasked with speedy redressal of public grievances. Maharashtra was the first state to introduce

the institution of Lokayukta through The Lokayukta and Upa-Lokayuktas Act in 1971.

18.Which among the following statements is/are correct about Lokayukta?

I.The tenure of Lokayuktha is 5 years

II.Lokayukta submit their annual report to the Chief Justice of the respective State.

III.Lokayukta is appointed by the Governor.


a.I and II only

b.II and III only

c.I and III only

d.I,II and III

Ans : The tenure of Lokayuktha is 5 years. Lokayuktha is appointed by the Governor.

Lokayuktha submit their annual report to the Governor of the State.

19.Which article says that India should have a President?

a.Article 50

b.Article 72

c.Article 123

d.Article 52

Ans : d

Article 52 to 78 in Part V of the Constitution deals with the Union Executive. The union

executive consists of the president, the vice president, the prime minister, the council of

ministers and the Attorney General of India.

Article 52 of the Indian constitution says that there shall be a president of India. The

president is the head of the Indian state. He is called the first citizen of the country and the

head of all armed forces.

20.Who among the following is not a member of the Union Executive?

a.Advocate General

b.President

c.Vice President

d.Council of ministers

Ans : In India, an advocate general is a legal advisor to a state government. The post is

created by the Constitution of India and corresponds to that of Attorney General of India at

the central-level. The Governor of each state shall appoint a person who is qualified to be

appointed judges in high court. There is no fixed term of office and no upper-age-limit

mentioned for the Advocate general.

21.Which former Indian Prime Minister is known as Father of Indian Information

Technology?

a.Indira Gandhi

b.Lal Bahadur Shastri

c.Manmohan Singh

d.Rajiv Gandhi

Ans : Rajiv Gandhi is hailed as the 'Father of Information Technology and Telecom

Revolution of India'. He is rightfully known as the architect of digital India. It was under his

rule that the Centre for Development of Telematics (C-DOT) was established in August 1984

to develop state-of-the-art telecommunication technology and meet the needs of the Indian

telecommunication network.

22.Who is the present Education minister of India?

a.Ramesh Pokhriyal

b.Dharmendra Pradhan

c.Mansukh Mandaviya

d.Vijay Kumar Singh

Ans : The Ministry of Education, formerly the Ministry of Human Resource Development, is

a Ministry of Government of India responsible for the implementation of the National Policy

on Education.

23.The oath of Governor is administered by

a.Chief minister

b.Chief Justice of High Court

c.Chief Justice of Supreme Court

d.Vice President

Ans : The oath of office to the governor is administered by the chief justice of the concerned

state high court and in his absence, the senior-most judge of that court available.

24.Which of the following pairs of Kerala state ministers and their respective departments

is/are incorrectly matched?

I.M.V.Govindan – Rural development

II.K.N.Balagopal – Finance

III.A.K Saseendran – Civil supplies


a.I only

b.I and II only

c.III only

d.All are correct

Ans : AK Saseendran - Forest, GR Anil - Civil supplies

25.Who was the first woman governor of Kerala ?

a.Jyothi Venkitachalam

b.Ramdulari Sinha

c.Padmaja Naydu

d.Sharadha Mukherjee

Ans : Jothi Venkatachalam was the first woman Governor of Kerala. She served as the

Governor of Kerala from 14 October 1977 to 26 October 1982.

26.Which of the following statements regarding Chief Justice of India is/are correct?

I.N.V.Ramana is the current Chief Justice of India

II.The current Chief Justice succeeded Ranjan Gogoi.


a.I only

b.II only

c.I and II

d.Both are incorrect

Ans : The Chief Justice of India (CJI) is the chief judge of the Supreme Court of India as well

as the highest-ranking officer of the Indian federal judiciary. N.V.Ramana is the current Chief

Justice of India. The current Chief Justice succeeded Sharad Arvind Bobde.

27.The jurisdiction of Lakshadweep is under which High Court?

a.Tamil Nadu

b.Karnataka

c.Delhi

d.Kerala

Ans : Lakshadweep is under the jurisdiction of the High Court of Kerala. Andaman and

Nicobar Islands are under the jurisdiction of the Calcutta High Court.

28.The concept of judicial review was adopted from which constitution?

a.Ireland

b.Russia

c.America

d.Australia

Ans : Judicial review is a process under which executive or legislative actions are subject to

review by the judiciary. It is a type of court proceeding in which a judge reviews the

lawfulness of a decision or action made by a public body.

