SYLLABUS FOR ADMISSION TEST - Brother's Academy

Physics Chemsitry Biology Maths

1. Motion 1. Acids, bases and salts 1. Nutrition in Animals 1. Number System

2. Heat 2. Electrolysis 2. Conservation of natural resources 2. Polynomials

3. Light 3. Carbon 3. Digestion 3. Ratio

4. Magnetism 4. Matter 4. Soil and Climate 4. Exponents

5. Metals and Non-Metals 5. Respiration 5. Speed time & Distance

6. Solution 6. Parts of Plants 6. Linear equations in one variable

7. Pollution 7. Lines and angles

8. Triangles

9. Perimeter and Area of Plane figures


1. Motion 1. Fibres 1. Food Production & Management 1. Number system

2. Light 2. Atomic Structure 2. Cell 2. Square & Square Roots

3. Heat 3. Atoms and Molecules 3. Micro organisms 3. Cube and Cube Roots

4. Sound 4. Combustion 4. Conservation of Plants & Animals 4. Polynomials

5. Electricity 5. Coal and Petroleum 5. Reproduction in Animals 6. Speed time & Distance

6. Acids and Bases 7. Linear equations in one variable

7. Chemical & Physical Changes 8. Lines and angles

9. Triangles, Quadrilaterals, Polygons

10. Perimeter and area of plane figures


1. Motion 1. Gaseous State 1. Cell 1. Number System

2. Laws of Motion 2. Matter 2. Tissue 2. Polynomials, Ratio, Exponents

3. Gravitation 3. Atoms and Molecules 3. Diversity in Living World 3. Triangles, Quadrilaterals

4. Floatation 4. Elements compound & mixture 4. Improvement in food resources 4. Perimeter and Area of Plane figures

5. Waves 5. Metals and Non-Metals 5. Digestive System 5. Linear equations (1 & 2 variables)

6. Carbon 6. Trigonometry

7. Coordinate Geometry

8. Volume and surface area

9. Algebraic expressions & identities

Brother's Academy LALPUR Campus, Circular Road, Lalpur, Ranchi-834001. Ph. 7488408051, 8235071441Brother's Academy DORANDA Campus, Opp. Eylex Cinemas, Hinoo, Ranchi-834002. Ph. 6201469038, 8092071442

These few topics of Class IX as well as the basic syllabus of Class VIII

COURSE - III (For Students of Class IX going to Class X)

SYLLABUS FOR ADMISSION TEST

These few topics of Class VII as well as the basic syllabus of Class VI

COURSE -I (For Students of Class VII going to Class VIII)

These few topics of Class VIII as well as the basic syllabus of Class VII

COURSE -II (For Students of Class VIII going to Class IX)

Physics Chemsitry Maths

1. Current Electricity 1. Acids bases and Salts 1. Linear equations in two variables

2. Optics 2. Chemical reactions and equations 2. Trigonometry

3. Magnetism 3. Metals and Non-Metals 3. Triangles and its properties

4. Carbon and its compound 4. Quadratic equations

5. Periodic Properties 5. Arithmetic Progression

6. Co-ordinate Geometry

7. Height and Distance

8. Circles

9. Area related to circle

10. Surface area and volume

11. Probability

Physics Chemsitry Biology

1. Current Electricity 1. Acids bases and Salts 1. Cell & Cell Cycle

2. Optics 2. Chemical reactions and equations 2. Plant tissue

3. Magnetism 3. Metals and Non-Metals 3. Photosynthesis

4. Carbon and its compound 4. Nutrition

5. Periodic Properties 5. Plant Morphology

6. Circulatory System

7. Respiratory System

8. Reproductive System

9. Excretory System

10. Plant Embryology

11. Nervous System



COURSE - IV (For Students of Class X going to Class XI) : EngineeringThese few topics of Class X as well as the basic syllabus of Class IX

COURSE - V (For Students of Class X going to Class XI) : Medical

These few topics of Class X as well as the basic syllabus of Class IX

Physics Chemsitry Maths

1. Electrostatics 1. Hydrocarbon & Alkyl Halides 1. Differential Calculus

2. Capacitor 2. Alcohols & Carbonyl Compounds 2. Integral Calculus

3. Current Electricity 3. Amines,Carboxylic Acid & derivatives 3. Vector & 3D - Geometry

4. Magnetism 4. Electrochemistry 4. Probability

5. E.M.I. & A.C 5. Solid State 5. Determinant & Matrices

6. Optics 6. Liquid Solution

7. Modern Physics 7. Chemical Kinetics

8. Semiconductor & logic gates 8. p - Block & d - Block

9. Co - ordination Compounds

Physics Chemsitry Biology

1. Electrostatics 1. Hydrocarbon & Alkyl Halides 1. Reproduction

2. Capacitor 2. Alcohols & Carbonyl Compounds 2. Genetics & Evolution

3. Current Electricity 3. Amines,Carboxylic Acid & derivatives 3. Microbes & Human welfare

4. Magnetism 4. Electrochemistry 4. Biotechnology & its application

5. E.M.I. & A.C 5. Solid State 5. Ecology and Environment

6. Optics 6. Liquid Solution

7. Modern Physics 7. Chemical Kinetics

8. Semiconductor & logic gates 8. p - Block & d - Block

9. Co - ordination Compounds



COURSE - VI (For Students of Class XII Appeared/Passed) : Engineering

These Few Topics of Class XII

COURSE - VII (For Students of Class XII Appeared/Passed) : Medical

These Few Topics of Class XII

www.brothersacademy.co.in Admission Test (Course I) _ VII going VIII Students


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SAMPLE COPY

Course IClass VII going to Class VIII Students

Read the following Instructions very carefully before you proceed

The paper is divided into THREE PARTS. PART - I contains 30 question of Basic Aptitude.PART - II contains 60 question of Science (Physics - 20), (Chemistry - 20) and (Biology - 20).Part - III contains 30 question of Mathematics.

It contains a total of 120 questions and 24 printed pages.

For answering a question, an ANSWER SHEET is provided separately. Please fill your Reg. No.and Paper set Properly in the space given in the ANSWER SHEET.

Please darken the entire circle that corresponds to your answer for each question. Use only HBpencil or Ball Point Pen to mark answer, and erase pencil marks completely to make a change. Donot scribble anything on the answer sheet.

Wrong way of filling Right way of filling

A B C D A B C D A B C D

Full Marks 360. Total Time 3 Hrs.

Marking Scheme : ONLY ONE correct option and each question carries 3 Marks and –1 will beawarded for every wrong answer. (NEGATIVE MARKING).

Name : ________________________________________________ Reg. No. : _____________

ADMISSION TEST Code

A



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PART – I (Basic Aptitude)

01. Which letter is exactly between R and V in the English alphabet?

(A) S (B) U (C) T (D) I

02. Which letter is exactly between the English alphabet ?

(A) M (B) N (C) L (D) No letter

03. Find the odd one out

(A) DE (B) GH (C) LM (D) ON

04. Which one is different from the others

(A) BDC (B) EGF (C) HIJ (D) NPO

05. Find the odd one out

(A) ZYX (B) WVU (C) LMN (D) TSR

06. Which one is different from the others.

(A) 234 (B) 345 (C) 456 (D) 657

07. Find the missing number in the place of '?' inthe following

1 4 ?

524

2 2 3

1387

(A) 3 (B) 4 (C) 5 (D) 6

08. Insert the missing number

12 20 2214 30 40

26 50 ?

(A) 58 (B) 60 (C) 62 (D) 64

SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK



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09. Find the missing number in the place of '?' in the following

123456 246802 579133

1 2 5

2 4 7

6 2 3

3 6 9

5 0 ?

4 8 1

(A) 5 (B) 3 (C) 9 (D) 1

10. Find the missing number in the place of ' ? ' in the following

10 32 ?

30 44 64

20 12 30

(A) 30 (B) 34 (C) 90 (D) 94

11. Find the missing number in the place of ' ? ' in the following

11 16 45

22 24 2333 32 34

44 40 12

110 112 ?

(A) 114 (B) 134 (C) 190 (D) 124




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12. Insert the missing number

10 16 30

12 20 34

14 22 39

36 58 ?

(A) 93 (B) 97 (C) 101 (D) 103

13. If the day before yesterday was friday, what day will fall on the day after tomorrow ?

(A) Friday (B) Thursday (C) Wednesday (D) Tuesday

14. If the second day of a 30 day month is a Friday, which of the following would be the last day of the nextmonth which has 31 days ?

(A) Sunday (B) Monday (C) Tuesday (D) Data inadequate

15. Which shape is the odd one out ?

(A) (B) (C) (D)

16. How many squares like can be there in the following shape without overlapping ?

(A) 12 (B) 15 (C) 10 (D) 20




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17. Which shape does not fit in with these shapes ?

(A) (B) (C) (D)

18. Observe the combined shapes and identify the missing figure in the square.

+ = + =

+ =?

(A) (B) (C) (D)


+ =+ =

+ =?

(A) (B) (C) (D)




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20. Identify the shape that matches the subtraction of the figures given below

(A) (B) (C) (D)

21. Identify the shape after subtraction of the given figures.

(A) (B) (C) (D)


(A) 9 (B) 10 (C) 12 (D) 6SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK



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23. Identify the shape that matches the subtraction of the figures given below.

(A) (B) (C) (D)

24. Identify the shape when the second figure is subtracted from the first as shown in the figure below.

(A) (B) (C) (D)

Direction for questions 25 to 30

Find the next letter in the series.

25. X W V U T ?

(A) Q (B) R (C) S (D) P

26. W V T Q M ?

(A) I (B) H (C) G (D) K




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27. A B E J Q ?

(A) W (B) X (C) Y (D) Z

28. Z Y V Q J ?

(A) A (B) B (C) C (D) D

29. I J H K G ?

(A) E (B) F (C) L (D) M

30. T Y C F H ?

(A) J (B) I (C) K (D) L




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31. Choose from the options a, b, c and d given in Figure the figure which shows the correct direction ofcurrent.

(A) (B)

(C) (D)

32. Choose the incorrect statement.

(A) A switch is the source of electric current in a circuit

(B) A switch help to complete or break the circuit

(C) A switch helps us to use electricity as per our requirement

(D) When the switch is open there is an air gap between its terminals

33. In the following arrangement shown in figure, the bulb will not glow if the ends A and B are connected with

(A) A steel spoon

(B) A metal clip

(C) A plastic clip

(D) A copper wire


PART – II (Science)



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34. Filament of a torch bulb is

(A) A metal case (B) Metal tip at the centre of the base

(C) Two thick wires (D) A thin wire

35. A marble tile would feel cold as compared to a wooden tile on a winter morning, because the marble tile

(A) is a better conductor of heat than the wooden tile

(B) is polished while wooden tile is not polished

(C) reflects more heat than wooden tile

(D) is a poor conductor of heat than the wooden tile

36. A beggar wrapped himself with a few layers of newspaper on a cold winter night. This helped him to keephimself warm because

(A) Friction between the layers of newspaper produces heat

(B) Air trapped between the layers of newspaper is a bad conductor of heat

(C) Newspaper is a conductor of heat

(D) Newspaper is at a higher temperature than the temperature of the surrounding

37. Four arrangements to measure temperature of ice in beaker with laboratory thermometer are shown inFigure (A, B, C and D). Which one of them shows the correct arrangement for accurate measurement oftemperature?

(A) (B) (C) (D)




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38. Observe the pictures A and B given in figure carefully(Magnet on the car).

(A) (B)

Which of the following statement is correct for the above given pictures?(A) In A, cars 1 and 2 will come closer and in B, cars 3 and 4 will come closer(B) In A, cars 1 and 2 will move away from each other and in B, cars 3 and 4 will move away(C) In A, cars 1 and 2 will move away and in B, 3 and 4 will come closer to each other(D) In A, cars 1 and 2 will come closer to each other and in B, 3 and 4 will move away from each other

39. Three magnets A, B and C were dipped one by one in a heap of iron filing. Figure. Shows the amount ofthe iron filing sticking to them

The strength of these magnets will be

(A) A > B > C (B) A < B < C (C) A = B = C (D) A < B > C

40. North pole of a magnet can be identified by

(A) Another magnet having its poles marked as North pole and South pole

(B) Another magnet no matter whether the poles are marked or not

(C) Using an iron bar

(D) Using iron filings




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41. A bar magnet is immersed in a heap of iron filings and pulled out. The amount of iron filling clinging to the

(A) North pole is almost equal to the south pole (B) North pole is much more than the south pole

(C) North pole is much less than the south pole (D) Magnet will be same all along its length

42. The distance between Delhi and Mumbai is usually expressed in units of

(A) Decametre (B) Metre (C) Centimetre (D) Kilometre

43. Which of the following does not express a time interval?

(A) A day (B) A second

(C) A school period (D) Time of the first bell in the school

44. Figure shows a measuring scale which is usually supplied with a geometry box. Which of the followingdistance cannot be measured with this scale by using it only once?

(A) 0.1 m (B) 0.15 m (C) 0.2 m (D) 0.05 m

45. Bholu and Golu are playing in a ground. They start running from the same point A in the ground and reachpoint B at the same time by following the paths marked 1 and 2 respectively as shown in Figure.

Which of the following is/are true for the given situation.

As compared to Golu, Bholu covers a

(A) Longer distance but with a lower speed

(B) Longer distance with a higher speed

(C) Shorter distance with a lower speed

(D) Shorter distance with a higher speed




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46. Observe the picture given in figure carefully. A patch of light is

obtained at B, when the torch is lighted as shown. Which of the

following is kept at position A to get this patch of light?

(A) A wooden board

(B) A glass sheet

(C) A mirror

(D) A sheet of white paper

47. Four students A, B, C and D looked through pipes of different shapes to see a candle flame as shown inFigure

(A) (B)

(C) (D)

48. Which of the following is/are not always necessary to observe a shadow?

(A) Sun (B) Screen (C) Source of light (D) Opaque object




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49. Which of the following can never form a circular shadow?

(A) A ball (B) A flat disc (C) A shoe box (D) An ice cream cone

50. Two students while sitting across a table looked down on to its top surface. They noticed that they couldsee their own and each other’s image. The table top is likely to be made of:

(A) Unpolished wood (B) Red stone

(C) Glass sheet (D) Wood top covered with cloth

51. An iron nail is kept in each of the following liquids. In which case would it lose its shine and appear dull?

(A) Mustard oil (B) Soft drink (C) Coconut oil (D) Pine

52. Pick one material from the following which is completely soluble in water.

(A) Chalk powder (B) Tea leaves (C) Glucose (D) Saw dust

53. Which among the following are commonly used for making a safety pin?

(A) Wood and glass (B) Plastic and glass

(C) Leather and plastic (D) Steel and plastic

54. Which of the following materials is not lustrous?

(A) Gold (B) Silver (C) Wood (D) Diamond

55. Which type of the following materials is used for making the front glass (wind screen) of a car?

(A) Transparent (B) Translucent (C) Opaque (D) All the above

56. The correct way of making a solution of acid in water is to

(A) Add water to acid (B) Add acid to water

(C) Mix acid and water simultaneously (D) Add water to acid in a shallow container




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57. Products of a neutralisation reaction are always

(A) An acid and a base (B) An acid and a salt

(C) A salt and water (D) A salt and a base

58. Phenolphthalein is a synthetic indicator and its colours in acidic and basic solutions, respectively are

(A) Red and blue (B) Blue and red (C) Pink and colourless (D) Colourless and pink

59. When the soil is too basic, plants do not grow well in it. To improve its quality what must be added to thesoil?

(A) Organic matter (B) Quick lime (C) Slaked lime (D) Calamine solution

60. ‘Litmus’, a natural dye is an extract of which of the following?

(A) China rose (Gudhal) (B) Beetroot

(C) Lichen (D) Blue berries (Jamun)

61. Neutralisation reaction is a

(A) Physical and reversible change (B) Physical change that cannot be reversed

(C) Chemical and reversible change (D) Chemical change that cannot be reversed

62. Which of the following set of substances contain acids?

(A) Grapes, lime water (B) Vinegar, soap

(C) Curd, milk of magnesia (D) Curd, vinegar

63. Which of the following is not a natural fibre?

(A) Cotton (B) Jute (C) Nylon (D) Flax



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64. The correct sequence to get cloth is :

(A) fibre fabric yarn (B) fibre yarn fabric

(C) fabric yarn fibre (D) yarn fibre fabric

65. Which of the following mixtures would you be able to separate using the method of filtration?

(A) Oil in water (B) Cornflakes in milk (C) Salt in water (D) Sugar in milk

66. In an activity, a teacher dissolved a small amount of solid copper sulphate in a tumbler half filled with water.Which method would you use to get back solid copper sulphate from the solution?

