STUDY REFERENCE GUIDE

STUDY REFERENCE GUIDE COURSE 653 BUSINESS RESEARCH METHODS LESSON PLANS

Instructor: Laurie Brown; e-mail: [email protected]

American Graduate University Covina, California

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733 North Dodsworth Avenue Covina, California 91724

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Business Research Methods – Course No. 653 (3 units) Welcome to Business Research Methods (Course No. 653). This distance learning course is composed of a series of Lesson Modules. Each lesson module requires the student to complete an assignment and an examination. The student is also required to complete a course final examination. Individual course lessons must be completed in their numerical order. The CourseWebs Learning Management System (LMS) will not allow a student to move on to the next lesson until the previous lesson examination has been completed and graded. Lesson examinations not requiring instructor review are graded and notice is sent to the student within minutes of submittal. Lesson examinations requiring instructor review are normally graded within 24 to 72 hours. Students can work ahead in their print Study Guide while waiting for instructor reviews and grading. Lesson Topic – Each lesson has a title that succinctly summarizes the theme of the lesson. Lesson Objectives – The lesson objectives outline the important concepts to be learned in the lesson. They are meant to guide the student in the reading of the material. At the end of the lesson the student should have achieved the objectives listed. Lesson Assignment – The lesson assignment is a list of what the student should read, study or answer. This can include reading assignments from the course textbook, internet assignments, etc. Lesson Review Exercises (LRE’s) – The LRE’s help the student in reviewing the lesson assignment. While the student’s answers to the LRE’s do not have to be submitted to AGU for grading, they are very instrumental in mastering the course materials and in successful completion of the course examinations. Subject Examinations – This is a test designed to measure your understanding of the course content and materials. These examinations consist of multiple choice and true-false questions. These examinations must be submitted to AGU for grading. Each module that is not an Application Lesson, will include a subject examination. Application Lessons – After every 3-5 lesson modules, there will be what we term an Application Lesson. The purpose of these lessons is to allow the student to apply what has been learned in the previous lesson modules. These Application Lessons consist of problems, exercises, case analysis, essays, and Web exercises, which must be submitted to the AGU instructor for grading through the CourseWebs LMS. Grading – Lessons 6, 12, 17 and 21 are Application Lessons. These four lessons are each weighted at 5% of the total course grade. Once all lessons have been completed, you will then need to complete a Final Exam, which is weighted at 20% of the total course grade. Your Instructor – You will have an instructor assigned for the course. The instructor will send you a welcome message with details on how to contact him or her. The instructor is there to provide you with help in completing the course work. The instructor will be evaluating and grading your work in the Application Lessons and Final Examination. In addition, the AGU Student Services Department ([email protected]) is there to provide assistance and prompt feedback on student submittals and questions. Schedule – You have five months to complete the course. The start date for the course is 5 days after the course registration date. A Recommended Progress Schedule sheet for this course may be found in the inside cover of this Study Reference Guide. Text – Business Research Methods, 12th Ed., Donald Cooper/Pamela Schindler, McGraw-Hill. Good luck in the course and remember to use all the resources available to you.

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BUSINESS RESEARCH METHODS – COURSE NO. 653 COURSE DESCRIPTION This course is designed to provide a working knowledge of research methods and analytical techniques as they are used in business and government as tools for implementing a systematic approach to planning policies, programs and projects. It combines in one course the study of research methodology, the planning and design of research, and the management science tools that are used and the nature of decisions to which the research and analysis contribute. Modern decision theory which treats managerial problem solving as the selection of the best solution from a set of alternatives is emphasized. The course is not concerned with abstract statistical concepts but, rather, with the applicable techniques and their use in solving practical business problems. In addition to providing a working knowledge of research methods and design, the course includes a brief, but thorough description of forty (40) tools of analysis with a description of the technique and its application. None of the techniques require sophisticated mathematical or computer implementation. Emphasis is placed on how the techniques are used and how to implement the results. COURSE LESSON MODULES LESSON 1 — An Overview of the Practice of Research in Business and Its Uses

LESSON 2 — Ethical Issues in Business Research

LESSON 3 — The Scientific Method and the Language of Research

LESSON 4 — A General Overview of the Research Process

LESSON 5 — The Role and Value of Different Types and Sources of Information in Exploratory Research

LESSON 6 — Application Lesson – Lessons 1 through 5

LESSON 7 — Basic Stages, Types and Descriptions of Various Research Design Strategies

LESSON 8 — The Use of Qualitative Methods That Draw Data from People and Organizations

LESSON 9 — The Use, Evaluation and Practice of Observation Methodology in Research

LESSON 10 — The Uses, Strengths and Limitations of Experiments and the Experimental Method

LESSON 11 — Communication Research Use and Methodology


LESSON 13 — Measurement

LESSON 14 — The Characteristics, Selection and Use of Measurement Scales

LESSON 15 — Measurement Instruments; Question Types and Content

LESSON 16 — Sampling; Purpose and Methodology


LESSON 18 — Data Preparation and Description in General Qualitative and Quantitative Terms

LESSON 19 — Methodologies in Exploring, Displaying and Examining Data

LESSON 20 — Hypothesis Testing


LESSON 22 — The Creation, Types and Contents of Written Research Reports

LESSON 23 — The Creation, Types and Contents of Oral Research Presentations Final Examination (Please request the Final Exam for this course after completion of all Lessons. Go to www.agu.edu and click on Student Center; click on Online Exams; and click on “Final Exam Request Form” link at the bottom of the page.) COURSE OBJECTIVES At the completion of this course the student will, through the use of text, University supplied questions and answers, and examination questions, be able to: Define the role and value of research in the business environment.

Describe the research process.

Illustrate the general format and types of research requests and proposals.

Demonstrate the need for ethics in the research process.

Characterize the various types of research designs and identify their corresponding data types.

Describe the types of data measurement methodologies and explain their various strengths and weaknesses.

Explain the general methodologies used in data preparation and exploration.

Define a hypothesis and describe the process of hypothesis testing.

Illustrate the methods and best practices for presenting research findings.

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LESSON 1

BUSINESS RESEARCH METHODS

COURSE 653 LESSON TOPIC:

An Overview of the Practice of Research in Business and Its Uses LESSON OBJECTIVE:

At the completion of this topic the student will, through the use of text, University supplied questions and answers, and examination questions, be able to:

Illustrate how business research differs from decision support systems and business

intelligence systems.

Describe the trends affecting business research.

Illustrate the emerging hierarchy of research-based decision makers.

Identify the different types of research studies used in business.

Differentiate between good business research and research that falls short of professional quality.

Describe the nature of the research process.

LESSON ASSIGNMENT:

Business Research Methods, Twelfth Edition Chapter 1, “Research in Business”

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LESSON REVIEW EXERCISES

LESSON 1 NOTE: The following exercises are study aids designed to help you prepare for the subject exam. Write your answers in the space provided after each exercise. Use the blank page to record other notes on the text content. Immediately check your answers with the key at the end of the guide. Do not submit your answers to AGU for grading. Question 1: What is business research; why do it? Question 2: What is a decision support system? Question 3: What is a business intelligence system? Question 4: What is the difference between applied research and basic or pure research?

Provide an example of each. Question 5: The text uses a three tiered pyramid to illustrate the hierarchy of information-

based decision makers. What are the characteristics of each tier? Question 6: What is the difference between strategic and tactical goals in business?

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Question 7: Distinguish between an explanatory and predictive research study. Question 8: Distinguish between a reporting study and a descriptive study? Question 9: Define control. Question 10: What are the characteristics of good quality research? Question 11: What is the scientific method and why is it important? Question 12: What is the purpose of business research?

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LESSON NOTES NOTE: This space is provided to enable the student to outline the lesson, or to emphasize additional points which the student considers to be of significant interest.

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SUBJECT EXAMINATION

COURSE 653 – LESSON 1 Please read the following:

1. After carefully reading each question, mark your answers in the appropriate spaces in the on-line testing system at www.agu.edu.

2. Submit any inquiries through “Contact Us” on the webpage, or by contacting Student

Services at [email protected]. MULTIPLE CHOICE: Question 1: The problem or opportunity that requires a business decision on the part of the

decision maker is called a:

(a) Management dilemma (b) Research problem (c) Challenge (d) Measurement approach (e) Return on business investment

Question 2: Return on Investment (ROI) is defined in the text as:

(a) Stockholders returns (b) Financial return for all expenditures (c) Economic activity (d) Government investments (e) Banking analysis

Question 3: What is the realization that geography is no longer a primary constraint?

(a) Globalization (b) Big business (c) Management of information systems (d) Technical connectivity (e) All of the above

Question 4: Greater computing power and speed can be attributed to:

(a) Lower-cost data collection (b) Powerful computations (c) Better visualization tools (d) Integration of data (e) All of the above

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Question 5: What is critical for understanding how information drives decisions relating to business?

(a) Decision support system (b) Business intelligence (c) Business missions (d) Both (a) and (b) (e) Business strategies

Question 6: Which of the following is not a possible source of business intelligence?

(a) Competitor websites (b) Government reports (c) Business research reports (d) Clipping services (e) All of the above are possible sources

Question 7: Recordings of public proceedings, speeches by elected officials, and information

on agency websites are all examples of business intelligence available from __________ sources.

(a) Competitive (b) Cultural (c) Government (d) Demographic (e) Technological

Question 8: Which tier in the hierarchy of business decision makers sees research as the

fundamental first step in any business venture?

(a) Base tier (b) Middle tier (c) Top tier (d) All of the above (e) None of the above

Question 9: Minute Maid sees research as the fundamental first step in any business decision

and it has implementation and activation of the research as the critical stages of decision makers in this tier. At what level of the hierarchy of business decision makers does Minute Maid operate?

(a) Top tier (b) Middle tier (c) Base tier (d) Foundation tier (e) Information tier

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Question 10: Visionary decision makers tend to base business decisions on:

(a) Proprietary business research (b) Instinct (c) Secondary data (d) Past experience (e) All of the above

Question 11: Which of the following is an example of a business decision maker?

(a) Politician’s election consultant (b) Church pastor (c) Manager of a non-profit program (d) Business manager of a consumer goods product (e) All of the above

Question 12: Some organizations make decisions based on past experience, instincts, or

secondary data searches. These organizations are operating at the __________ tier of the hierarchy of business decision makers.

(a) Instinctual (b) Middle (c) Base (d) Pinnacle (e) Information

Question 13: Intuitive decision makers tend to base business decisions on:

(a) Business research (b) Instinct (c) Primary data (d) Proprietary research (e) All of the above

Question 14: Following a customer’s click-through patterns when they access the internet is an

example of __________ data.

(a) Transactional (b) Observational (c) Conversational (d) Internet analytics (e) Both (b) and (c)

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Question 15: Following Twitter posts during a trial to assess public opinion is an example of __________ data.

(a) Transactional (b) Observational (c) Conversational (d) Internet analytics (e) None of the above

Question 16: Tracking warehouse and shipping manifests is an example of __________ data.

(a) Transactional (b) Observational (c) Conversational (d) Internet analytics (e) None of the above

Question 17: Which of the following is pure research rather than applied research?

(a) Sleep duration, as impacting work efficiency (b) Disruption of cognitive ability under stress (c) The relationship between leadership traits and corporate success (d) Work towards the discovery of a possible new element (e) Comparing brand logos after a change

Question 18: Research methods courses recognize that students preparing to manage any

function need training in a disciplined process for conducting an inquiry of a management dilemma. Which of the following is not a reason for such training?

(a) More government intervention (b) Information overload (c) Greater computing power and speed (d) More government cooperation through information sharing (e) Shifting global centers of economic activity and competition

Question 19: Which is not an example of research?

(a) Experiment in product taste preferences (b) A statistical analysis of errors in the recording of inventories (c) A test of cognitive dissonance theory and major investment decisions (d) A simulation of the information flows in an organization (e) A decision to change the firm’s method of accounting

Question 20: The goal of the research design is to maximize the __________ of the results.

(a) Objectivity (b) Subjectivity (c) Profitability (d) Morality (e) Reportability

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Question 21: Applied research:

(a) Has little direct impact on policy decisions (b) Is problem directed but not decision directed (c) Is problem directed and closely related to policy or action needs (d) Calls for a hypothesis to initiate the research (e) Is usually conducted in the laboratory

Question 22: Which term refers to procedures for generating replicable research that are

systematic and empirically-based?

(a) Scientific management (b) Total quality management (c) Scientific method (d) Theoretical research (e) Applied research

Question 23: Which of the following is not involved in clearly defining the purpose of business

research?

(a) Scope (b) Limitations (c) Precise meaning of all terms (d) Desired procedures (e) Understanding the decision problem

Question 24: The procedures used in the research are specified in the __________ section of a

research report.

(a) Problem statement (b) Research design (c) Limitations (d) Findings (e) Conclusions

Question 25: Which of the following is not a required characteristic of good research?

(a) Clearly defined purpose (b) Detailed research process (c) Focused on theory (d) Thorough research design (e) Recognition of limitations

Question 26: Good research follows the standards of the:

(a) American Manufacturers Association (b) Scientific method (c) Scientific management (d) American Association of Public Opinion Research (e) FTC

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Question 27: Researchers have the ethical responsibility to guard the welfare of:

(a) Research participants (b) Clients (c) Colleagues (d) Organizations to which they belong (e) All of the above

Question 28: Which of the following considerations is not a potential ethical dilemma for a

researcher?

(a) Psychological harm to respondents (b) Physical harm to respondents (c) Omission of significant procedural details in the research process (d) Invasion of privacy (e) Exploitation of respondents

Question 29: For the limitations of a study to be revealed appropriately, the researcher should:

(a) Compare the desired procedure with the actual procedure (b) Compare the desired sample with the actual sample (c) Ensure that the recommendations do not exceed the scope of the study (d) Address the time restraints imposed on the study (e) Both (a) and (b)

Question 30: The researcher conducting the study wanted to use a probability sample but due to

time restraints ultimately used a convenience sample. This would be explained in the __________ section of the research report.

(a) Problem statement (b) Limitations (c) Findings (d) Conclusions (e) None of the above

Question 31: Data was analyzed and it showed that: a salesperson’s performance is directly and

positively related to the salesperson’s level of education. This is an example of what type of research?

(a) Descriptive (b) Reporting (c) Predictive (d) Explanatory (e) Experimental

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Question 32: A predictive study showed that a company would gain a 10% market share if it reduced its product price by $5. The study assumed competitors would keep the prices of their products unchanged.

(a) This study can be used in all situations (b) The company should reduce its product price by $5 (c) As the company cannot control the price decisions of its competitors, the

study is not very useful (d) A new study focusing on a smaller number of variables is required (e) Market fluctuations make this study important for prediction

Question 33: An estimate of next year’s market share is an example of what type of research?

(a) Descriptive (b) Reporting (c) Predictive (d) Explanatory (e) Longitudinal

Question 34: Control in business research is the ability of the researcher to:

(a) Explain the outcome of a research study (b) Control question order in a descriptive study (c) Replicate a scenario and dictate a particular outcome (d) Determine the management dilemma (e) Determine the right sample

Question 35: Which of the following types of research is conducted to evaluate specific courses

of action or forecast current or future values?

(a) Reporting studies (b) Explanation studies (c) Description studies (d) Prediction studies (e) Observation studies

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ANSWERS TO LESSON REVIEW EXERCISES 1. Business research is a systematic inquiry that provides information. It is a process of

planning, acquiring, analyzing, and disseminating relevant information and insights to decision makers to mobilize the organization to act in ways that maximize business performance.

2. A decision support system is a large collection of relevant data organized for retrieval and

use in decision making. 3. A business intelligence system provides managers with ongoing information about events

and trends in the business environment. 4. Applied research has a practical problem-solving emphasis. Basic or pure research aims

to solve perplexing questions or obtain new knowledge of an experimental or theoretical nature that has little direct or immediate impact on action, performance, or policy decisions. For applied, you might ask: “In retail sales at Nordstrom’s, how would salary compensation affect monthly revenues?” For the pure research question, “What compensation factors influence motivation to acquire sales leads, initiate contacts, close sales, and continue post-sale service?”

5. In the top tier, organizations see research as the first step in any venture. They use

creative combinations of research techniques to gain insights that will help them make better decisions. They may partner with outside research suppliers. Every major decision is guided by business research. There is generally enterprise-wide access to research data and findings. In the middle tier, decision makers periodically rely on research information. Decision makers turn to business research when they perceive the risk of a particular strategy or tactic to be too great to proceed without it. They rely heavily on tried-and-true methodologies, such as surveys and focus groups. They often choose the methodology before fully assessing its appropriateness to the problem at hand. Within the organization there is limited access to research data and findings. In the base tier, managers primarily use instinct, experience, and intuition to facilitate their decisions. Decisions are supported with secondary data searches. They often rely on informal group discussion, a small number of individual interviews, or feedback from the sales force. Large firms that occupy this tier are often influenced by culture while smaller companies may think formalized research is too expensive to employ.

6. Strategy is defined as the general approach, plan or method an organization will employ

to achieve its goals; while tactics are specific, timed activities that execute a strategy. 7. An explanatory study goes beyond description and attempts to explain the reasons for the

phenomenon that the descriptive study only observed. The researcher uses theories or at least hypotheses to account for the forces that caused a certain phenomenon to occur. A predictive study is rooted in theory like explanation. In business research, prediction is found in studies conducted to evaluate specific courses of action or to forecast current and future values. Control is a logical outcome of prediction.

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8. A reporting study provides a summation of data, often recasting data to achieve a deeper understanding or to generate statistics for comparison. A reporting study calls for knowledge and skill with information sources and gatekeepers of information sources. Such a study usually requires little inference or conclusion drawing. A descriptive study tries to discover answers to the questions who, what, when, where, and, sometimes, how. The researcher attempts to describe or define a subject, often by creating a profile of a group of problems, people, or events. The descriptive study is popular in research because of its versatility across management disciplines.

9. Control is a logical outcome of a prediction. The complexity of the phenomenon and the

adequacy of the prediction theory largely decide success in a control study. Being able to replicate a scenario and dictate a particular outcome is the objective of control.

10. The characteristics of good research are as follows: (1) purpose clearly defined; (2)

research process detailed; (3) research design thoroughly planned; (4) high ethical standards applied; (5) limitations frankly revealed; (6) analysis adequate for decision maker’s needs; (7) findings presented unambiguously; (8) conclusions justified; (9) researcher’s experience reflected.

11. The scientific method is a method of inquiry that employs systematic, empirically based

procedures for generating replicable research. A key feature of the scientific method is the hypothesis. An empirically testable hypothesis lends credibility to the results of an inquiry. The scientific method is important to researchers and students of all kinds because it offers an objective view of the evidence that is free of hyperbole and wishful thinking.

12. Business research is only valuable to the extent that it can help managers make better,

more informed, decisions.

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LESSON 2



Ethical Issues in Business Research LESSON OBJECTIVES:

Upon the completion of this topic the student will, through the use of text, University supplied questions and answers, and examination questions, be able to:

Describe the issues in ethical research.

Explain the “no harm” principle.

Illustrate how the “no harm” principle applies to participants, researchers and

research sponsors.

Identify the differing ethical dilemmas and responsibilities of researchers, their assistants and sponsors.

Describe the role of ethical codes of conduct in professional associations.

LESSON ASSIGNMENT:

Business Research Methods, Twelfth Edition Chapter 2, “Ethics in Business Research”

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LESSON 2 NOTE: The following exercises are study aids designed to help you prepare for the subject exam. Write your answers in the space provided after each exercise. Use the blank page to record other notes on the text content. Immediately check your answers with the key at the end of the guide. Do not submit your answers to AGU for grading. Question 1: What are ethics? Question 2: What is the purpose of ethics in research? Question 3: What are the ethical standards involved in the treatment of participants in the

design of a research study? Question 4: What are the disclosures that safeguard the participants in research? Question 5: Should the researcher discuss the benefits of the research to participants? Question 6: What information should the researcher give the participant before including the

participant in a study? Question 7: What is the benefit to the researcher of disclosing the purpose of a research study?

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Question 8: Ethically, is it permissible to hide the purpose and benefits of a given study? If so, why would deception be acceptable?

Question 9: Ethically, is it permissible to offer very large financial or other incentives for

participation in a study? Question 10: What is the “problem of deception”? Question 11: When is it inappropriate to use deception? Question 12: What, exactly, is deception? Question 13: What is the standard used by the American Psychological Association’s ethics

code in the use of deception? Question 14: What is involved in securing “informed consent” and when should it be obtained? Question 15: When is it particularly important to get a written consent from participants?

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Question 16: What type of research generally allows oral consent? Question 17: What are the four characteristics of complete informed consent? Question 18: When should participants be “debriefed” in a study? Question 19: What should be discussed in a debriefing? Question 20: Who has a right to privacy? Question 21: How can a privacy guarantee help the researcher? Question 22: What two laws are primarily responsible for protecting citizens’ right to privacy? Question 23: How is confidentiality related to the right to privacy?

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Question 24: What measures must the researcher take to guard the confidentiality of research records?

Question 25: Should data entry personnel be given access to the original interview response

sheets? Should interview response sheets ever be destroyed? Question 26: Do participants have the right to refuse to answer selected questions in a study? Question 27: Can the act of observation violate the right to privacy? Question 28: What information should the researcher give participants to inform them of their

right to privacy? Question 29: Is usage information of a credit card considered private? Question 30: ESOMAR and CASRO recommend specific ethical practices with regard to

participants in mobile surveys. What are these practices? Make an argument for which practice is most important.

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Question 31: Does the researcher bear any ethical responsibility to the sponsor of research? Question 32: What are the three types of confidentiality that the sponsor can request of the

researcher? Briefly describe each type. Question 33: What is the “right to quality research” and what are the main features of this

right? Question 34: If a sponsor pays directly for an unethical practice or method is it ok for the

researcher to participate? Question 35: Who enjoys the right to safety in the research context? Question 36: Who is responsible for the safety of the researcher or the research assistants? Question 37: What are the ethical responsibilities of research assistants? Question 38: What is a code of ethics?

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Question 39: What makes a code of ethics effective? Question 40: What two documents spurred the creation of many codes of ethics? Question 41: What is an IRB and who created it? Question 42: What two areas of research do IRBs focus on?

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SUBJECT EXAMINATION


1. After carefully reading each question, mark your answers in the appropriate spaces

in the on-line testing system at www.agu.edu. 2. Submit any inquiries through “Contact Us” on the webpage, or by contacting Student

Services at [email protected].