29.Which article deals with Universal adult franchise?

a.Article 236

b.Article 326

c.Article 146

d.Article 221

Ans : Universal suffrage (also called universal adult franchise) gives the right to vote to all

adult citizens, regardless of wealth, income, gender, social status, race, ethnicity, political

stance, or any other restriction, subject only to relatively minor exceptions.

30.The Chief election commissioner of India is appointed by

a.President

b.Prime minister

c.Attorney general

d.Chief Justice of India

Ans : The Chief Election Commissioner of India heads the Election Commission of India, a

body constitutionally empowered to conduct free and fair elections to the national and state

legislatures and of President and Vice-President.

31.National Human Rights Commission is a/an

a.Executive body

b.Constitutional body

c.Legal body

d.Statutory body

Ans : The National Human Rights Commission of India is a Statutory public body constituted

on 12 October 1993 under the Protection of Human Rights Ordinance of 28 September 1993.

It was given a statutory basis by the Protection of Human Rights Act, 1993.

32.Where is the headquarters of the important International Human Rights Organisation

‘Amnesty International’?

a.Geneva

b.London

c.New York

d.Zurich

Ans : Amnesty International is an international non-governmental organization with its

headquarters in the United Kingdom focused on human rights. Amnesty International helps

fight abuses of human rights worldwide.

33.Which of the following statements about the State Human Rights Commission is/are

correct?

a.The Chairman and members of the State Human Rights commission are appointed by the

President but are removed by the Governor of that state.

b.The first Chairman of Kerala State Human Rights Commission was Justice M.M.Pareeth

Pillai


a.I only

b.II only

c.Both I and II

d.Both are Incorrect

Ans : The Chairman and members of the State Human Rights commission are appointed by

the Governor of the state; and are removed by the President of India.

34. Consumer Protection Act was first enacted in India in which year?

a.1876

b.1980

c.1986

d.1992

Ans : The Consumer Protection Act,1986 was an Act of the Parliament of India enacted in

1986 to protect the interests of consumers in India. It was later replaced by the Consumer

Protection Act, 2019. The Act seeks to promote and protect the interest of consumers against

deficiencies and defects in goods or services.

35.Who gives verdict on consumer disputes where compensation is 50 lakhs?

a.District Consumer Dispute Redressal Commission

b.State Consumer Dispute Redressal Commission

c.National Consumer Dispute Redressal Commission

d.None of the above

Ans : District Consumer Disputes Redressal Forum (DCDRF) gives verdict on consumer

disputes where compensation claimed is upto 20 lakhs.

The State Consumer Dispute Redressal Commission (SCDRC) takes on any consumer

dispute where the appellants claim for compensation is above ₹ 20 lakhs but upto rupees one

crore.

The National Consumer Dispute Redressal Commission (NCDRC) is the apex court and takes

on any consumer dispute where the appellants claim for compensation exceeds the amount of

1 crore rupees.

36.Which day is observed as National Consumer Rights day?

a.March 15

b.September 24

c.May 6

d.December 24

Ans : 24th December is observed as National Consumer Day in India. On this day the

Consumer Protection Act, 1986 had received the assent of the president. The enactment of

this Act is considered as a historic milestone in the consumer movement in the country.

37.Neeru – Meeru watershed initiative was undertaken by which state?

a.Andhra Pradesh

b.Telangana

c.Karnataka

d.Tamil Nadu

Ans : Neeru Meeru scheme is a water conservation and poverty alleviation initiative

undertaken by the government of Andhra Pradesh. The initiative focuses on overcoming

man-made-drought and water shortage in the state by the convergence of efforts of various

departments at the state, district, and sub-district levels for water conservation.

38.Who are the beneficiaries of Pradhan Mantri Sram Yogi Maan Dhan Yojana?

a.Women home makers

b.Students

c.Unemployed youth

d.Unorganized labourers

Ans : Pradhan Mantri Shram Yogi Maandhan is a government scheme meant for old age

protection and social security of Unorganized workers.

39.MGNREGA Scheme was officially launched in which year?

a.2006

b.2005

c.2008

d.2009

Ans : Mahatma Gandhi Employment Guarantee Act 2005, is an Indian labour law and social

security measure that aims to guarantee the 'right to work'. This act was passed on 23 August

2005 under the UPA government of Prime Minister Dr. Manmohan Singh. MGNREGA

Scheme was officially launched in 2006.