(A) Decantation (B) Evaporation (C) Sedimentation (D) Condensation

67. Which of the following activity does not involve use of water?

(A) Washing clothes (B) Bathing (C) Cleaning utensils (D) Drying wet clothes

68. In which of the following case evaporation of water will be slowest?

(A) A tray of water kept in sunlight (B) A kettle of water kept on a burner

(C) A glass of water kept in a room (D) A bucket of water kept on rooftop

69. Transpiration is a process in which plants

(A) receive water from soil (B) absorb water vapour from air

(C) prepare food from water (D) release water vapour

70. What is not true about air?

(A) It makes the windmill rotate (B) It helps in the movements of aeroplanes

(C) Birds can fly due to presence of air (D) It has no role in water cycle

71. The process of digestion, absorption and utilization of food by the body is called as:

(A) Digestion (B) Absorption (C) Assimilation (D) Nutrition




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72. Which of the following gases is released during photosynthesis:

(A) Nitrogen (B) Oxygen (C) Carbon dioxide (D) Hydrogen

73. Which of these is not necessary for photosynthesis:

(A) Carbon dioxide (B) Water (C) Oxygen (D) Sunlight.

74. In absence of photosynthesis, there would be no____on the earth:

(A) Plants (B) Animals (C) Living organisms (D) Air.

75. The portion of leaf that is not exposed to sunlight will not make:

(A) Fats (B) Protein (C) Glucose (D) Starch.

76. Which of the following is an insectivorous plants?

(A) Cuscuta (B) Drosera (C) Mistletoe (D) Lichen.

77. The process by which the food is taken inside the body is called as:

(A) Assimilation (B) Absorption (C) Digestion (D) Ingestion

78. The largest gland of the body is:

(A) Pancreas (B) Gall bladder (C) Liver (D) Stomach.

79. Carbohydrates gets broken down into:

(A) Glucose (B) Fatty acids (C) Glycerol (D) Amino acids.

80. The amount of humidity in the atmosphere is a measure of____in air:

(A) Heat (B) Temperature (C) Chemical (D) Moisture

81. Find the animal living in polar regions from the following:

(A) Monkey (B) Donkey (C) Polar bear (D) Gorilla



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82. Monkeys have long tail for:

(A) Grasping the branches (B) Playing

(C) Swimming (D) None of these.

83. Which type of soil is best for growing cotton?

(A) Sandy (B) Clayey (C) Loamy (D) Sandy loam

84. Water logging can be expected in soil which is rich in:

(A) Sand (B) Clay (C) Silt (D) Humus

85. Oxidation of food in presence of oxygen is:

(A) Anaerobic oxidation (B) Aerobic respiration

(C) Bronchus (D) Both A and B

86. Which of the following is a by product of anaerobic respiration?

(A) Oxygen (B) Carbon dioxide

(C) Ethyl alcohol (D) Ethyl alcohol and carbon dioxide.

87. During inspiration the diaphragm:

(A) Moves down (B) Moves upwards (C) Moves side wards (D) None

88. Haemoglobin combined with oxygen is called:

(A) Carbaminohaemoglobin (B) Oxyhaemoglobin

(C) Respiration (D) Bronchus.

89. The tube containing pollen grain in it is called as:

(A) Pollen tube (B) U-tube (C) Ovule tube (D) Spore tube.

90. Which of the following contains the female gamete of the flowering plants?

(A) Ovule (B) Buds (C) Pollen (D) Spores.




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91. One million is equal to

(A) 1 lakh (B) 10 lakh (C) 1 crore (D) 10 crore

92. The smallest 4-digit number having three different digits is

(A) 1102 (B) 1012 (C) 1020 (D) 1002

93. Number of whole numbers between 38 and 68 is (both excluded)

(A) 31 (B) 30 (C) 29 (D) 28

94. A whole number is added to 25 and the same number is subtracted from 25. The sum of the resultingnumbers is

(A) 0 (B) 25 (C) 50 (D) 75

95. Which of the following statements is not true?

(A) The HCF of two distinct prime numbers is 1

(B) The HCF of two co prime numbers is 1

(C) The HCF of two consecutive even numbers is 2

(D) The HCF of an even and an odd number is even.

96. The largest number which always divides the sum of any pair of consecutive odd numbers is

(A) 2 (B) 4 (C) 6 (D) 8


PART – III (Mathematics)



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97. LCM of 10, 15 and 20 is

(A) 30 (B) 60 (C) 90 (D) 180

98. Every integer less than 0 has the sign

(A) + (B) – (C) × (D) ÷

99. Number of integers lying between –1 and 1 is

(A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 3 (D) 0

100. The greatest integer lying between –10 and –15 is

(A) –10 (B) –11 (C) –15 (D) –14

101. The two consecutive integers between which the fraction lies are

(A) 5 and 6 (B) 0 and 1 (C) 5 and 7 (D) 6 and 7

102. When is written with denominator as 12, its numerator is

(A) 3 (B) 8 (C) 24 (D) 12




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103. Following figures are formed by joining six unit squares. Which figure has the smallest perimeter ?

(A) (ii) (B) (iii) (C) (iv) (D) (i)

104. A square shaped park ABCD of side 100m has two equal rectangular flower beds each of size10m 5m. Length of the boundary of the remaining park is

(A) 360m

(B) 400m

(C) 340m

(D) 460m

105. The side of a square is 10cm. How many times will the new perimeter become if the side of the square isdoubled?

(A) 2 times (B) 4 times (C) 6 times (D) 8 times




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106. Two regular Hexagons of perimeter 30cm each are joined as shown in figure. The perimeter of the newfigure is

(A) 65cm

(B) 60cm

(C) 55cm

(D) 50cm

107. If each match box contains 50 matchsticks, the number of matchsticks required to fill n such boxes is

(A) 50 + n (B) 50n (C) 50 ÷ n (D) 50 – n

108. Which of the following equations has x = 2 as a solution?

(A) x + 2 = 5 (B) x – 2 = 0 (C) 2x + 1 = 0 (D) x + 3 = 6

109. Number of line segments in figure is

(A) 5 (B) 10 (C) 15 (D) 20

110. In figure, if point A is shifted to point B along the ray PX such that PB = 2PA, then the measure of “BPYis

(A) greater than 45°

(B) 45°

(C) less than 45°

(D) 90°




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111. The number ‘x’ equals one fourth of its own reciprocal , then the value of ‘x’ is equal to

(A)12 (B)

14 (C) 2 (D) 4

112. What should be added to the sum of x – 2y + z and 3y – 4x + 2z to yield 4x – y + 6z ?

(A) 3x y z (B) 7 2 3x y z (C) 3 3x y z (D) 7 2 3x y z

113. The value of a2 - b2 , if a = 1, b = 2 is

(A) 1 (B) - 3 (C) 3 (D) 0

114. Find the mean of 1, 5, 8, –2, 3

(A) 5 (B) 19/5 (C) 3 (D) -19/5

115. What is the median of the following data 37, 31, 42, 43, 46, 25, 39, 45, 32

(A) 35 (B) 39 (C) 5 (D) 8

116. Mean of the data 5, 7, 4,5, 2 6, 2 5,7,8x x x x is

(A) 5.175 (B) 5.782 (C) 5.875 (D) 5.674

117. Division of rational number is

(A) Commutative (B) Associative

(C) Neither commutative nor associative (D) None of these




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118. The product of two rational numbers is 15. If one of the numbers is –10 , then the other is

(A)32 (B)

23 (C)

32

(D)23

119. What should be added to 1 1 12 3 5

to get 3?

(A)5830 (B)

5932 (C)

5930 (D)

5995

120. Subtract 10

11

from the sum of 12 and

111

(A)23 (B)

43 (C)

34 (D)

32


01. C

02. D

03. D

04. C

05. C

06. D

07. C

08. C

09. B

10. B

11. A

12. D

13. D

14. B

15. C

16. C

17. B

18. D

19. C

20. A

21. A

22. A

23. B

24. C

25. C

26. B

27. D

28. A

29. C

30. B

31. B

32. A

33. C

34. D

35. A

36. B

37. A

38. D

39. A

40. A

41. A

42. D

43. D

44. C

45. B

46. C

47. D

48. A

49. C

50. C

51. B

52. C

53. D

54. C

55. A

56. B

57. C

58. D

59. A

60. C

61. D

62. D

63. C

64. B

65. C

66. B

67. D

68. C

69. D

70. D

71. C

72. B

73. C

74. C

75. D

76. B

77. D

78. C

79. A

80. D

81. C

82. A

83. A

84. D

85. B

86. D

87. A

88. B

89. A

90. A

ANSWER KEY

Course IClass VII going to Class VIII Students

PART - II PART - III

91. B

92. D

93. C

94. C

95. D

96. B

97. B

98. B

99. A

100. B

101. B

102. A

103. D

104. B

105. A

106. D

107. B

108. B

109. B

110. B

111. A

112. B

113. B

114. C

115. B

116. C

117. C

118. C

119. C

120. D

PART - I



www.brothersacademy.co.in Admission Test (Course II) _ VIII going IX Students


{1}

SAMPLE COPY

Course IIClass VIII going to Class IX Students










Name : ________________________________________________ Reg. No. : _____________

ADMISSION TEST Code

A



{2}

01. Which group of letters, in its number position is at an interval of 6 ?

(A) GMSX (B) IOTZ (C) FLRX (D) GKQY

02. If every alternate letter in the alphabet is deleted, then how many letter will be left in the alphabert ?

(A) 12 (B) 13 (C) 14 (D) 15

03. Which is the next shape ?

?

(A) (B) (C) (D)

04. Which shape is next in this series of shapes ?

?

(A) (B) (C) (D)





{3}

05. Which is the next shape ?

?

(A) (B) (C) (D)

06. Which shape is next in the series ?

?

(A) (B) (C) (D)

07. Observe the combined shapes and identify the missing figure in the square .

+ = + =?

+

(A) (B) (C) (D)




{4}


+ = + =?

++ ==

(A) (B) (C) (D)


In each of the following questions which alternative will replace the question mark .

09. FB is to GD as PM is to ?

(A) RO (B) SP (C) RN (D) QO

10. NA is to LF as XN is to ?

(A) YS (B) VS (C) YM (D) WM

11. FH is to DF as UY is to ?

(A) SW (B) TX (C) RX (D) TW

12. KM is to OJ as VH is to ?

(A) AG (B) YF (C) ZE (D) YG




{5}

13. DI is to EE as RQ is to ?

(A) QN (B) TO (C) PP (D) SM

14. GH is to KL as PQ is to ?

(A) ST (B) TU (C) UV (D) UT


Find the letter which will end the first word and start the second word

15. BE AS

(A) T (B) G (C) Y (D) R

16. BOT URTT

(A) L (B) O (C) H (D) P

17. SHAR RINT

(A) P (B) K (C) T (D) Y

18. CAME IGHT

(A) R (B) L (C) P (D) K

19. HAN ATE

(A) K (B) P (C) D (D) L

20. SAL ILL

(A) T (B) K (C) P (D) N




{6}


Select the correct letter code for the shape or pattern given at the end of each line.

21.

UI RO RI NL UL ?

(A) UL (B) NI (C) NO (D) RO

22. DY CYAZ DZBY ?BY

(A) AZ (B) CZ (C) AY (D) BY

23.

ER GQEQ HRFP ?

(A) EP (B) GR (C) FR (D) HQ




{7}

24.XL YMXN ZOZL ?

(A) XM (B) YL (C) ZP (D) ZM

25.

EN FLFM HMGO ?

(A) GM (B) EO (C) GL (D) EL


Answer the following questions on the basis of the diagram given below.

A

B

C

E D

26. How many blocks does the block A touch ?

(A) 2 (B) 6 (C) 5 (D) 4




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27. How many blocks does the block B touch ?

(A) 2 (B) 4 (C) 5 (D) 6

28. How many blocks does the block C touch ?

(A) 2 (B) 6 (C) 7 (D) 3

29. How many blocks does the block D touch ?

(A) 3 (B) 5 (C) 4 (D) 6

30. How many blocks does the block E touch ?

(A) 6 (B) 5 (C) 3 (D) 4




{9}

31. If a rock is brought from the surface of the moon :

(A) Its mass will change (B) Its weight will change, but not mass.

(C) Both mass and weight will change (D) Its mass and weight will remain the same.

32. The hot air balloon rises because it is

(A) Denser (B) Less dense

(C) Equally dense (D) The given statement is wrong

33. 1 millibar is equal to

(A) 100 N m–2 (B) 10 N m–2 (C) 1 N m–2 (D) 5 N m–2

34. One hertz is equivalent to :

(A) One cycle per second (B) One second

(C) One metre per second (D) One second per metre

35. The speed of sound in air at 0°C is approximately :

(A) 332 ms–1 (B) 350 ms–1 (C) 530 ms–1 (D) 332 kms–1

36. Jewellers electroplate silver and gold on :

(A) Expensive metals (B) Less expensive metals

(C) All alkali metals (D) All of these





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37. Choose the colour which is different from the others.

(A) red (B) green (C) blue (D) yellow

38. The colour of light corresponds to its

(A) speed (B) frequency (C) wave length (D) none of these

39. Which of the following cannot be charged easily by friction?

(A) Plastic scale (B) Inflated balloon (C) Woollen cloth (D) All of these

40. Figure (A-D) shows a student reading a doctor’s thermometer. Which of the figure indicates the correctmethod of reading temperature?

(A) (B) (C) (D)

41. Which of the following cannot be used for measurement of time?

(A) A leaking tap (B) Simple pendulum

(C) Shadow of an object during the day (D) Blinking of eyes




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42. Two students were asked to plot a distance-time graph for the motion described by Table A and Table B.

Figure -1

The graph given in Figure-1 is true for

(A) both A and B (B) A only (C) B only (D) neither A nor B




{12}

43. A bus travels 54 km in 90 minutes. The speed of the bus is

(A) 0.6 m/s (B) 10 m/s (C) 5.4 m/s (D) 3.6 m/s

44. If we denote speed by S, distance by D and time by T, the relationship between these quantities is

(A) (B) (C) (D)

45. Observe figure The time period of a simple pendulum is the time taken by it to travel from

(A) A to B and back to A

(B) O to A, A to B and B to A

(C) B to A, A to B and B to O

(D) A to B

46. When an electric current flows through a copper wire AB as shown in Figure, the wire

(A) deflects a magnetic needle placed near it

(B) becomes red hot

(C) gives electric shock

(D) behaves like a fuse

47. Choose the statement which is not correct in the case of an electric fuse.

(A) Fuses are inserted in electric circuits of all buildings.

(B) There is a maximum limit on the current which can safely flow through the electric circuits.

(C) There is a minimum limit on the current which can safely flow in the electric circuits.

(D) If a proper fuse is inserted in a circuit it will blow off if current exceeds the safe limit.




{13}

48. Three bulbs A, B, C are connected in a circuit as shown in Figure. When the switch is ‘ON’

(A) bulb C will glow first.

(B) bulb B and C will glow simulaneously and bulb A will glow after some time.

(C) all the bulbs A,B and C will glow at the same time.

(D) the bulbs will glow in the order A, B and C.

49. Which of the following can be used to form a real image?

(A) Concave mirror only. (B) Plane mirror only.

(C) Convex mirror only. (D) Both concave and convex mirrors.

50. You are provided with a concave mirror, a convex mirror, a concave lens and a convex lens. To obtainan enlarged image of an object you can use either

(A) concave mirror or convex mirror. (B) concave mirror or convex lens.

(C) concave mirror or concave lens. (D) concave lens or convex lens.