MULTIPLE CHOICE: Question 1: Which term below refers to norms or standards of behavior that guide moral

choices about research behavior?

(a) Politics (b) Ethics (c) Standards (d) Philosophy (e) Integrity

Question 2: The goal of ethics in research is to:

(a) Ensure that no one is harmed (b) Protect researchers from legal liability (c) Identify what behavior is appropriate (d) Ensure research sponsors fulfill their legal obligations (e) None of the above

Question 3: All of the following are unethical activities except:

(a) Violating nondisclosure agreements (b) Revealing the names of research participants (c) Stating that a survey will take 10 minutes to complete when the actual time

is 15 minutes (d) Invoicing for time that was not spent on the project (e) Providing incentives for respondents

Question 4: To ensure the ethical treatment of participants, researchers should do all of the

following except:

(a) Explain the benefits of the study (b) Provide incentives to participants (c) Explain the participants’ rights (d) Explain what steps have been taken to protect participants (e) Obtain informed consent

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Question 5: Whenever direct contact is made with a participant, the researcher should discuss the study’s __________, being careful to neither overstate nor understate them.

(a) Sampling method (b) Management dilemma (c) Study strategy (d) Benefits (e) Data analysis

Question 6: Which of the following is an appropriate use of deception in research?

(a) To collect data to compile lists for selling something (b) To develop competitive intelligence (c) To collect personal information for fraudulent purposes (d) To prevent biasing the respondents (e) All of the above

Question 7: Deception is considered inappropriate unless:

(a) The study’s value justifies the use of deception (b) No alternatives to justification are feasible (c) It is necessary to protect a third party (d) The respondents would be biased (e) All of the above

Question 8: Which of the following situations does not require signed consent forms from

participants?

(a) A study of cereal preferences among children ages 9-12 (b) A study of the effectiveness of prescription arthritis medications (c) A study of travel preferences among frequent fliers (d) A study that requires information about the medical history of participants (e) All of the examples require signed consent

Question 9: Anne is introducing a group of research participants to the study at hand. To

ensure adequate oral consent, she should include all of the following components in her introduction except:

(a) Research organization (b) Promise of anonymity and confidentiality (c) Sponsoring organization (d) Purpose of the research (e) Estimate of when the research study will be published

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Question 10: Debriefing differs from informed consent in that:

(a) Debriefing occurs after the study while informed consent occurs before (b) Debriefing discloses any deception while informed consent does not (c) Informed consent discloses the purpose of the study while a debriefing does

not (d) Some individuals not competent to give informed consent need simply be

debriefed (e) Debriefing guidelines are based on the Nuremberg Code while informed

consent guidelines are based on the American Psychological Association’s code of ethics

Question 11: When participants are intentionally or accidentally deceived, they should be

__________ once the research is complete.

(a) Paid (b) Debriefed (c) Thanked (d) All of the above (e) None of the above

Question 12: In a restaurant complaint study, Dr. Jackson used deception to avoid biasing the

participants. In this situation, what should Dr. Jackson do once the research is complete?

(a) Apologize (b) Pay the participants (c) Debrief the participants (d) Notify participants of their rights (e) All of the above

Question 13: How does debriefing interact with the effects of deception?

(a) Debriefing is associated with more positive feelings about the value of research

(b) Debriefing is associated with resentment among those who have been deceived

(c) Debriefing has no effect (d) Debriefing is associated with dissatisfaction among those who have been

deceived (e) Debriefing negates any effects of deception

Question 14: A privacy guarantee protects participants but also protects:

(a) Research from legal liability (b) The sponsoring organization (c) The validity of the study (d) The value of the research (e) Against fraud

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Question 15: All of the following are ways to protect participant confidentiality except:

(a) Obtain signed nondisclosure documents from those who wish access to the data

(b) Restrict access to participant identification (c) Offer access to study results to participants (d) Reveal participant information only with written consent (e) Restrict access to data where the participant is identified

Question 16: What types of information can threaten participant confidentiality?

(a) Ethnicity (b) Telephone numbers (c) Household income (d) Educational level (e) Gender

Question 17: Which of the following is an inappropriate place for researchers to observe

behavior when participants are not asked for prior permission?

(a) Movie theaters (b) Lawyers’ offices (c) Grocery stores (d) Shopping malls (e) Zoos

Question 18: Companies that comply with the __________ are granted immunity from legal

action under the EU’s data protection directive.

(a) Privacy Protection Act (b) Safe Harbor Agreement (c) Data Mining Protection Agreement (d) Consumer Online Privacy Act (e) Gramm-Leach-Bliley Agreement

Question 19: The principle of the U.S. Safe Harbor Agreement that requires companies to

inform consumers about what information is being collected, how that information will be used, and who that information will be shared with is called the principle of:

(a) Choice (b) Access (c) Notice (d) Onward transfer (e) Data integrity

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Question 20: Which form of nondisclosure protects a sponsor from revealing its plans to competitors?

(a) Purpose nondisclosure (b) Findings nondisclosure (c) Identity nondisclosure (d) Sponsor nondisclosure (e) Facts nondisclosure

Question 21: Which of the following is an example of sponsor nondisclosure?

(a) Dean and Deluca doesn’t want Whole Foods to know about it conducting research on organic wines

(b) Whole Foods is studying a potential new location near a large condo complex

(c) Bayer seeks to disclose that Vioxx is no more effective than aspirin (d) Vioxx seeks to hide results suggesting that it is equivalent to aspirin in

reducing the pain of arthritis (e) All of the above

Question 22: Which form of nondisclosure involves protecting the purpose of the study or its

details?


Question 23: Ford Motor Company investigated the durability of Firestone tires on Explorers at

various speeds and conditions but likely utilized __________ to protect itself from legal activity.


Question 24: Merck conducted tests on the effectiveness and safety of Vioxx. Merck did not

seek to hide its identity as a sponsor of the research or the study’s purpose. However, it did seek to protect research data suggesting that Vioxx is no more effective than aspirin. In this situation, Merck sought:


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Question 25: Which of the following is an example of findings nondisclosure?

(a) Dean and Deluca doesn’t want Whole Foods to know about it conducting research on organic wines

(b) Whole Foods is studying a potential new location near a large condo complex

(c) Bayer seeks to disclose that Vioxx is no more effective than aspirin (d) Vioxx seeks to hide results suggesting that it is equivalent to aspirin in

reducing the pain of arthritis (e) All of the above

Question 26: The sponsor’s right to an appropriate, value-laden research design and data

handling and reporting techniques is referred to as the sponsor’s:

(a) Right to quality (b) Right to privacy (c) Right to safety (d) Right to value (e) Right to research

Question 27: Which right of sponsors is suggested by the quote, “There are three kinds of lies:

lies, damn lies, and statistics”?

(a) Right to privacy (b) Right to sponsor nondisclosure (c) Right to quality (d) Right to safety (e) Right to findings nondisclosure

Question 28: The right of interviewers, surveyors, experimenters, observers, and participants to

be protected from threat of physical or psychological harm is the right to:

(a) Quality (b) Security (c) Freedom (d) Safety (e) Happiness

Question 29: What term refers to an organization’s codified set of norms or standards of

behavior that guide moral choices about research behavior?

(a) Code of morals (b) Code of ethics (c) Laws (d) Regulations (e) Policies in place

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Question 30: Which of the following is necessary for a code of ethics to be effective?

(a) Regulative nature (b) Protective of public interest (c) Enforceable (d) Behavior-specific (e) Protective of the interests of the profession

Question 31: Organizations receiving federal support are required to have a(n) __________

review on all research proposals.

(a) Advisory board (b) Institutional review board (c) Health and human service board (d) Scientific methods board (e) Bureau of research

Question 32: Institutional Review Boards concentrate on two key areas. One is the guarantee of

obtaining complete, informed consent from participants. The other is:

(a) Risk/benefit analysis (b) Value assessment (c) Scientific importance (d) Assessment of the fit between the research question and proposed research

design (e) Evaluation of the proposed budget

Question 33: IRBs exist in order to:

(a) Guarantee complete, informed consent is obtained from participants (b) Apply knowledge gained from research (c) Evaluate the research design chosen (d) Evaluate the allocation of expenses in the project (e) Protect the researchers from legal liability

Question 34: The guarantee of informed consent can be traced to the first ten points in the:

(a) Consumer Bill of Rights (b) Nuremberg Code (c) Constitution (d) 5th Amendment (e) Kyoto Treaty

Question 35: Which law was the first to guarantee Americans the right to privacy?

(a) The Bill of Rights (b) Privacy Protection Act (c) Children’s Online Privacy Protection Act (d) Privacy Act (e) Civil Rights Act

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ANSWERS TO LESSON REVIEW EXERCISES 1. Ethics are norms or standards of behavior that guide moral choices about our behavior

and our relationships with others. 2. The purpose of ethics in research is to ensure that no one is harmed or suffers adverse

consequences from research activities. The concept of “no harm” is the essential concept in business research ethical standards.

3. In general, research must be designed so that a respondent does not suffer physical harm,

discomfort, pain, embarrassment or loss of privacy. 4. To safeguard against ethical abuse, the researcher should follow three guidelines:

Disclose study benefits.

Disclose participant rights and protections.

Obtain informed consent. 5. Yes, whenever direct contact is made with a participant, the researcher should discuss the

study’s benefits, without over- or understating the benefits. 6. An interviewer should begin any interview with the following:

His or her name.

The name of the research organization.

A brief description of the purpose and benefit of the research.

A complete description of the inducements to participate, financial or otherwise. 7. Knowing why one is being asked questions improves cooperation. 8. Sometimes, the purpose and benefits of the study or experiment must be concealed from

respondents in order to avoid introducing bias or to protect the confidentiality of a third party.

9. Financial or other incentives should not be disproportionate to the task or presented in a

fashion that result in coercion. 10. Deception is the result of the occasional need for concealing objectives. 11. Deception should not be used to improve response rates or to enhance any other technical

aspect of a study. 12. Deception occurs when the participants are told only part of the truth, or when the truth is

fully compromised.

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13. The American Psychological Association’s ethics code states that the use of deception is inappropriate unless deceptive techniques are justified by the study’s expected value and equally effective alternatives that do not use deception are not feasible. Specifically the standard is “feasibility.”

14. Securing informed consent from respondents is a matter of fully disclosing the

procedures of the proposed study or other relevant research design features before requesting permission to proceed.

15. It is particularly important to secure written consent when dealing with the following:

With children

Doing research with medical or psychological ramifications

There is a chance the data could harm the participant

If the researchers offer only limited protection of confidentiality 16. For most business research, oral consent is acceptable. 17. The four characteristics of complete informed consent are as follows:

The participant must be competent to give consent.

Consent must be voluntary.

Participants must be adequately informed to make a decision.

Participants should know the possible risks or outcomes associated with the research.

18. In situations where respondents are intentionally or accidentally deceived, they should be

debriefed once the research is complete. 19. Each of the following topics should be discussed in a typical debriefing:

Explanation of any deception.

Description of the hypothesis, goal, or purpose of the study.

Post-study sharing of results.

Post-study follow-up medical or psychological attention.

Explain the reasons for using deception in the context of the study’s goals.

Where severe reactions occur, follow-up attention should be provided to ensure that the participants remain unharmed.

20. All individuals have a right to privacy, and researchers must respect that right. 21. The privacy guarantee helps the researcher in that it helps to enhance the validity of the

research.

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22. Public Law 95-38 (Privacy Act of 1974): the first law guaranteeing Americans the right to privacy. Public Law 96-440 (Privacy Act of 1980): carries the right to privacy further.

23. Guarding the participant’s right to privacy involves maintaining the confidentiality

(secrecy) of research information at the participant level. 24. The researcher should do the following to protect the confidentiality of research

information.

Obtain signed nondisclosure documents from assistants and others with access to data.

Restrict access to participant identification from assistants and others with access to data.

Reveal participant information only with written consent from the participant. Restrict access to data instruments where the participant is identified. Do not disclose data subsets.

25. Interview response sheets should be accessible only to the editors and data entry

personnel. Occasionally, data collection instruments should be destroyed once the data are in a data file.

26. A right to privacy means one has the right to refuse to be interviewed or to refuse to

answer any question in an interview. 27. A right to privacy means one has the right to engage in private behavior in private places,

without fear of observation. 28. To properly inform participants of their right to privacy (and to be courteous), researchers

should do the following:

Inform participants of their right to refuse to answer any questions or participate in the study.

Obtain permission to interview participants. Schedule field and phone interviews. Limit the time required for participation. Restrict observation to public behavior only.

29. No. Often, use of such cards offer the researcher implied consent to participant

surveillance. 30. These practices require following country-specific do-not-call guidelines, prior informed

consent if text messaging is used, option to opt-out of research, and not use unsolicited emails to recruit participants. If researchers follow the first guideline (RE: honoring do-not-call requests) then the others follow; thus an argument could be made that this is most important. Other students will argue that recruiting can be made via email, not by phone, so following the no unsolicited emails guideline could also be “most important” as it controls the others.

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31. Yes. 32. The three types of confidentiality include:

Sponsor nondisclosure – companies have a right to dissociate themselves from the sponsorship of a research project.

Purpose nondisclosure – companies have a right to protect the purpose of the study or its details.

Findings nondisclosure – companies have a right to expect the research data and findings to be confidential, at least until the management decides otherwise.

33. The sponsor has a right to quality research. The researcher bears the responsibility to

provide the following:

Providing a research design appropriate for the research question.

Maximizing the sponsor’s value for the resources expended.

Providing data-handling and reporting techniques appropriate for the data collected.

From the proposal to final reporting, the researcher guides the sponsor on the proper techniques and interpretations.

The researcher should propose the design most suitable for the problem.

A researcher should not propose activities designed to maximize researcher revenue or minimize researcher effort at the sponsor’s expense.

We’ve all heard “You can lie with statistics.” It is the researcher’s responsibility to prevent that from occurring.

The ethical researcher reports findings in ways that minimize the drawing of false conclusions.

The ethical researcher also uses charts, graphs, and tables to show data objectively, despite the sponsor’s preferred outcomes.

34. No, the researcher is responsible to maintain his or her ethical responsibilities regardless

of the sponsor’s wishes. 35. The researcher and the research assistants enjoy the right to safety in the research context. 36. Researchers are responsible for their team’s safety, as well as their own. 37. Research assistants bear the following ethical responsibilities:

Carry out the sampling plan

Interview or observe respondents without bias

Accurately record all necessary data

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38. A code of ethics is an organization’s codified set of norms or standards of behavior that guide moral choices about research behavior.

39. An effective code of ethics is backed by enforcement and penalties. Other characteristics

of effective codes include the following:

They are regulative

They protect the public interest and interests of the profession served by the code

They are behavior-specific

They are enforceable 40. The text cites the Belmont Report of 1979 and the Federal Register of 1991 as being the

sources for many codes of ethics. 41. An IRB is an Institutional Review Board. IRBs were created by the United States

government in 1966. The Department of Health and Human Services (HHS) translated the federal regulations into policy. Most other federal and state agencies follow the HHS-developed guidelines.

42. IRBs concentrate on two areas. The first is the guarantee of obtaining complete, informed

consent from participants. The second is the risk assessment and benefit analysis review.

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LESSON 3



The Scientific Method and the Language of Research LESSON OBJECTIVE:

At the completion of this topic the student will, through the use of text, University supplied questions and answers, and examination questions, be able to:

Explain the terminology used by professional researchers employing scientific

thinking.

Describe the process of formulating a proper hypothesis.

List the various types of hypotheses and their uses.

Identify and define independent variables and dependent variables.

Identify and define discrete variables and continuous variables.

List and discuss the tenets of the scientific method.

Define and distinguish between constructs and concepts.

Define a conceptual scheme. LESSON ASSIGNMENT:

Business Research Methods, Twelfth Edition Chapter 3, “Thinking Like a Researcher”

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LESSON 3 NOTE: The following exercises are study aids designed to help you prepare for the subject exam. Write your answers in the space provided after each exercise. Use the blank page to record other notes on the text content. Immediately check your answers with the key at the end of the guide. Do not submit your answers to AGU for grading. Question 1: What are the principles of sound reasoning as identified by the text? Question 2: Why is sound reasoning important to conducting valid research? Question 3: What are the essential tenets of the scientific method? Question 4: What is induction or inductive reasoning? Question 5: What is deduction? Question 6: What is empiricism? Question 7: What two conditions must a deduction meet in order to be valid?

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Question 8: What is the “double movement of reflective thought?” Question 9: What is a concept? Question 10: Why is it important to clearly identify concepts in research? Question 11: What is a construct and how is it related to a concept? Question 12: What does the “level of abstraction” have to do with the formulation of a

construct? Question 13: What is an “operational definition” and how is it related to a “dictionary

definition?” Question 14: How can the use of “dictionary definitions” complicate or destroy the value of

research? Question 15: Define a variable and describe the various types of variables and the values they

contain.

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Question 16: What role does an independent variable play in a study? Question 17: What role does a dependent variable play in a study? Question 18: What role does a moderating variable play in a study? Question 19: Distinguish between moderating and extraneous variables. Question 20: What role does a control variable have in a study? Question 21: Describe an intervening variable. Question 22: What is the difference between a proposition and a hypothesis? Question 23: What are the two general types of hypotheses?

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Question 24: What type of hypotheses are correlational and explanatory hypotheses? Question 25: What are the three conditions required of a strong hypothesis? Question 26: What is a theory and how is it different from a hypothesis? Question 27: What is a model in the context of business research? Question 28: What are the four general types of models described in the text?

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SUBJECT EXAMINATION




Services at [email protected]. MULTIPLE CHOICE:

Question 1: Which term below refers to a bundle of meanings or characteristics associated

with certain concrete, unambiguous events, objects, conditions, or situations?

(a) Variable (b) Construct (c) Concept (d) Theory (e) Model

Question 2: A __________ is an image or abstract idea specifically invented for a given

research and/or theory-building purpose.

(a) Variable (b) Construct (c) Concept (d) Theory (e) Model

Question 3: Automobile is a(n) __________ concept, while service quality is a(n)

__________ concept.

(a) Abstract, objective (b) Subjective, objective (c) Intangible, tangible (d) Objective, abstract (e) Factual, perceptual

Question 4: Abstract concepts such as personality, need for variety, and materialism are often

called:

(a) Variables (b) Constructs (c) Concepts (d) Theories (e) Models

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Question 5: Jack observes his neighbor’s purchase behavior with new automobiles. His neighbor purchases a new car every year and always seems to have a nicer model than the year before. Jack thinks the dealership must sell to his neighbor’s fascination with new car styles. In this example, interest in new car styles is a:

(a) Construct (b) Fact (c) Concept (d) Theory (e) Model

Question 6: Concepts are more __________, while constructs are more __________.

(a) Concrete, abstract (b) Abstract, concrete (c) Intangible, tangible (d) Conceptual, factual (e) Intuitive, logical

Question 7: Bill often feels insecure about how others view him. To increase his feelings of

self-esteem, Bill often buys expensive, luxury items. Self-esteem is an example of a:

(a) Construct (b) Fact (c) Concept (d) Theory (e) Model

Question 8: A(n) __________ describes the interrelationships between concepts and

constructs.

(a) Hypothetical construct (b) Postulation (c) Conceptual scheme (d) Operational definition (e) Inductive argument

Question 9: Which term below refers to a construct that is presumed to exist, but can only be

inferred from data?

(a) Conceptual scheme (b) Hypothetical construct (c) Operational definition (d) Moderating variable (e) Extraneous variable

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Question 10: A customer is defined as a patron and a patron is defined as a client of an establishment. This is an example of a(n):

(a) Hypothetical construct (b) Conceptual scheme (c) Operational definition (d) Dictionary definition (e) Mediating variable

Question 11: To be categorized as a customer, an individual must have a history of shopping at

the establishment at least twice prior to the start of the study with expenditures of more than $10. This is an example of a(n):

(a) Hypothetical construct (b) Conceptual scheme (c) Operational definition (d) Dictionary definition (e) Mediating variable

Question 12: A(n) __________ defines a variable in terms of specific measurement and testing

criteria.

(a) Hypothetical construct (b) Operational definition (c) Dictionary definition (d) Conceptual scheme (e) Mediating variable

Question 13: Which term below refers to an event, act, characteristic, trait, or attribute that can

be measured and to which we assign categorical values?

(a) Construct (b) Concept (c) Variable (d) Schema (e) Model

Question 14: James is entering data on client gender. Because the values entered reflect male or

female, this variable is:

(a) Discrete (b) Dichotomous (c) Continuous (d) Ratio-scaled (e) Metric

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Question 15: All of the following are examples of dichotomous variables except:

(a) Employed-unemployed (b) Male-female (c) Number of children in the household (d) Married-unmarried (e) All of the above are dichotomous variables

Question 16: __________ variables produce data that fit into three or more categories with

specific assigned values.

(a) Dichotomous (b) Discrete (c) Operational (d) Independent (e) Continuous

Question 17: Jason is using the demographic variables of highest level of educational

attainment (high school graduate, some college, college graduate, graduate school) and ethnicity (Asian, African-American, Caucasian, Hispanic, other) to describe survey respondents. Both are examples of __________ variables.

(a) Dichotomous (b) Discrete (c) Continuous (d) Dependent (e) Mediating

Question 18: Variables that are included because they are believed to have a significant

contributory or contingent effect on the IV-DV relationship are called __________ variables.

(a) Criterion (b) Predictor (c) Mediator (d) Moderating (e) Extraneous

Question 19: A variable that is assumed or excluded from a research study is a(n) __________

variable.

(a) Criterion (b) Predictor (c) Mediator (d) Moderator (e) Extraneous

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Question 20: In the Southeast, the potato chip market share held by the Lays brand is 46%. This is an example of a(n):

(a) Research question (b) Descriptive hypothesis (c) Relational hypothesis (d) Explanatory hypothesis (e) Correlational hypothesis

Question 21: Which of the following is an explanatory hypothesis?

(a) Young women purchase fewer meats than women who are 35 years of age or older

(b) Sales of vegetarian foods vary by season (c) An increase in family income leads to an increase in the percentage of

income spent on housing (d) Real estate investment trusts (REITs) experienced a record level of

profitability in 2004 (e) People in the South tend to rate the President more favorably than do people

in the North Question 22: Which of the following is a correlational hypothesis?