40.Mukhyamantri Yuva Swabhiman Yojana to provide employment for youth was launched

in which state?

a.Haryana

b.Bihar

c.Madhya Pradesh

d.Gujarat

Ans : The government of Madhya Pradesh has launched the Mukhyamantri Yuva Swabhiman

Yojana to provide employment for youth. The scheme guarantees 100 days of employment

every year to urban youths from economically weaker sections (EWS).

41.National Rural Livelihoods Mission (NRLM) is also known as

a.Jeevika

b.Samriddhi

c.Gramika

d.Aajeevika

Ans : National Rural Livelihood Mission is a poverty alleviation project implemented by the

Ministry of Rural Development, Government of India. This scheme is focused on promoting

self-employment and organization of rural poor. The scheme is also known as Aajeevika

scheme.

42.The Kerala government program introduced in the latest budget to provide employment to

the educated and to support ‘knowledge workers’ under a single programme is

a.Knowledge economy mission

b.Economy boost

c.Kerala Economy Plan

d.None of the above

Ans : Kerala government has launched ‘Knowledge Economy Mission’ to boost job prospects

in the state by supporting knowledge workers. The initiative was announced in the State

Budget on June 4, 2021. It was spearheaded by Kerala Development and Innovation Strategic

Council (K-DISC). The project will be launched to bring ongoing efforts of providing

employment to educated people and support ‘knowledge workers’ under a single programme.

43.Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding the Bhoodan movement?

I.Bhoodan movement was started by Acharya Vinoba Bhave

II.It started in Payyampally village of present day Karnataka


a.I only

b.II only

c.Both I and II

d.Neither I nor II

Ans : The Bhoodan movement, also known as the Bloodless Revolution, was a voluntary land

reform movement in India. It was initiated by Gandhian Acharya Vinoba Bhave in 1951 at

Pochampally village, which is now in Telangana, and known as Bhoodan Pochampally.

44.Kerala Land Reforms Act was enacted in the year

a.1915

b.1963

c.1930

d.1970

Ans : Kerala Land Reforms Act put an end to the feudal system and ensured the rights of the

tenants on land.

45.Who was the first chairperson of the women's commission in India?

a.Rekha Sharma

b.Sugathakumari

c.Jayanti Patnaik

d.Surabhi Chadda

Ans : The National Commission for Women (NCW) is the statutory body of the Government

of India, generally concerned with advising the government on all policy matters affecting

women.

46.Domestic violence act was passed by the Parliament in the year

a.2000

b.2002

c.2003

d.2005

Ans : The Protection of Women from Domestic Violence Act 2005 is an Act of the

Parliament of India enacted to protect women from domestic violence. It was brought into

force by the Indian government and Ministry of Women and Child Development on 26

October 2006.

47.Which of the following is correct regarding the POCSO Act ?

I.POCSO Act was passed by the Parliament in 2012

II.As per this Act a person is considered as a child if he/she is below 18 years.


a.I only

b.II Only

c.Both I and II

d.Neither I nor II

Ans : The Protection of Children from Sexual Offences (POCSO) Act, 2012 came into force

with effect from 14 November, 2012. The Act defines a child as any person below 18 years

of age and defines different forms of sexual abuse against children.

48.Integrated Child Development Scheme ( ICDS ) was launched in

a.1975

b.1978

c.1980

d.1982

Ans : Integrated Child Development Services is a government program in India which

provides nutritional meals, preschool education, primary healthcare, immunization, health

check-up and referral services to children under 6 years of age and their mothers.

49.Smart kitchen scheme that aims to account and reduce the workload of women’s domestic

labour is a woman oriented program of which state?

a.Tamil Nadu

b.Kerala

c.Telangana

d.Odisha

Ans : Smart Kitchen Scheme aims to account and reduce the workload of women’s domestic

labour. Under the scheme, women of state will be given loan to refurbish their kitchen. Loan

will be provided with a low-interest rate in instalment schemes. Scheme seeks to reduce

workload of women’s domestic labour.

50.Which was the first Indian state to start a Multidimensional Poverty Index?

a.Kerala

b.Andhra Pradesh

c.Gujarat

d.Goa

Ans : Multidimensional Poverty Indices use a range of indicators to calculate a summary

poverty figure for a given population. It complements traditional monetary poverty measures

by capturing the acute deprivations in health, education, and living standards that a person

faces simultaneously.