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51. Photochromic glass contains :-

(A) Silver bromide (B) Silver iodide (C) Silver chloride (D) All of these

52. Terra cotta is :-

(A) Kaolin (B) Clay

(C) Unglazed primitive pottery (D) Porcelain

53. Porcelain is made from :-

(A) Clay (B) Kaolin (C) Quartz (D) White clay

54. Which of the following metals is liquid at room temperature?

(A) Sodium (B) Mercury (C) Zinc (D) Aluminium

55. Which of the following is a good conductor of heat?

(A) Bromine (B) Chlorine (C) Mercury (D) Iodine

56. Which of the following is used to cut glasses?

(A) Lead (B) Iron (C) Graphite (D) Diamond

57. Which of the following are allotropes of carbon?

(A) Coal and charcoal (B) Graphite and diamond

(C) Coke and coaltar (D) All the above

58. Formation of coal from plant matter is called -

(A) Destructive distillation (B) Carbonisation (C) Both (A) & (B) (D) None of these




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59. Coal and petroleum are-

(A) Inexhaustible resources (B) Fossil fuels

(C) Renewable resources (D) All of these

60. Heating of coal in the absence of air is called -

(A) Destructive distillation (B) Carbonisation (C) Both (A) & (B) (D) None of these

61. Producer gas is a mixture of -

(A) CO and H2

(B) CO and N2

(C) CO and CO2

(D) None of these

62. The rearing of silkworms for obtaining silk is called

(A) cocoon (B) silk (C) sericulture (D) silviculture

63. Which of the following is not a type of silk?

(A) Mulberry silk (B) Tassar silk (C) Mooga silk (D) Moth silk

64. Phenolphthalein is a synthetic indicator and its colours in acidic and basic solutions, respectively are

(A) red and blue (B) blue and red (C) pink and colourless (D) colourless and pink

65. When the soil is too basic, plants do not grow well in it. To improve its quality what must be added tothe soil?

(A) Organic matter (B) Quick lime (C) Slaked lime (D) Calamine solution

66. ‘Litmus’, a natural dye is an extract of which of the following?

(A) China rose (Gudhal) (B) Beetroot (C) Lichen (D) Blue berries (Jamun)




{16}

67. Which of the following is a physical change?

(A) Rusting of iron (B) Combustion of magnesium ribbon

(C) Burning of candle (D) Melting of wax

68. Which of the following is a chemical change?

(A) Twinkling of stars (B) Cooking of vegetables

(C) Cutting of fruits (D) Boiling of water

69. Which of the following are not the liquid forms of water?

(i) Snow (ii) Lake water (iii) River water (iv) Water vapour (v) Ice

Choose the correct combination from the options below.

(A) (i), (iv) and (v) (B) (i) and (ii) (C) (ii) and (iii) (D) (iv) only

70. Water cycle does not involve which of the following?

(A) Evaporation (B) Condensation

(C) Formation of clouds (D) Rainwater harvesting

71. Identify the term that is used to describe the science or practice of growing crops and covers all theactivities of animals and cultivation:(A) Animal husbandry (B) Horticulture (C) Agriculture (D) Nurseries.

72. Which of the following are the uses of machinery in agriculture?(A) Increase the quantity of crop yield(B) Get the job done faster(C) Reduce the dependency on human and animal labour(D) Both (B) and (C)




{17}

73. Which of the following processes involves transferring and combination of desirable characteristic featuresinto plants and multiply them?(A) Eugenics (B) Plant breeding (C) Genetic engineering (D)Crop improvement

74. Which of these parts has nitrogen fixing bacteria in legumes?(A) Leaves (B) Flowers (C) Root nodules (D) Stems

75. Which of the following factors are utlised to increase food production and to meet the demand of anincreasing population?(A) Practicing efficient land management and development(B) Continous research to ensure sustainable development(C) Using more pesticides to control pests(D) Both (A) and (B)

76. Which of the following are considered as modern technology in agriculture?(A) Genetic engineering is used to produce high quality traits in livestock and poultry(B) Application of synthetic chemicals to improve soil fertility(C) Using agromachinery for planting harvesting and collecting agriculture produce(D) All the above.

77. Which of the following components is/are present in the nervous system?(A) Brain (B) Spinal cord(D) Cranial and spinal nerves (D) All of these.

78. Which type of tissues support, defend and store food in animals?(A) Epithelial (B) Connective (C) Nervous (D) Muscular.

79. Which of the following gives the cell its shape, maintains its size, protects the internal structures inside andis selectively permeable?(A) Cell wall (B) Nuclear membrane (C) Cell membrane (D) Tonoplast.

80. Which of the following is called the energy currency of the cell?(A) MTP (B) FTP (C) ATP (D) All of these.

81. Which of the following is the non-living part of the plant cell?(A) Nucleus (B) Cytoplasm (C) Mitochondrion (D) Cell wall




{18}

82. Fungi reproduces by:(A) Fission (B) Fusion (C) Seed formation (D) Spore formation.

83. What process takes place when yeast is added to grape juice and left for a week?(A) Decomposition (B) Fermentation (C) Distillation (D) Oxidation

84. Which of the following is/are caused due to uncontrolled deforestation?(A) The destruction of habitats (B) Landslides(C) Floods (D) All of these.

85. Which of the following shows a modern technology measure that helps preserve and conserve theenvironment?(A) The practising crop rotation (B) The recycling of paper, plastics and metal cans(C) Using machines in agricultural industry (D) Converting industrial wastes into biogas

86. What prevents soil erosion?(A) Allowing herbivorous animals to graze excessively(B) Growing plants to form the soil cover(C) Increasing fertility(D) Making the land sloppy

87. Which of the following are living resources in nature?(A) Flora (B) Fauna (C) Soil (D) Both (A) and (B)

88. Which of the following is/are paired structure in human reproductive system?(A) Ovary (B) Testes (C) Fallopian tube (D) All of these.

89. Which of the followng sequences is in the correct order?(A) ZygoteEmbryoFoetusBaby (B) ZygoteEmbryoBabyFoetus(C) EmbryoZygoteBabyFoetus (D) FoetusZygoteEmbryoBaby

90. What is the function of the amniotic fluid?(A) It provides food to the foetus (B) It provides oxygen to the foetus(C) It protects the foetus from shock (D) It protects the foetus from diseases.




{19}

91. Factorise (3 – 4y – 7y2)2 – (4y + 1)2

(A) (4 – 7y2) (2 – 8y – 7y2) (B) (7y2 – 4) (2 – 8y – 7y2)

(C) (4 – 7y2) (7y2 + 8y – 2) (D) (7y2 – 4) (7y2 – 8y – 2)

92. Factorise x2 – 1 – 2a – a2

(A) (x – a – 1) (x + a – 1) (B) (x + a + 1) (x – a – 1)

(C) (x + a + 1) (x – a + 1) (D) (x – a + 1) (x + a – 1)

93. A flagstaff 17.5 m high costs a shaded length of 40.25m. The height of the building which costs a shadowof length 28.75 m under similar conditions will be :

(A) 10 m (B) 12.5 m (C) 17.5 m (D) 21.25 m

94. 36 men can complete a piece of work in 18 days. In how many days will 27 men complete the samework?

(A) 12 (B) 18 (C) 22 (D) 24

95. The base of a parallelogram is twice its height, if the area of parallelogram is 512 cm2 find the baseand height :

(A) 32 cm, 16 cm (B) 30 cm, 16 cm (C) 20 cm, 30 cm (D) None of these

96. The area of a trapezium is 176 cm the distance between parallel sides is 8 cm and one of the parallelsides 10 cm. Find the other :

(A) 21 cm (B) 25 cm (C) 30 cm (D) 34 cm





{20}

97. The radius of circle whose circum ference is 88 m.

(A) 14 m (B) 20 m (C) 25 m (D) 28 m

98. The value of

is :

(A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 3 (D) 4

99. The value of (3° – 4°) × 52 is :

(A) 25 (B) 0 (C) – 25 (D) 125

100.

(A) x (B) x1/2 (C) x1/3 (D) x1/6

101. If = 3a × then a equals :

(A) 2 (B) 3 (C) 4 (D) 5

102. The value of is :

(A) 91 (B) 19 (C) – 91 (D) – 19

103. If (12 + 22 + 32 + .... + 102) = 385, then the value of (22 + 42 + 62 + .... + 202) is :

(A) 770 (B) 1155 (C) 1540 (D) (385 × 385)




{21}

104. A ribbon of length m is cut into small pieces each of length m. Number of pieces will be:

(A) 5 (B) 6 (C) 7 (D) 8

105. The number of trees in different parks of a city are 33, 38, 48, 33, 34, 34, 33 and 24. The mode of thisdata is

(A) 24 (B) 34 (C) 33 (D) 48

106. The median of the data : 3, 4, 5, 6, 7, 3, 4 is

(A) 5 (B) 3 (C) 4 (D) 6

107. The solution of the equation ax + b = 0 is

(A) (B) – b (C) (D)

108. In Figure, ROS is a right angle and POR and QOS are in the ratio 1 : 5. Then, QOSmeasures

(A) 150°

(B) 75°

(C) 45°

(D) 60°




{22}

109. If PQR is congruent to STU in figure, then what is the length of TU?

(A) 5 cm

(B) 6 cm

(C) 7 cm

(D) cannot be determined

110. In figure, if PR = 12 cm, QR = 6 cm and PL = 8 cm, then QM is

(A) 6 cm

(B) 9 cm

(C) 4 cm

(D) 2 cm

111. 0.123 can be expressed in rational from as:

(A)900111 (B)

111900 (C)

12310 (D)

121900

112.1/416

4

25681

xy

(A) 4

34yx (B) 4

26yx (C) 4

38yx (D) 4

45yx

113. Which of the following sets of fraction is in ascending order ?

(A)7 9 11, ,9 11 13 (B)

11 9 7, ,13 11 9 (C)

11 7 9, ,13 9 11 (D)

9 7 11, ,11 9 13




{23}

114. If ,cabma b

then b equals:

(A)mca b

ca

(B)cab ma

m

(C)1

1 c (D)ma

m ca

115. The value of

2

6 327 64

equals

(A)3

2(B)

32 (C)

34

(D)34

116. If 21 9,a

a

then 33

1aa

equals:

(A)10 3

3(B) 3 3 (C) 18 (D) 7 7

117. If 2 3,x then the value of 22

1xx

and 22

1xx

is:

(A) 14,8 3 (B) 14, 8 3 (C) 14, 8 3 (D) 14,8 3

118. 2.6 0.82 is equal to:

(A)18299 (B)

18199 (C)

99182 (D) None




{24}

119. One of the diagonals of a rhombus is equals to a side of the rhombus . The pair of unequal angles of therhombus are:

(A) 60 ,80 (B) 60 ,120 (C) 120 ,240 (D) 100 ,120

120. In quadrilateral ABCD, BM and DN are drawn perpendicular to AC such that BM = DN. If BR = 8cm , then BD is:

A B

CD

M

R

N

(A) 4 cm (B) 2 cm (C) 12 cm (D) 16 cm


01. C

02. B

03. D

04. A

05. B

06. A

07. C

08. A

09. D

10. B

11. A

12. C

13. D

14. B

15. B

16. C

17. A

18. B

19. C

20. A

21. C

22. A

23. C

24. C

25. B

26. D

27. C

28. C

29. A

30. D

31. B

32. B

33. A

34. A

35. A

36. B

37. D

38. C

39. B

40. A

41. D

42. A

43. B

44. C

45. A

46. A

47. C

48. C

49. A

50. B

51. B

52. C

53. D

54. B

55. C

56. D

57. B

58. B

59. B

60. A

61. B

62. C

63. D

64. D

65. A

66. C

67. D

68. B

69. A

70. D

71. C

72. D

73. C

74. C

75. D

76. D

77. D

78. B

79. C

80. C

81. D

82. D

83. B

84. D

85. B

86. B

87. D

88. D

89. A

90. C


91. A

92. B

93. B

94. D

95. A

96. D

97. A

98. C

99. B

100. D

101. D

102. A

103. C

104. C

105. C

106. C

107. C

108. B

109. B

110. C

111. B

112. A

113. A

114. D

115. D

116. C

117. C

118. A

119. B

120. D

PART - I

ANSWER KEY

Course IIClass VIII going to Class IX Students



www.brothersacademy.co.in Admission Test (Course III) _ IX going X Students


{1}

SAMPLE COPY

Course IIIClass IX going to Class X Students










Name : ________________________________________________ Reg. No. : _____________

Code

AADMISSION TEST



{2}

01. If the first half of the alphabet is written backwards , which letter is in the 13th position ?

(A) B (B) C (C) A (D) L

02. Which letter occurs twice in INDIA and twice in BRITAIN ?

(A) T (B) D (C) I (D) N

03. Identify the one that does not belong to the group.

(A) QR (B) NM (C) JI (D) PQ

04. Identify the one which is different from the others.

(A) XZ (B) VW (C) ST (D) PQ

05. If second saturday and all sundays are holidays in a 30 day month beginning on saturday , then how manyworking days are there in that month ?

(A) 20 (B) 21 (C) 23 (D) 24

06. If 1st october is sunday, then 1st November will be

(A) Monday (B) Tuesday (C) Wednesday (D) Thursday

07. Saturday was a holiday for Republic Day. 14th of the next month is again a holiday for Shivratri. What daywas it on the 14th ?

(A) Monday (B) Tuesday (C) Thursday (D) Friday





{3}


(A) 12 (B) 15 (C) 20 (D) 8


(A) (B) (C) (D)


(A) (B) (C) (D)

11. Which figure is the odd one out ?

(A) (B) (C) (D)




{4}

12. Which letter is the odd one out ?

(A) (B) (C) (D)

13. Find the figure which replaces the question mark

(A) (B) (C) (D)

14. Find the figure which replaces the question mark

?

(A) (B) (C) (D)




{5}


?

(A) (B) (C) (D)


?

(A) (B) (C) (D)




{6}

17. Observe the combined shapes and identify the missing figure in the square

+ = + =

?

+ =

(A) (B) (C) (D)


(A) (B) (C) (D)




{7}

19. Identify tha shape when when the second figure is subtracted from the first as shown in the figure below.

(A) (B) (C) (D)


(A) (B) (C) (D)


IF MEGHA is coded as NFHIB and PEARL is coded as QFBSM , then

21. Identify the code for VIHANG

(A) WJIBOI (B) WJIOBH (C) WIJBHO (D) WJIBOH

22. Identify the code for BHOOMI.

(A) CIPQNJ (B) CINPPJ (C) CIPPNJ (D) ICPPNJ




{8}

23. Identify the code for PRABHA

(A) QSBCIB (B) QSBCBI (C) QQBCIB (D) QSBCCI

24. Identify the code for AKHILESH

(A) BLIJMFTT (B) BLIJFMTI (C) BILJMFTI (D) BLIJMFTI

25. Identify the code for family

(A) GBNJMW (B) GBNJMZ (C) GBNMJVV (D) GBNWMJ


Answer the following questions on the basis of the diagram given below

A

B

C

DE

26. How many blocks does the block A touch ?

(A) 7 (B) 5 (C) 3 (D) 2

27. How many blocks does the block B touch ?

(A) 2 (B) 3 (C) 4 (D) 5




{9}

28. How many blocks does the block C touch ?

(A) 2 (B) 1 (C) 3 (D) 5

29. How many blocks does the block D touch ?

(A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 3 (D) 6

30. How many blocks does the block E touch ?

(A) 2 (B) 7 (C) 3 (D) 5




{10}

31. When an object undergoes acceleration :

(A) Its speed always increases (B) Its velocity always increases

(C) It always falls towards the earth (D) A force always acts on it

32. A force of 50 N is applied on a nail of area 1 sq. m. Then the pressure is

(A) 50 N/m2 (B) 100 N/m2 (C) 0.05 N/m2 (D) 10 N/m2

33. The SI unit of thrust is

(A) N (B) dyne (C) kg wt (D) N m–2

34. The net force acting on a body of mass 1 kg moving with a uniform velocity of 5 ms–1 is :(A) 5 N (B) 0.2 N (C) 0 N (D) None of these

35. How many dynes are equal to 1 N?(A) 106 (B) 104 (C) 105 (D) 103

36. Under normal conditions, the colour of the sky at noon is

(A) blue (B) red (C) yellow (D) none of these

37. Pascal is the unit for

(A) pressure (B) thrust (C) buoyant force (D) none of these

38. External forces are :

(A) Always balanced (B) Never balanced

(C) May or may not be balanced (D) None of these





{11}

39. In which medium sound travels faster?

(A) Solid (B) Liquid (C) Gas (D) None of these

40. A red rose appears red in

(A) white light (B) green light (C) yellow light (D) none of these

41. Human beings cannot see

(A) red light (B) yellow light (C) green light (D) ultraviolet light

42. The unit of quantity on which pitch of the second depends is :

(A) hertz (B) metre (C) metre/second (D) second

43. If the velocity of a body does not change, its acceleration is

(A) zero (B) infinite (C) unity (D) none of these

44. If the radius of the earth were to be increased by a factor of 3, by what factor would its density have to bechanged to keep 'g' the same ?