(a) A decrease in the value of the US dollar relative to other currencies leads to an increase in exports

(b) Education on the process of preparing meat for consumption leads to a decrease in the consumption of hamburgers

(c) An increase in family income leads to an increase in the percentage of income spent on housing

(d) Low interest rates resulted in a record year for real estate investment trusts (REITs) as individuals invested in real estate rather than other forms of investment

(e) People in the South tend to rate the President more favorably than do people in the North

Question 23: Which of the following is not one of the conditions necessary for a hypothesis to

be considered strong?

(a) Adequate for its purpose (b) Addresses the presence of extraneous variables (c) Testable (d) Better than rival hypotheses (e) All of the following are necessary conditions

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Question 24: A __________ is a set of systematically interrelated concepts, definitions, and propositions that are advanced to explain or predict phenomena.

(a) Conceptual scheme (b) Hypothesis (c) Theory (d) Diagram (e) Factual schema

Question 25: Which term listed below refers to a representation of a system constructed to

study some aspect of that system or the system as a whole?

(a) Conceptual scheme (b) Hypothesis (c) Theory (d) Diagram (e) Model

Question 26: Which type of model allows the researcher to visualize numerous variables and

relationships?

(a) Descriptive (b) Predictive (c) Normative (d) Correlational (e) Planning

Question 27: __________ is said to denote observations and propositions based on sensory

experience and/or derived from such experience by methods of inductive logic.

(a) Empiricism (b) Scientific management (c) Exposition (d) Deduction (e) Propositional research

Question 28: The statement, “Sales in Pacific Timber Products have increased in the past six

months,” is an example of a(n):

(a) Inductive argument (b) Deductive argument (c) Exposition (d) Research question (e) Proposition

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Question 29: __________ is a form of argument that purports to be conclusive – the conclusion must necessarily follow from the reasons given.

(a) Induction (b) Deduction (c) Logic (d) Philosophy (e) Exposition

Question 30: Which form of argument presents a conclusion based on reasons or proof?

(a) Induction (b) Deduction (c) Logic (d) Philosophy (e) Exposition

Question 31: __________ is a form of reasoning that draws a conclusion from one or more

particular facts or pieces of evidence.

(a) Induction (b) Deduction (c) Empiricism (d) Logic (e) Association

Question 32: Because of the nature of induction, the conclusion can be thought of as:

(a) Fact (b) One explanation among many (c) Proof (d) Evidence (e) Empirical

Question 33: Consider the following example: “Retail sales increases in the 2005 holiday

season were below projections. Sales were disappointing because consumers were not confident about economic growth.” This is an example of a(n):

(a) Inductive argument (b) Deductive argument (c) Empirical argument (d) Fact (e) Premise

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Question 34: __________ occurs when we observe a fact and ask, “Why is this?”

(a) Deduction (b) Induction (c) Exposition (d) Empiricism (e) Curiosity

Question 35: __________ is the process by which we test whether a hypothesis is capable of

explaining the fact.

(a) Deduction (b) Induction (c) Exposition (d) Empiricism (e) Curiosity

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ANSWERS TO LESSON REVIEW EXERCISES 1. The text mentions three basic principles of sound reasoning. They are listed as follows.

Finding correct premises

Testing the connections between the facts and assumptions

Making claims based on adequate evidence 2. Sound reasoning gives us the framework that allows the combination of induction,

deduction, observation, and hypothesis testing in a systematic way. 3. The essential tenets of the scientific method are as follows:

Direct observation of phenomena

Clearly defined variables, methods, and procedures

Empirically testable hypotheses

The ability to rule out rival hypotheses

Statistical, rather than linguistic, justification of conclusions

The self-correcting process 4. Induction or inductive reasoning is the effort to draw a conclusion from one or more

particular facts or pieces of evidence where the conclusion explains the facts; inference of a generalized conclusion from particular instances. For example, I have seen many crows and all of them have been black (specific observations). Therefore, all crows are black (general conclusion).

5. Deduction is a form of argument that purports to be conclusive; the conclusion must

follow from the reasons given. The conclusion about particulars follows necessarily from general or universal premises. For example, all human beings must eventually die (the reason or premise). Mr. Jones is a human being (another reason or premise). Therefore, Mr. Jones will eventually die (general conclusion).

6. Empiricism involves empirical testing and is said to “denote observations and

propositions based on sensory experience and/or derived from such experience by methods of inductive logic, including mathematics and statistics.”

7. For a deduction to be valid, the premises (reasons) given for the conclusion must agree

with the real world (the premises must be true) and it is impossible for the conclusion to be false, if the premises are true.

8. The “double movement of reflective thought” refers to the use of induction to formulate a

hypothesis that can be used as a premise in a deductive conclusion. 9. A concept is a generally accepted collection of meanings or characteristics associated

with certain events, objects, conditions, situations, and behaviors.

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10. The success of research hinges on how clearly we conceptualize, and how well others understand the concepts we use. Attitudes are abstract, yet we must attempt to measure them using carefully selected concepts. The challenge is to develop concepts that others will clearly understand.

11. A construct is an image or abstract idea specifically invented for a given research and/or

theory-building purpose. Constructs are built by combining simpler, more concrete concepts.

12. The level of abstraction is a measure of concreteness or simplicity. Generally the less

measurable concepts make up abstract constructs while measurable and observable concepts make up the least abstract concepts. Complex constructs would include a construct of “quality” or “passion” while a concrete construct would be speed or size.

13. An operational definition is stated in terms of specific criteria for testing or measurement.

The terms of an operational definition must refer to empirical standards. The definition must specify the characteristics of the object (physical or abstract) to be defined, and how they are to be observed. The specifications and procedures must be so clear that any competent person using them would classify the object in the same way. In the dictionary definition, a concept is defined with a synonym. Many dictionary definitions are circular in nature. Therefore, concepts and constructs require more rigorous definitions.

14. The lack of a rigorous definition can make measurement of a specific effect or sentiment

impossible due to the varying interpretations people have for specific words. 15. A variable is a symbol of an event, act, characteristic, trait, or attribute that can be

measured, and to which we assign categorical values. The text uses three different categorizations for variables: dichotomous, discrete and continuous.

A dichotomous variable contains two mutually exclusive and exhaustive values,

like yes or no or positive or negative.

A discrete variable contains individually distinct options that are mutually exclusive and potentially exhaustive; there are no gradations among the values. The best example is fruit: apples, bananas or oranges.

A continuous variable contains values within a given range, or in some cases, an infinite set. For example: Income, temperature, age, or a test score.

16. The independent variable is the predictor variable or the variable manipulated by the

researcher, and the manipulation causes an effect on the dependent variable. 17. The dependent variable is the criterion variable. This variable is measured, predicted, or

otherwise monitored. It is expected to be affected by manipulation of an independent variable.

18. In a complex study, moderating variables have a significant contributory or contingent

effect on the originally stated independent variable – dependent variable relationship.

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19. Moderating variables have a significant contributory relationship with the independent and dependent variables in a study while extraneous variables have little or no effect on the central relationship.

20. A control variable is a variable introduced to help interpret the results in a study. For

example a control may be placed on the independent variable to clarify the results. For example, when studying the effects of advertising on soap sales, a useful control would be to only analyze the ad’s effectiveness on shoppers rather than the whole population. The control variable would be shopper or non-shopper.

21. The intervening variable may be defined as “that factor which theoretically affects the

observed phenomenon but cannot be seen, measured, or manipulated; its effect must be inferred from the effects of the independent and moderator variables on the observed phenomenon.” For example, one might speculate that the height of a candidate has an effect on the outcome of the race. Eighteen of the twenty-two winning candidates for president were taller than their opponents. In this example, height is the intervening variable. The effect of a candidate’s height cannot be seen or measured (how many votes per inch difference). The candidate’s height cannot be manipulated.

22. A proposition is a statement about observable phenomena (concepts) that may be judged

true or false. When a proposition is formulated for empirical testing, it is called a hypothesis. Hypotheses have also been described as statements in which variables are assigned to cases.

23. The two general types of hypotheses are descriptive and relational. A descriptive

hypothesis describes the state, the existence, size, form, or distribution of some variable. A relational hypothesis describes a relationship between two variables with respect to some case.

24. Correlational and explanatory hypotheses are both examples of relational hypotheses.

Correlational hypotheses state that the variables occur together, in some specified manner, without implying that one causes the other. Explanatory (causal) hypotheses state that there is an implication that the existence of, or a change in, one variable causes (or leads to) a change in another.

25. A strong hypothesis should fulfill three conditions:

Adequate for its purpose

Testable

Better than its rivals 26. The difference between theory and hypothesis is the degree of complexity and abstraction.

Theories tend to be complex, abstract, and involve multiple variables. Hypotheses tend to be simpler, limited-variable statements involving concrete instances. The works of Isaac Newton and Albert Einstein dominate the development of gravitational theory. Although no one disputes the existence of gravity, a theory explaining its mechanics is very complex. A hypothesis might posit that objects with more mass are more affected by gravity while a theory of gravity attempts to explain why.

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27. A model is a representation of a system that is constructed to study some aspect of that system, or the system as a whole. The familiar “supply and demand” model of economics is a simple model used to evaluate the effects of various economic stimuli.

28. Descriptive, predictive, and normative models are found in business research.

Descriptive models are used frequently for more complex systems

Predictive models forecast future events

Normative models are used chiefly for control, informing us about what actions should be taken

Models may also be static, representing a system at one point in time, or dynamic, representing the evolution of a system over time

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LESSON 4



A General Overview of the Research Process LESSON OBJECTIVES:

At the completion of this topic the student will, through the use of text, University supplied questions and answers, and examination questions, be able to: Explain why the focus of research is decision- and dilemma-centered. Describe the development of the research question.

Explain the place and role of assessments and budgeting in the research process and

design. Describe what is included in research design, data collection, data analysis, and

reporting. List and discuss the research process problems to avoid.

LESSON ASSIGNMENT:

Business Research Methods, Twelfth Edition Chapter 4, “The Research Process: An Overview”

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LESSON 4 NOTE: The following exercises are study aids designed to help you prepare for the subject exam. Write your answers in the space provided after each exercise. Use the blank page to record other notes on the text content. Immediately check your answers with the key at the end of the guide. Do not submit your answers to AGU for grading. Question 1: What is the management-research question hierarchy and why bother using it in

developing a research proposal? Question 2: What are the six steps in the management research question hierarchy and how

are they defined? Question 3: What is the research question? Question 4: What other procedures should be considered when developing the research

question? Question 5: What are investigative questions and how are they formulated? Question 6: What is the favored-technique syndrome and what difficulty does it pose for the

research process?

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Question 7: What are the dangers posed by database strip-mining? Question 8: What characteristics make a question “researchable”? Question 9: What types of questions cannot be addressed by research? Question 10: Why is a clear statement of the management problem essential to getting good

research results? Question 11: How can the use of diverse methodologies or setting up competing designs benefit

a research project? Question 12: What is the difference between a sample and a census? Question 13: What is a sample in the research context? How is a sample used? Question 14: What are the main issues in designing a sample for a study?

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Question 15: What are the three types of budgeting methodologies generally used? Question 16: What is the purpose of business research? Whose responsibility is it to evaluate

the value of research? Question 17: What is an ex post facto evaluation and why do it? Question 18: What is prior or “interim evaluation” and why do managers use it? Question 19: What are decision rules and variables? How does the use of decision rules and

variables help managers to evaluate research results? Question 20: Regardless of length or complexity, which two sections does a research proposal

contain? Question 21: Why conduct pilot testing? Question 22: Typically, what data collection devices are used?

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Question 23: What is the difference between primary and secondary data? Question 24: What are the four sections that must appear in any final research report?

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SUBJECT EXAMINATION




Services at [email protected]. MULTIPLE CHOICE: Question 1: The process of stating the basic dilemma and then developing other questions by

progressively breaking down the original question into more specific ones is called the:

(a) Research question (b) Management-research question hierarchy (c) Management dilemma (d) Management question (e) Investigative question

Question 2: Which of the following questions is considered when discussing the management

dilemma?

(a) How can management eliminate negative symptoms? (b) What does the manager need to know to choose the best alternative from the

available sources of action? (c) What is the recommended course of action? (d) What symptoms cause management concern? (e) What should be asked or observed to obtain the information the manager

needs? Question 3: The fundamental weakness in the research process is:

(a) Incorrectly defining the research question (b) Identifying a flawed sampling frame (c) Misdefining the target population (d) Failing to identify all relevant secondary information (e) Skipping the exploratory phase

http://www.agu.edu/

mailto:[email protected]

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Question 4: Which type of management question asks, “What do we want to achieve?”

(a) Choice of purpose (b) Evaluation of solutions (c) Troubleshooting (d) Control (e) Concern

Question 5: BankChoice is concerned about stagnating profits and asks, "How can

profitability be improved?" This is an example of a(n):

(a) Management question (b) Research question (c) Investigative question (d) Measurement question (e) Management dilemma

Question 6: Who answers measurement questions?

(a) Management decision makers (b) Researchers (c) Field workers (d) Respondents/participants (e) Statisticians

Question 7: Who answers investigative questions?

(a) Management decision makers (b) Researchers (c) Field workers (d) Participants (e) Statisticians

Question 8: To satisfactorily answer a research question, researchers must first answer

__________ questions.

(a) Management (b) Investigative (c) Measurement (d) Dilemma (e) Deductive

Question 9: Which form of budgeting involves taking a fixed percentage of some criterion,

such as sales, as the basis for the research budget?

(a) Rule-of-thumb budgeting (b) Percentage-of-sales budgeting (c) Departmental budgeting (d) Task budgeting (e) Functional-area budgeting

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Question 10: Which form of budgeting allocates a portion of total expenditures in the unit to research activities?

(a) Rule-of-thumb budgeting (b) Percentage-of-sales budgeting (c) Departmental budgeting (d) Task budgeting (e) Competitive parity

Question 11: Ex Post Facto evaluation means that the research is evaluated:

(a) Prior to execution (b) Based on the facts (c) After the research concludes (d) Each day throughout the project (e) None of the above

Question 12: Departmental budgeting means that research budgets are determined by:

(a) Allocating the same amount to research that competing firms allocate (b) The contributions of various departments to fund department-specific

projects (c) Evaluating projects on a case-by-case basis (d) Taking a fixed percentage of some criterion (e) Allocating whatever is left after covering other required expenditures

Question 13: Which term below refers to a criterion for judging the attractiveness of two or

more alternatives when using a decision variable?

(a) Decision theory (b) Decision rule (c) Ex post facto evaluation (d) Choice theory (e) Success probability

Question 14: The quantifiable characteristic, attribute, or outcome on which a choice decision

will be made is called a:

(a) Decision theory (b) Decision rule (c) Ex post facto evaluation (d) Decision variable (e) Success probability

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Question 15: Which of the following statements is false regarding the evaluation of alternatives?

(a) The selection of alternatives is determined by the decision variable chosen

and the decision rule used (b) Each alternative must be explicitly stated (c) A decision variable is defined by an outcome that may be measured (d) A decision rule is determined by which outcomes may be compared (e) All of the above are true

Question 16: Planning the research design involves decisions regarding:

(a) Data collection mode (b) Type of study (c) Measurement (d) Sampling plans (e) All of the above

Question 17: Which of the following terms fails to capture the meaning of a research design?

(a) Map (b) Blueprint (c) Manual (d) Dictionary (e) Guidebook

Question 18: McGraw-Hill is planning a study of educator preferences to determine the needs

of college instructors. Because of the number of college instructors, McGraw-Hill will select a portion of the target population, known as a(n) __________, to participate in the study.

(a) Element (b) Sample (c) Sampling frame (d) Census (e) Extent

Question 19: Which type of sample provides a group of participants who are most

representative of the target population?

(a) Census (b) Judgment (c) Probability (d) Nonprobability (e) Primary

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Question 20: Data have many characteristics. If you cannot see or feel the data being measured, you are describing their level of:

(a) Abstractness (b) Elusiveness (c) Verifiable (d) Closeness to the phenomenon (e) Replicability

Question 21: Pilot tests typically use a sample size of __________ participants.

(a) Less than 100 (b) 100-500 (c) 501-1,000 (d) More than 1,000 (e) It depends on budgetary constraints

Question 22: All of the following are benefits of pilot tests except:

(a) Provision of proxy data for probability sampling (b) Identification of measurement errors (c) Detection of weaknesses in research design (d) Sensitization of respondents to the purpose of the study (e) All of the above are benefits

Question 23: If a __________ sampling design is chosen, the process for choosing the sample

must give every person within the target population a known nonzero chance of selection.

(a) Census (b) Judgment (c) Nonprobability (d) Probability (e) Primary

Question 24: Information collected from participants, by observation, or from secondary

sources is called:

(a) Response (b) Data (c) Knowledge (d) Fact (e) Perceptual content

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Question 25: Reducing data to a management size, developing summaries, and applying statistical techniques are all aspects of:

(a) Sampling (b) Data collection (c) Pilot testing (d) Data analysis (e) Data transformation

Question 26: Jason is entering the data analysis portion of his research project. Data analysis

involves all of the following activities except:

(a) Reducing data to a manageable size (b) Developing summaries (c) Conducting focus groups (d) Looking for patterns (e) Applying statistical techniques

Question 27: Which section of a research report contains all the materials necessary to replicate

the project?

(a) Executive summary (b) Abstract (c) Technical overview (d) Implementation (e) Technical appendix

Question 28: All of the following components are included in the overview section of a

research report except:

(a) Problem background (b) Literature summary (c) Research methods (d) Procedures (e) Recommendations

Question 29: The executive summary of a research report includes:

(a) All the materials necessary for replication (b) A synopsis of the problem, findings, and recommendations (c) A summary of findings from secondary sources and the research design (d) Recommendations and implementation strategies (e) A list of expenses

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Question 30: A researcher who is method-bound is likely to:

(a) Be responsible for data analysis (b) Utilize a probability sample (c) Prefer one research approach over all others (d) Mine a client’s database (e) All of the above

Question 31: Which of the following is not a common research process problem?

(a) Politically motivated research (b) Database strip-mining (c) Unresearchable questions (d) Ill-defined management problems (e) Pilot testing

Question 32: The question, “Should products be withdrawn if even one death is associated with

its prescribed use, even if no fault for the tampered product accrues to the manufacturer?” is an example of a(n):

(a) Ill-defined problem (b) Strip data mining issue (c) Favored-technique problem (d) Unresearchable question (e) Politically-motivated question

Question 33: Ill-defined problems are those that:

(a) Cannot be expressed completely or easily (b) Cannot be answered (c) Can be answered through data mining (d) Cannot be addressed with secondary data (e) Develop in method-bound research projects

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ANSWERS TO LESSON REVIEW EXERCISES 1. The management-research question hierarchy is a process of sequential question

formulation that leads a manager or researcher from the management dilemma to measurement questions. The hierarchy formalizes the steps required to translate a general dilemma into clear, unambiguous questions that can be approached in a scientific way. Without the clarity of a specific set of very well defined problems, meaningful results are not possible.

2. The management research question hierarchy levels move from general to specific.

Rather than discrete levels, the hierarchy is a continuum. The investigative question stage, in particular, may involve several levels of questioning before satisfactory measurement questions can be developed. The six steps in the management research question hierarchy are as follows:

Management dilemma

o Identify the symptoms that cause management concern

o Identify the environmental stimuli that contribute to the concern

Management question – The management question restates the dilemma in question form

o Identify the actions necessary to eliminate the symptoms; how can they be solved

o Identify the possible sources of opportunity in the environment; is there an advantage in the situation

Research questions – Identify the plausible actions available to management

Investigative questions – Identify the information necessary to decide among the plausible actions available to the management

Measurement question – Identify the measurable questions or observations necessary to collect the appropriate information

Management decision – Use the collected information to implement a solution to the original problem

3. A research question is the hypothesis of choice that best states the objective of the

research study. It may be more than one question or hypothesis. 4. The following procedures should be addressed when developing the research question:

Examine the concepts and constructs to be used in the study.

Review the research questions with the intent of breaking them down into specific second- and third-level questions.

If hypotheses are used, be certain that they meet the quality tests mentioned in the preceding chapter.

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Determine what evidence must be collected to answer the questions and hypotheses.

Set the scope of the study by stating what is not part of the research question. 5. Investigative questions are those that must be answered to satisfactorily arrive at a

conclusion about the research question. To formulate them, the researcher takes a general research question and breaks it into more specific questions.

6. The favored-technique syndrome is a bias towards the use of particular methodologies

favored by the researcher. Some researchers are method-bound; they recast the management question so that it is amenable to their favorite methodology. Often the favored methodology is not appropriate to the solution of the problem at hand. For example, a focus group would not be appropriate in discovering the birth rate. Persons knowledgeable about, and skilled in, some techniques, but not others, are often blinded by their special competencies.

7. Database strip-mining is the process of generating reports and research based on locally

retained data that was not collected to address the concern at hand.

Having a massive amount of information is not the same as having knowledge.

Managers may mistakenly believe that a pool of information or a database reduces (or eliminates) the need for further research. Managers frequently hear from superiors, “We should use the information we already have before collecting more.”

Each field in a database was created for a specific reason, which may or may not be compatible with the management question facing the organization.

8. To be researchable, a question must be one for which observable or other data collection

can provide the answer. 9. Questions of value and policy often cannot be researched or even if a question can be

answered by facts alone, it might not be researchable because currently accepted and tested procedures or techniques are inadequate.

10. Ill-defined research questions may have too many interrelated facets to be measured

accurately. Methods may not presently exist to handle questions of this type. Even if such methods were invented, they might not produce the data necessary to solve such problems.

11. Creating a design using diverse methodologies can help researchers achieve greater

insight than if they followed the most frequently used method or that suggested by a disciplinary bias. The benefit to choosing among competing designs is that the manager can get a feel for the various strengths and weaknesses present in each methodology and select the methodology best suited to the needs of the project.

12. A sample is the selection of a part of a population while a census is the selection of the

entire population. When researchers undertake sampling studies, they are interested in estimating one or more population values and/or testing one or more statistical hypotheses.

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13. A sample is a part of the target population, carefully selected to represent that population. 14. The main issue in designing a sample is to identify the target population. Other issues

include:

What will be observed, and how? Which, and how many, records, events or samples will be inspected?

15. The three general budgeting methodologies are as follows:

Rule-of-thumb budgeting: involves taking a fixed percentage of some criterion. Departmental or functional area budgeting: allocates a portion of total

expenditures in the unit to research. Task budgeting: selects specific research projects to support on an ad hoc basis.