1. Pointing to a man, Arunima said, “His wife is the only daughter of my father”? How is that man

related to Arunima

(a) Husband (b) Uncle (c) father (d) Son

2. Looking at the picture of a person, Ramu said, “His mother is the only daughter of my father and

only daughter in law of her husband’s parents.” How is that person is related to Ramu ?

(a) Father (b) Son in law (c) Uncle (d) Brother

3. Pointing to a man in a photograph, a woman said “His brother’s father is the only son of my grand

father. How is the woman related to the man in the photograph ?

(a) mother (b) Aunt (c) Sister (d) Daughter

4. Showing a woman in the beach, Ram said, “She is the daughter of my grandmother’s only son.

How is Ram related to that woman ?

(a) Father (b) Cousin (c) Brother (d) Uncle

5. Pointing to a woman Radha said, “She is the only daughter in law of the grandmother of my

father’s son. How is the woman related to Radha ?

(a) Sister in law (b) Mother in law (c) Niece (d) Mother

6. A+B means A is the daughter of B.

AB means A is the son of B

A–B mean A is the wife of B.

If so, in the question T–SB–M, which of the following is not true ?

(a) B is mother of S

(b) M is husband of B

(c) S is daughter of B

(d) T is wife of S

7. Pointing to a lady, Arjun said, “The son of her only brother is the brother of my wife.” How is the

lady related to Arjun ?

(a) Grandmother (b) Mother in law (c) aunt (d) sister of father in law

8. Showing a man in the album, Seema said, “He is the brother of my uncle’s daughter”. Who is that

man to Seema ?

(a) Cousin (b) Father (c) Husband (d) Brother

9. If A +B means A is the sister of B, A –B means A is the brother of B, AB means A is the daughter

of B, which of the following shows the relation that E is the maternal uncle of D ?

(a) D + F E (b) DF+E (c) D–FE (d) DF–E

10. Pointing to an old man, Raju said, “His son is my son’s uncle.” How is the old man related to Raju?

(a) Father (b) Brother (c) Uncle (d) Grandfather

11. Arjun walks towards east for 5 km and turns right from there and walks for another 3km. He again

turns right and walks for 5 km. If he turns left from there and walks for another 5 km, how far will

be Arjun from his starting point ?

(a) 8km (b) 10km (c) 3km (d) 5km

Ans :

12. Radha starts walking from her home towards west direction and walks for 10km. She then turns

left and walk for 5km and again turns left and walks for 4 km more. She again turns left and walks

for another to 10km. How far will be Rekha from the starting point, if she walks another 6 km in

the east direction ?

(a) 10km (b) 3km (c) 8km (d) 6km

Ans :

13. Rema travels from point A towards east direction and reaches point B. From point B, she travels

north and reaches point C from point C. She turns right and finally reaches point D. What is her

current direction compared to the starting point ?

(a) North (b) North-east (c) South (d) South-east

Ans :

5

3

55

A BW

N

E

S

DC

6

105

A10

5

4

14. Amal starts walking from home towards west direction and walks 10m and turns left from there

and walks for another 6m. He again turns left and walks for 10m and turns right and walks for

another 4m. He takes a final turn towards his right and travels for another 10m. Now, what is his

current position, composed to the starting point ?

(a) South (b) West (c) South-west (d) North

Ans :

15. Pooja starts walking towards north for 5 km and turned right and walks for 3 km more. She took a

right turn from there and walks for another 5km. Now what is her current direction and how far is

she from the starting point ?

(a) South 5km (b) North 3km (c) West 5km (d) East 5km

Ans :

16. Reena travelled from point A to a distance of 10m east at point B. She then turned right and walked

3m. Again she turned right and walked for another 14m. How far is she from the starting point ?

(a) 4m (b) 5m (c) 12m (d) 10m

Ans :

2 24 3 = 25 = 5m

17. A sports person runs 12km west, then 3km twoards south and then 8km towards east. How far is he

from the starting point ?