(A) 3 (B) 1/3 (C) 6 (D) 1/6

45. When the speed of a particle is doubled, its kinetic energy

(A) remains the same (B) gets doubled (C) becomes half (D) becomes four times

46. When the speed of a particle is doubled, the ratio of its kinetic energy to its momentum

(A) remains the same (B) gets doubled (C) becomes half (D) becomes four times




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47. The crack of thunder is heard after few seconds the lightning flash, because:

(A) Crack of thunder and lightning are not produced at same time

(B) Light travels extremely fast as compared to sound

(C) Sound waves slow down on passing through air

(D) None of the above

48. Lightning is a heavy flow of charges between two oppositively charged :

(A) Clouds (B) Particles (C) Atoms (D) Graphite

49. When a body is charged by induction, the end farther away from the charged body acquires the :

(A) Positive charge (B) Negative charge (C) Same charge (D) All of these

50. Which of the following is a very good conductor of electricity?

(A) Wood (B) Rubber (C) Graphite (D) None of these




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51. Which of the following has the strongest interparticle force at the room temperature?

(A) Nitrogen (B) Mercury (C) Iron (D) Chalk

52. Ice cream is an example of :

(A) True solution (B) Emulsion (C) Colloid (D) Suspension

53. What is volume of gases?

(A) Definite (B) Almost Nil

(C) Large (D) Take the volume of container

54. The overall charge on an ionic compound is equal to -

(A) Charge of the cation present (B) Zero

(C) Charge of the anion present (D) Sum of charges of the cation & anion

55. Greenhouse effect is causes due to excessive release of :

(A) Methane (B) Carbon dioxide (C) Both (A) & (B) (D) None of these

56. Acid rain damages :

(A) Old monuments (B) Old statues (C) Both (A) & (B) (D) None of these

57. The chemical formula of the copper nitrate -

(A) Cu(NO3)

2(B) CuNO

3(C) Cu

2(NO

3)

3(D) Cu

2NO

3




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58. The change of state from solid to liquid known as –

(A) Fusion (B) Boiling (C) Melting (D) None of these

59. Dry ice is –

(A) Water in solid state (B) Water in gaseous state

(C) CO2 in liquid state (D) CO2 in solid state

60. Number of valence electron in Ar are–

(A) 8 (B) 18 (C) 19 (D) 20

61. The major causes of air pollution include :

(A) Burning of coal and petroleum (B) Afforestation

(C) use of catalytic converters in automobiles (D) Recycling of paper

62. Rutherford's alpha-particle Scattering experiment was responsible for the discovery of–

(A) Proton (B) Electron (C) Neutron (D) Atomic nucleus

63. Isotopes of an elements have –

(A) different chemical properties (B) different atomic

(C) The same physical properties (D) Different number of neutrons

64. Which is a zone of no combustion?

(A) Blue zone (B) Dark zone (C) Luminous zone (D) All of the above




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65. Which is not used as a fire extinguisher?

(A) Water (B) Carbon dioxide (C) Oxygen (D) All of the above

66. Glass is :

(A) Non-combustible (B) Combustible (C) None of these (D) All of the above

67. Which of the following is used in endoscopy?

(A) Optical fibres (B) Glass fibres (C) Glass wool (D) None of these

68. Purple-blue coloured glass is obtained by the addition of :-

(A) Chromium salts (B) Ferrous oxide (C) Cobalt salts (D) None of these

69. Which of the following non-metals occurs as a solid?

(A) Sulphur (B) Carbon (C) Iodine (D) All of the above

70. Which of the following non-metal occurs as a gas?

(A) Nitrogen (B) Chlorine (C) Both (A) & (B) (D) None of the above

71. The prokaryotic component(s) within a eukaryotic cell is/are

(A) Nucleus (B) Mitochondria (C) Chloroplast (D) Both (B) & (C)

72. Oxysomes are present on the

(A) Cell membrane (B) Outer membrane of mitochondria

(C) Inner membrane of mitochondria (D) Cell wall

73. Power House of Cell is

(A) Mitochondria (B) Nucleus (C) ER (D) Golgi body




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74. Which are the two types of tissues?

(A) Meristematic and permanent (B) Meristematic and temporary

(C) Meristems and temporary (D) None of the above

75. Parenchyma is a type of ____________.

(A) Complex tissue (B) Simple tissue (C) Xylem (D) Phloem

76. Class is a category between

(A) Phylum and Order (B) Kingdom and Phylum

(C) Order and Family (D) Family and Genus

77. One of the following kingdoms includes many kinds of unicellular eukaryotic organisms

(A) Monera (B) Protista (C) Fungi (D) Animalia

78. Vitamin B12 causes

(A) Pernicious anaemia (B) Night blindness (C) Scaly and Itchy skin (D) Beriberi

79. The hardest constituent of the tooth is

(A) Enamel (B) Dentine (C) Bone (D) Pulp

80. Production of urea takes place in

(A) Liver (B) Pancreas (C) Stomach (D) Small intestine

81. Hydrogen is obtained by plants from

(A) Air (B) Soil (C) Water (D) All of these




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82. Farm labour animals are called

(A) Milch animals (B) Draught animals (C) Indigenous breeds (D) Exotic breeds

83. Rice is a

(A) Kharif crop (B) Rabi crop (C) Winter crop (D) Oil seed crop

84. Health deals with

(A) Physical fitness (B) Mental fitness (C) Social fitness (D) All of these

85. Washing hands is related to

(A) Personal hygiene (B) Public hygiene (C) Economic status (D) Social status

86. Which of the following is an acute disease ?

(A) Tuberculosis (B) Hypertension (C) Typhoid (D) Diabetes

87. One of the following factor is harmful for the soil.

(A) Sun (B) Water (C) Wind (D) Polythene bag

88. Biotic component of biosphere is not constituted by

(A) Producer (B) Consumer (C) Decomposer (D) Air

89. The membranous cover which closely surrounds the lungs is

(A) Hyaline cartilage (B) Parietal pleura (C) Pericardium (D) Visceral pleura

90. Glottis is located between

(A) Nasal chamber and pharynx (B) Pharynx and larynx

(C) Larynx and trachea (D) Buccal cavity and pharynx



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91. How many prime number are there between 0 and 30 :-

(A) 9 (B) 10 (C) 8 (D) 11

92. Two irrational numbers between 2 and 2.5 are :-

(A) & (B) & (C) & (D) None of these

93. The exponential form of is :-

(A) 61/2 (B) 61/3 (C) 61/4 (D) 6

94. The coefficient of x3 in the polynomial 5 + 2x + 3x2 – 7x3 is

(A) 5 (B) 2 (C) 7 (D) –7

95. The value of P(x) = x2 – 7x + 12 at x = 3 is :-

(A) 42 (B) 0 (C) 8 (D) –6





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96. If the polynomial 2x3 – 3x2 + 2x – 4 is divided by x – 2, then the remainder is :-

(A) –4 (B) 4 (C) –40 (D) 2

97. The value of k for which x – 1 is a factor of the polynomial 4x3 + 3x2 – 4x + k is :-

(A) 3 (B) 0 (C) 1 (D) –3

98. The expanded form of (x + y + 2z)2 is :-

(A) x2 + y2 + 4z2 + 2xy + 2yz + 2zx (B) x2 + y2 + 4z2 + xy + 2yz + 2zx

(C) x2 + y2 + 4z2 + 2xy + 4yz + 4zx (D) x2 + y2 + 4z2 + 2xy + 2yz + 4zx

99. If x is a positive integer such that the distance between points P(x, 2) and Q(3, –6) is 10 units, then x =

(A) 3 (B) –3 (C) 9 (D) –9

100. The perimeter of a triangle field is 144 m and ratio of the sides is 3 : 4 : 5. Then the area of the field is

(A) 864 sq m (B) 764 sq m (C) 854 sq m (D) 754 sq m




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101. One side of an equilateral triangle is 8 cm. Its area is :-

(A) 16 cm2 (B) 12 cm2 (C) 8 cm2 (D) 4 cm2

102. The area of a triangle whose sides are 13 cm, 14 cm and 15 cm :-

(A) 84 sq cm (B) 64sq cm (C) 825sq cm (D) None

103. In the given figure, AM BC and AN is the bisector of A. Then MAN is :

(A) 32

(B) 16

(C) 16°

(D) 32°

104. In ABC, B = 90°. If AB = 14 cm and AC = 50 cm then tan A equals :

(A) (B) (C) (D)




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105. In figure, O is the centre of circle of radius 5 cm. OP AB, OQ CD, AB||CD, AB = 6 cm and

CD = 8 cm. Then, PQ is :

(A) 7 cm

(B) 8 cm

(C) 9 cm

(D) 7.5 cm

106. Chords of a circle which are equidistant from the centre are :

(A) Parallel to each other (B) Perpendicular to each other

(C) Equal to each other (D) None of these

107. If A : B : C = 2 : 3 : 4, then is equal to :

(A) 4 : 9 : 16 (B) 8 : 9 : 12 (C) 8 : 9 : 16 (D) 8 : 9 : 24

108. If A : B = B : C = and C : D = then the ratio A : B : C : D is :

(A) 4 : 6 : 8 : 10 (B) 6 : 4 : 8 : 10 (C) 6 : 8 : 9 : 10 (D) 8 : 6 : 10 : 9




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109. If then the value of x is :

(A) 1.5 (B) 2 (C) 2.5 (D) 3.5

110. The curved surface area of a right circular cone of height 15 cm and base diameter 16 cm is :

(A) 60 cm2 (B) 68 cm2 (C) 120 cm2 (D) 136 cm2

111. If both 121 and 27 are the factors of the number 28 × 32 × 1311 × n, then the smallest such n is

(A) 66 (B) 363 (C) 242 (D) 81

112. x3 –3 = 0 has:

(A) One rational root (B) One integral root (C) One irrational root (D) None of these.

113. 2x 4x 0 has a root and x2 + 4x = 0 has a root ( ) , then can be:

(A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 3 (D) 4

114. Three points of a triangle ABC are A (4, 1), B (5, –1) and C (7, 2), the triangle lies in

(A) 1st and 2nd quadrant (B) 2nd and 3rd quadrant

(C) 1st and 4th quadrant (D) 2nd quadrant




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115. In the adjoining figure, find BP : PD ( BCD 90 )

(A) 1

(B) 1/2

(C) 3/2

(D) 4/2

116. Highest common factor of 21m + 4 and 14m + 3 (where m N ) can be:

(A) 2 (B) 5 (C) 9 (D) None of these.

117. Certain divisor gives remainder 8, 9 and 4 when numbers 242, 698 and 940 respectively are divided by it.The value of divisor is

(A) 13 (B) 12 (C) 11 (D) 14

118. In the given figure, ABCD is a parallelogram and F is mid-point of AD. What is EFFG ?

(A) 2 (B) 3 (C) 4 (D) 5/2




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119. If N 9 4 5 9 4 5 then N is equal to

(A) 4 (B) 3 (C) 2 5 (D) 9/2

120. (2x + 3y) is divisible by 17, then for what value of k; (6x + ky) is divisible by 17

(A) 4 (B) 5 (C) 7 (D) 9




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01. C

02. C

03. D

04. A

05. D

06. C

07. C

08. A

09. C

10. C

11. A

12. C

13. B

14. C

15. A

16. B

17. C

18. A

19. B

20. D

21. D

22. C

23. A

24. D

25. B

26. D

27. A

28. A

29. C

30. A

31. D

32. A

33. A

34. C

35. C

36. A

37. A

38. C

39. A

40. A

41. D

42. A

43. A

44. B

45. D

46. B

47. B

48. A

49. C

50. C

51. C

52. B

53. D

54. B

55. C

56. C

57. A

58. C

59. D

60. A

61. A

62. D

63. D

64. B

65. C

66. A

67. A

68. C

69. D

70. C

71. D

72. C

73. A

74. A

75. B

76. A

77. B

78. A

79. A

80. A

81. C

82. B

83. A

84. D

85. A

86. C

87. D

88. D

89. D

90. B


91. B

92. A

93. C

94. D

95. B

96. B

97. D

98. C

99. C

100. A

101. A

102. A

103. C

104. B

105. A

106. C

107. D

108. D

109. C

110. D

111. B

112. A

113. D

114. C

115. A

116. D

117. A

118. B

119. A

120. D

PART - I

ANSWER KEY

Course IIIClass IX going to Class X Students

www.brothersacademy.co.in Admission Test (Course IV) _ X going XI Students


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Course IVClass X going to Class XI Students

Name : ________________________________________________ Reg. No. : _____________

Code

AADMISSION TEST


The paper is divided into TWO PARTS. PART - I contains 30 question of Basic Aptitude.PART - II contains 90 question of Section - I (Physics - 30), Section - II (Chemistry - 30) &Section - III (Mathematics - 30).










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01. Find the wrong term in the series

3, 8, 15, 24, 34, 48, 63.

(A) 15 (B) 12 (C) 34 (D) 63

02. Complete the given series 4, 9, 13, 22, 35..............

(A) 57 (B) 70 (C) 63 (D) 75

03. Complete the given series 61, 67, 71, 73, 79, .............

(A) 81 (B) 82 (C) 83 (D) 85

04. Complete the given series 8, 24, 12, 36, 18, 54,.............

(A) 27 (B) 29 (C) 31 (D) 32

05. AZ, GT, MN, ........, YB

(A) KF (B) RX (C) SH (D) TS

06. Choose the missing term from the given options.

KM5, IP8, GS11, EV14, ...........

(A) BX17 (B) BY17 (C) CY18 (D) CY17

07. – b – – b – – – – a b – – – – –

1 – – 2 – 1 – – – – 2 – – – – –

The last four terms in the series are

(A) 1 2 2 2 (B) 2 2 2 1 (C) 2 2 1 2 (D) 2 2 2 2





{3}

08. a c b – – d e b c a – c – e d d – – –

– 2 – 3 5 – – – – 4 – – 1 – – – – – –

The last five terms in the number series are

(A) 53214 (B) 35124 (C) 35531 (D) 53124

DIRECTIONS (Qs. 09-12) : Find which one word cannot be made from the letters of the given word.

09. UNCONSCIOUS

(A) SON (B) COIN (C) SUN (D) NOSE

10. CREDENTIAL

(A) DENTAL (B) CREATE (C) TRAIN (D) CREAM

11. CONTEMPORARY

(A) PARROT (B) COMPANY (C) CARPENTER (D) PRAYER

12. CHOCOLATE

(A) TELL (B) HEALTH (C) LATE (D) COOLER

13. Shoot is to Gun as Eat is to ........

(A) Hunger (B) Thirst (C) Dinner (D) Fruit

14. INTROVERT : EXTROVERT

(A) ANGLE : TANGENT (B) EXTREME : INTERIM

(C) AGAINST : FAVOUR (D) ACTION : LAW

15. Clever is to Beautiful as Sour is to ...........

(A) Lemon (B) Cunning (C) Loathing (D) Taste




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16. MAN : MAMMAL

(A) HALL : SNOW (B) NATIVE : INHABITANT

(C) OFFSPRING : FAMILY (D) LIBERTY : URBANISM

DIRECTIONS (Qs. 17-18) : Abra is Rambo's daughter. Shintu is Rambo's sister. Shintu's daughter is called Cabra

and son is called Dadra. Limba is Cabra's maternal Aunt.

17. Abra is limba's

(A) Aunt (B) Nephew (C) Uncle (D) None of these

18. Cabra is Rambo's

(A) Nephew (B) Niece (C) uncle (D) Cannot say

19. Deepa moved a distance of 75 metres towards the north. She then turned to the left and then turned to the right

at an angle of 45o. In which direction was she moving finally ?

(A) North-east (B) North-west (C) South (D) South-east

20. Johnson left for his office in his car. He drove 15 km towards north and then 10 km towards west. He then turned

to the south and covered 5 km. Further, he turned to the east and moved 8 km. Finally, he turned right and drove

10 km. How far and in which direction is he from his starting point ?