16. A research study should help managers avoid losses and increase sales or profits;

otherwise, research can be wasteful. Even if a researcher provides good cost and information estimates, it is the responsibility of the manager to determine if the benefits outweigh the cost.

17. Ex Post Facto Evaluation is usually an after-the-fact event analyzing the actual costs and

benefits of a particular research effort. Cost-benefit analysis may sharpen the manager’s ability to make judgments about future research proposals. The critical problem in valuing research is that projects are evaluated after the study is done.

18. Because neither the costs nor the benefits of a study are easily estimated in advance, prior

or “interim evaluation” is often employed. Managerial experience doesn’t help with the evaluation of some projects because of their unique nature and/or complexity in such cases, managers may decide to control expenditures by doing a study in stages; performing interim analyses to insure that costs are consistent with the projected benefits.

19. Decision rules are the criterion or standards used to judge the desirability of two or more

alternatives, such as cost or time. A decision variable would be the quantifiable characteristic or outcome on which the decision will be made. For example, a decision rule would be 200 responses to the coupon in Wednesday’s paper would result in another coupon being issued in next week’s paper. The decision variable is the number of coupons used.

20. Regardless of length or complexity, a research proposal contains:

A statement of the research question Brief description of the research methodology

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21. A pilot test should be conducted for the following reasons:

To detect weaknesses in design and instrumentation

Provides proxy data for selection of a probability sample

Should draw subjects from the target population to test the sampling methodology

Should simulate the procedures and protocols that have been designated for data collection to test the integrity of the procedures and protocols

22. Typical data collection devices include:

Questionnaires

Standardized tests

Observational forms

Laboratory notes

Instrument calibration logs 23. Primary data is data collected by the researcher, raw data, to address the specific problem

at hand, the research question. Secondary data have had at least one level of interpretation inserted between the event and its recording.

24. A research report should, at a minimum, contain the following:

An executive summary: a synopsis of the problem, findings, and recommendations.

An overview of the research: the problem’s background, literature summary, methods and procedures, and conclusions.

A section on implementation strategies for the recommendations.

A technical appendix: all the materials necessary to replicate the project.

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LESSON 5



The Role and Value of Different Types and Sources of Information in Exploratory Research

LESSON OBJECTIVES:


Identify the purpose of exploratory research.

Describe the process of exploratory research.

Illustrate the three levels of management decision-related secondary sources.

Describe the two types of decision-related secondary sources. Identify and describe the five types of external information sources.

Identify and describe the five critical factors for evaluating the value of a source and

its content.

Explain the process for conducting a productive literature search of external sources.

Describe the various strategies involved in searching and evaluating print sources.

Describe the process of conducting a productive literature search with web-based sources.

Explain the background and strategies involved in data mining.

Illustrate how data mining techniques differ from literature searches.

LESSON ASSIGNMENT:

Business Research Methods, Twelfth Edition Chapter 5, “Clarifying the Research Question through Secondary Data and Exploration”

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LESSON 5 NOTE: The following exercises are study aids designed to help you prepare for the subject exam. Write your answers in the space provided after each exercise. Use the blank page to record other notes on the text content. Immediately check your answers with the key at the end of the guide. Do not submit your answers to AGU for grading. Question 1: What are the three categories of information sources? How are they categorized? Question 2: What is a primary source of information? Question 3: Explain why a primary source of information is the best source of information? Question 4: What are secondary sources of data? List some examples of secondary data. Question 5: What are tertiary sources of data? List some examples of tertiary sources of data. Question 6: At what stage in the research hierarchy is the exploration of secondary data

useful? Question 7: What are the objectives of the exploratory research phase of a research project?

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Question 8: What is the first step in the exploration phase of a research project? Question 9: What are the steps involved in a literature search? Question 10: What are the general types of information used in a literature search (other than

the internet)? Briefly define each one. Question 11: What are the most important aspects to consider when evaluating a source of

information? Question 12: What are the steps in Searching a Bibliographic Database? Question 13: Why is searching the internet more difficult and less efficient than searching

traditional library sources? Question 14: What are the important factors to consider when choosing an internet search

engine? Question 15: What types of information on the internet are not covered by search engines?

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Question 16: What is the best way to ensure a comprehensive search of the internet? Question 17: What is the difference between an internet search engine, directory and a portal? Question 18: What are the various types of internet searches identified in the text? Question 19: What is the single most authoritative and comprehensive source of information of

legislative, demographic and business information on the internet? Question 20: What are two of the most useful government publications mentioned in the text? Question 21: What are the key databases related to laws and regulations in the United States? Question 22: What are the key sources of information regarding government statistics? Question 23: What is data mining?

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Question 24: What is the purpose of data mining? What type of analysis is it? Question 25: What is a data warehouse? Question 26: What is a data mart? Question 27: What is pattern discovery software and how is it used? Question 28: What are the general steps involved in data mining?

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SUBJECT EXAMINATION



2. Submit any inquiries through “Contact Us” on the webpage, or by contacting

Student Services at [email protected]. MULTIPLE CHOICE: Question 1: What is the first step in conducting a literature search?

(a) Define the management dilemma or question (b) Identify key terms, people, or events (c) Search indexes, bibliographies, and the Web (d) Locate and review secondary sources (e) Evaluate the value and credibility of secondary sources

Question 2: Maurice is working with Northwest Airlines to determine strategies for

encouraging loyalty among its customers. Since Maurice has developed an understanding of the management question, what will he do next in the literature search process?

(a) Locate and review secondary sources (b) Consult textbooks for key terms or people relevant to the management

question (c) Search indexes and bibliographies (d) Evaluate the value of secondary sources (e) Define measurement questions

Question 3: Elizabeth has just been named project leader on a research project about

perceptions of bar soap and body wash. To gain background information, Elizabeth searched for articles about consumer responses to body cleansing products using the InfoSearch proprietary database. In this situation, Elizabeth relied on __________ data.

(a) News (b) Reference (c) Secondary (d) Primary (e) Pilot

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Question 4: All of the following are examples of primary sources of information except:

(a) Memos (b) Letters (c) Transcripts of speeches (d) Google searches (e) Economic data

Question 5: For an organization, which of the following is NOT an example of an internal

source of secondary data?

(a) The analytical data stored in the records of the Management Information System

(b) Surveys collected by the internal sales staff, from the company’s distributors (c) Summary data from a marketing survey of commissioned sales agents,

completed three years ago (d) Inventory records analysis from the materials department

Question 6: Which of the following is NOT a good reason for using secondary data?

(a) Data on the past cannot be collected today (b) Even if the definitions of variables being studied are not the same, research

can be modified according to secondary data available (c) Information is essential to solving the management dilemma (d) Authentic data required may already have been collected by other agencies

Question 7: Which information source may be interpretations of a secondary source but is

generally represented by indexes, bibliographies, and Internet search engines?

(a) Secondary (b) Primary (c) Tertiary (d) Statistical (e) External

Question 8: Timothy wants to identify and locate books and journal articles from a large set.

What type of information source should he use?

(a) Indexes (b) Glossary (c) Encyclopedia (d) Handbook (e) Dictionary

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Question 9: The best way to learn the names and addresses of periodicals that may be published in the United States about the stone quarry industry would be to search the:

(a) Statistical Abstract of the United States (b) Ulrich’s International Directory (c) Indexes and Bibliographies (d) Business Periodicals Index (e) Dunn’s Business Sources

Question 10: Probably the best quick source for current articles on sales management problems

would be the:

(a) Indexes and Bibliographies (b) Readers Guide to Periodical Literature (c) Wharton’s Dictionary of Sales Management (d) Wall Street Journal Directory (e) Salesforce.com

Question 11: Which of the following is a reason researchers use encyclopedias?

(a) To verify spelling (b) To find authors and titles of prior works (c) To locate articles from a large set (d) To find historical information (e) All of the above

Question 12: Which of the following is not included in a good handbook?

(a) Statistics (b) Directory information (c) A glossary of terms (d) Lists of consultants in the field (e) Regulations

Question 13: The Statistical Abstract of the United States is an example of a(n):

(a) Index (b) Bibliography (c) Handbook (d) Dictionary (e) Directory

Question 14: Contact information for professional organizations and companies in a field may

be located in a(n):

(a) Index (b) Bibliography (c) Handbook (d) Dictionary (e) Directory

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Question 15: When researchers consider the explicit or hidden agenda of an information source, the source’s __________ is under evaluation.

(a) Purpose (b) Scope (c) Authority (d) Audience (e) Format

Question 16: When evaluating an information source, the time period and geographic

limitations are considered as part of the __________ factor.


Question 17: All of the following are factors useful in evaluating a source except:

(a) Purpose (b) Scope (c) Cost (d) Authority (e) Audience

Question 18: All of the following questions address the authority of a source except:

(a) What are the credentials of the author or institution? (b) What is the reputation of the sponsoring organization? (c) Does the source give you a means of contacting anyone for further

information? (d) How old is the information? (e) If facts are supplied, where do they come from?

Question 19: In Nicolas Perricone’s first book, his affiliation with the Yale School of

Dermatology was identified on the front cover of the book. This enhanced the perceived credibility of the information in the book using the __________ factor.


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Question 20: Capital One is lauded in the industry for its skill in discovering knowledge from its databases of customer credit card expenditures using a technique called:

(a) Process analysis (b) Data mining (c) Physical condition analysis (d) Record analysis

Question 21: Which term below refers to an electronic storehouse where vast arrays of

collected, integrated data are organized to facilitate retrieval and interpretation by end users?

(a) Data mine (b) Data mart (c) Decision support system (d) Decision assessment system (e) Data warehouse

Question 22: Intermediate storage facilities that compile locally required information are

called:

(a) Data mines (b) Data marts (c) Decision support systems (d) Decision assessment systems (e) Data warehouses

Question 23: Which of the following is a concern with data mining?

(a) The database was created for a reason that may not be compatible with the management question

(b) It is secondary data (c) It provides the potential for extracting meaningful information (d) It is a starting point for decision-based research (e) It offers readily-available data

Question 24: An analysis of past sales data shows that the average household purchases a new

vacuum cleaner approximately every seven years. This data process is known as:

(a) Process analysis (b) Data mining (c) Obtrusive measures (d) Pattern discovery (e) Trace evidence

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Question 25: The first step in the data mining process is to:

(a) Identify relationships within the data (b) Modify or transform data (c) Decide between census data and sample data (d) Develop a model to explain the data relationships (e) Test the model’s accuracy

Question 26: The problem or opportunity that requires a business decision is called the:

(a) Research question (b) Management-research-question hierarchy (c) Management dilemma (d) Management question (e) Investigative question

Question 27: The process of stating the basic dilemma and then developing other questions by

progressively breaking down the original question into more specific ones is called the:

(a) Research question (b) Management-research-question hierarchy (c) Management dilemma (d) Management question (e) Investigative question

Question 28: Which of the following questions is considered when discussing the management

dilemma?



needs? Question 29: Which of the following questions is considered when determining investigative

questions?



needs?

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Question 30: Which of the following questions is considered when developing measurement questions?



needs? Question 31: BankChoice is concerned about stagnating profits and asks, "How can

profitability be improved?" This is an example of a(n):

(a) Management question (b) Research question (c) Investigative question (d) Measurement question (e) Management dilemma

Question 32: One of the investigative questions identified in the BankChoice project questions

the perceived service quality associated with different bank branches. This is an example of:

(a) Behavioral issues (b) Performance considerations (c) Attitudinal issues (d) Measurement issues (e) Managerial considerations

Question 33: Questions that the researcher must answer to satisfactorily arrive at a conclusion

about the research question are called __________ questions.

(a) Management (b) Research (c) Investigative (d) Measurement (e) Hypothetical

Question 34: The actual questions that researchers use to collect data in a study are called

__________ questions.

(a) Management (b) Research (c) Investigative (d) Measurement (e) Hypothetical

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Question 35: Measurement questions are questions posed to:

(a) Managers (b) Researchers (c) Field workers (d) Study participants (e) Pollsters

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ANSWERS TO LESSON REVIEW EXERCISES 1. Information sources are grouped in three categories: primary, secondary and tertiary.

Each category is evaluated based on the distance or level of interpretation between the consumer of the information and the producer.

2. A primary source of information is a source that represents an official opinion or position

or information that is free from any interpretation whatsoever. Primary sources include memos, letters, interviews or speeches (in audio, video, or written transcript formats), laws, regulations, court decisions or standards, and most government data, including census, economic, and labor data.

3. Primary sources are always the most authoritative because the information has not been

filtered or interpreted by a second party. Primary data is judged by the consumer of the data.

4. Secondary sources are interpretations of primary data. Secondary data sources include

encyclopedias, textbooks, handbooks, magazine and newspaper articles, and most newscasts (nearly all reference materials) are considered secondary information sources. Internal secondary sources include sales analysis summaries and investor annual reports would be examples of secondary sources as they are compiled from a variety of primary sources.

5. Tertiary sources may be an interpretation of a secondary source, but generally are

represented by indexes, bibliographies, and other information search aids (e.g., Internet search engines). Some examples include a bibliographic reference work, research surveys (research on research) and internet search engines.

6. Exploration of secondary sources may be useful at any stage of the hierarchy but most

researchers find a review of secondary sources critical to moving from management questions to research questions (both internal and external).

7. In the exploratory research phase of a research project, the objective is to accomplish the

following:

Expand understanding of the management dilemma.

Look for ways others have addressed and/or solved problems similar to the management dilemma or management question.

Gather background information on the topic to refine the research question.

Identify information that should be gathered to formulate investigative questions.

Identify sources for and actual questions that might be used as measurement questions.

Identify sources for and actual sample frames that might be used in sample design.

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8. In most cases the exploration phase will begin with a literature search – a review of books, as well as articles in journals or professional literature that relate to the management dilemma.

9. A literature search has five steps:

Define your management dilemma or management question.

Consult encyclopedias, dictionaries, handbooks, and textbooks to identify key terms, people, or events relevant to your management dilemma or management question.

Apply these key terms, people, or events in searching indexes, bibliographies, and the web to identify specific secondary sources.

Locate and review specific secondary sources for relevance.

Evaluate the value of each source and its content. 10. There are five general types of information used most by researchers:

Indexes and Bibliographies – they help identify and locate a single book or journal article from among the millions published.

Dictionaries – a reference book listing alphabetically terms or names important to a particular subject. In business, as in every field, there are many specialized dictionaries that define words, terms, or jargon unique to a discipline. Most of these specialized dictionaries include in their word lists information on people, events or organizations that shape the discipline.

Encyclopedias – are a reference work used to find background or historical information on a topic or to find names or terms that can enhance your search results in other sources. Encyclopedias are also helpful in identifying the experts in a field and the key writings on any topic.

Handbooks – are a collection of facts unique to a topic. Handbooks often include statistics, directory information, a glossary of terms, and other data, such as laws and regulations essential to a field. The Statistical Abstract of the United States is probably the most valuable and frequently used handbook available.

Directories – used for finding names and addresses as well as other data, like the telephone directory.

11. The most important factors to consider when evaluating and selecting information

sources are as follows. These factors can be judged in any type of source, whether printed or electronic.

Purpose – what the author (or in the case of many Internet sites, the collective

authors in an institution) is trying to accomplish.

Scope – the date of publication, the time period covered, how much of the topic is covered and to what depth, the geographic range, how comprehensive it is and the criteria for inclusion.

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Authority – the author and the publisher’s credentials, the author’s educational background, his or her position, or his or her other published and reviewed work.

Audience – the reading, viewing, or listening public is tied to the purpose of the source.

Format – the general plan of organization, arrangement, or choice of material (as for a television show) or the method of organizing data.

12. The steps in Searching a Bibliographic Database are as follows:

Select a database appropriate to your topic.

Construct a search query (also called a search statement).

Review and evaluate search results.

Modify the search query, if necessary.

Save those valuable results of your search.

Retrieve articles not available in the database.

Supplement your results with information from web sources. 13. There are no standard database fields, no carefully defined subject hierarchies (controlled

vocabulary), no cross-references, no synonyms, no selection criteria, and in general, no rules.

14. The important factors to consider when choosing an internet search engine are as follows:

The types of Internet sources they cover (http, telnet, Usenet, ftp, etc.).

The way they search web pages (every word? titles or headers only?).

The number of pages they include in their indexes.

The search and presentation options they offer.

The frequency with which they are updated. 15. Among the material open to the public but not indexed by search engines:

Pages that are proprietary (fee-based) and/or password-protected, including the contents of bibliographic and other databases.

Some password-protected databases.

Pages accessible only through a search form (databases).

Poorly designed framed pages.

Some non-HTML or non-plain-text pages, especially PDF graphics files, for which no text alternative is offered. These pages cannot be retrieved using any current search engine.

Pages excluded by the Robots Exclusion Standard, which is used by web administrators to tell indexing robots that certain pages are off-limits.

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16. Use more than one search engine to insure comprehensive search of the internet. Dogpile is a good resource.

17. A search engine is software that automatically sends robots (spiders or crawlers) out to

comb the web for words and pages with algorithms that determine how those pages will be selected all prioritized for display in response to key words. Directories rely on human intervention to select, index, and categorize web contents. Subject directories build an index based on web pages or websites, but not on words within a page. A portal is a gateway to the web. A portal often includes a directory, a search engine, and other user features, such as news and weather and your horoscope.

18. The various search types identified in the text are as follows:

A specific site (known-item)

An address of a person or institution (who)

A geographic place name and location (where)

A topic (what) 19. The United States government. 20. The United States Government Manual (published and updated annually);

http://www.gpoaccess.gov/gmanual/ and the Congressional Directory (published annually, updated regularly); http://www.gpoaccess.gov/cdirectory/

21. The key databases for laws and regulations are:

Congressional Bills: texts of varying versions of bills. Only a small portion of this collection ever becomes law, but the topics can reveal trends of interest to business researchers.

Public Laws: texts of laws as they are passed; covers 1994 to the present. The printed version of this source is called the U.S. Statutes at Large.

U.S. Code: a codification of laws currently in effect and as revised over time; also available in libraries as a printed document.

Federal Register: “the official daily publication for rules, proposed rules, and notices of federal agencies and organizations, as well as executive orders and other presidential documents”; covers 1995 to the present and is also available in libraries as a printed or microfiche document.

Code of Federal Regulations (CFR): “a codification of the general and permanent rules originally published in the Federal Register by the executive departments and agencies of the federal government.” A printed version is available in libraries.

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22. The key sources of information regarding government statistics may be obtained by consulting the following sources:

Statistical Abstract of the United States (www.census.gov/prod/www/statistical-

abstract-us.html)

FedStats (www.fedstats.gov)

U.S. Bureau of the Census (www.census.gov) 23. Data mining describes the process of discovering knowledge from databases stored in

data marts or data warehouses. 24. The purpose of data mining is to identify valid, novel, useful, and ultimately

understandable patterns in data. Data mining is an approach that combines exploration and discovery with confirmatory analysis.

25. A data warehouse is an electronic repository for databases that organizes large volumes

of data into categories, to facilitate retrieval, interpretation, and sorting by end users. 26. A data mart is an intermediate storage facility that compiles locally required information.

It is distinct from a data warehouse in that it does not contain all information available; rather it contains information that is regionally or technically related.

27. Pattern discovery software is a data-mining tool that can be programmed to sweep

regularly through databases to identify previously hidden patterns. These patterns are known but the volume of data involved prohibits people from checking. It is used primarily in marketing to discover relationships among variables. An example might be the relationship between consumer’s beer purchasing behavior and advertising spending in a given region.

28. Data mining, as depicted in Exhibit 5-5, involves a five-step process:

Sample: Decide between census and sample data

Explore: Identify relationships within the data

Modify: Modify or transform data

Model: Develop a model that explains the data relationships

Assess: Test the model’s accuracy

http://www.census.gov/prod/www/statistical-abstract-us.html

http://www.census.gov/prod/www/statistical-abstract-us.html

http://www.fedstats.gov/

http://www.census.gov/

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LESSON 6



Application Lesson – Lessons 1 through 5 LESSON OBJECTIVES:

The following assignment is intended to allow you to apply the concepts and procedures you have learned in the previous lessons.

LESSON ASSIGNMENT: (100 points total)

Please answer each question in between 200-250 word or points will be deducted. For a question with sub-parts, the entirety of the questions must meet the word requirement. EXAMPLE: 2(a) + 2(b) + 2(c) = >200. Please be sure to include your name and the assignment number on your submittal. Credit will be deducted if the answers are less than the minimum number of words or dramatically in excess of the maximum number of words. Submit your answer file using the on-line testing system at www.agu.edu. Handwritten answers are not acceptable.

Your answers must be in your own words, and not taken verbatim from either the text or any internet sources. You will receive no credit if any of your work is plagiarized. NOTE: This lesson is weighted as 5% of the total course grade.

1. Explain the difference between applied research and basic or pure research? Use an

example to illustrate each. (10 points)

2. A senior marketing executive for an aerospace corporation is waiting in the airport lounge for his/her connecting flight. While seated, he/she spots a manila envelope, inside is a report marked “Company Proprietary” and belongs to his/her company’s major competitor. The report is also marked draft and not formally approved. The report details new product announcements and descriptions for the next 2 years. This information could save research time and budget.

(a) What is the most prudent decision to be made about responsibilities to themselves,

their company, and the competitor? (5 points) (b) What is the implication of each decision and would their behavior be a violation of

law or regulation? (5 points)

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(c) The aerospace corporation recently hired a new ethics officer who revised the firm’s Business Conduct Guidelines. They now require company employees in possession of a competitors’ information to return it or face dismissal. How would this change the answer from (b)? (5 points)

3. Describe and define the characteristics of the scientific method? (10 points) 4. You are a manager of a large telemarketing firm with a reputation for high-quality

customer service. Lately complaints have surfaced that an increased number of incoming calls are being misrouted or dropped. Last week, while passing by the main reception area, you noticed the receptionist fiddling with his hearing aid. Yesterday, you noticed a new, very young receptionist chatting on her cell while working the reception desk.

(a) Pose three possible hypotheses that might account for the dropped or misrouted

incoming calls. (Any combination of relational, correlational, and causal but clearly state which one) (10 points)

(b) Using the double movement of reflective thought, show how you would test each

hypothesis. (10 points)

(c) What are the dependent and independent variables in each hypothesis? (10 points) 5. Define the research process. (10 points) 6. What defines if a management problem or dilemma is researchable? (5 points) 7. Develop the management-research question hierarchy (exhibit 5-6 page 108), citing

possible management dilemma, management question, and research question(s), for each of the following:

(a) The president of a home health care services firm (5 points)

(b) The general manager of an auto dealership (5 points)

(c) The advertising manager of a metropolitan newspaper (5 points)

(d) The chief of police of a major city (5 points)

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LESSON 7



Basic Stages, Types and Descriptions of Various Research Design Strategies LESSON OBJECTIVES:


Describe the stages in the creative process involved in research design.