(a) 25km (b) 20km (c) 15km (d) 5km

Ans :

2 24 3 = 25 = 5m

10

6

104

10

W

N

E

S

3

5 5

3

W

N

E

S

4

3

10

3

10

3 3

12

8 4

18. A watch reads 4:30, if the minute hand points east. In what direction will the hour hand point ?

(a) North (b) North-West (c) South-East (d) North -East

N

Ans: W E

S

19. Arun walks 30m towards north and turns east and walks for 40m and again turns right and walks

for 20m more. If Arun again turn right and walks for another 40m. How far Arun will be from his

starting point ?

(a) 5m (b) 10m (c) 15m (d) 20m

Ans :

20. Rajesh walks 40m in a straight line to east and 60m towards north and 70m towards west

direction. He agains walks 100m towards south direction. How far Rajesh will be from his starting

point ?

(a) 25m (b) 75m (c) 50m (d) 50m

Ans :

= 2 240 30 1600 90

= 2500

= 50

20

40

30

40

10

30 40

60 60

30

4040

.................

.

21. In a clock the time shown is 3:00 clock. Then find the angle between the minute hand and the hour

hand ?

(a) 90o (b) 70o (c) 85o (d) 95o

22. If the time in a clock is 7:20, find the possible angle between the minute hand and the hour hand ?

(a) 90o (b) 100o (c) 110o (d) 80o

Ans : 330 = 90o + 10o = 100o

23. The angle between the minute hand and the hour hand of a clock when the time is 3:30?

(a) 80o (b) 85o (c) 75o (d) 105o

Ans : Angle traced by hour hand in 17

2 hours =

360 17

12 2

o

=255

Angle traced by minute hand in 30min

= 360

3060

o

= 180

Angle = 225 – 180 = 75o

24. The angle between the minute hand and the hour hand of a clock when the time is 4:20 ?

(a) 10o (b) 15o (c) 20o (d) 25o

Ans : formula H30 degree = M5.5 degree

= 430 – 205.5

= 120 – 110 = 10o

25. What will be the angle when the minute hand of a clock moves 1 minute ?

(a) 9o (b) 7o (c) 6o (d) 3o

Ans : 5 min 30o

1 min = 30

5=6o

26. How much time is needed for a minute hand in a clock to make the same angle made by the hour

hand of the clock by taking 6 hours ?

(a) 30min (b) 35min (c) 27min (d) 25min

Ans : hour hand

1 hr 30o

6 hr 180o

minute hand

5 min 30o

5630o6 = 180o

30min 180o

27. A clock took 12 seconds to ring 5 times. If so, how much time the clock will take to ring 10 times.

(a) 20sec (b) 25sec (c) 29sec (d) 27sec

Ans : 4 intervals 12 sec

1 interval 12

4 = 3 sec

10 times 9 intervals

93 = 27 sec

28. What is the time between 3:00 and 4:00 when the angle between the minute hand and hour hand

becomes 180o but both the hands face opposite direction ?

(a) 3:152

8(b) 3:49

1

11(c) 3:50 (d) 3:57

Ans : 60

11 (a+6)

= 60

11 (3+6)

= 60

119=

540

11

= 491

11

time = 3 hour 491

11 min.

29. A clock shows the time 10:10. Then what will be the angle between the minute hand and hour

hand?

(a) 95o (b) 100o (c) 115o (d) 110o

Ans : 30H – 11

2m

30 10 = 11

210

300 – 55 = 245

Angle is greater than 180o, so substract from 360

360 – 245 = 115o

30. When the time shown is 9:00, what is the angle between minute hand and hour hand ?

(a) 90o (b) 60o (c) 45o (d) 70o

Ans : 30H – 11

2M

= 309 = 270o

Angle greater than 180o, then substract from 360.

360 = 270 = 90o

31. The reflection of a clock in the mirror shows the time 4:40. Then what is the actual time in the

clock.

(a) 7:20 (b) 8:30 (c) 9:20 (d) 6:55

Ans : 11:60 – 4:40 = 7:20

32. If the mirror image of a clock shows the time as 12:15. Then what is the actual time ?

(a) 10:45 (b) 9:50 (c) 11:45 (d) 11;30

Ans : Substract given time from 23:60

= 23:60 – 12:15 = 11:45

33. A clock shows the time 5:00. Then what will be the time in the reflection of that clock

(a) 6:00 (b) 7:00 (c) 8:00 (d) 9:00

Ans : Substract the given time turn 12.

12 – 5 = 7.00

34. Looking at the reflection of a clock, a boy said the time as 8:10. Then what is the actual time in that

clock ?