(A) 2 km West (B) 5 km East (C) 3 km North (D) 6 Km South

21. You go North, turn right, then right again and then go to the left. In which direction are you now ?

(A) North (B) South (C) East (D) West

22. A man leaves for his office from his house. He walks towards East. After moving a distance of 20 m, he turns

south and walks 10 m. Then he walks 35 m towards the west and further 5 m towards the north. He then turns

towards east and walks 15 m. What is the straight distance (in metres) between his initial and final position ?

(A) 0 (B) 5 (C) 10 (D) Can't be determined




{5}

23. A result of a survey of 1000 persons with respect to their knowledge of Hindi (H), English (E) and Sanskrit (S)

is given below :

What is the ratio of those who know all the three languages to those who do not know Sanskrit ?

(A)1

9(B)

1

10(C)

10

17(D)

5

27

24. A clock gains 5 minutes. in 24 hours. It was set right at 10 am on Monday. What will be the true time when the

clock indicates 10:30 am on the next Sunday ?

(A) 10 a.m. (B) 11 a.m. (C) 25 mins past 10 a.m. (D) 5 mins. to 11 a.m.

25. At what time between 3 and 4 O'clock are the hands of a clock together -

(A)4

16 min. past 311

(B)6

16 min. past 311

(C)5

16 min. past 311

(D)3

16 min. past 311

26.

(A) 96 (B) 120 (C) 144 (D) 100




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27.

(A) 16, 8 (B) 49, 7 (C) 36, 4 (D) 25, 5

28.

(A) 11 E (B) 28 G (C) 35 I (D) 48 F

29.

(A) 82 (B) 100 (C) 68 (D) 64

30.

(A) 47 (B) 45 (C) 37 (D) 35




{7}

31. The angle of incidence is the angle between

(A) the incident ray and the surface of the mirror (B) the reflected ray and the surface of the mirror

(C) the normal to the surface and the incident ray (D) the normal to the surface and the reflected ray

32. An object is placed at the centre of curvature of a concave mirror. The distance between its image and the pole

is :

(A) equal to f (B) between f and 2 f (C) equal to 2 f (D) greater than 2 f

33. If an incident ray passes through the centre of curvature of a spherical mirror, the reflected ray will

(A) pass through the pole (B) pass through the focus

(C) retrace its path (D) be parallel to the principal axis

34. A ray of light goes from a medium of refractive index n1 to a medium of refractive index n

2. The angle of

incidence is i and the angle of refraction is r. Then, sin i / sin r is equal to

(A) n1

(B) n2

(C) n1/n

2(D) n

2/n

1

35. A thin lens and a spherical mirror have a focal length of +15 cm each.

(A) Both are convex. (B) The lens is convex and the mirror is concave

(C) The lens is concave and the mirror is convex (D) Both are concave.

36. A convex lens forms a virtual image when an object is placed at a distance of 18 cm from it. The focal length

must be

(A) greater than 36 cm (B) greater than 18 cm (C) less than 9 cm (D) less than 18 cm

37. A lens has a power of +0.5 D. It is :

(A) a concave lens of focal length 5 m (B) a convex lens of focal length 5 cm

(C) a convex lens of focal length 2 m (D) a concave lens of focal length 2 m

Section - I (Physics)

PART – II




{8}

38. When the eye is focused on an object very far away, the focal length of the eye-lens is :

(A) maximum (B) minimum (C) equal to that of the crystalline lens

(D) half its maximum focal length

39. The potential at a point is 20 V. The work done in bringing a charge of 0.5 C from infinity to this point will be :

(A) 20 J (B) 10 J (C) 5 J (D) 40 J

40. Joule / coulomb is the same as

(A) watt (B) volt (C) ampere (D) ohm

41. An ammeter is always connected in ....... and a voltmeter in ...... . The suitable words, in order, for the blanks

are

(A) series; series (B) parallel; parallel (C) parallel; series (D) series; parallel

42. An electric current passes through a straight wire. Magnetic compasses are placed at the points A and B.

(A) Their needles will not deflect.

(B) Only one of the needles will deflect. AB

i

(C) Both the needles will deflect in the same direction.

(D) The needles will deflect in the opposite directions.

43. Which of the following involves electromagnetic induction ?

(A) A rod is charged with electricity (B) An electric current produces a magnetic field.

(C) A magnetic field exerts a force on a current-carrying wire.

(D) The relative motion between a magnet and a coil produces an electric current.

44. Which of the following describes the common domestic power supplied in India ?

(A) 220 V, 100 Hz (B) 110 V, 100 Hz (C) 220 V, 50 Hz (D) 110 V, 50 Hz

45. An electric fuse can prevent accidents arising from

(A) an overload but not due to a short circuit (B) a short circuit but not due to an overload

(C) an overload as well as a short circuit (D) neither an overload nor a short circuit




{9}

46. A 10 mm long pin is placed vertically in front of a concave mirror. A 5 mm long image of the pin is formed at 30

cm in front of the mirror. The focal length of this mirror is

(A) –30 cm (B) –20 cm (C) –40 cm (D) –60 cm

47. The resistance whose V – I graph is given below

(A) 5

3(B)

3

5

V (

vo

lt)

05 10 15 20

I (ampere)(C)

5

2(D)

2

5

48. A cooler of 1500 W, 200 volt and a fan of 500 W, 200 volt are to be used from a supply. The rating of fuse to be

used is

(A) 2.5 A (B) 5.0 A (C) 11 A (D) 20 A

49. One moving a charge of 20 coulomb by 2 cm, 2J of work is done, then the potential difference between

the points is

(A) 0.1 V (B) 8 V (C) 2V (D) 0.5 V.

50. If an ammeter is to be used in place of a voltmeter, then we must connect with the ammeter a

(A) Low resistance in parallel (B) High resistance in parallel

(C) High resistance in series (D) Low resistance in series

51. A wire when connected to 220 V mains supply has power dissipation P1. Now the wire is cut into two

equal pieces which are connected in parallel to the same supply. Power dissipation in this case is P2.

The P2 : P

1 is :

(A) 1 (B) 4 (C) 2 (D) 3

52. If in the circuit, power dissipation is 150 W, then R is :

(A) 2 (B) 6

(C) 5 (D) 4




{10}

53. A 3 volt battery with negligible internal resistance is connected in a circuit as shown in the figure. The

current I, from the battery :

(A) 1 A

(B) 1.5 A

(C) 2 A

(D) 1/3 A

54. The total current supplied to the circuit by the battery is :

(A) 4 A

(B) 2 A

(C) 1 A

(D) 6 A

55. An electric current is passed through a circuit containing two wires of the same material, connected in

parallel. If the lengths and radii are in the ratio of 43 and

23 , then the ratio of the current passing through

the wires will be :

(A) 8/9 (B) 1/3 (C) 3 (D) 2

56. The current I drawn from the 5 volt source will be :

(A) 0.33 A

(B) 0.5 A

(C) 0.67 A

(D) 0.17 A

57. In a Wheatstone's bridge, three resistances P, Q and R connected in the three arms and the fourth arm

is formed by two resistances S1 and S

2 connected in parallel. The condition for the bridge to be balanced

will be :

(A)1 2

P 2RQ S S

(B) 1 2

1 2

R(S S )PQ S S

(C)

1 2

1 2

R(S S )PQ 2S S

(D)

1 2

P RQ S S




{11}

58. An electric bulb is rated 220 volt – 100 watt. The power consumed by it when operated on 110 volt will be

:

(A) 75 watt (B) 40 watt (C) 25 watt (D) 50 watt

59. Coumn -I Column - II

(Position of the object) (Nature and size of image formed by a concave mirror)

(A) At infinity (p) At C

(B) Beyond C (q) At infinity

(C) At C (r) At the focus F

(D) Between C and F (s) Behind the mirror

(E) At F (t) Between F and C

(F) Between P and F (u) Beyond C

(A) (A)-(t); (B)-(r); (C)-(p); (D)-(u); (E)-(q); (F)-(s) (B) (A)-(r); (B)-(t); (C)-(p); (D)-(u); (E)-(q); (F)-(s)

(C) (A)-(r); (B)-(t); (C)-(p); (D)-(u); (E)-(s); (F)-(q) (D) (A)-(r); (B)-(t); (C)-(u); (D)-(p); (E)-(q); (F)-(s)


(A) Speed (p) No unit

(B) Focal length (q) Dioptre

(C) Power of a lens (r) ms–1

(D) Refractive index (s) cm.

(A) (A)-(q); (B)-(p); (C)-(r); (D)-(s) (B) (A)-(s); (B)-(q); (C)-(p); (D)-(r)

(C) (A)-(r); (B)-(q); (C)-(p); (D)-(s) (D) (A)-(r); (B)-(s); (C)-(q); (D)-(p)




{12}

61. What happens when copper rod is dipped in iron sulphate solution :

(A) copper displaces iron (B) blue colour of copper sulphate solution is obtained

(C) no reaction takes place (D) reaction is exothermic

62.2 4 4 2Zn H SO (dil) ZnSO H , reaction is :

(A) decomposition reaction (B) single displacement reaction

(C) combination reaction (D) synthesis reaction

63. The reaction in which two compounds exchange their ions to form two new compounds is :

(A) a displacement reaction (B) a decomposition reaction

(C) an isomerization reaction (D) a double displacement reaction

64. In the equation, 3 3 2NaOH HNO NaNO H O nitric acid is acting as :

(A) an oxidising agent (B) an acid (C) a nitrating agent (D) a dehydrating agent

65. Hydrogen sulphide 2(H S) is a strong reducing agent. Which of the following reaction shows its reducing action

(A)3 2 2 3Cd(NO ) H S CdS 2HNO (B)

4 2 2 4CuSO H S CuS H SO

(C)3 2 22FeCI H S 2FeCI 2HCI S (D)

3 2 2 3Pb(NO ) H S PbS 2CH COOH

66. The acid used in making of vinegar is :

(A) formic acid (B) acetic acid (C) sulphuric acid (D) nitric acid

67. A solution reacts with crushed egg-shells to give a gas that turns lime-water milky. The solution contains

(A) NaCI (B) HCI (C) LiCI (D) KCI

Section - II (Chemistry)




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68. In a 0.250 M solution of 3 4Na PO , the concentration of the sodium ions would be :

(A) 0.250 M (B) 0.750 M (C) 0.0833 M (D) 1.00 M

69. Which among the following is the weakest base :

(A) NaOH (B) 2Ca(OH) (C) 4NH OH (D) KOH

70. Which of the following is not an atomic characteristic of metal :

(A) Malleable nature (B) Electropositive nature (C) Ductile nature (D) None of these

71. Heating of concentrated ore in absence of air for conversion into oxide ore is known as :

(A) roasting (B) calcination (C) reduction (D) none of these

72. Which reducing agent is used in chemical reduction :

(A) C (B) CO (C) Al (D) All of these

73. Sodium is obtained by the electrolysis of :

(A) an aqueous solution of sodium chloride (B) an aqueous solution of sodium hydroxide

(C) fused sodium chloride (D) fused sodium sulphate

74. Alkynes are characterized by :

(A) C C bonds (B) C C bonds (C) C C bonds (D) Cyclic structure

75.3 2 2 3CH CH CH CH CH CH

3CH CHO

has the IUPAC name

(A) 2–sec Butylbutanal (B) 2, 3–Diethylbutanal

(C) 2–Ethyl–3–methylpentanal (D) 3–Methyl–2–ethylpentanal




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76. The functional group present in 3 2 5CH COOC H is :

(A) Ketone (B) Aldehyde (C) Ester (D) Carboxylic acid

77. The functional group present in an organic acid is :

(A) – OH (B) –CHO (C) –COOH (D) >C = O

78. Which of the following reactions involves the combination of two elements :

(A) 2 3CaO CO CaCO (B) 2 24Na O 2Na O (C) 2 2 3

1SO O SO

2 (D) 3 4NH HCI NH CI

79. When the gases sulphur dioxide and hydrogen sulphide are mixed in presence of water, the reaction is :

2 2 2SO 2H S 2H O 3S. Here hydrogen sulphide is acting as :

(A) an oxidising agent (B) a reducing agent (C) a dehydrating agent (D) a catalyst

80. The equation 3 3 2 2 2Cu xHNO Cu(NO ) yNO 2H O The values of x and y are :

(A) 3 & 5 (B) 8 & 6 (C) 4 & 2 (D) 7 & 1

81. Element X forms a chloride with the formula XCl2 which is a solid with a high melting point. The X would

be most likely be in the same group of the Periodic Table as

(A) Na (B) Mg (C) Al (D) Si

82. The soaps are formed by the saponification of

(A) Alcohols (B) Simple ester (C) Carboxylic acids (D) Glycerides

83. The Functional group of butanone is

(A) Carboxylic (B) Ketone (C) Aldehyde (D) Alcohol




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84. The IUPAC name of is

(A) Pentan - 2,4 - dione B) Pent - 2, 4 - one

(C) Penta - 2, 4 - dione (D) Both (A) and (C)

85. The rectified spirit is

(A) 50% ethanol (B) 80% ethanol (C) 95% ethanol (D) 40 to 50% ethanol

86. The dilute alkaline KMnO4 solution is better

(A) An oxidising agent (B) a reducing agent (C) a bleaching agent (D) drying agent

87. The by product in soap industry is

(A) Isoprene (B) Ethylene glycol (C) Glycerol (D) Butane

88. An example of soap is

(A) C15

H31

COONa (B) CH3COONa (C) C

6H

5COONa (D) C

17H

35OSO

3Na

89. Which of the following is stronger acid

(A) R–SO3H (B) R–COOH

(C) R–OH (D) All are having equal acidic strength

90. Which of the following is the most prior functional group

(A) (B) (C) – COOH (D) –OH




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Section - III (Mathematics)

91. If two numbers when divided by a certain divisor give remainder 35 and 30 respectively and when their sum is

divided by the same divisor, the remainder is 20, then the divisior is

(A) 40 (B) 45 (C) 50 (D) 55

92. The least number which is a perfect square and is divisible by each of 16, 20 and 24 is :

(A) 240 (B) 1600 (C) 2400 (D) 3600

93. If the expression 2(x x c) when divided by (x 1) leaves remainder 3, then the value of c is :

(A) 0 (B) 1 (C) 2 (D) 3

94. If (x 1) and (x 2) are the factors of the expression 3 2(2x px x q), then the values of p and q are given

by :

(A) p 5, q 2 (B) p 7, q 8 (C) p 7, q 10 (D) p 15, q 12

95. The value of k for which the polynomial 3 22x x 3x k is divisible by (x 1) is :

(A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 3 (D) 4

96. x & y are 2 different digits. If the sum of the two digit numbers formed by using both the digits is a perfect

square, then value of x+y is :

(A) 10 (B) 11 (C) 12 (D) 13

97. If 3x 4y : x 2y 9 : 4, then 3x 5y : 3x y is equal to :

(A) 4 : 1 (B) 1 : 4 (C) 7 : 1 (D) 1 : 7

98. If the roots of the given equation 22x 3 ( 2)x 10 0 be equal in magnitude but opposite in sign,

then =

(A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 3 (D) 2 / 3




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99. If the equation 22x 6x p 0 has real and different roots, the values of p are given by :

(A)9

p2

(B)9

p2

(C)9

p2

(D)9

p2

100. The roots of 2x bx c 0 are each decreased by 2. The resulting equation is 2x 2x 1 0 . Then

(A) b 6,c 9 (B) b 3,c 5 (C) b 2,c 1 (D) b 4,c 3

101. The number of terms of the series 5, 7, 9, ....... that must be taken in order to have sum of 1020 is :

(A) 20 (B) 30 (C) 40 (D) 50

102. If a,b,c,d,e,f are in A.P., then e – c is equal to :

(A) 2(c a) (B) 2(d c) (C) 2(f d) (D) (d c)

103. If the nth term of an A.P. is given by na 5n 3, then the sum of first 10 terms is :

(A) 225 (B) 245 (C) 255 (D) 270

104. If sin cos a and sin cos

b,sin cos

then

(A) 2

2ab

a 1

(B) 2

2ba

b 1

(C) 2ab b 1 (D) a b 1

105. If b tan a, the value of asin bcos

asin bcos

(A) 2 2

a b

a b

(B) 2 2

a b

a b

(C)

2 2

2 2

a b

a b

(D)

2 2

2 2

a b

a b




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106. If tan sin m and tan sin n , then the value of 2 2m n is equal to :

(A) 4 mn (B) 2 mn (C) 4 mn (D) 2 m / n

107. If the mean of the numbers 27 x,31 x,89 x,107 x,156 x is 82, then the mean of

130 x,126 x,68 x,50 x,1 x is :

(A) 75 (B) 157 (C) 82 (D) 80

108. The number of observations in a group is 40. If the average of first 10 is 4.5 and that of the remaining 30 is 3.5,

then the average of the whole group is :

(A)1

5(B)

15

4(C) 4 (D) 8

109. The top of a broken tree has its top touching the ground (shown in the adjoining figure) at a distance of 10 m

from the bottom. If the angle made by the broken part with ground is 30o, then the length of the broken part is:

(A) 10 3 cm

(B)20

m3

(C) 20cm

(D) 20 3 m

110. If the length of the shadow of a tower is 3 times that of its height, then the angle of elevation of the sun is :

(A) 15o (B) 30o (C) 45o (D) 60o




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111. The number of real solutions of x –

is :

(A) 0 (B) 1 (C) 2 (D) Infinite

112. The number of real solutions of the equation 22 x 5 x 2 0 is :

(A) 0 (B) 4 (C) 2 (D) None of these

113. Equation ax2 + 2x + 1 has one double root if :

(A) a = 0 (B) a = – 1 (C) a = 1 (D) a = 2

114. The greatest possible number with which when we divide 37 and 58, leaves the respective remainder of 2

and 3, is –


115. The largest possible number with which when 60 and 98 are divided, leaves the remainder 3 in each case, is-


116. The largest possible number with which when 38, 66 and 80 are divided the remainders remain the same is-


117.