List and describe the major features of a research design.

Identify and describe the major types of research designs.

Illustrate the basic types of relationships among variables that research is designed to

illuminate.

Outline the strategies used to evaluate the relationships among variables. LESSON ASSIGNMENT:

Business Research Methods, Twelfth Edition Chapter 6, “Research Design: An Overview”

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LESSON 7 NOTE: The following exercises are study aids designed to help you prepare for the subject exam. Write your answers in the space provided after each exercise. Use the blank page to record other notes on the text content. Immediately check your answers with the key at the end of the guide. Do not submit your answers to AGU for grading. Question 1: What is research design? Question 2: What are some of the major features and descriptors of a research design? Question 3: Why is it so difficult to determine the exact definition of research design? Question 4: Generally speaking, what types of studies are best suited to answer a concrete

question like “how much money is Daimler Chrysler losing on the Smart Car?” Question 5: What types of studies are best suited to answer questions that are not clear or fully

developed? Question 6: What are some of the benefits researchers gain from carrying out exploratory

studies?

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Question 7: Exploratory studies are often maligned for being too “qualitative.” Why is qualitative research considered less valuable than quantitative research?

Question 8: What are some of the techniques used to address the concerns over the quality of

exploratory research? Question 9: What are the two major categories of data collection? Question 10: What types of studies involve monitoring? Question 11: What types of studies involve communication? Question 12: What method of inquiry provides the most powerful hypothetical connection

among variables? Question 13: What type of design is best suited in a study of past records? Question 14: What type of study is concerned with finding out who, what, where, when, or how

much?

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Question 15: What type of study is most concerned with finding out the “why” or cause of a situation?

Question 16: What are the two ways in which studies handle time? Question 17: What is the difference between a statistic and a parameter? Question 18: What is the purpose of a statistical study? Question 19: What type of study emphasizes contextual analysis of a few or a single event?

What type of data results from this type of study? Question 20: Why are case studies often maligned as “scientifically worthless?” Question 21: What are some of the reasons for using a case study? Question 22: Generally, there are two types of conditions under which studies are conducted.

What are they?

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Question 23: What is the first step in an exploratory study? Question 24: What is the difference between primary and secondary data? Question 25: What is an experience survey? Question 26: What is a focus group? Question 27: What type of exploratory design defines the research question and develops the

research design separately? Question 28: What are the major features of a descriptive study? Question 29: What are the essential features of the concept of “cause?” Question 30: What is the “method of agreement”?

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Question 31: What is the “negative canon of agreement?” Question 32: What is the method of difference and how is it related to the method of agreement

and the negative canon of agreement? Question 33: What are the three possible types of relationships among variables? Define each

one. Question 34: What are the four types of asymmetrical response? Question 35: What is a control? Why is it important? Question 36: What is random assignment? Question 37: What is matching? Why is it used? Question 38: What is the post hoc fallacy?

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SUBJECT EXAMINATION




Services at [email protected]. MULTIPLE CHOICE: Question 1: Research design strategy encompasses all of the components below except:

(a) Data collection design (b) Sampling design (c) Instrument development (d) Data analysis (e) All of the above are part of the design strategy

Question 2: The Critical Path Method is:

(a) A type of research design (b) The crucial steps in an experiment (c) The selection process for choosing critical members of a control group (d) Scheduling for activities and stages and timing for each activity or stage

used in research planning (e) None of the above

Question 3: Exploratory studies are particularly useful when researchers:

(a) Seek to describe a population’s parameters based on the characteristics of a sample

(b) Seek to evaluate changes in attitudes over time (c) Lack a clear idea of the study’s problems (d) Seek to test specific hypotheses (e) All of the above

Question 4: Exploratory research is finished in all of the following situations except when:

(a) The range and scope of management decisions are established (b) The major dimensions of the research task are established (c) Hypotheses are developed (d) Additional research is necessary (e) Investigative questions are defined

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Question 5: A(n) __________ study involves manipulation of one or more variables to determine the effect on another variable.

(a) Ex post facto (b) Exploratory (c) Experimental (d) Causal (e) Both (c) and (d)

Question 6: Kroger, a grocery store chain, wants to identify the ideal store layout for

increasing store sales. Because it primarily uses two store designs – one a grid layout with vertical aisles divided by a center aisle, and another using a traditional straight-aisle pattern – Kroger will match pairs of stores that have different designs but similar shopper demographics and location. Sales between each pair will then be compared to determine if store design is related to sales. Which type of study is this an example of?

(a) Case study (b) Experimental study (c) Exploratory study (d) Longitudinal study (e) Ex post facto study

Question 7: The primary difference between a monitoring study and a communication study is

that in a communication study, the researcher:

(a) Observes participants (b) Documents activities without eliciting direct responses (c) Asks questions of participants (d) Collects data (e) Records information over a period of time

Question 8: Which of the following is a type of monitoring study?

(a) Telephone interview (b) Counting cars in a parking lot (c) Mall-intercept interview (d) E-mail survey (e) All of the above

Question 9: A descriptive study is one that:

(a) Attempts to capture a population’s characteristics by making inferences from a sample’s characteristics and testing resulting hypotheses

(b) Emphasizes a full contextual analysis of a few events or conditions and their interrelations

(c) Discovers answers to the questions who, what, when, where, or how much (d) Attempts to reveal why or how one variable produces changes in another (e) Provides repeated measures over an extended period of time

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Question 10: The research experiment is superior to the ex post facto research design when the researcher:

(a) Must avoid influencing the variables under study and therefore avoid

biasing the results (b) Needs to cause variables to be changed or held constant in keeping with

specified research objectives (c) Is limited to hold all factors constant by selection of subjects according to

strict sampling procedures and statistical manipulation of findings (d) Decides to use the design more common to research in the social sciences

and business Question 11: Which of the following can be classified as a causal-explanatory research study?

The researcher is attempting to find out:

(a) What percentage of the population believes consumer products are of the same or better quality today than 10 years ago

(b) Which manufacturers in the U.S. contribute the highest percentage of their net income to private non-profit organizations

(c) How the murder rate in Detroit fluctuates with the economy and population trends

(d) Why unemployment is higher in Chicago than Houston Question 12: Harris Interactive surveys members of its YouthQuery, a group of consumers ages

8-17 who were recruited to report consumption data on a variety of products and their response to various promotional methods. The YouthQuery members are part of a:

(a) Longitudinal panel (b) Cross-sectional study (c) Monitoring study (d) Cohort study (e) Statistical study

Question 13: Longitudinal studies of cohort groups:

(a) Study the same people over time (b) Use panel members as participants (c) Study attitudes at a single point in time (d) Use different participants for each sequenced measurement (e) Occur under actual environmental conditions

Question 14: A statistical study is one that:




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Question 15: A case study is one that:




Question 16: In the best-selling book, Good to Great, the author examined the characteristics of

eleven highly successful companies by studying the full context of each organization, using multiple sources of information, and identifying the relationship between managerial decisions and success. This is an example of a(n):

(a) Case study (b) Exploratory study (c) Descriptive study (d) Statistical study (e) Causal study

Question 17: When studies are conducted under controlled conditions that do not simulate

actual environmental conditions, the study is conducted:

(a) Experimentally (b) Ex post facto (c) Under field conditions (d) Under laboratory conditions (e) Via monitoring

Question 18: Studies that are conducted under field conditions:

(a) Occur under actual environmental conditions (b) Simulate environmental conditions (c) Imitate reality (d) Control for extraneous variables (e) Facilitate measurement of the variables of interest

Question 19: Which of the following is true of studies conducted under laboratory conditions?

(a) Occur under actual environmental conditions (b) Simulate environmental conditions (c) Initiate reality (d) Dependent variable naturally occurs (e) Facilitate measurement of the variables of interest

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Question 20: The study of the use of space is called:

(a) Kinesics (b) Proxemics (c) Methodology (d) Linguistics (e) Feng shui

Question 21: Street ethnography is used in exploratory research to:

(a) Gather information from well-informed people (b) Describe the culture and structure of a group (c) Examine underlying attitudes (d) Study the use of space (e) Evaluate body-motion communication

Question 22: Data that has been collected by a third party for their own purposes is called:

(a) Tertiary data (b) Primary data (c) Secondary data (d) Experience data

Question 23: An experience survey is a type of:

(a) Interview (b) Survey (c) Monitoring study (d) Statistical study (e) Observation

Question 24: Which of the following is true of focus group interviews?

(a) Typically made up of 3-5 participants (b) Led by a group leader who is chosen by the participants (c) Meet for 90 minutes to 2 hours (d) Provide quantitative data (e) Used in formal studies

Question 25: Which of the following exploratory techniques is used most often in business

research?

(a) Proxemics (b) Empathic research (c) Focus groups (d) Street ethnography (e) Surveys

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Question 26: Which of the following statements is false with respect to the two-stage research approach to a management question? The two-stage approach:

(a) Often uncovers evidence that a major study is unnecessary in the first stage (b) Is particularly useful when the research is to be done on a fixed cost basis (c) Is particularly useful when the complications and problems that will be

encountered are difficult to anticipate (d) Is less expensive and less in-depth than a one-stage research approach

Question 27: A correlation refers to the:

(a) Estimates of frequency with which a characteristic appears (b) Establishing of the direction of causality between two variables (c) Described characteristics associated with a subject population (d) Relationship by which two or more variables covary (e) Estimation of the proportion of a population with certain characteristics

Question 28: Which of the following is not a type of evidence used to test causal hypotheses?

(a) Covariation between variables A and B (b) Time order of events (c) Alternative causes (d) Disposition of variable B (e) Both (b) and (c)

Question 29: When two variables vary together but changes in the variables are not due to

changes in the other, a(n) __________ relationship is said to exist.

(a) Reciprocal (b) Asymmetrical (c) Causal (d) Symmetrical (e) Spurious

Question 30: The major relationships of interest to the research analyst are those which are:

(a) Asymmetrical (b) Exclusive (c) Independent (d) Reciprocal (e) Symmetrical

Question 31: What kind of relationships is often studied in business and social science research?

(a) Stimulus-Response (b) Disposition-Behavior (c) Property-Behavior (d) Property-Disposition (e) None of the above

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ANSWERS TO LESSON REVIEW EXERCISES 1. Research design is the plan and structure of investigation so conceived as to obtain

answers to research questions. The plan is the overall scheme or program of the research. It includes an outline of what the investigator will do from writing hypotheses and their operational implications to the final analysis of data. Research design expresses both the structure of the research problem – the framework, organization, or configuration of the relationships among variables of a study – and the plan of investigation used to obtain empirical evidence on those relationships.

2. Research design can be characterized in the following ways:

An activity- and time-based plan.

A plan always based on a research question.

A guide for selecting sources and types of information.

A framework for specifying the relationships among the study’s variables.

A procedural outline for every research activity. 3. Like gazpacho, research design is widely used and broadly interpreted. Many researchers

and institutions have unique and varying demands when research is being contemplated. 4. A formal study is best suited to answer concrete questions. Typically formal studies

involve precise procedures and data source specifications. The goal of a formal design is to test the hypotheses or answer the research questions posed with concrete and verifiable sources and methods.

5. Exploratory studies are best suited to answer questions that are not clear or fully

developed. Exploratory studies tend toward loose structures, with the objective of discovering future research tasks or refining a hypothesis or research question.

6. Exploration allows researchers to:

Develop a formal hypothesis

Determine the feasibility of a formal study

Define pivotal variables and develop operational definitions

Establish priorities

Improve the final (formal) research design

Possibly save time and money 7. The bias against qualitative research is centered on the concerns of subjectivity, non-

representation and non-systematic design.

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8. Powerful exploratory techniques have developed over time and include the following:

Secondary data analysis

Experience surveys

Focus groups

Two-stage designs 9. The two major methods of collecting data are monitoring and communication. 10. Monitoring includes studies in which the researcher inspects the activities of a subject or

the nature of some material, without attempting to elicit responses from anyone. There is no interaction between the subject and the researcher.

11. In a communication study, the researcher questions the subjects and collects their

responses by personal or impersonal means. 12. Experimentation provides the most powerful support possible for a hypothesis of

causation. In an experiment, the researcher attempts to control and/or manipulate the variables in the study. Experimental design is appropriate when one wishes to discover whether certain variables produce effects in other variables.

13. The ex post facto design is best suited in a study of past records. Investigators have no

control over the variables in the sense of being able to manipulate them. They can only report what has happened, or what is happening. There is a great temptation for researchers using this design to influence the variables by choosing specific variables or data types; doing so introduces bias.

14. A descriptive study is concerned with finding out who, what, where, when, or how much. 15. A causal study is concerned with learning why. That is, how one variable produces

changes in another variable. 16. The two ways in which studies handle time are by using cross-sectional methods and

longitudinal methods. Cross-sectional studies are carried out once, and represent a snapshot of one point in time. Longitudinal studies are repeated over an extended period. The advantage of a longitudinal study is that it can track changes over time. In longitudinal panel studies, researchers may study people over time.

17. A statistic is a number that estimates population characteristics. A parameter is a number

that is the population characteristic. While statistics are estimated from samples, parameters are calculated from a census of all the elements of a population. For example, a principal of a local high school may want to know how many children are left handed. The principal could survey a random sample of students and get a statistic, 11% for example. The principal could conduct a census of every student in the school and find the parameter of 13%, for example.

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18. Statistical studies are designed for breadth, rather than depth. The purpose is to describe the important features of a population. In marketing, for example, a telescope manufacturer would be eager to know that 50% of surveyed amateur astronomers subscribe to the Flashlight Monthly Magazine. The statistic may not be exactly correct but it gives an indication as to the relative importance of the variable.

19. Case studies place more emphasis on a full contextual analysis of fewer events or

conditions, and their interrelations. Case studies rely on qualitative data to support or reject the hypothesis or proposition.

20. Case studies are often maligned as “scientifically worthless” because they do not meet

the minimum requirements for comparison or replication. It is frequently impossible to replicate a case study to show a similar result.

21. Case studies can refute important scientific propositions when they are declared to be

universal. A single case study can falsify a universal principle with a single exception. A single, well-designed case study can provide a major challenge to a theory, and provide a source of new hypotheses and constructs simultaneously. Case studies can aid in the discovery of new hypotheses.

22. The two types of conditions under which studies are conducted are field conditions or

laboratory conditions. Of course, under field conditions studies are subject to the vagaries of the real world. In a laboratory setting, the researcher attempts to control all the major variables. One subset of laboratory experimentation is the simulation. Simulations, which replicate the essence of a system or process, are increasingly used in research, especially in operations research.

23. The first step in an exploratory study is a search of the secondary literature. 24. Studies made by others, for their own purposes, represent secondary data. Primary data is

original research. 25. In an experience survey, we seek a person’s ideas about important issues or aspects of the

subject and discover what is important across the subject’s range of knowledge. It is similar to an in-depth interview with greater structure and many subjects (participants).

26. A focus group is a group of people (typically 6 to 10), led by a trained moderator, who

meet for 90 minutes to 2 hours. The facilitator or moderator uses group dynamics to focus or guide the group in an exchange of ideas, feelings, and experiences on a specific topic. The result of the session is a list of ideas and behavioral observations, with recommendations by the moderator.

27. A two-stage design approach – exploration becomes a separate first stage with limited

objectives. First the study clearly defines the research question then the study will develop the research design (for further research).

28. A descriptive study develops descriptions of phenomena or characteristics associated

with a subject population (who, what, when, where, and how of a topic). It may also

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estimate the proportions of a population that have the relevant characteristics. The discovery of associations among different variables (sometimes labeled a correlational study) may also be part of a descriptive study.

29. The essential element of causation is that A “produces” B or A “forces” B to occur.

Empirically, we can never demonstrate an A-B causality with certainty. Empirical conclusions are inferences (inductive conclusions). As such, they are based on what we observe and measure. It is impossible to observe and measure all the processes that may account for the A-B relationship. The inability to observe all things limits the validity of empirical conclusions.

30. The “method of agreement” states that “When two or more cases of a given phenomenon

have one and only one condition in common, then that condition may be regarded as the cause (or effect) of the phenomenon.”

31. The “negative canon of agreement” states that where the absence of C is associated with

the absence of Z, there is evidence of a causal relationship between C and Z. 32. The method of difference is the combination of the method of agreement and the negative

canon of agreement. “If there are two or more cases, and in one of them observation Z can be made, while in the other it cannot; and if variable C occurs when observation Z can be made, while in the other it cannot; and if variable C occurs when observation Z is made, and does not occur when observation Z is not made; then it can be asserted that there is a causal relationship between C and Z.”

33. If we consider the possible relationships that can occur between two variables, there are

three possibilities:

A symmetrical relationship is one in which two variables fluctuate together, but we assume the changes in neither variable are due to changes in the other.

A reciprocal relationship exists when two variables mutually influence or reinforce each other.

An asymmetrical relationship is one in which changes in one independent variable (IV) are responsible for changes in a dependent variable (DV).

34. The four asymmetrical response types are:

Stimulus-response

Property-disposition

Disposition-behavior

Property-behavior 35. A control is a scientific concept that holds all the variables constant while the

independent variable is manipulated. It is important because without controls in a study there would be no logical connection between the independent variable and the dependent variable.

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36. Random assignment is a method of assigning subjects to groups: each person in the study must have an equal chance for exposure to each level of the independent variable. It is the equal chance that allows the generalization from the sample to the population.

37. Matching is the process of matching the properties of one group to another. This

matching process allows us to control a study for incidental attributes in the study like age or income.

38. The post hoc fallacy has been used to describe the frequently unwarranted conclusions

made from correlations found in ex post facto studies. Typically it is the result of poorly manipulated or biased data or a spurious conclusion based on coincidental data.

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LESSON 8



The Use of Qualitative Methods That Draw Data from People and Organizations LESSON OBJECTIVES:


Explain how qualitative methods differ from quantitative methods.

Elaborate the controversy surrounding qualitative research.

Illustrate the types of decisions that are best approached with qualitative methods.

List and describe a variety of qualitative research methods and techniques.

LESSON ASSIGNMENT:

Business Research Methods, Twelfth Edition Chapter 7, “Qualitative Research”

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LESSON 8 NOTE: The following exercises are study aids designed to help you prepare for the subject exam. Write your answers in the space provided after each exercise. Use the blank page to record other notes on the text content. Immediately check your answers with the key at the end of the guide. Do not submit your answers to AGU for grading. Question 1: What is qualitative research? Question 2: At what stage of the research process are qualitative research techniques used? Question 3: What are some of the qualitative techniques used at the data collection stage of

research? Question 4: What are some of the qualitative techniques used at the data analysis stage of the

research process? Question 5: What are the primary sources of qualitative data? Question 6: Where do qualitative methodologies come from? Question 7: What is semiotics?

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Question 8: What are the major criticisms of qualitative research? Question 9: What are some of the ways in which qualitative researchers address the weakness

in their methodology? Question 10: Define the three steps used in formulating the qualitative research question. Question 11: What is pretasking? Why is it used and what are some of the activities associated

with pretasking? Question 12: What type of sampling is used in qualitative research? Question 13: What are the three methods of nonprobability sampling mentioned in the text? Question 14: What is the primary data collection technique used in qualitative research? Question 15: What are the three general types of interview?

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Question 16: What is a projective technique and how is it used? Question 17: Why use a projective technique? Question 18: What are some of the projective techniques listed in the text? Question 19: What is the person called who manages the interview process? Question 20: What are some of the most important skills employed in an interview? Question 21: What are the two documents pivotal to the interview process (that will help to add

validity to the results)? Question 22: What is an individual depth interview? How long do they take and what are they

used for? Question 23: What is a group interview? How can groups be described?

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Question 24: What are the typical uses for the various group sizes? Question 25: How can the composition or mix of a given group be described? Question 26: How are the levels of knowledge described? Question 27: How does the researcher determine how many groups to use in a qualitative

study? Question 28: What is a focus group and how long is a typical focus group session? Question 29: Where does the term “focus group” come from? Question 30: What are some of the techniques used to gain the most information from focus

groups? Question 31: What types of information or research goals are well suited to study using focus

groups?

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Question 32: Typically, focus groups are conducted live in a meeting space. What are some of the more recent techniques used with the aid of technology?

Question 33: What is a case study? Question 34: What is “action research?” Question 35: What are heuristics and what do heuristics have to do with action research? Question 36: What is it called when multiple techniques are employed in a research project? Question 37: What are the four general strategies for combining research methodologies that

are common in marketing research?

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SUBJECT EXAMINATION




Student Services at [email protected]. MULTIPLE CHOICE: Question 1: Which type of research includes an array of interpretative techniques which seek

to describe, decode, translate, and otherwise come to terms with the meaning of certain phenomena?

(a) Quantitative (b) Qualitative (c) Statistical (d) Descriptive (e) Causal

Question 2: The primary concern with using qualitative techniques is that qualitative data are

too:

(a) Expensive (b) Time-consuming (c) Subjective (d) Objective (e) Structured

Question 3: Which type of research attempts a precise measurement of some behavior,

knowledge, opinion, or attitude?

(a) Quantitative (b) Qualitative (c) Exploratory (d) Cross-sectional (e) Longitudinal

Question 4: Qualitative research seeks to __________ theory while quantitative research

__________ it.

(a) Examine, interprets (b) Build, tests (c) Test, understands (d) Apply, builds (e) Justify, applies

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Question 5: Which of the following is true of quantitative research?

(a) It uses a nonprobability sampling method (b) Results are generalizable (c) Data analysis is always ongoing during the project (d) Sample sizes are generally small (e) It uses multiple data collection methods

Question 6: Exercises that prepare participants for individual or group interviews on a topic

are called:

(a) Calisthenics (b) Projection techniques (c) Homework (d) Pretasking (e) Focused preparation

Question 7: Which type of sampling technique involves selecting research participants with no

attempt at generating a statistically representative sample?

(a) Probability (b) Nonprobability (c) Random (d) Systematic (e) Cluster

Question 8: Which type of nonprobability sampling technique involves choosing participants

arbitrarily for their unique characteristics, experiences, attitudes, or perceptions?