(a) 2:50 (b) 1:50 (c) 3:00 (d) 3:50

Ans : 11:60–

8:10

3:50

35. The time in a clock is 3:15 what will be the time in that clock if it is reflected in a mirror ?

(a) 8:00 (b) 8.45 (c) 7:50 (d) 7:55

Ans : 11:60 – 3:15

8.45

36. If today is monday, what will be the day after 75 days ?

(a) Wednesday (b) Saturday (c) Sunday (d) Friday

1

Ans : 7 75

7

5

Monday + 5 Saturday

37. If 2011 April 1 was a friday. What day will be 2012 July 1

(a) Sunday (b) Friday (c) Thursday (d) Monday

Ans : 2012 April 1 Friday

2012 April 1 Sunday

2012 July 1 Sunday

38. If 2012 January 1st was Sunday, what day will be 1st December 2010 ?

(a) Monday (b) Wednesday (c) Tuesday (d) Saturday

Ans : 2012 December 31 - Monday

December 1, 8, 15, 22 , 29 same day

30 Sunday

29 Saturday

39. If October 10 is Thursday, what day was September 10 ?

(a) Tuesday (b) Monday (c) Friday (d) Sunday

Ans : Sep 20 + days

Oct 10

30

30

7 2 odd days

Tuesday – 2 (Wed, Tue)

Tuesday

40. If 1st February 2011 was a Tuesday, how many Saturdays were there in 2011 ?

(a) 63 (b) 33 (c) 57 (d) 69

Ans : Feb 1 Tuesday

Jan Mon (24,17,10,3)

Jan 2 Sun

Jan 1 Sat 53 times

41 January 1 is a Saturday. Then, how many Fridays will be there in that month ?

(a) 3 (b) 6 (c) 4 (d) 5

Ans : Jan 7 Friday

14, 21, 28 Friday

4 Fridays

42 2000 Jan 1 was saturday. Then what day will be 1st Jan 2005 ?

(a) Saturday (b) Friday (c) Tuesday (d) Monday

Ans : 5 years 2 leap year + 3 normal years

4+3 = 7 odd days

7

7 = 0 remainder

2005 Jan 1 Saturday

43 Today is Monday. After 81 days it will be ?

(a) Monday (b) Saturday (c) Friday (d) Wednesday

Ans : Each day of the week is repeated after 7 days

80, after 65 days it will be Monday

After 61 days Saturday

44 It was Sunday on Jan 1 2006. What was the day of the week on Jan 1, 2010 ?

(a) Monday (b) Friday (c) Sunday (d) Tuesday

ans : On 31st Dec 2005 Saturday

No. of odd days from 2006 to 2009

= 1 + 1+ 2+1 = 5 days

On 31st Dec 2009 Thursday

On 1st Jan 2020 Friday

45 What was the day of the week on 17th June, 1998 ?

(a) Monday (b) Tuesday (c) Wednesday (d) Friday

Ans : 17th June, 1998 = (1997 years + Period from 1/1/1998 to 17/6/1998)

odd days in 1600 years = 0

odd days in 300 years = 1

97 years has 24 leap years + 73 ordinary years

Number of odd days in 97 years (242+73)

= 121 = 2 odd days

Jan, Feb, March, April, May, June

(31 + 28 + 31 + 30 + 31 + 17) = 168 days

168 days = 24 weeks = 0 odd day

total number of odd days = 0+1+2+0 = 3

Given day is Wednesday

46. Arrange the following words in a meaningful number ?

1. District 2. Village 3. State 4. Block

(a) 2,1,4,3 (b) 2,1,3,4 (c) 2,3,1,4 (d) 2,4,1,3

47. Which of the following words can be made from the letters of the given word below ?

E X A M I N A T I O N

(a) Animal (b) Examiner (c) National (d) Animation

48. If we arrange the following words in the alphabetical order, which one should be the second

word ?

Dream, Droguht, Discourage, Delight

(a) Discourage (b) Drought (c) Dream (d) Delight

49. Which of the following word that can not be made using the letter of the word ‘REASONING’?

(a) SONG (b) RING (c) NONE (d) EASY

50. Arrange the following words in a meaningful order ?

1. Kilogram 2. Gram 3. Quintal 4. Tonne

(a) 1,4,3,2, (b) 4,3,2,1 (c) 2,1,3,4 (d) 2,3,4,1

TEST SERIES 12 CIVICS & REASONING

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