15

10 20 40 125 is equal to –

(A) 5(5 2) (B) 5(2 2) (C) 5( 2 1) (D) 5(3 2)




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118. In the figure AD = 12 cm, AB = 20 cm and AE = 10 cm. Find EC.

(A) 14 cm

(B) 10 cm

(C) 8 cm D

E

A

B C

57°

12

3°

(D) 15 cm

119. In the given fig, BC = AC = AD, EAD = 81°. Find the value of x.

(A) 45°

(B) 54°

(C) 63°

C DB

A

E

81°

x

(D) 36°

120. If sin cos a, then 6 6sin cos is equal to :

(A) 1 + 3

4 (a2 – 1)2 (B) 1 –

3

4 (a2 – 1)2 (C)

2 23 4(a 1)

4

(D)

2 23 3(a 1)

4




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01. C

02. A

03. C

04. A

05. C

06. D

07. C

08. C

09. D

10. D

11. C

12. D

13. D

14. C

15. B

16. C

17. D

18. B

19. D

20. A

21. C

22. B

23. D

24. A

25. A

26. C

27. A

28. B

29. B

30. C

PART - I

ANSWER KEY

Course IVClass X going to Class XI Students

PART - II

Section - I Section - II Section - III

31. C

32. C

33. C

34. D

35. A

36. B

37. C

38. A

39. B

40. B

41. D

42. D

43. D

44. C

45. C

46. B

47. B

48. A

49. A

50. C

51. B

52. B

53. B

54. A

55. B

56. B

57. B

58. C

59. B

60. D

61. C

62. B

63. D

64. B

65. C

66. B

67. B

68. B

69. C

70. D

71. B

72. D

73. C

74. C

75. C

76. C

77. C

78. B

79. B

80. C

81. B

82. D

83. B

84. A

85. C

86. A

87. C

88. A

89. A

90. C

91. B

92. D

93. B

94. C

95. D

96. B

97. C

98. B

99. A

100. A

101. B

102. B

103. B

104. A

105. D

106. C

107. A

108. B

109. B

110. B

111. A

112. B

113. C

114. B

115. C

116. A

117. C

118. A

119. B

120. B

www.brothersacademy.co.in Admission Test (Course V) _ X going XI Students


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Course VClass X going to Class XI Students

Name : ________________________________________________ Reg. No. : _____________

Code

AADMISSION TEST


The paper is divided into TWO PARTS. PART - I contains 30 question of Basic Aptitude.PART - II contains 90 question of Section - I (Physics - 30), Section - II (Chemistry - 30) &Section - III (Biology - 30).










{2}

01. Find the wrong term in the series

3, 8, 15, 24, 34, 48, 63.

(A) 15 (B) 12 (C) 34 (D) 63

02. Complete the given series 4, 9, 13, 22, 35..............

(A) 57 (B) 70 (C) 63 (D) 75

03. Complete the given series 61, 67, 71, 73, 79, .............

(A) 81 (B) 82 (C) 83 (D) 85

04. Complete the given series 8, 24, 12, 36, 18, 54,.............

(A) 27 (B) 29 (C) 31 (D) 32

05. AZ, GT, MN, ........, YB

(A) KF (B) RX (C) SH (D) TS

06. Choose the missing term from the given options.

KM5, IP8, GS11, EV14, ...........

(A) BX17 (B) BY17 (C) CY18 (D) CY17

07. – b – – b – – – – a b – – – – –

1 – – 2 – 1 – – – – 2 – – – – –

The last four terms in the series are

(A) 1 2 2 2 (B) 2 2 2 1 (C) 2 2 1 2 (D) 2 2 2 2





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08. a c b – – d e b c a – c – e d d – – –

– 2 – 3 5 – – – – 4 – – 1 – – – – – –

The last five terms in the number series are

(A) 53214 (B) 35124 (C) 35531 (D) 53124

DIRECTIONS (Qs. 09-12) : Find which one word cannot be made from the letters of the given word.

09. UNCONSCIOUS

(A) SON (B) COIN (C) SUN (D) NOSE

10. CREDENTIAL

(A) DENTAL (B) CREATE (C) TRAIN (D) CREAM

11. CONTEMPORARY

(A) PARROT (B) COMPANY (C) CARPENTER (D) PRAYER

12. CHOCOLATE

(A) TELL (B) HEALTH (C) LATE (D) COOLER

13. Shoot is to Gun as Eat is to ........

(A) Hunger (B) Thirst (C) Dinner (D) Fruit

14. INTROVERT : EXTROVERT

(A) ANGLE : TANGENT (B) EXTREME : INTERIM

(C) AGAINST : FAVOUR (D) ACTION : LAW

15. Clever is to Beautiful as Sour is to ...........

(A) Lemon (B) Cunning (C) Loathing (D) Taste




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16. MAN : MAMMAL

(A) HALL : SNOW (B) NATIVE : INHABITANT

(C) OFFSPRING : FAMILY (D) LIBERTY : URBANISM

DIRECTIONS (Qs. 17-18) : Abra is Rambo's daughter. Shintu is Rambo's sister. Shintu's daughter is called Cabra

and son is called Dadra. Limba is Cabra's maternal Aunt.

17. Abra is limba's




19. Deepa moved a distance of 75 metres towards the north. She then turned to the left and then turned to the right

at an angle of 45o. In which direction was she moving finally ?


20. Johnson left for his office in his car. He drove 15 km towards north and then 10 km towards west. He then turned

to the south and covered 5 km. Further, he turned to the east and moved 8 km. Finally, he turned right and drove

10 km. How far and in which direction is he from his starting point ?




22. A man leaves for his office from his house. He walks towards East. After moving a distance of 20 m, he turns

south and walks 10 m. Then he walks 35 m towards the west and further 5 m towards the north. He then turns

towards east and walks 15 m. What is the straight distance (in metres) between his initial and final position ?





{5}

23. A result of a survey of 1000 persons with respect to their knowledge of Hindi (H), English (E) and Sanskrit (S)

is given below :

What is the ratio of those who know all the three languages to those who do not know Sanskrit ?

(A)1

9(B)

1

10(C)

10

17(D)

5

27

24. A clock gains 5 minutes. in 24 hours. It was set right at 10 am on Monday. What will be the true time when the

clock indicates 10:30 am on the next Sunday ?

(A) 10 a.m. (B) 11 a.m. (C) 25 mins past 10 a.m. (D) 5 mins. to 11 a.m.

25. At what time between 3 and 4 O'clock are the hands of a clock together -

(A)4

16 min. past 311

(B)6

16 min. past 311

(C)5

16 min. past 311

(D)3

16 min. past 311

26.

(A) 96 (B) 120 (C) 144 (D) 100




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27.

(A) 16, 8 (B) 49, 7 (C) 36, 4 (D) 25, 5

28.

(A) 11 E (B) 28 G (C) 35 I (D) 48 F

29.

(A) 82 (B) 100 (C) 68 (D) 64

30.

(A) 47 (B) 45 (C) 37 (D) 35




{7}

31. The angle of incidence is the angle between

(A) the incident ray and the surface of the mirror (B) the reflected ray and the surface of the mirror

(C) the normal to the surface and the incident ray (D) the normal to the surface and the reflected ray

32. An object is placed at the centre of curvature of a concave mirror. The distance between its image and the pole

is :

(A) equal to f (B) between f and 2 f (C) equal to 2 f (D) greater than 2 f

33. If an incident ray passes through the centre of curvature of a spherical mirror, the reflected ray will

(A) pass through the pole (B) pass through the focus

(C) retrace its path (D) be parallel to the principal axis

34. A ray of light goes from a medium of refractive index n1 to a medium of refractive index n

2. The angle of

incidence is i and the angle of refraction is r. Then, sin i / sin r is equal to

(A) n1

(B) n2

(C) n1/n

2(D) n

2/n

1

35. A thin lens and a spherical mirror have a focal length of +15 cm each.

(A) Both are convex. (B) The lens is convex and the mirror is concave

(C) The lens is concave and the mirror is convex (D) Both are concave.

36. A convex lens forms a virtual image when an object is placed at a distance of 18 cm from it. The focal length

must be

(A) greater than 36 cm (B) greater than 18 cm (C) less than 9 cm (D) less than 18 cm


PART – II




{8}

37. A lens has a power of +0.5 D. It is :

(A) a concave lens of focal length 5 m (B) a convex lens of focal length 5 cm

(C) a convex lens of focal length 2 m (D) a concave lens of focal length 2 m

38. When the eye is focused on an object very far away, the focal length of the eye-lens is :

(A) maximum (B) minimum (C) equal to that of the crystalline lens

(D) half its maximum focal length

39. The potential at a point is 20 V. The work done in bringing a charge of 0.5 C from infinity to this point will be :

(A) 20 J (B) 10 J (C) 5 J (D) 40 J

40. Joule / coulomb is the same as

(A) watt (B) volt (C) ampere (D) ohm

41. An ammeter is always connected in ....... and a voltmeter in ...... . The suitable words, in order, for the blanks

are

(A) series; series (B) parallel; parallel (C) parallel; series (D) series; parallel

42. An electric current passes through a straight wire. Magnetic compasses are placed at the points A and B.

(A) Their needles will not deflect.

(B) Only one of the needles will deflect. AB

i

(C) Both the needles will deflect in the same direction.

(D) The needles will deflect in the opposite directions.

43. Which of the following involves electromagnetic induction ?

(A) A rod is charged with electricity (B) An electric current produces a magnetic field.

(C) A magnetic field exerts a force on a current-carrying wire.

(D) The relative motion between a magnet and a coil produces an electric current.




{9}

44. Which of the following describes the common domestic power supplied in India ?

(A) 220 V, 100 Hz (B) 110 V, 100 Hz (C) 220 V, 50 Hz (D) 110 V, 50 Hz

45. An electric fuse can prevent accidents arising from

(A) an overload but not due to a short circuit (B) a short circuit but not due to an overload

(C) an overload as well as a short circuit (D) neither an overload nor a short circuit

46. A 10 mm long pin is placed vertically in front of a concave mirror. A 5 mm long image of the pin is formed at 30

cm in front of the mirror. The focal length of this mirror is

(A) –30 cm (B) –20 cm (C) –40 cm (D) –60 cm

47. The resistance whose V – I graph is given below

(A) 5

3(B)

3

5

V (

vo

lt)

05 10 15 20

I (ampere)(C)

5

2(D)

2

5

48. A cooler of 1500 W, 200 volt and a fan of 500 W, 200 volt are to be used from a supply. The rating of fuse to be

used is

(A) 2.5 A (B) 5.0 A (C) 11 A (D) 20 A

49. One moving a charge of 20 coulomb by 2 cm, 2J of work is done, then the potential difference between

the points is

(A) 0.1 V (B) 8 V (C) 2V (D) 0.5 V.

50. If an ammeter is to be used in place of a voltmeter, then we must connect with the ammeter a

(A) Low resistance in parallel (B) High resistance in parallel

(C) High resistance in series (D) Low resistance in series

SPACE FOR ROUGH WORKSPACE FOR ROUGH WORK



{10}

51. A wire when connected to 220 V mains supply has power dissipation P1. Now the wire is cut into two

equal pieces which are connected in parallel to the same supply. Power dissipation in this case is P2.

The P2 : P

1 is :

(A) 1 (B) 4 (C) 2 (D) 3

52. If in the circuit, power dissipation is 150 W, then R is :

(A) 2 (B) 6

(C) 5 (D) 4

53. A 3 volt battery with negligible internal resistance is connected in a circuit as shown in the figure. The

current I, from the battery :

(A) 1 A

(B) 1.5 A

(C) 2 A

(D) 1/3 A

54. The total current supplied to the circuit by the battery is :

(A) 4 A

(B) 2 A

(C) 1 A

(D) 6 A

55. An electric current is passed through a circuit containing two wires of the same material, connected in

parallel. If the lengths and radii are in the ratio of 43 and

23 , then the ratio of the current passing through

the wires will be :

(A) 8/9 (B) 1/3 (C) 3 (D) 2




{11}

56. The current I drawn from the 5 volt source will be :

(A) 0.33 A

(B) 0.5 A

(C) 0.67 A

(D) 0.17 A

57. In a Wheatstone's bridge, three resistances P, Q and R connected in the three arms and the fourth arm

is formed by two resistances S1 and S

2 connected in parallel. The condition for the bridge to be balanced

will be :

(A)1 2

P 2RQ S S

(B) 1 2

1 2

R(S S )PQ S S

(C)

1 2

1 2

R(S S )PQ 2S S

(D)

1 2

P RQ S S

58. An electric bulb is rated 220 volt – 100 watt. The power consumed by it when operated on 110 volt will be

:

(A) 75 watt (B) 40 watt (C) 25 watt (D) 50 watt




{12}


(Position of the object) (Nature and size of image formed by a concave mirror)

(A) At infinity (p) At C

(B) Beyond C (q) At infinity

(C) At C (r) At the focus F

(D) Between C and F (s) Behind the mirror

(E) At F (t) Between F and C

(F) Between P and F (u) Beyond C

(A) (A)-(t); (B)-(r); (C)-(p); (D)-(u); (E)-(q); (F)-(s) (B) (A)-(r); (B)-(t); (C)-(p); (D)-(u); (E)-(q); (F)-(s)

(C) (A)-(r); (B)-(t); (C)-(p); (D)-(u); (E)-(s); (F)-(q) (D) (A)-(r); (B)-(t); (C)-(u); (D)-(p); (E)-(q); (F)-(s)


(A) Speed (p) No unit

(B) Focal length (q) Dioptre

(C) Power of a lens (r) ms–1

(D) Refractive index (s) cm.