(a) Random sampling (b) Purposive sampling (c) Convenience sampling (d) Snowball sampling (e) Quota sampling

Question 9: Which type of nonprobability sampling technique is most useful when individuals

with the desired characteristics, experiences, or attitudes are difficult to identify or reach?

(a) Random sampling (b) Purposive sampling (c) Convenience sampling (d) Snowball sampling (e) Quota sampling

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Question 10: Which term below refers to a trained interviewer used for group interviews such as focus groups?

(a) Therapist (b) Arbitrator (c) Moderator (d) Discussion guide (e) Mediator

Question 11: Jane is conducting interviews in order to develop a customer profile for her client.

She customizes each interview to each participant and does not ask specific questions. What type of interview format is Jane using?

(a) Structured (b) Semistructured (c) Unstructured (d) Closed-ended (e) Direct interviewing

Question 12: Jackson is conducting interviews to identify patterns in consumer decision making

for high-involvement products. Which type of interview should he use if he needs a high degree of comparability among responses, no question variability, and to maintain his own neutrality during the interviews?

(a) Unstructured (b) Structured (c) Semistructured (d) Closed-ended (e) Briefing

Question 13: American Airlines is conducting a qualitative study on preferences of business

travelers who fly frequently. Before inviting an individual to participate, the researcher on the project wants to ensure that all participants travel for business more than pleasure and meet the American Airlines’ definition of frequent flier. What is the best way for the researcher to ensure that participants will meet these criteria?

(a) Use a recruitment screener prior to inviting individuals to participate (b) Delete interviews after the study ends from those who don’t meet the

qualifications (c) Draw a sample from a list of people with an American Airlines affinity

credit card (d) Draw a sample from a list of people with an affinity credit card associated

with any airline (e) Contact a travel agency for a list of prospects

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Question 14: The semistructured or structured interview guide designed to qualify prospects for participation in research projects is called a:

(a) Pretasking exercise (b) Recruitment screener (c) Hierarchical question structure (d) Computer-assisted interview (e) None of the above

Question 15: Interview guides begin with __________ questions, following a hierarchical

questioning structure.

(a) Narrow issue (b) Narrow topical (c) Broad issue (d) Narrow interest (e) Any of the above

Question 16: In a study of attitudes toward buying fake goods, participants are asked to

complete this sentence: “People who buy fake Louis Vuitton handbags are …..” This is an example of a(n) __________ projective technique.

(a) Picture association (b) Empty balloons (c) Sentence completion (d) Imagination exercise (e) Personification

Question 17: When using the __________ projective technique, participants are presented with

scents, textures and sounds, and asked to arrange them by one or more criteria.

(a) Brand mapping (b) Sensory sorts (c) Thematic apperception test (d) Component sorts (e) Laddering

Question 18: When using __________, participants are asked to assume that the brand and its

users populate an entire universe, and to describe the features of this new world.

(a) Word association (b) Imaginary universe (c) Thematic apperception test (d) Empty balloons (e) Laddering

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Question 19: Participants in a study designed to identify symbolic benefits associated with Sutter Home wines are shown a photograph of a man eating at an upscale restaurant. The man in the picture is alone and has a glass of wine with his meal. The participants are asked to describe how the person in the picture feels and thinks. This is an example of a(n) __________ projective technique.

(a) Picture association (b) Empty balloons (c) Thematic apperception test (d) Imagination exercise (e) Personification

Question 20: Life histories may take as long as five hours to complete. What type of interview

is this?

(a) Convergent interview (b) Ethnographic interview (c) Individual depth interview (d) Homogeneous interview (e) Focus interview

Question 21: When individual depth interviews are aided by the use of computer-generated

visual and auditory aids, the method is known as:

(a) Computer-assisted telephone interviewing (CATI) (b) Computer-assisted personal interviewing (CAPI) (c) Online interviewing (d) Group interviewing (e) Computer-aided design (CAD)

Question 22: How many participants are typically in a mini-group interview?

(a) 2 (b) 3 (c) 2 to 6 (d) 6 to 10 (e) Up to 20

Question 23: A group interview seeking to understand spousal influence on decision making or

the influence of the opinion of a sibling on brand preferences would likely utilize a:

(a) Dyad (b) Triad (c) Mini-group (d) Small group (e) Supergroup

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Question 24: Anne is moderating a focus group of university professors to understand how they use multimedia in the classroom. All of the participants teach classes with more than 100 students at large, public universities. The composition of this group could be described as:

(a) Heterogeneous (b) Homogeneous (c) Nonexpert (d) Dyadic (e) None of the above

Question 25: Research on service quality frequently uses a technique called __________ in

which the participant describes what led up to an incident, what was effective or ineffective, and the outcome.

(a) Life histories (b) Cultural interviews (c) Sequential interviewing (d) Critical incident technique (e) Oral history

Question 26: All of the following statements about determining the number of group interviews

is true except:

(a) The broader the issue, the more groups needed (b) The larger the number of distinct market segments of interest, the more

groups needed (c) The greater the level of detail, the more groups needed (d) The more homogeneous the market segment, the more groups needed (e) The larger the number of new ideas desired, the more groups needed

Question 27: For noncommercial research projects researchers favor natural groups. Which

type of group is not considered natural?

(a) Employment status (b) Family (c) Co-workers (d) Church members (e) Club participants

Question 28: Which statement below best reflects the general rule regarding how many group

interviews should be conducted for a given research project?

(a) Conduct interviews until no new insight is gained (b) Use at least 3 groups for every geographic region involved (c) Include groups of men only, women only, and men and women combined (d) The more homogeneous the groups, the more groups are needed (e) All of the above are true

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Question 29: What is the typical length of a focus group?

(a) 30 minutes (b) 1 hour (c) 90 minutes (d) 2 hours (e) 4 hours

Question 30: A telephone focus group is a viable alternative to a traditional focus group when:

(a) Participants need to handle a product (b) It is difficult to recruit desired participants (c) Sessions will run long (d) Participants are groups of children (e) All of the above

Question 31: Online focus groups gain speed and access but give up:

(a) Insights from group dynamics (b) Flexibility to use nonverbal language as source of data (c) Physical presence to influence openness (d) Physical presence to influence depth of responses (e) All of the above

Question 32: The process for measuring semantic content of a communication to develop a

qualitative picture of the respondents’ concerns, ideas, attitudes, and feelings is called:

(a) Brand mapping (b) Component sorts (c) Ethnographic interpretation (d) Word association (e) Content analysis

Question 33: The objective of a(n) __________ is to obtain multiple perspectives of a single

organization, situation, event, or process at a point in time or over a period of time.

(a) Life history (b) Oral history (c) Case history (d) Cultural history (e) Semantic map

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Question 34: Which type of research is designed to address complex, practical problems using brainstorming, followed by sequential trial-and-error attempts until the desired results are achieved?

(a) Case history (b) Action research (c) Causal research (d) Grounded theory (e) Ethnography

Question 35: Which term below is used to describe the combining of four qualitative methods

or combining qualitative with quantitative methods?

(a) Triangulation (b) Dyadic support (c) Inter-rater reliability (d) Projection (e) Component sorts

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ANSWERS TO LESSON REVIEW EXERCISES 1. Qualitative research includes an “array of interpretive techniques which seek to describe,

decode, translate, and otherwise come to terms with the meaning, not the frequency, of certain more or less naturally occurring phenomena in the social world.”

2. Qualitative techniques are used at both the data collection and data analysis stages of a

research project. 3. At the data collection stage, the array of techniques includes: focus groups; individual

depth interviews (IDIs); case studies; ethnography; grounded theory; action research; and observation.

4. During analysis, the qualitative researcher uses content analysis of:

Written or recorded materials drawn from personal expressions by participants

Behavioral observations

Debriefing of observers

Artifacts

Trace evidence from the physical environment 5. Qualitative research draws data from a variety of sources, including:

People (individuals or groups)

Organizations or institutions

Texts (published, including virtual ones)

Settings and environments (visual/sensory and virtual material)

Objects, artifacts, media products (textual/visual/sensory and virtual material)

Events and happenings (textual/visual/sensory and virtual material) 6. Qualitative research methodologies have roots in a variety of disciplines, including

anthropology, sociology, psychology, linguistics, communication, economics, and semiotics. 7. Semiotics, also called semiology, is the study of signs and sign-using behavior. It was

defined by one of its founders, the Swiss linguist Ferdinand de Saussure, as the study of “the life of signs within society.” Although the word was used in this sense in the 17th century by the English philosopher John Locke, the idea of semiotics as an interdisciplinary mode for examining phenomena in different fields emerged only in the late 19th and early 20th centuries with the independent work of Saussure and of the American philosopher Charles Sanders Peirce.

8. The main criticisms are centered on the belief that qualitative research provides an

unstable foundation for expensive and critical marketing decisions. Unlike quantitative methods, results cannot be generalized from a qualitative study to a larger population is considered a fundamental weakness.

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9. Qualitative researchers (mainly marketing professionals) deal with the issue of trustworthiness of qualitative data through exacting methodology. Some of the techniques used follow:

Carefully using literature searches to build probing questions

Thoroughly justifying the methodology(s) chosen

Executing the chosen methodology in its natural setting (field study) rather than a highly controlled setting (laboratory)

Choosing sample participants for relevance to the breadth of the issue, rather than how well they represent the target population

Developing/including questions that reveal the exceptions to a rule or theory

Carefully structuring the data analysis

Comparing data across multiple sources and different contexts

Conducting peer-researcher debriefing on results for added clarity, additional insights, and reduced bias

10. Step one is discovering the management dilemma using literature search and expert

interviews. Step two is to define the management questions using qualitative research of convergent interviewing and focus groups. The last step is to define the research question(s).

11. Pretasking is a variety of creative and mental exercises that are intended to draw

participants’ understanding of the subject at hand and their own thought processes and ideas to the surface. Some of these include:

Placing the product or medium for in-home use, with instructions to use the

product or medium repeatedly before the interview

Having participants bring visual stimuli (e.g., photos of rooms in their homes that they hate to clean or have trouble decorating)

Having participants prepare a visual collage

Having participants keep detailed diaries of behavior and perceptions

Having participants draw a picture of an experience

Having the participants write a dialog of a hypothetical experience 12. In qualitative research, nonprobability sampling is used; little attempt is made to generate

a representative sample. Note that probability sampling is used in quantitative research where the sample is selected to represent a population.

13. The types of nonprobability sampling mentioned in the text are:

Purposive sampling. Researchers choose participants arbitrarily for their unique characteristics or their experiences, attitudes, or perceptions. As conceptual or theoretical categories of participants develop during the interviewing process, researchers seek new participants to challenge emerging patterns.

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Snowball sampling. Participants refer researchers to others who have characteristics, experiences, or attitudes similar to, or different from, their own.

Convenience sampling. Researchers select any readily available individuals as participants.

14. The interview is the primary data collection technique for gathering data in qualitative

methodologies. 15. There are three general types of interviews:

Unstructured interview: no specific questions or order of topics to be discussed, with each interview customized to each participant; generally starts with a participant narrative

Semi-structured interview: generally starts with a few specific questions and then follows the individual’s tangents of thought with interviewer probes

Structured interview: often uses a detailed interview guide similar to a questionnaire to guide the question order and the specific way the questions are asked, but the questions generally remain open-ended

16. A projective technique is a qualitative methodology used in the interviewing process.

These techniques are employed to extract hidden, suppressed or unconscious attitudes, ideas, emotions and motives from participants. The results gathered using projective techniques are often difficult to interpret and record objectively.

17. Projective techniques are used in qualitative research so that the maximum amount of

information can be gathered from an interview. Projective techniques often draw out less verbal members of a group with written or visual aids. Projective techniques can dissipate tension caused by sensitive topics or can be useful when a change of focus in the interview is imminent.

18. The projective techniques listed in the book are as follows:

Word or picture association – Participants match images, experiences, emotions, products and services, even people and places, to whatever is being studied. “Tell me what you think of when you think of Kellogg’s Special K cereal.”

Sentence completion – Participants complete a sentence. “Complete this sentence: People who buy over the Internet...”

Cartoons or empty balloons – Participants write the dialog for a cartoon-like picture. “What will the customer comment when she sees the salesperson approaching her in the new-car showroom.”

Thematic Apperception Test – Participants are confronted with a picture and asked to describe how the person in the picture feels and thinks.

Component sorts – Participants are presented with flash cards containing component features and asked to create new combinations.

Sensory sorts – Participants are presented with scents, textures, and sounds, usually verbalized on cards, and asked to arrange them by one or more criteria.

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Laddering or benefit chain – Participants link functional features to their physical and psychological benefits, both real and ideal.

Imagination exercises – Participants are asked to relate the properties of one thing/person/brand to another. “If Crest toothpaste were a college, what type of college would it be?”

Imaginary universe – Participants are asked to assume that the brand and its users populate an entire universe; they then describe the features of this new world.

Visitor from another planet – Participants are asked to assume that they are aliens and are confronting the product for the first time, then describe their reactions, questions, and attitudes about purchase or retrial.

Personification – Participants imagine inanimate objects with the traits, characteristics and features, and personalities of humans. “If brand X were a person, what type of person would brand X be?”

Authority figure – Participants imagine that the brand or product is an authority figure and describe the attributes of the figure.

Ambiguities and paradoxes – Participants imagine a brand as something else (e.g., a Tide dog food or Marlboro cereal), describing its attributes and position.

Semantic mapping – Participants are presented with a four-quadrant map where different variables anchor the two different axes; they place brands, product components, or organizations within the four quadrants.

Brand mapping – Participants are presented with different brands and asked to talk about their perceptions, usually in relation to several criteria. They may also be asked to spatially place each brand on one or more semantic maps.

19. A moderator manages the interview process; training and skills learned from experience

allow a qualified moderator to gather the most valuable information from both group and individual interviews.

20. Some of the most important skills employed in an interview are as follows:

The ability to make respondents comfortable

Probing for detail without making the respondent feel harassed

Remaining neutral while encouraging the participant to talk openly

Following a participant’s train of thought

Extracting insights from hours of detailed descriptive dialogue 21. Before the interview is conducted, a recruitment screener is developed to help select only

those participants that fit the criteria called for in the research design. A well designed recruitment screener can add validity to the results of an interview by screening out the participation of ancillary participants and focusing the results only on those participants that have the most to offer. A carefully structured interview or discussion guide will help the moderator to focus on the research question at hand and will help when results from several interviews are combined and analyzed.

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22. An individual depth interview (IDI) is an interaction between an individual interviewer and a single participant. An IDI generally takes between 20 minutes (telephone interviews) and 2 hours (prescheduled, face-to-face interviews) to complete, depending on the issues or topics of interest and the contact method used. Some techniques, such as life histories, may take as long as five hours. Generally they are used in marketing research to develop a complete understanding of the customer and how the customer perceives the product or service in question.

23. A group interview is a data collection method using a single interviewer with more than

one research participant. Group interviews can be described by the group’s size or its composition. Their descriptions are as follows:

Dyads (2 people)

Triads (3 people)

Mini-groups (2 to 6 people)

Small groups (focus groups, 6 to 10 people, the most well-known group interview techniques)

Supergroups (up to 20 people) 24. Smaller groups are usually used when the overall population from which the participants

are drawn is small, the topic or concept list is extensive or technical or when the research calls for greater intimacy. Dyads are also used when a friendship or other relationship (e.g., spouses, superior-subordinate, and siblings) is needed to stimulate frank discussion on a sensitive topic. Dyads are also used with young children who have lower levels of articulation or more limited attention spans and are thus more difficult to control in large groups. Supergroups are used when a wide range of ideas is needed in a short period of time, and when the researcher is willing to sacrifice a significant amount of participant interaction for speed.

25. The composition or mix of a given group can be described as being either heterogeneous

(consisting of different individuals; variety of opinions, backgrounds, actions) or homogeneous (consisting of similar individuals; commonality of opinions, backgrounds, actions).

26. Groups can be characterized in terms of their level of expertise. They are composed of

either experts (exceptionally knowledgeable about the issues to be discussed), or nonexperts (those with some desired information, but at an unknown level).

27. The researcher determines the number of groups by weighing the following factors: (The

general rule is: Keep conducting group interviews until no new insights are gained.) The scope of the issue(s) being studied: The broader the issue(s), the more groups

needed.

The number of distinct market segments of interest: The larger the number and the greater the distinctions, the more groups needed.

The number of new ideas or insights desired: The larger the number, the more groups needed.

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The level of detail of information: The greater the level of detail, the more groups needed.

The level of geographic or ethnic distinctions in attitudes or behavior: The greater these influences, the more groups needed.

The homogeneity of the groups: The less homogeneity, the more groups needed. 28. A focus group, introduced in Chapter 6, is a panel of people (typically 6 to 10

participants), led by a trained moderator, who meet for 90 minutes to 2 hours. 29. The term focus group was first coined by R. K. Merton in his 1956 book, The Focused

Interview. 30. Common techniques used within focus groups include:

Creativity sessions that employ projective techniques or involve the participants in writing or drawing sessions or creating visual compilations

Free association. “What words or phrases come to mind when you think of X?”

Picture sort. Participants sort brand labels or carefully selected images related to brand personality on participant-selected criteria.

Photo sort. Photographs of people are given to the group members, who are then asked: “Which of these people would...?” or “Which of these people would not...?”

Role Play. Two or more group members are asked to respond to questions from the vantage point of their personal or assigned role.

31. Focus groups are especially valuable in the following research scenarios:

Obtaining general background about a topic or issue

Generating research questions to be explored via quantitative methodologies

Interpreting previously obtained quantitative results

Stimulating new ideas for products and programs

Highlighting areas of opportunity for specific marketers to pursue

Diagnosing problems that marketers need to address

Generating impressions and perceptions of brands and product ideas

Generating a level of understanding about influences in the participant’s world 32. Recently technology has made the use of Telephone Focus Groups, Online Focus Groups

and Videoconferencing Focus Groups a viable option for low cost research. 33. The case study, also called case history, is a research methodology that combines

individual and (sometimes) group interviews with record analysis and observation.

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34. Action research is designed to address complex, practical problems about which little is known – thus no known heuristics exist. Specifically the steps involved are as follows:

The scenario is studied

A corrective action is determined, planned, and implemented

The results of the action are observed and recorded

The action is assessed as effective or not

The process is repeated until a desired outcome is reached 35. Heuristic techniques are exploratory problem-solving techniques that utilize self-

educating methodologies (with feedback), especially trial-and-error methods, typically employed to improve performance in some activity. Heuristic methodologies are implied in action research because they involve trial and error type exploration.

36. Triangulation is the term used to describe the combining of several qualitative methods or

combining qualitative with quantitative methods. 37. Four strategies for combining methodologies are common in marketing research:

Qualitative and quantitative studies can be conducted simultaneously

A qualitative study can be ongoing while multiple waves of quantitative studies are done, measuring changes in behavior and attitudes over time

A qualitative study can precede a quantitative study, and a second qualitative study then might follow the quantitative study, seeking more clarification

A quantitative study can precede a qualitative study

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LESSON 9



The Use, Evaluation and Practice of Observation Methodology in Research LESSON OBJECTIVES:


Describe the situations where observation studies are most useful.

Illustrate the distinctions between monitoring nonbehavioral and behavioral activities.

Specify the strengths of the observation approach in research design.

Outline the weaknesses of the observation approach in research design.

Describe the three perspectives from which the observer-participant relationship may

be viewed in observation studies.

List and explain the various designs of observation studies. LESSON ASSIGNMENT:

Business Research Methods, Twelfth Edition Chapter 8, “Observation Studies”

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LESSON 9 NOTE: The following exercises are study aids designed to help you prepare for the subject exam. Write your answers in the space provided after each exercise. Use the blank page to record other notes on the text content. Immediately check your answers with the key at the end of the guide. Do not submit your answers to AGU for grading. Question 1: When does “observation” qualify as a type of scientific inquiry? Question 2: What is “observation” as defined by the text and how can observation be

classified? Question 3: Briefly define each of the three types of nonbehavioral analysis. Question 4: List and describe the various forms of behavioral analysis given in the text. Question 5: What is the study of proxemics? Question 6: What are some of the reasons a researcher might use to justify observation

research?

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Question 7: What are some of the situations or conditions that limit the usefulness of the observation methodology?

Question 8: What are the three categories of relationships that the observer can have with the

participant in the observational methodology? Question 9: What are the benefits and risks associated with the concealed method of

observation? Question 10: How can the ethical problems surrounding concealment be ameliorated? Question 11: Define the two general types of observation studies. Question 12: When is observational methodology used in research? Question 13: What is the measuring instrument used in observational studies? Question 14: What are the two levels of content specification?

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Question 15: What are the general guidelines for the qualification and selection of observers? Question 16: What are halo effects? Question 17: What is “observer drift?” Question 18: What are two sampling methodologies used in observation studies? Question 19: What are the three specific time sampling methodologies mentioned in the text? Question 20: What is the reactivity response? Question 21: What are “unobtrusive measures” of behavior observation and what are the two

major types of these measures mentioned in the text? Question 22: What is garbology?

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SUBJECT EXAMINATION




Student Services at [email protected]. MULTIPLE CHOICE: Question 1: Observation means to collect data by:

(a) Viewing (b) Listening (c) Touching (d) Smelling (e) All of the above

Question 2: Observation is an appropriate method for data collection in all of the following

conditions except:

(a) Purpose must be disguised (b) Natural setting is necessary (c) Anonymity is desired (d) Memory decay is a factor (e) Behavioral data is needed

Question 3: Which of the following is a condition in which observation is an appropriate

method for data collection?

(a) Anonymity is desired (b) Respondents are widely dispersed (c) Attitudinal information is needed (d) Natural setting is imperative (e) Extensive amount of information is needed

Question 4: Record analysis, physical condition analysis and process analysis are what kind of

observation?

(a) Tracemics (b) Wastage (c) Event sampling (d) Garbology (e) Nonbehavioral analysis

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Question 5: Gavin Pierro is a contract store auditor. He studies merchandise availability for major manufacturing companies. What is his specialty?

(a) Spatial analysis (b) Record analysis (c) Content analysis (d) Physical condition analysis (e) Inferential analysis

Question 6: Nonverbal observation includes the recording of:

(a) Temporal style (b) Linguistics (c) Proxemics (d) Kinesics (e) Motor expressions

Question 7: Which of the following is not a type of behavioral observation?