(A) (A)-(q); (B)-(p); (C)-(r); (D)-(s) (B) (A)-(s); (B)-(q); (C)-(p); (D)-(r)

(C) (A)-(r); (B)-(q); (C)-(p); (D)-(s) (D) (A)-(r); (B)-(s); (C)-(q); (D)-(p)



{13}

61. What happens when copper rod is dipped in iron sulphate solution :

(A) copper displaces iron (B) blue colour of copper sulphate solution is obtained

(C) no reaction takes place (D) reaction is exothermic

62.2 4 4 2Zn H SO (dil) ZnSO H , reaction is :

(A) decomposition reaction (B) single displacement reaction

(C) combination reaction (D) synthesis reaction

63. The reaction in which two compounds exchange their ions to form two new compounds is :

(A) a displacement reaction (B) a decomposition reaction

(C) an isomerization reaction (D) a double displacement reaction

64. In the equation, 3 3 2NaOH HNO NaNO H O nitric acid is acting as :

(A) an oxidising agent (B) an acid (C) a nitrating agent (D) a dehydrating agent

65. Hydrogen sulphide 2(H S) is a strong reducing agent. Which of the following reaction shows its reducing action

(A)3 2 2 3Cd(NO ) H S CdS 2HNO (B)

4 2 2 4CuSO H S CuS H SO

(C)3 2 22FeCI H S 2FeCI 2HCI S (D)

3 2 2 3Pb(NO ) H S PbS 2CH COOH

66. The acid used in making of vinegar is :

(A) formic acid (B) acetic acid (C) sulphuric acid (D) nitric acid

67. A solution reacts with crushed egg-shells to give a gas that turns lime-water milky. The solution contains

(A) NaCI (B) HCI (C) LiCI (D) KCI





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68. In a 0.250 M solution of 3 4Na PO , the concentration of the sodium ions would be :

(A) 0.250 M (B) 0.750 M (C) 0.0833 M (D) 1.00 M

69. Which among the following is the weakest base :

(A) NaOH (B) 2Ca(OH) (C) 4NH OH (D) KOH

70. Which of the following is not an atomic characteristic of metal :

(A) Malleable nature (B) Electropositive nature (C) Ductile nature (D) None of these

71. Heating of concentrated ore in absence of air for conversion into oxide ore is known as :

(A) roasting (B) calcination (C) reduction (D) none of these

72. Which reducing agent is used in chemical reduction :

(A) C (B) CO (C) Al (D) All of these

73. Sodium is obtained by the electrolysis of :

(A) an aqueous solution of sodium chloride (B) an aqueous solution of sodium hydroxide

(C) fused sodium chloride (D) fused sodium sulphate

74. Alkynes are characterized by :

(A) C C bonds (B) C C bonds (C) C C bonds (D) Cyclic structure

75.3 2 2 3CH CH CH CH CH CH

3CH CHO

has the IUPAC name

(A) 2–sec Butylbutanal (B) 2, 3–Diethylbutanal

(C) 2–Ethyl–3–methylpentanal (D) 3–Methyl–2–ethylpentanal




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76. The functional group present in 3 2 5CH COOC H is :

(A) Ketone (B) Aldehyde (C) Ester (D) Carboxylic acid

77. The functional group present in an organic acid is :

(A) – OH (B) –CHO (C) –COOH (D) >C = O

78. Which of the following reactions involves the combination of two elements :

(A) 2 3CaO CO CaCO (B) 2 24Na O 2Na O (C) 2 2 3

1SO O SO

2 (D) 3 4NH HCI NH CI

79. When the gases sulphur dioxide and hydrogen sulphide are mixed in presence of water, the reaction is :

2 2 2SO 2H S 2H O 3S. Here hydrogen sulphide is acting as :

(A) an oxidising agent (B) a reducing agent (C) a dehydrating agent (D) a catalyst

80. The equation 3 3 2 2 2Cu xHNO Cu(NO ) yNO 2H O The values of x and y are :

(A) 3 & 5 (B) 8 & 6 (C) 4 & 2 (D) 7 & 1

81. Element X forms a chloride with the formula XCl2 which is a solid with a high melting point. The X would

be most likely be in the same group of the Periodic Table as

(A) Na (B) Mg (C) Al (D) Si

82. The soaps are formed by the saponification of

(A) Alcohols (B) Simple ester (C) Carboxylic acids (D) Glycerides

83. The Functional group of butanone is

(A) Carboxylic (B) Ketone (C) Aldehyde (D) Alcohol




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84. The IUPAC name of is

(A) Pentan - 2,4 - dione (B) Pent - 2, 4 - one

(C) Penta - 2, 4 - dione (D) Both (A) and (C)

85. The rectified spirit is

(A) 50% ethanol (B) 80% ethanol (C) 95% ethanol (D) 40 to 50% ethanol

86. The dilute alkaline KMnO4 solution is better

(A) An oxidising agent (B) a reducing agent (C) a bleaching agent (D) drying agent

87. The by product in soap industry is

(A) Isoprene (B) Ethylene glycol (C) Glycerol (D) Butane

88. An example of soap is

(A) C15

H31

COONa (B) CH3COONa (C) C

6H

5COONa (D) C

17H

35OSO

3Na

89. Which of the following is stronger acid

(A) R–SO3H (B) R–COOH

(C) R–OH (D) All are having equal acidic strength

90. Which of the following is the most prior functional group

(A) (B) (C) – COOH (D) –OH




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Section - III (Biology)

91. The lining of intestinal wall from outside to inside is made up of

(A) Circular muscles Longitudinal muscles mucosa Submucosa

(B) Longitudinal muscles Circular muscles Sub mucosa Mucosa

(C) Mucosa Submucosa Circular muscles Longitudinal muscles

(D) Sub-mucosa Longitudinal muscles circular muscles mucosa

92. Which of the following is incorrect regarding the digestion and absorption of Protein

(A) The breakdown of Proteins to peptides is catalysed by pepsin in the stomach and by the pancreatic

enzymes trypsin and chymotrypsin in the small intestine

(B) Peptides are broken down into amino acids by pancreatic carboxypeptidase and intestinal dipeptidase

(C) Small peptides consisting of two or three amino acids can diffuse through epithelial cell and broken

down into carbon dioxide and ammonia which is released into blood

(D) Protein is digested in stomach in the presence of HCl

93. One haemoglobin carries how many molecules of O2

(A) 4 (B) 2 (C) 6 (D) 8

94. Read the following statements and select the correct ones

(i) Nodal tissue is specialised cardiac musculature in human heart which has the ability to generate

action potential due to an external stimuli

(ii) Position of SAN - right corner of right atrium

(iii) Position of AVN - right corners of ventricle

(iv) Purkinje fibres are modified cardiac muscle fibres that originate from the bundle of His and spread into

the two ventricles

(A) i & ii (B) i & iii (C) i & iv (D) All of these

95. How many characters of flowers of pea plant where selected by mendel for his experiment

(A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 3 (D) 4




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96. The living cells of xylem are

(A) Tracheids (B) Vessels (C) xylem fibre (D) xylem parenchyma

97. Which of the following teeth present in child, change in number in child and adult but never its number is

zero

(A) Premolar (B) Molar (C) Canine (D) incisor

98. Biggest (largest) animal cell is

(A) ostrich egg (B) nerve cell (C) Acetabularia (D) Phloem fibre

99. Animal cell differs from plant cell in not having the

(A) cell wall (B) plastids (C) plasmodesmata (D) All of these

100. Bacteria are considered plants as they

(A) Are green in colour (B) Have rigid cell wall (C) Have chlorophyll (D) Have stomata

101. Which is non membrane (not covered by membrane) organelle

(A) Centriole (B) Lysosome (C) Mitochondria (D) Chloroplast

102. Blue green Algace are

(A) Eubacteria (B) Cyanobacteria (C) Actinomycetes (D) Archaebacteria

103. Curd is more nutritious than milk as it contain

(A) Many amino acids which are absent in milk

(B) many vitamins which are absent or scanty in milk

(C) Many enzymes which are formed by bacteria

(D) many protozoans which are beneficial to protect our stomach from pathogen

104. Atmosphere of earth, just before the origin of life, consisted of

(A) water vapours, CH4, NH

3 and oxygen (B) CO

2, NH

3 and CH

4 only

(C) CH4, NH

3, H

2 and water vapours (D) CH

4, O

3, O

2 and water vapours

105. The disease caused by viruses is

(A) Tuberculosis (B) Small pox (C) Cholera (D) Typhoid




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106. The balance between CO2 and O

2

(A) Transpiration (B) Photosynthesis (C) C4 Pathway (D) Photorespiration

107. Leaves appear green because they

(A) Reflect green light (B) Absorb green light

(C) Both reflect and absorb green light (D) None of the above

108. BCG vaccine is used against

(A) TB (B) Leprosy (C) Food poisoning (D) None of these

109. Plants do not get benefit from

(A) N2 in air (B) O

2 in air (C) CO

2 in air (D) O

3 in air

110. Number of bones in human body is

(A) 260 (B) 206 (C) 306 (D) 203

111. The difference between systolic and diastolic pressure in human is

(A) 40 mm Hg (B) 80 mm Hg (C) 120 mm Hg (D) 200 mm Hg

112. The valves which allow blood to flow from the right auricle to right ventricles

(A) Semilunar valve (B) Tricuspid valve (C) Aortic valve (D) None of these

113. Select the correct statement

(A) Heterotrophs do not synthesise their own food

(B) Heterotrophs utilise solar energy for photosynthesis

(C) Heterotrophs synthesise their own food

(D) Heterotrophs are capable of converting carbon dioxide and water into carbohydrates

114. Which is the correct sequence of parts in human alimentary canal?

(A) Mouthstomach small intestine oesophagus large intestine

(B) Mouth oesophagus stomach large intestine small intestine

(C) Mouth stomach oesophagus small intestine large intestine

(D) Mouth oesophagus stomach small intestine large intestine




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115. Which part of alimentary canal receives bile from the liver?

(A) Stomach (B) Small intestine (C) Large intestine (D) Oesophagus

116. The most appropriate characteristic of a semipermeable membrane is that

(A) It has minute pores

(B) It has no pores

(C) It allows the solute to pass through but not the solvent

(D) It allows a solvent to pass through freely but prevents the passage of the solute

117. Wilting occurs due to excessive

(A) Guttation (B) Absorptin (C) Transpiration (D) Imbibition

118. Olfactory epithelium is responsible for sensing

(A) Taste (B) Pressure changes (C) Smell (D) Temperature changes

119. Which of the following is known as father of Genetics

(A) Mendel (B) Punnet (C) Aristotle (D) None of these

120. Which of the following is the largest part of brain

(A) Cerebrum (B) Pons (C) Hypothalamus (D) Pineal Gland




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01. C

02. A

03. C

04. A

05. C

06. D

07. C

08. C

09. D

10. D

11. C

12. D

13. D

14. C

15. B

16. C

17. D

18. B

19. D

20. A

21. C

22. B

23. D

24. A

25. A

26. C

27. A

28. B

29. B

30. C

PART - I

ANSWER KEY

Course VClass X going to Class XI Students

PART - II


31. C

32. C

33. C

34. D

35. A

36. B

37. C

38. A

39. B

40. B

41. D

42. D

43. D

44. C

45. C

46. B

47. B

48. A

49. A

50. C

51. B

52. B

53. B

54. A

55. B

56. B

57. B

58. C

59. B

60. D

61. C

62. B

63. D

64. B

65. C

66. B

67. B

68. B

69. C

70. D

71. B

72. D

73. C

74. C

75. C

76. C

77. C

78. B

79. B

80. C

81. B

82. D

83. B

84. A

85. C

86. A

87. C

88. A

89. A

90. C

91. B

92. C

93. A

94. C

95. B

96. D

97. B

98. A

99. D

100. B

101. A

102. B

103. B

104. C

105. B

106. B

107. A

108. A

109. D

110. B

111. A

112. B

113. A

114. D

115. B

116. D

117. C

118. C

119. A

120. A

www.brothersacademy.co.in Admission Test (Course -VI) _ XII Appeared/Passed


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Course VIClass XII Appeared/Passed Students

Name : ________________________________________________ Reg. No. : _____________

Code

AADMISSION TEST


The paper is divided into TWO PARTS. PART - I contains 30 question of Basic Aptitude.PART - II contains 90 question of Section - I (Physics - 30), Section - II (Chemistry - 30) &Section - III (Mathematics - 30).










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{3}











+ = + =

+ =?

(A) (B) (C) (D)



{4}



+ =+ =

+ =?

(A) (B) (C) (D)


(A) (B) (C) (D)


(A) (B) (C) (D)



{5}


Direction for questions 16 – 17: Abra is Rambo's daughter. Shintu is Rambo's sister. Shintu's daugh-

ter is called Cabra and son is called Dadra. Limba is Cabra's maternal Aunt.

16. Abra is limba's




18. Deepa moved a distance of 75 metres towards the north. She then turned to the left and then turned

to the right at an angle of 45o. In which direction was she moving finally ?


19. Johnson left for his office in his car. He drove 15 km towards north and then 10 km towards west.

He then turned to the south and covered 5 km. Further, he turned to the east and moved 8 km.

Finally, he turned right and drove 10 km. How far and in which direction is he from his starting

point ?




21. A man leaves for his office from his house. He walks towards East. After moving a distance of 20

m, he turns south and walks 10 m. Then he walks 35 m towards the west and further 5 m towards

the north. He then turns towards east and walks 15 m. What is the straight distance (in metres)

between his initial and final position ?




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22.

A B C D

(A) (B) (C) (D)

23.

A B C D

(A) (B) (C) (D)

24. What is the number of straight lines in the following figure?

(A) 10 (B) 12 (C) 13 (D) 17

25. How many parallelograms are there in the following figure?

(A) 20 (B) 24 (C) 28 (D) 30



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26. has mirror image:

(A) (B) (C) (D)


(A) (B) (C) (D)


(A) (B) (C) (D)




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(A) (B) (C) (D)


(A) (B) (C) (D)



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PART – II


31. Kinetic energy of an electron accelerated by a potential difference of 1000 V is

(A) 1.6 × 10–19 J (B) 1.6 × 10–16 J (C) 1.6 × 10–15 J (D) 1000 J

32. The effective capacitance of the combination between A and B is

A B6 F

3 F

9 F

5 F

(A) 9 F (B) 4 F (C) 23 F (D) 12 F

33 Three point charges are placed at the three corners of an equilateral triangle as shown in figure. Thestatement which is true for net electric potential V and the net electric field intensity E at the centre ofthe triangle is

O

q

–2qq

(A) E = 0, V = 0 (B) V = 0, E 0 (C) V 0, E = 0 (D) V 0, E 0

34. If galvanometer shows null deflection in the given figure then the value of Y is

G

800

200

12V

3V

100Y

(A) 100 (B) 200 (C) 300 (D) 400



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35. A rectangular loop of dimensions a and b carrying current I is shown in figure. The magnetic field atthe centre O is

(A) 2 2

0I a b

ab

(B)

2 2

02 I a b

ab

I

O

b

a

(C) 2 2

0I a b.

2 ab

(D)

2 2

0I a b.

2 ab

36. A uniformly charged ring of radius R carrying charge q is rotating with angular speed . The magneticfield at the centre of ring is

(A) 0q

2 R

(B) 0q

4 R

(C) 0q

8 R

(D) Zero

37. The magnetism of the bar magnet is due to

(A) Earth’s magnetism (B) Cosmic rays

(C) The spin motion of electron (D) Pressure of big magnet inside the earth

38. A square loop of side 10 cm enters a magnetic field with 2 cm/s. The front edge enters the magneticfield at t = 0, then which graph best depicts emf?

10 cm ××

×

××

×

××

×

××

×

××

×

××

×

××

×B = 1.2 T

40 cm

(A)

O 5 20 25t

v

2.4 × 10–3 (B)

O 5 20t

v

2.4 × 10–3

(C) O 5 20

25t

v

2.4 × 10–3

(D) O 5

20 25 t

v

2.4 × 10–3



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39. Magnification of a concave mirror

(A) Is always positive (B) Is always negative

(C) Can be positive as well as negative (D) Is always zero

40. A converging beam is incident on a convex lens of glass placed in air. The image formed is

(A) Real, erect and enlarged (B) Real, erect and diminished

(C) Virtual, erect and diminished (D) Virtual, erect and enlarged

41. The focal length of a concave lens is 50 cm, its optical power is

(A) 1 D (B) –2 D (C) 0.5 D (D) –4 D

42. A ray of light incident on an equilateral glass prism shows minimum deviation of 30°. Calculate the speedof light through the glass prism

(A) 2 × 108 m/s (B) 1 × 108 m/s (C) 8103 m/s (D) 8102

3 m/s

43. Two light beams of intensity I & 4I are used to interference experiment. What is the resultant intensity,when the two beams superimpose with a phase difference of p?