(a) Nonverbal behavior (b) Linguistic behavior (c) Activity observation (d) Extralinguistic behavior (e) Spatial behavior

Question 8: The study of how people organize the territory around them and maintain discrete

distances between themselves and others is known as:

(a) Extralinguistics (b) Feng shui (c) Kinesics (d) Proxemics (e) Physical condition observation

Question 9: In one episode of the television show two characters make fun of each other’s

pronunciation peculiarities and characteristic expressions. Character A over enunciates words. Character B makes fun of others by asking a question like “Could you BE any more annoying?” Which dimension of extralinguistic activity is being addressed in this example?

(a) Vocal (b) Temporal (c) Interaction (d) Verbal stylistic (e) Spatial

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Question 10: The observation of human verbal behavior during conversation, presentation, or interaction is known as __________ observation.

(a) Nonverbal (b) Linguistic (c) Extralinguistic (d) Spatial (e) Temporal

Question 11: The recording of how humans physically relate to one another is called

__________ observation.

(a) Nonverbal (b) Linguistic (c) Spatial (d) Mechanical/digital (e) Temporal

Question 12: Proxemics is one form of __________ observation.

(a) Nonverbal (b) Linguistic (c) Spatial (d) Mechanical/digital (e) Temporal

Question 13: Which of the following is a limitation of observation as a data collection method?

(a) Optimizing the naturalness of the setting (b) Reducing obtrusiveness (c) Avoiding participant filtering (d) Quantifying data (e) Securing contextual information

Question 14: All of the following are advantages of observation as a data collection method

except:

(a) Optimizing the naturalness of the setting (b) Reducing obtrusiveness (c) Avoiding participant filtering (d) Concise observation records (e) Securing contextual information

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Question 15: Scott’s Lawn Care has hired Henry Associates to find out whether home improvement warehouse stores communicate the benefits of various brands of lawn care products differently than smaller stores. Henry Associates needs to know what is communicated to consumers in the actual settings of the stores and wants to ensure that the message isn’t filtered. Only behavioral data is required. Which type of data collection method is most appropriate in this situation?

(a) Communication (b) Observation (c) Surveys (d) Experimental (e) Causal

Question 16: __________ observation occurs when the observer is physically present and

personally monitors and records the behavior of the participant.

(a) Indirect (b) Direct (c) Concealed (d) Disguised (e) Spatial

Question 17: Observers may be physically involved in the participant’s social setting and

interact with the participant. This form of observation is known as __________ observation.

(a) Concealment (b) Deceptive (c) Participant (d) Structured (e) Direct

Question 18: When observation employs standardized procedures, trained observers, schedules

for recording, and other devices that reflect the scientific procedures of other primary data methods, it is said to be __________ observation.

(a) Simple (b) Systematic (c) Organized (d) Structured (e) Semistructured

Question 19: The measurement instrument for recording data in an observation study is called

a(n):

(a) Screener (b) Observation checklist (c) Moderator’s guide (d) Interview guide (e) Pupilometer

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Question 20: Which of the following attributes must be identified using inferential observation?

(a) Selling points presented (b) Length of sales meeting (c) Time and day of week (d) Salesperson credibility (e) Customer purchase decision

Question 21: Which of the following attributes can be identified using factual observation?

(a) Salesperson credibility (b) Customer interest (c) Number of customer objections (d) Salesperson enthusiasm (e) Attitude toward the brand

Question 22: A condition called the __________ creates errors when prior observations

influence perceptions of current observations.

(a) Observer drift (b) Groupthink (c) Devil’s advocate (d) Halo effect (e) Self-serving bias

Question 23: Henry Associates is observing shoppers in a retail store. The observers record

surface events like smiling behavior by customers and conclude that smiling behavior is reflective of satisfaction with the shopping event. This is an example of __________ observation.

(a) Inferential (b) Factual (c) Spatial (d) Structured (e) Trace

Question 24: Which of the following questions cannot be answered using the observational

method?

(a) What (b) Where (c) Who (d) How (e) Why

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Question 25: The occurrence of errors caused by a halo effect can sometimes be minimized by choosing observers with a low degree of:

(a) Concentration (b) Detail-orientation (c) Experience (d) Distinctiveness (e) Enthusiasm

Question 26: Which of the following qualifications is desirable for individuals working as

observers in observation studies?

(a) Concentration (b) Unobtrusive (c) Experienced (d) Detail-oriented (e) All of the above

Question 27: Ebony will observe the behaviors of customers in a chain of jewelry stores.

Before beginning the observation studies, Ebony decides to observe behaviors in the stores on Wednesdays between 10 a.m. and 12 p.m. and on Saturdays between 2 p.m. and 6 p.m. This selection of time points to observe and record behavior is known as:

(a) Time sampling (b) Quota sampling (c) Convenience sampling (d) Event sampling (e) Snowball sampling

Question 28: Which term below refers to the error caused by decay in consistency and accuracy

on recorded observations over time?

(a) Observer drift (b) Groupthink (c) Devil’s advocate (d) Halo effect (e) Self-serving bias

Question 29: The error that occurs when participants alter their true behavior due to the

presence of the observer is known as:

(a) Observer drift (b) Halo effect (c) Social desirability responding (d) Self-serving bias (e) Reactivity response

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Question 30: A factory was experiencing a disproportionately large number of defects coming from a particular machine and chose to research the problem by dismantling the equipment to evaluate measures of wear on its various parts. This is an example of:

(a) Direct observation (b) Linguistic behavior (c) Physical traces (d) Verbal observation (e) None of the above

Question 31: When indirect observation includes measures of deposit, this is called:

(a) Linguistic observation (b) Accretion (c) Nonverbal behavior (d) Spatial behavior (e) Temporal behavior

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ANSWERS TO LESSON REVIEW EXERCISES 1. Observation qualifies as a scientific inquiry when it:

Is conducted specifically to answer a research question Is systematically planned and executed Uses proper controls Provides a reliable and valid account of what happened

2. Observation includes the full range of monitoring behavioral and nonbehavioral activities

and conditions, which (as shown in Exhibit 8-3) can be classified as follows:

Behavioral Observation: o Nonverbal analysis o Linguistic analysis o Extralinguistic analysis o Spatial analysis

Nonbehavioral Observation: o Record analysis o Physical condition analysis o Physical process analysis

3. The three types of nonbehavioral analysis are as follows:

Record analysis involves the examination of historical or current records and public or private records. They may be written, printed, sound-recorded, photographed, or videotaped. Historical statistical data are often the only sources used for a study. Analysis of current financial records and economic data also provides a major data source for studies. Other examples of this type of observation are the content analysis (described in Chapter 15) of competitive advertising and the analysis of personnel records.

Physical condition analysis is typified by store audits of merchandise availability, studies of plant safety compliance, analysis of inventory conditions and the analysis of financial statements.

Process or activity analysis includes time/motion studies, analysis of traffic flow, analysis of financial flow in the banking system and analysis of paper flows in an office.

4. The observational study of persons can be classified into four major categories:

Nonverbal behavior is the most prevalent observational method and includes body movement, motor expressions, and even-exchanged glances. At the level of gross body movement, one might study how a salesperson travels a territory. At a fine level, one can study the body movements of a worker assembling a product.

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Linguistic behavior is a second most frequently used form of behavior observation. One simple type familiar to most students is the tally of “ahs” or other annoying sounds or words a professor makes or uses during a class. More serious applications are the study of a sales presentation’s content or the study of what, how, and how much information is conveyed in a training situation. A third form of linguistic behavior involves interaction processes that occur between two people or in small groups.

Behavior also may be analyzed on an extralinguistic level. As stated in the text, there are four dimensions of extralinguistic activity: o Vocal, including pitch, loudness, and timbre o Temporal, rate of speaking, duration of utterance, and rhythm o Interaction, including the tendencies to interrupt, dominate, or inhibit o Verbal stylistic, including vocabulary and pronunciation peculiarities, dialect,

and characteristic expressions. A fourth type of behavior study involves spatial relationships, especially how a

person relates physically to others. 5. Proxemics is the study of how people organize the territory about them and how they

maintain discrete distances between themselves and others. In one episode of the television show “Seinfeld,” Jerry Seinfeld observed that some people are “close talkers.” In that, he made an informal proxemic observation, subdividing the population into “close” and not close talkers.

6. Some of the reasons for using observation methodology are as follows:

Observation is the only method available to gather certain types of information. The study of records, mechanical processes, and young children, as well as other inarticulate participants, falls into this category.

Observation allows us to collect original data at the time they occur; we need not depend on reports by others. Every respondent filters information, no matter how well intentioned.

Observation allows us to secure information that most participants would ignore, either because it is so common and expected, or because it is not seen as relevant.

Observation alone can capture the whole event, as it occurs in its natural environment. An experiment may seem contrived to participants, and the number and types of questions limit the range of responses.

Observation is less restrictive than most primary collection methods. It does not have the same limitations on the length of data collection imposed by surveys or experiments. Questioning could seldom provide the insight of observation for many things, such as a contract negotiation process.

Observation is more easily accepted by participants. In many cases participants seem to accept an observational intrusion better than they respond to questioning. Observation is less demanding and normally has a less biasing effect on their behavior than does questioning. It is also easier to conduct disguised and unobtrusive observation studies than it is to disguise questioning.

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7. Some of the limitations of the observation methodology are as follows:

The observer must normally be at the scene of the event when it takes place, yet it is often impossible to predict when and where the event will occur.

Observation is a slow and expensive process that requires either human observers or costly surveillance equipment.

Observation’s most reliable results are restricted to information that can be learned by overt action or surface indicators. To go below the surface, the observer must make inferences, which are variable.

The research environment is more likely suited to subjective assessment and recording of data than to controls and quantification of events. Controls and the proper quantification of events are essential to obtaining scientifically valid results.

When control is exercised through active intervention by the researchers, their participation may threaten the validity of what is being assessed. This is an interesting aspect of observational research known as the Heisenberg Uncertainty Principle. Specifically, the act of measuring something or an aspect of something renders the observation or measurement of another aspect of the subject “uncertain.”

Even when sample sizes are small, the observation records can be disproportionately large and difficult to analyze.

Observation is a limited way to learn about the past.

Observation is similarly limited as a method by which to learn what is going on in the present time at some distant place.

Observation is also difficult to gather information on such topics as intentions, attitudes, opinions, or preferences.

8. The three categories of observation are as follows:

Direct or indirect observation. Direct observation occurs when the observer is physically present and personally monitors what takes place. Indirect observation occurs when the recording is done by mechanical, photographic, or electronic means.

Concealed observation. In this case the observer is not known to the participant.

Participation observation. This occurs when the observer enters the social setting and acts as both an observer and a participant.

9. Concealment reduces the risk of observer bias, but brings up a question of ethics. Hidden

observation is a form of spying, and the propriety of this action must be reviewed carefully.

10. A modified approach involves partial concealment. The presence of the observer is not

concealed, but the objectives and participant of interest are.

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11. The first type is simple observation which is an unstructured and exploratory observation of participants or objects. The second type is systematic observation which employs standardized procedures, trained observers, schedules for recording, and other devices for the observer that mirror the scientific procedures of other primary data methods.

12. Observational methodology is found in almost all research studies, at least at the

exploratory stage. 13. The measuring instrument used in observational studies is called an observational

checklist, which is analogous to a questionnaire. The checklists should be highly precise in defining relevant behavior or acts, and have mutually exclusive and exhaustive categories. The coding is frequently closed, thereby simplifying data analysis. The participant groups being observed must be comparable and the laboratory conditions identical when experimental design is employed.

14. Observation may be at either a factual or an inferential level. Exhibit 8-6 shows how the

factual and inferential components of a salesperson’s presentation can be specified. 15. The general guidelines for the qualification and selection of observers are as follows:

Concentration: Ability to function in a setting full of distractions.

Detail-oriented: Ability to remember details of an experience.

Unobtrusive: Ability to blend with the setting and not be distinctive.

Experience level: Ability to extract the most from an observation study. 16. The halo effect is error caused when prior observations influence perceptions of current

observations. 17. Observer drift refers to the decay in reliability or validity over time that affects the coding

of categories due to fatigue, tiredness or weariness. 18. The two sampling methodologies mentioned in the text are time and event sampling. In

event sampling, the researcher records selected behavior that answers the investigative questions. In time sampling, the researcher must choose among a time-point sample, continuous real-time measurement, or a time-interval sample.

19. There are three specific time sampling methodologies mentioned in the text, as follows:

Time-point sampling is where recording occurs at fixed points for a specified length.

Continuous measurement occurs where the behavior or the elapsed time of the behavior is recorded.

Time-interval sampling records every behavior in real time, but counts the behavior only once during the interval.

20. The reactivity response is a phenomenon where participants alter their behavior in

response to the researcher.

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21. Unobtrusive measures are a set of approaches that encourage creative and imaginative forms of indirect observation, archival searches, and variations on simple and contrived observation. Of particular interest are measures involving indirect observation based on physical traces that include erosion (measures of wear) and accretion (measures of deposit).

Erosion would be the measurement of the decay or wear of some object that

relates to the frequency of use. Some examples would be: The frequency of replacement of vinyl floor tile in front of museum exhibits indicates exhibit popularity. The study of wear and tear on book pages is a measure of library book use. Counting the remaining brochures in a car dealer’s display rack suggests consumer interest.

Accretion would be the measurement of the deposition, accumulation or build-up of some material that relates to frequency of use. Examples: Discovering the listenership of radio stations by observing car radio settings as autos are brought in for service. Estimating liquor and magazine consumption by collecting and analyzing family trash.

22. William Rathje is a professor of archaeology at the University of Arizona and founder of

the Garbage Project in Tucson. His study of trash, refuse, rubbish, and litter resulted in the sub-discipline that the Oxford English Dictionary has termed garbology.

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LESSON 10



The Uses, Strengths and Limitations of Experiments and the Experimental Method LESSON OBJECTIVES:


Describe the uses of experimentation.

Illustrate the advantages and disadvantages of the experimental method.

List the seven steps involved in developing a well-planned experiment.

Illustrate the conditions necessary to achieve internal and external validity in an

experiment.

Define the three types of experimental designs and the variations of each.

Describe the functions and types of test markets. LESSON ASSIGNMENT:

Business Research Methods, Twelfth Edition Chapter 9, “Experiments”

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LESSON 10 NOTE: The following exercises are study aids designed to help you prepare for the subject exam. Write your answers in the space provided after each exercise. Use the blank page to record other notes on the text content. Immediately check your answers with the key at the end of the guide. Do not submit your answers to AGU for grading. Question 1: What is an experiment? Question 2: Why is the experimental method used? Question 3: What other methodology can be used in showing causality? Question 4: Why is the ex post facto methodology inferior to the experimental methodology? Question 5: What are the two key variables in an experiment and how are they related? Question 6: What are the three logical steps that need to be taken to establish the reasonable

assumption of causality in an experiment? Question 7: What are the advantages of the experimental method over other methods of

research?

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Question 8: What is replication and how is it related to the quality of the experimental methodology?

Question 9: What is a field experiment? Question 10: What is a laboratory experiment? Question 11: What are the major drawbacks to the laboratory experiment? Question 12: What are the disadvantages of the experimental method? Question 13: What are the seven steps that must be taken to perform a successful experiment? Question 14: How are the relevant variables selected in an experiment? Question 15: How is a variable “operationalized?”

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Question 16: What is an experimental treatment? Question 17: What are treatment levels? Question 18: What is a control group and why is it important to use a control group? Question 19: What is a “blind” experiment and how is it related to a “double blind”

experiment? Question 20: What is an experimental design and how does the choice of design affect the

outcome of an experiment? Question 21: What is the most important criteria in selecting participants for an experiment? Question 22: What is periodicity? Question 23: What is random assignment and how is it used?

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Question 24: When random assignment is not possible, what methodology does the researcher use?

Question 25: What methodology is best suited to establish causality? Question 26: What is validity in the context of experimental methodology? Question 27: What is internal validity; what does it address? Question 28: What is external validity; what does it address? Question 29: What are the threats to internal validity mentioned in the text? Question 30: What are the major threats to external validity mentioned in the text? Question 31: How can the experimental setting be a threat to external validity?

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Question 32: List and briefly describe the three types of experimental research designs. Question 33: What is a test market? Question 34: What are some of the uses of a test market? Question 35: What is the most important aspect of a test market? Question 36: What are some of the characteristics that are important to control in test markets? Question 37: What are some of the strategies used to establish a test market? Question 38: What are the various types of test markets mentioned in the text? Question 39: Compare the advantages of experiments with the advantages of survey and

observational methods.

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SUBJECT EXAMINATION




Student Services at [email protected]. MULTIPLE CHOICE: Question 1: Which term below refers to a study involving the manipulation of one or more

variables to determine the effect on another variable?

(a) Ex post facto (b) Experiment (c) Monitoring study (d) Communication study (e) Descriptive study

Question 2: Which variable in an experiment is the variable expected to be affected by the

manipulation?

(a) Dependent variable (b) Extraneous variable (c) Moderating variable (d) Independent variable (e) Mediating variable

Question 3: All of the following are terms used to refer to an independent variable except:

(a) Predictor (b) Explanatory (c) Criterion (d) All of the above refer to an independent variable (e) None of the above refer to an independent variable

Question 4: Which variable in an experiment is manipulated by the researcher?

(a) Dependent variable (b) Extraneous variable (c) Moderating variable (d) Independent variable (e) Mediating variable

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Use the following information to answer Questions 5 through 8. In the study of bystanders and thieves presented in the text (page 192), participants are invited to an office where they see someone steal some money from the receptionist’s desk. The thief is really acting a part to set the stage for the experiment. Participants view the robbery alone or with another participant. The study sought to determine whether participants were more likely to report a robbery when they observe it alone or in the company of another person. Question 5: Which of the following statements best represents the hypothesis in the

bystanders and thieves study?

(a) People exposed to a robbery will judge the seriousness of the situation according to the response of the victim

(b) Bystanders will perceive a robbery as less frightening when in the company of another person

(c) Reports of a robbery are more likely among victims of a robbery when a witness is present

(d) Bystanders are more likely to report a theft if they view the theft alone than in another person’s company

(e) Bystanders to a theft will be less likely to shop at the store in which the theft occurred

Question 6: The actor playing the role of the thief in the bystanders and thieves study is

known as:

(a) Confederates (b) Assistants (c) Criterions (d) Affiliates (e) Accomplices

Question 7: In the bystanders and thieves study, what is the independent variable?

(a) The office environment (b) Exposure to a robbery (c) State of being alone or with another person (d) Act of reporting the robbery or not (e) Reaction of the receptionist following the robbery

Question 8: What type of research design is used in the bystanders and thieves study?

(a) Descriptive (b) Causal (c) Exploratory (d) Monitoring (e) Communication

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Question 9: When an experiment is conducted in actual environmental conditions, it is called a(n) __________ experiment.

(a) Replication (b) Simulated (c) Field (d) Extraneous (e) Test market

Question 10: The use of a replication in experimentation:

(a) Provides for the manipulation of the IV (b) Serves as a comparison to assess the manipulation (c) Minimizes the cost of experimentation (d) Allows for discovery of the average effect of the IV in different situations (e) Increases generalizability of results

Question 11: Which of the following is a threat to a researcher’s ability to generalize the results

of an experiment?

(a) Artificiality of a laboratory (b) Use of a field setting (c) Use of a probability sample (d) Control of extraneous variables (e) All of the above

Question 12: The process of repeating an experiment with different participant groups and

conditions to determine the average effect of the IV across people, situations, and times is known as:

(a) Replication (b) Evaluation (c) Repetition (d) Norming (e) Multi-modal

Question 13: Which research design listed below is most appropriate for establishing

causation?

(a) Focus group (b) Individual depth interview (c) Experiment (d) Survey (e) Behavioral observation

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Question 14: What is the first step in conducting an experiment?

(a) Specify the level(s) of the treatment (b) Choose the experimental design (c) Control the experimental environment (d) Select and assign participants (e) Select relevant variables

Question 15: Which term refers to the process of transforming concepts and constructs into

measurable variables suitable for testing?

(a) Generalization (b) Control (c) Hypothetical (d) Operationalization (e) Transformation

Question 16: A tentative descriptive statement of the relationship between the variables is

called a(n):

(a) Research question (b) Postulation (c) Hypothesis (d) Educated guess (e) Theory

Question 17: To operationalize an experiment, all __________ must be predetermined.

(a) Steps in the experiment (b) Construct and concept definitions (c) Researcher assignments (d) All of the above (e) None of the above

Question 18: The use of a(n) __________ serves as a comparison to assess the existence and

potency of the manipulation.

(a) Experimental group (b) Control group (c) Criterion variable (d) Explanatory variable (e) Field experiment

Question 19: The use of a control group in experimentation:

(a) Provides for the manipulation of the IV (b) Serves as a comparison to assess the manipulation (c) Minimizes the cost of experimentation (d) Allows for discovery of the average effect of the IV in different situations (e) Increases generalizability of results

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Question 20: When participants do not know if they are being exposed to the experimental treatment, they are said to be:

(a) Blind (b) Deceived (c) Concealed (d) Controlled (e) Debriefed

Question 21: When the researcher doesn't know whether a participant in an experiment is being

exposed to the treatment, the experiment is described as:

(a) Controlled (b) Blind (c) Double blind (d) Concealed (e) Independent

Question 22: When it is not possible to randomly assign participants to groups, __________

should be used.

(a) Control groups (b) Matching (c) Replication (d) Purposive assignment (e) Pilot testing

Question 23: One tool for visualizing the matching process of participants in an experiment is:

(a) CPM (b) The quota matrix (c) Random sampling (d) Experimental design symbols (e) None of the above

Question 24: Diffusion of treatment refers to the threat to internal validity brought on when:

(a) People in the experimental group communicate the treatment with people in the control group

(b) Researchers compensate the control group as a sort of consolation for not receiving a desirable treatment

(c) Competition arises between the groups (d) Control group members resent being deprived of a desirable treatment (e) An unusual event occurs when one group, but not both are participating in

the study

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Question 25: Which threat to internal validity is largely overcome by using random assignment of participants to experimental and control groups?

(a) History (b) Maturation (c) Selection (d) Instrumentation (e) Mortality

Question 26: Resentful demoralization refers to the threat to internal validity brought on when:

(a) People in the experimental group communicate the treatment with people in the control group

(b) Researchers compensate the control group as a sort of consolation for not receiving a desirable treatment

(c) Competition arises between the groups (d) Control group members resent being deprived of a desirable treatment (e) An unusual event occurs when one group, but not both are participating in

the study Question 27: The question, “Do our conclusions about a demonstrated experimental relationship

truly imply causality?” is addressed by degree of __________ associated with the experiment in question.