(A) 9I (B) I (C) 5I (D) 3I

44. In a Young’s double slit experiment, the separation between the slits is doubled and the distance betweenthe plane of slits and screen is halved. The fringe width is

(A) Halved (B) Doubled (C) Quadrupled (D) Quartered

45. For Bohr’s first orbit of circumference 2 r , the de-Broglie wavelength of the revolving electron willbe

(A) 2 r (B) r (C) 1

3 r(D)

1

4 r

46. For the production of characteristic K X-rays the electron transition is from

(A) L to K (B) M to L (C) M to K (D) N to L



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47. The threshold wavelength of a photosensitive surface is 0

. The photoelectric effect will take place onlyif

(A)0

(B) 0

(C) 0

2 (D) 0

3

48. A proton and an electron are accelerated from rest by the same potential difference. If e

and p

denote the de-Broglie wavelengths of the electron and proton respectively, then

(A)e p

(B) e p

(C) e p

(D) e p

2

49. In a nuclear reaction which of the following conservation is valid?

(A) Charge conservation (B) Energy-mass conservation

(C) Momentum conservation (D) All of these

50. The mass of a photon of wavelength is

(A)h

c(B)

h

c(C)

hc

(D)

h

c

51. Parallel beam of light is incident on the system of two convex lenses of focal lengths f1 = 20 cm and f2 = 10cm. What should be the distance between the two lenses so that rays after refraction from both the lensespass underviated:

(A) 60 cm (B) 30 cm (C) 90 cm (D) 40 m52. Two coherent monochromatic light beams of intensities I and 4I are superposed. The maximum and minimum

possible intensities in the resulting beam are:(A) 5I and I (B) 5I and 3I (C) 9I and I (D) 9I and 3I

53. A charge q is placed at the centre of the line joining two equal charges Q. The system of the three chargeswill be in equilibrium if q is equal to:

(A)Q

2

(B)Q

4

(C)Q

4

(D)Q

2



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54. Power generated across a uniform wire connected across a supply is H. If the wire is cut into n equal partsand all the parts are connected in parallel across the same supply, the total popwer generated in the wire is:

(A)2

H

n

(B) 2

n H (C) nH (D)H

n

55. A charged particle enters a uniform magnetic field with velocity vector at an angle of 45° with the magneticfield. The pitch of the helical path followed by the particle is p. The radius of the helix will be:

(A)p

2 (B) 2 p (C)p

2(D)

2p

56. Dimensions of magnetic flux

electric flux

are:

(A) 1

[LT ] (B) 1

[TL ] (C) 3 2 2

[L T A ] (D) 0 0 0

[M L T ]

57. A choke coil should have:(A) high inductance and high resistance (B) low inductance and low resistance(C) high inductance and low resistance (D) low inductance and high resistance

58. The ratio of contributions made by the electric field and magnetic field components to the intensity of anEM wave is:

(A) c : 1 (B) c2 : 1 (C) 1 : 1 (D) c :1

59. The probability of survival of a radioactive nucleus for one mean life is:

(A)1

e

(B)1

1

e

(C)ln 2

e

(D)ln 2

1

e

60. The combination of the gates shown in the figure produces:

(A) NOR gate (B) OR gate (C) AND gate (D) XOR gate



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61. Find the product of the following reaction :

(A) (B) (C) (D)

62. major product

(A) (B) (C) (D)

63. The relative rate of acid catalysed dehydration of following alcohols would be :

(A) (B) (C) (D)

64. Dehydration of following alcohols will be in order :

(A) 1 < 2 < 3 < 4 (B) 4 > 3 > 1 > 2 (C) 4 > 2 > 1 > 3 (D) 1 > 3 > 4 > 2





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65. Mark out the correct order if dipole moment for the following compounds:

(A) I > II > III (B) II > III > I (C) III > II > I (D) III > I > II

66. Which of the following carbonyl compounds when treated with dilute acid forms a stable cation ?

(A) (B) (C) (D)

67. Which of the following is a tertiary amine ?

(A) (B)

(C) (D)

68.2

CH

2CO H

2CO H

; If (n = 4) , then dicarboxylic acid will be known as :

(A) Malonic Acid (B) Succinic Acid (C) Adipic Acid (D) Oxalic Acid

69. There is no S–S bond in :

(A) 22 4S O (B) 2 5S O (C) 2

2 3S O (D) 22 7S O




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70. How many coulomb of electricity will be consumed when 100 mA current is passed through a solution ofAgNO3 for half an hour during electrolysis

(A) 108 (B) 180 (C) 1800 (D) 18000

71. Cu+ is not stable and undergoes disproportion. Eo for Cu+ disproportionation.

(EoCu+2/Cu+ = + 0.153V, Eo

Cu+/Cu = 0.53V)

(A) + 0.683V (B) -0.367V (C) +0.3415V (D) +0.367

72. Xenon crystallizes in face centre cubic lattice and the edge of the unit cell is 620 pm, then the radiusof xenon-atom is

(A) 438.5 pm (B) 219.25 pm (C) 536.94 pm (D) 265.5 pm

73. In closest packing of A type of atoms (radius, rA), the radius of atom B that can be fitted into octahedralvoid is:

(A) 0.155 rA (B) 0.125 rA (C) 0.414 rA (D) 0.732 rA

74. Osmotic pressure of blood is 7.40 atm at 270C. Number of mol of glucose to be used per L for anintravenous injection that is to have the same osmotic pressure as blood, is

(A) 0.3 (B) 0.2 (C) 0.1 (D) 0.4

75. With excess of Cl2, ammonia forms :

(A) NH4Cl (B) N2 (C) NCl3 (D) 3 3NH NCl

76. The pair having similar magnetic moment :

(A) 3 3Ti ,V (B) 3 2Cr ,Mn (C) 2 3Mn ,Fe (D) 2 3Fe ,Mn

77. In the following reaction :

24 2 4 2 2

xyMnO xH C O yMn 2CO H O,2

x and y are :(A) 2 and 16 (B) 1 6and 2 (C) 8 and 16 (D) 5 and 12




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78. The number of unpaired electrons in Fe2+ (z =26) are :

(A) 4 (B) 5 (C) 6 (D) 3

79. If for any reaction , the rate constant is equal to the rate of the reaction at all concentration . Theorder is :

(A) 0 (B) 2 (C) 1 (D) 3

80. The rate of the simple reaction 2NO + O2 2NO2, when the volume of the reaction vessel isdoubled–

(A) will grow eight times of its initial rate (B) Rate reduce to one-eights of its initial rate

(C) will grow four times of its initial rate (D) Reduce to one-fourth of its initial rate

81. Which of the following oxyacid contains both P H and P P bond simultaneously ?

(A)4 2 5

H P O (B)4 2 7

H P O (C)4 2 6

H P O (D) None

82. Which of the following compounds shows least tendency towards hydrolysis ?

(A) 3

BF (B)3

BCl (C)3

BBr (D)3

BI

83. The hydrolysis of 2 3

Na SO makes the solution

(A) Alkaline (B) Acidic (C) Neutral (D) None of these

84 2

A H O B HCl

2B H O C HCl

Compound (A), (B) and (C) will be respectively :

(A)5 3 3 3

PCl , POCl ,H PO (B) 5 3 3 4

PCl , POCl ,H PO

(C)2 3 3 3

SOCl , POCl , H PO (D)3 3 3 4

PCl , POCl , H PO




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85. In the context of carbon, which of the following is arranged in the correct order of electronegativity :

(A) 32 spspsp (B) spspsp 23 (C) 32 spspsp (D) 23 spspsp

86. Among the following ions which one has the highest paramagnetism

(A) 362 ])OH(Cr[ (B) 2

62 ])OH(Fe[ (C) [Cu(H2O)6]2+ (D) [Zn((H2O)6]2+

87. Complexes [Co(NH3)5SO4]Br and [Co(NH3)5Br]SO4 can be distinguished by

(A) conductance measurement (B) using BaCl2

(C) using AgNO3 (D) All

88. The two compounds Br])NH)(SO(Co[ 534 and Cl])NH)(SO(Co[ 534 represent:

(A) Linkage isomerism (B) Ionisation isomerism

(C) Co-ordination isomerism (D) No isomerism

89. Which ion has tetrahedral geometry:

(A) [Fe(CO)5] (B) [Co(NH3)6]2+ (C) [NiCl4]2– (D) [Ni(CN)4]2–

90. The number of donor sites in dimethyl glyoxime, glycinato, diethylene triamine and EDTA are respectively:

(A) 2, 2, 3 and 4 (B) 2, 2, 3 and 6 (C) 2, 2, 2 and 6 (D) 2, 3, 3 and 6




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Section - III (Mathematics)

91. If y = log x

x

e

e 1

, then dy/dx equals-

(A) x

1

e 1(B) 2x

1

e 1 (C) x

x

e 1

e 1

(D) None of these

92. If x 1 y y 1 x 0, then dy

dx equals-

(A) 21

1 x (B) – 2

1

1 x(C)

2

1

1 x(D) None of these

93. The period of | sin 2x | is -(A) / 4 (B) / 2 (C) (D) 2

94. If f(x) = xx

31 , then f [f {f (x)}] equals-

(A) x (B) 1/x (C) –x (D) –1/x

95. The value of x

lim

3

2x 3 3x 5 4x 6

3x x 1

is -

(A) 2 (B) 1 (C) 8 (D) Does not exist

96. The value of x 0

lim

2 2

2

1 x 1 x

x

is :

(A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 3 (D) Does not exist

97. The equation of tangent to the curve y = sin x at the point , 0 is -

(A) x + y = 0 (B) x + y = (C) x– y = (D) x–y = 0




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98. If f(x) =

3 2

2

x x 16x 20

x 2

,x 2

x 2

k

is continuous for all values of x, then the value of k is-

(A) 5 (B) 6 (C) 7 (D) 899. f(x) = 2x3 – 21x2 + 36 x + 7 has a maxima at-

(A) x = 2 (B) x = 1 (C) x = 6 (D) x = 3100. If x = p and x = q are respectively the maximum and minimum points of the function

x5 – 5x4 +5x3 – 10, then-(A) p=0, q= 1 (B) p = 1, q = 0 (C) p = 1, q = 3 (D) p = 3, q = 1

101. If z 2

2x 3

x 1 x 1

dx = log [(x–1) 5/2 (x2+1)a] –

1

2tan–1 x + k where k is any arbitrary constant,

then a is equal to(A) 5/4 (B) –5/3 (C) –5/6 (D) –5/4

102./2

x

/2

cos x

1 e

is equal to-

(A) 0 (B) 2 (C) 1 (D) None of these103. Let f be a positive function. If

k

1

1 k

I xf {x(1 x)}dx

k

2

1 k

I f [x(1 x)]dx

where 2k – 1 > 0 , then the value of I1 / I2 is equal to-(A) 2 (B) k (C) 1/2 (D) 1

104. If 0 x ; then the area bounded by the curve y = x and y = x + sin x is-(A) 2 (B) 4 (C) 2 (D) 4

105. If vectors 2 i – j + k , i + 2 j – 3 k and 3 i + a j + 5 k are coplanar, then the value of a is-

(A) 2 (B) – 2 (C) – 1 (D) – 4

106. If A = i – j + 2 k and B = 2 i + 3 j – 4 k then | AB

| equals-(A) 35 (B) 53 (C) 65 (D) 1




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107. If P (A) =3

8, then find the odds in against of A -

(A) 3 : 5 (B) 4 : 5 (C) 3 : 4 (D) 5 : 3108. If two dice are thrown together then what is the probability that the sum of their numbers is greater than

9.(A) 1/2 (B) 1/4 (C) 1/6 (D) 2/6

109. If A = p q

,

q p

, B = r s

s r

then -

(A) AB = BA (B) AB BA (C) AB = BA (D) None of these

110.a b a b

b c b c 0

a b b c 0

, then a, b,c are in -

(A) A.P. (B) G.P. (C) H.P. (D) None of these

111. A plane P passes through a point P(3, – 2, 1) and is perpendicular to the vector k4j7i4V

. The

distance between the plane P and the plane 033)k4j7i4(·r , equals

(A) 3 (B) 2 (C) 1 (D) 928

112.2 21 13x tan x sec dx

x x is equal to

(A) 3 1x cos cx (B) 2 1x tan c

x (C) 3 1x tan c

x (D) 2 1x sec c

x

113. The general solution of the different equation x y 2 ydy e x edx

is

(A)3

y x xe e c3

(B) y xe e 2x c (C) y x 3e e x c (D) None of these




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114. If P (A B) = 3/4 and P ( A ) = 2/3 then P ( A B) equals -(A) 1/12 (B) 7/12 (C) 5/12 (D) 1/2

115. 2010

dxx x 1 is equal to

(A) 20101 ln 1 x c2009

(B) 20101 ln 1 x c2010

(C) 2010ln 1 x x c (D) 20101 ln 1 x c2010

116. The order and degree of the differential equation

2/32 2

2

dy d y4dx dx

are equal to

(A) 2,2 (B) 3,3 (C) 2,3 (D) 3,2

117. The area contained between the curve xy = a2 , the vertical line x = a, x = 4a(a>0) and x-axis is

(A) 2a ln 2 (B) 22a ln 2 (C) a ln 2 (D) 2a ln 2118. If the probability of solving a problem by three students are 1/2, 2/3 and 1/4 then probability that the

problem will be solved-(A) 1/2 (B) 3/4 (C) 7/8 (D) 1/8

119. A pair of dice is thrown. If 5 appears on at least one of the dice, then the probability that the sum is 10or greater, is-(A) 11/36 (B) 2/9 (C) 3/11 (D) 1/12

120. If banda are two vectors such that 1|a|

, 4|b|

, 2b·a . If b3)ba2(c

then angle between

candb is

(A) 6

(B) 3

(C) 32

(D) 65




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01. D

02. B

03. A

04. C

05. D

06. B

07. D

08. C

09. A

10. D

11. B

12. D

13. C

14. A

15. A

16. D

17. B

18. D

19. A

20. C

21. B

22. D

23. D

24. D

25. B

26. D

27. C

28. B

29. A

30. C

PART - I

ANSWER KEY

Course VIClass XII Appeared/Passed Students

PART - II


31. B

32. A

33. B

34. C

35. A

36. B

37. C

38. C

39. C

40. B

41. B

42. D

43. B

44. D

45. A

46. C

47. B

48. B

49. D

50. B

51. B

52. B

53. B

54. B

55. C

56. B

57. C

58. C

59. A

60. B

61. A

62. B

63. A

64. C

65. C

66. C

67. B

68. C

69. D

70. B

71. D

72. B

73. C

74. A

75. C

76. C

77. B

78. A

79. A

80. B

81. D

82. A

83. A

84. B

85. A

86. B

87. D

88. D

89. C

90. B

91. A

92. B

93. B

94. A

95. C

96. A

97. B

98. C

99. B

100. C

101. D

102. C

103. C

104. A

105. D

106. B

107. D

108. C

109. A

110. B

111. A

112. C

113. A

114. C

115. D

116. C

117. B

118. C

119. C

120. D

www.brothersacademy.co.in Admission Test (Course -VII) _ XII Appeared/Passed


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Course VIIClass XII Appeared/Passed Students

Name : ________________________________________________ Reg. No. : _____________

Code

AADMISSION TEST


The paper is divided into TWO PARTS. PART - I contains 30 question of Basic Aptitude.PART - II contains 90 question of Section - I (Physics - 30), Section - II (Chemistry - 30) &Section - III (Biology - 30).










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+ = + =

+ =?

(A) (B) (C) (D)



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+ =+ =

+ =?

(A) (B) (C) (D)


(A) (B) (C) (D)


(A) (B) (C) (D)



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Direction for questions 16 – 17: Abra is Rambo's daughter. Shintu is Rambo's sister. Shintu's daugh-

ter is called Cabra and son is called Dadra. Limba is Cabra's maternal Aunt.

16. Abra is limba's




18. Deepa moved a distance of 75 metres towards the north. She then turned to the left and then turned

to the right at an angle of 45o. In which direction was she moving finally ?


19. Johnson left for his office in his car. He drove 15 km towards north and then 10 km towards west.

He then turned to the south and covered 5 km. Further, he turned to the east and moved 8 km.

Finally, he turned right and drove 10 km. How far and in which direction is he from his starting

point ?




21. A man leaves for his office from his house. He walks towards East. After moving a distance of 20

m, he turns south and walks 10 m. Then he walks 35 m towards the west and further 5 m towards

the north. He then turns towards east and walks 15 m. What is the straight distance (in metres)

between his initial and final position ?




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22.

A B C D

(A) (B) (C) (D)

23.

A B C D

(A) (B) (C) (D)

24. What is the number of straight lines in the following figure?

(A) 10 (B) 12 (C) 13 (D) 17

25. How many parallelograms are there in the following figure?

(A) 20 (B) 24 (C) 28 (D) 30



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(A) (B) (C) (D)


(A) (B) (C) (D)


(A) (B) (C) (D)