(a) Internal validity (b) External validity (c) Reliability (d) Statistical significance (e) Substantive significance

Question 28: __________ is concerned with the interaction of the experimental treatment with

other factors and the resulting impact on the ability to generalize results to other times, settings, or persons.

(a) Reliability (b) External validity (c) Internal validity (d) Statistical significance (e) Substantive significance

Question 29: The question, “Can we generalize the results of this experiment to the population at

large?” is addressed by the degree of __________ associated with the experiment in question.

(a) Internal validity (b) External validity (c) Reliability (d) Statistical significance (e) Substantive significance

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Question 30: Which of the following could threaten the external validity of an experiment?

(a) Diffusion of treatment (b) Artificial setting (c) History (d) Maturation (e) Statistical regression

Question 31: Which of the following is an example of a one-group pretest-posttest

experimental design?

(a) Store traffic is measured following the announcement of a clearance sale (b) Store traffic is measured; a sale is announced; store traffic is measured again (c) People who saw an ad are compared to people who didn’t see the ad on their

attitude toward the brand (d) Random assignment is used to divide participants into the control and

experimental groups; a control group responds to a pretest on brand preferences and a posttest; an experimental group responds to a pretest, is exposed to a commercial for the brand, and responds to a posttest

(e) Random assignment is used to divide participants into control and experimental groups; the experimental group is exposed to a commercial and then attitude toward the brand is measured; attitude toward the brand is also measured for the control group

Question 32: True experimental designs differ from pre-experimental designs in that:

(a) True experimental designs use random assignment (b) Pre-experimental designs include the use of a control group (c) Pre-experimental designs include the use of pretests (d) True experimental designs include multiple treatment groups (e) Pre-experimental designs have fewer threats to internal validity

Question 33: Which experimental design provides the best defense against the threats to

internal validity?

(a) After-only case study (b) Static group comparison (c) One-group pretest-posttest (d) Nonequivalent control group (e) Pretest-posttest control group

Question 34: To evaluate the effect of the treatment in a pretest, posttest control group design,

__________ is calculated.

(a) (O2 − O1) − (O4 − O3) (b) O1 − O3 (c) O4 − O3 (d) O2 − O3 (e) O4 − O2

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Question 35: To assess the equivalence of the groups in a pretest, posttest control group design, __________ is calculated.

(a) (O2 − O1) − (O4 − O3) (b) O1 − O3 (c) O4 − O3 (d) O2 − O3 (e) O4 − O2

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ANSWERS TO LESSON REVIEW EXERCISES 1. An experiment is a study involving intervention – manipulation of one or more variables

– by the researcher beyond that required for measurement to determine the effect on another variable. The researcher manipulates the independent variable then observes whether the hypothesized dependent variable is affected by the intervention.

2. Experimental methodology is used to establish causality. Remember from Chapter 6 that

causality cannot be shown conclusively, only with a degree (sometimes high) of certainty. Experimental methodology is best suited to show causality given that the experiment is valid and repeatable.

3. The ex post facto design can also show causality. 4. The ex post facto methodology is inferior to experimental methodology because the

researcher is required to accept the world as it is found; whereas an experiment allows the researcher to systematically alter variables and observe what changes follow.

5. In an experiment there is at least one independent variable (IV) and one dependent

variable (DV). These two variables are necessary to show a causal relationship. We hypothesize that in some way the IV “causes” the DV to occur.

6. The three logical steps that need to be taken to establish the reasonable assumption of

causality in an experiment are as follows:

There must be an agreement between independent and dependent variables. Specifically the independent variable must be present or missing when the dependent variable is present or missing.

The time order of the occurrence of the variables must be considered. Specifically the independent variable must consistently appear either before or after the dependent variable.

Researchers must be confident that other extraneous variables did not influence the dependent variable.

7. There are many strengths of the experimental method. They are as follows:

The foremost advantage is the researcher’s ability to manipulate the independent variable. The use of a control can enhance the researcher’s ability to measure and isolate the effects of the independent variable on the dependent variable.

The experimental method allows for the control of contamination from extraneous variables. They can be controlled more effectively than in other designs.

The cost of experimentation is low relative to the quality of the results that are obtained. These benefits allow opportunistic scheduling of data collection and the flexibility to adjust variables and conditions that evoke extremes not observed under routine circumstances.

Replication can be used to confirm or refine results of experiments.

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Researchers can use naturally occurring events and field experiments in the design of the research to reduce subjects’ perceptions of the researcher as a source of intervention or deviation in their everyday lives.

8. Replication is the process of repeating an experiment with different subject groups and

conditions. Replication leads to the discovery of an average effect of the independent variable across people, situations, and times. The discovery of an average effect enhances the “generalizability” of research results and the ultimate validity of the research.

9. A field experiment is a study of the dependent variable in actual environmental

conditions. The experiment is carried out in the natural environment and cannot control many of the variables involved.

10. A laboratory experiment is a study of the dependent variable where the researcher

controls most if not all the factors affecting the dependent variable. Laboratory experiments are studies that occur under conditions that do not simulate actual environmental conditions.

11. The artificiality of the laboratory is the primary disadvantage of the experimental method.

Removing the subject from the natural environment can cause the results of the experiment to be unique to the laboratory. Specifically, the generalizability of the results of laboratory experiments is severely limited by controlling the environment. This is particularly true when studying human behavior.

12. The experimental method, when applied to the study of human behavior, has several

disadvantages. Generally, the disadvantages of the experimental method relate to the generalizability of the results.

The most important and major disadvantage is the generalization of population

characteristics from nonprobability samples. For most experimental methods probability sampling is extremely difficult, if not impossible. In spite of the use of random assignment and other sampling techniques, it is often impossible to mathematically define the sample frame and guarantee that each element in the sample frame has an equal, non-zero chance of being selected. This is particularly true when studying larger groups.

Another aspect of the sampling difficulty can result when an experiment is unsuccessfully disguised. When a study of opinions or beliefs is sought the researcher should avoid oversampling interested or passionate participants. Those with the most interest in the topic are likely to volunteer for a survey at a higher rate than those only marginally interested, biasing the results.

For larger populations, the cost of experimentation can far outrun the budgets for other primary data collection methods. As the researcher increases the scope of the sample or the breadth of the information being gathered the cost of experimentation can increase significantly.

The experimental method is (or should be) limited to the ethical treatment of participants and there are limits to the types of manipulation and controls that are ethical. The famous Stanford Prison Experiment illustrated both the ethical dilemma and accuracy of the results possible when the experimental methodology is misused.

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The experimental methodology is limited to contemporary study. Experimental studies of the past are not feasible, and studies about intentions or predictions are difficult. Experimentation is most effectively targeted at problems of the present or immediate future.

13. There are seven steps that must be taken to perform a successful experiment (see Exhibit

9-1):

Select relevant variables

Specify the level(s) of the treatment

Control the experimental environment

Choose the experimental design

Select and assign the subjects

Pilot-test, revise, and test

Analyze the data 14. The first step in selecting the relevant variables in a study involves the translation of the

amorphous research question or problem into the research question or hypothesis that best states the objectives of the research. In the development of the hypothesis the relevant variables are selected. Specifically, a hypothesis is a relational statement because it describes a relationship between two or more variables.

15. A variable is operationalized by transforming it into a variable that is measurable and

subject to testing. 16. An experimental treatment is the change made to the independent variable. The treatment

is applied to the independent variable and the resulting change is measured in the dependent variable.

17. The treatment levels of the independent variable are the arbitrary or natural groups the

researcher makes within the independent variable of an experiment. The levels assigned to an independent variable should be based on simplicity and common sense. For example, a study concerning people’s preference for broccoli might be broken down into “steamed” or “boiled” broccoli. The independent variable would be “cooked broccoli” and the dependent variable would be “preference for broccoli.” The researcher is manipulating the cooking method in two different ways, subjecting the participants to two different treatments, cooking methods.

18. The control group is composed of subjects who are not exposed to the independent

variable(s). It is important to use a control group to discover the degree of the effect of the experimental treatment on the subjects of the experiment. For example a study of the efficacy of an experimental drug would try to isolate the effects of the new drug by separating equivalent patients into two groups. One group would receive the experimental treatment while the other would not. The control group would not receive the treatment. By comparing the health of the control group with the experimental group the researchers

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can isolate the effects of the drug in question. In this case the researchers assume that the environment of the control group and the experimental group is the same. By this assumption the researchers can factor out environmental considerations or control the environment to isolate the effects of the drug.

19. When subjects do not know if they are receiving the experimental treatment, they are said

to be blind to the experimental treatment. When the experimenters do not know if they are giving the treatment to the experimental group or to the control group, the experiment is said to be double blind. Both approaches control unwanted complications, such as subjects’ reactions to expected conditions or experimenter influence.

20. An experimental design is the designation of the relationships between experimental

treatments and the experimenter’s observations or measurement points in the scheme of the study. Judicious selection of the design improves the probability that the observed change in the dependent variable was caused by the manipulation of the independent variable, not by another factor. A well-chosen design can strengthen the generalizability of results beyond the experimental setting.

21. The most important criteria for selecting participants in an experiment is that the

participants selected should be representative of the population to which the researcher wishes to generalize the study’s results.

22. Periodicity is any form of bias resulting from the use of a nonrandom list of subjects or

items in selecting a sample, such as a telephone book. 23. Random assignment is a process that uses a randomized sample frame for assigning

sample units to test groups in an attempt to ensure that the groups are as compatible as possible with respect to the dependent variable. Each subject must have an equal chance for exposure to each level of the independent variable. Note that random assignment is not random sampling. The sample frame in this case is population of participants. Random assignment is the practice of allocating participants to control and experimental groups. It is required to make the groups as comparable as possible with the dependent variable. Randomization does not guarantee that the control and experimental groups are identical. However, it is an assurance that those differences remaining are randomly distributed.

24. When it is not possible to randomly assign subjects to groups, matching may be used.

Matching employs a nonprobability quota sampling approach. The object of matching is to have each experimental and control subject matched on every characteristic used in the research. This becomes cumbersome as the number of variables and groups in the study increases. Because the characteristics of concern are only those that are correlated with the treatment condition or the dependent variable, they are easier to identify, control, and match.

25. The experimental methodology is best suited to establish causality. It is a more valid

methodology than observational methodology.

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26. Validity is a characteristic of measurement concerned with the extent that a test measures what the researcher actually wishes to measure. Changes measured with a measurement tool should reflect true changes among participants drawn from the population.

27. Internal validity is the property or concern over the connection between the independent

variable and the dependent variable. It is concerned with the conclusions we draw about a demonstrated experimental relationship and whether or not the demonstrated relationship truly implies cause. For example, an internally invalid statement would be “Janice McClain always gets up just before sunrise therefore Janice McClain causes the sun to rise.”

28. External validity is the property or concern over the generalizability of results. It is

concerned with establishing whether or not the observed causal relationship can be generalized across persons, settings, and times.

29. The threats to internal validity mentioned in the text are as follows:

History – During the time that an experiment is taking place, some events may occur that confuse the relationship being studied.

Maturation – Changes also may occur within the subject that are a function of the passage of time and are not specific to any particular event.

Testing – The process of taking a test can have a learning effect that influences the results of a second test.

Instrumentation – This threat to internal validity results from changes between observations in either the measuring instrument or the observer.

Selection – An important threat to internal validity is the differential selection of subjects for experimental and control groups.

Statistical regression – This factor operates when groups have been selected by their extreme scores.

Experimental mortality – This occurs when the composition of the study groups changes during the test.

30. The major threats to external validity mentioned in the text are reactivity of testing on the

experimental treatment and the interaction of selection and the experimental treatment. In the first case, reactivity, this threat is concerned with the sensitization of subjects – via a pretest – so they respond to the experimental stimulus in a different way. In the second case, interaction of selection, the process by which test subjects are selected for an experiment may be a threat to external validity.

31. An artificial setting can produce results not representative of larger populations. If

subjects know they are participating in an experiment, there may be a tendency to role-play in a way that distorts the effects of the experimental treatment.

32. The three types of experimental research designs are as follows:

Preexperimental designs – Involve no controls (matching or random assignment) yet employ experimental methodology.

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True experiments – Employ sampling controls and random assignment to control for potential changes in the composition or nature of the tested group.

Field experiments – Similar to the preexperimental design but the test is carried out in the natural environment. Some controls can be used but it is often difficult or impossible to use true random assignment or matching.

33. A test market is a controlled experiment conducted in a carefully chosen marketplace

(e.g., website, store, town, or other geographic location) to measure the marketplace response and predict sales or profitability of a product.

34. Some of the uses of a test market are as follows:

Help marketing managers introduce new products or services

Add products to existing lines

Identify concepts with potential

Re-launch enhanced versions of established brands

Testing the viability of a product, in order to reduce the risks of failure 35. Above all, a test market must be representative of the market in which the product will

compete. External validity must be established in a successful test market. 36. Some of the important characteristics that are important to control in a test market are as

follows: (1) the product’s target competitive environment; (2) market size; (3) patterns of media coverage; (4) distribution channels; (5) product usage; (6) population size; (7) housing; (8) income; (9) lifestyle attributes; (10) age; and (11) ethnic characteristics.

37. Several strategies are employed to increase the external validity of test markets. First,

multiple locations are often required for optimal demographic balance. Second, media coverage and isolation are additional criteria for locating the test. Specifically, it is important that the media the test market is exposed to is unique to that area. New York City or Newark, New Jersey would not be appropriate because of the significant amount of “media spillover” that would contaminate the test market. Finally, the control of distribution affects test locations and types of test markets. If the regional or local distributors cannot be controlled and the tested product is shipped outside the test market – the test market will be contaminated. In this case the product or service may be delivered outside the area of planned advertising reducing the measurability of the effectiveness of the campaign overall.

38. There are six major types of test markets:

Standard Test Market – The standard test market is a traditional test of a product and/or marketing mix variables on a limited geographic basis.

Controlled Test Market – The term controlled test market refers to real-time forced distribution tests conducted by a specialty research supplier that guarantees distribution of the test product through outlets in selected cities.

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Electronic Test Market – An electronic test market is a test system that combines store distribution services, consumer scanner panels, and household-level media delivery in specifically designated markets.

Simulated Test Market – A simulated test market occurs in a laboratory research setting designed to simulate a traditional shopping environment using a sample of the product’s consumers.

Virtual Test Market – A virtual test market uses a computer simulation and hardware to replicate the immersion of an interactive shopping experience in a three-dimensional environment.

Web-Enabled Test Market – Product tests using online distribution. 39. The observational method is a more useful method for collecting data from children,

illiterate, and functionally illiterate persons. The intrusion of observation is often better accepted than questioning. Disguised and unobtrusive measures are often easier to carry out than disguised questioning. It is generally a slow, expensive process with limited opportunity to learn about the past. Further comparisons are found in the following table.

Survey Observation Experiment

• Advantageous for discovering

a person’s opinions, attitudes, motivations.

• Interviewer may observe nonverbal behavior (though not with mail, and limited to voice inflections with telephone).

• Structure of schedule or guide focuses attention on study purpose.

• Instruments may restrict study to previously chosen questions.

• Relationship between interviewer and participant is of short duration and promotes comparative objectivity.

• Results may be product of method rather than objective reality.

• Good quantification potential; data are organized by the instrument and easily systematized.

• Anonymity/Confidentiality safeguards.

• Largest sample sizes.

• Observation and recording

(notes, videotapes) is superior to depending on someone’s recollections.

• Primary method for non-verbal behavior analysis; has wide application for behavioral and non-behavioral analysis. First hand observation of phenomenon.

• Ethical questions about consent, anonymity, etc.

• Observation instruments often lack structure (but unstructured observation offers flexibility).

• Observation may be used as exploratory front-end stage to survey or experiment.

• Relationship between observer and participant is often extended and provides more detail (but may reduce objectivity).

• Natural environmental setting lessens reactivity of participants; results are more realistic because method is less restrictive (but there is loss of control over variables).

• Difficulties with quantification: large amounts of data, coding problems, and lower power in statistical analysis.

• Smaller sample sizes than survey.

• Superior method for

establishing causality; surveys (except panels and other longitudinal designs) do not have experimental pre-post or multiple measurement advantage; observation may be longitudinal but there is little environmental control or ability to measure change in dependent variable.

• Ultimate method for control of variables: smaller samples and management of extraneous factors.

• Better opportunity to study change than cross-sectional surveys.

• Reactive effects may be caused by experimenter (also caused by survey interviewer)

• Laboratory settings are required for high levels of control: natural behavior is often altered or disappears. Change to natural settings reduces control options.

• Ethical considerations heavily influence manipulation and control of variables.

• Smallest sample sizes.

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LESSON 11


COURSE 653

LESSON TOPIC:

Communication Research Use and Methodology LESSON OBJECTIVES:


Describe the process for selecting the appropriate and optimal communication

approach.

List and explain the factors that affect participation in communication studies.

Describe the major sources of error in communication studies.

Illustrate the methods involved in reducing the error in communication studies.

Identify the three communication approaches and explain the advantages and disadvantages of each.

LESSON ASSIGNMENT:

Business Research Methods, Twelfth Edition Chapter 10, “Surveys”

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LESSON 11 NOTE: The following exercises are study aids designed to help you prepare for the subject exam. Write your answers in the space provided after each exercise. Use the blank page to record other notes on the text content. Immediately check your answers with the key at the end of the guide. Do not submit your answers to AGU for grading. Question 1: What are the two basic options when choosing a research design? Question 2: What is the communication approach and what are the three main methodologies

employed with the communication approach? Question 3: What is a survey and how is it used? Question 4: Why is the selection process important when using the communication approach? Question 5: What is the greatest strength of the communication approach? Question 6: What are the major sources of error in communication research? Question 7: What is a major source of sampling error and response bias?

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Question 8: What are the failures and practices that result in interviewer error? Question 9: What is participant-initiated response error (otherwise known as participant

error)? Question 10: What are the three broad conditions that must be met by participants to have a

successful survey? Question 11: What is nonresponse error? Question 12: What are response-based errors? Question 13: What are the two sources of response-based errors? Question 14: What is the social desirability bias? Question 15: What is acquiescence and how can it cause error in research?

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Question 16: What is a self-administered survey? Question 17: How can self-administered surveys be delivered? Question 18: What is the lowest cost type of communication research methodology? Question 19: What is the best delivery method for hard to reach or inaccessible subjects? Question 20: What is perceived to be the most anonymous survey method? Question 21: What is the “rule of thumb” regarding survey length? Question 22: What are the points that the Total Design Method suggests to reduce the burden of

a survey on respondents and increase response rates? Question 23: Survey methodology is well studied. The text summarizes several points that have

been shown to increase the response rates; what are they?

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Question 24: According to the text, what is the “workhorse” of survey research? Question 25: What is the most attractive feature of the telephone interviewing method? Question 26: What do the initials CATI stand for? Question 27: What is a computer-administered telephone survey? Question 28: What is the noncontact rate? Question 29: What is the refusal rate? Question 30: What percentage of households in the United States has telephones? Question 31: What is happening to the number of accessible individuals in the United States?

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Question 32: What demographic group has the highest percentage of unlisted numbers? Question 33: What are the drawbacks to conducting a telephone survey? Question 34: What is the greatest advantage of the personal interview? Question 35: What is the greatest disadvantage of the personal interview? Question 36: What are some of the strategies used to offset the cost of personal interviews? Question 37: What are the most important factors to consider when choosing the survey type?

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SUBJECT EXAMINATION




Student Services at [email protected]. MULTIPLE CHOICE: Question 1: A communication approach to data collection involves:

(a) Observing behavior (b) Recording trace evidence (c) Surveying people (d) Data mining (e) Linguistic behavior analysis

Question 2: Surveys are used in __________ research studies.

(a) Monitoring (b) Communication (c) Observation (d) Behavioral observation (e) Nonbehavioral observation

Question 3: The failure to secure full participant cooperation for a study can result in

__________ error.

(a) Measurement (b) Instrumentation (c) Data entry (d) Sampling (e) Nonresponse

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Question 4: Rachel is conducting telephone interviews for Blockbuster on perceptions of its new “No Late Fees” program. When she interviews customers of the NetFlix service, she tends to change the wording of the question, “How loyal are you to using Blockbuster for your DVD rental needs?” to “So you aren’t loyal to Blockbuster, are you?” Which of the following sources of error in communication research is present in this example?

(a) Measurement questions (b) Observers (c) Interviewers (d) Participants (e) All of the above

Question 5: Which type of error occurs when the interviewer summarizes or interprets

participant answers?

(a) Measurement (b) Instrumentation (c) Data entry (d) Sampling (e) Nonresponse

Question 6: Interviewer error may be caused by:

(a) An unwillingness to participate (b) Participant faulty recall (c) The falsification of answers (d) Social desirability responding (e) All of the above

Question 7: Mike resents getting calls from telemarketers and pollsters. A research firm called

yesterday to question him concerning his preference for radio stations. When Mike was asked to report his household income, he inflated his income to the highest range offered. He also misreported his age and occupation. Which of the following sources of error in communication research is presented in this example?

(a) Measurement questions (b) Observers (c) Interviewers (d) Participants (e) All of the above

Question 8: Which of the following factors will tend to decrease participant motivation?

(a) Prestige of research sponsor (b) Perceived importance of the topic (c) Interest in the topic (d) Competing activities (e) Conscientiousness

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Question 9: David’s Bridal is conducting a survey of the trends in dress preferences among women who will marry sometime in the next year. Surveys were mailed to 100,000 women but only 1,000 responded resulting in a response rate of 1%. This study is threatened by:

(a) Nonresponse error (b) Response error (c) Sampling error (d) Measurement error (e) Coverage error

Question 10: __________ occurs when the responses of participants differ in some systematic

way from the responses of nonparticipants.

(a) Measurement error (b) Data entry error (c) Sampling error (d) Response error (e) Nonresponse error

Question 11: When a participant does not know the answer to a survey question, but there isn’t

a “Don’t Know” response option offered, __________ will occur.

(a) Response bias (b) Sampling error (c) Nonresponse bias (d) Response-based error (e) Unit nonresponse

Question 12: The tendency for respondents to be agreeable is called:

(a) Social desirability responding (b) Acquiescence (c) Elaboration likelihood (d) Agreeableness (e) Conscientiousness

Question 13: A telephone survey asks participants whether they have donated money to the

Tsunami Relief Fund. This type of question is subject to:

(a) Nonresponse bias (b) Acquiescence (c) Social desirability bias (d) Satisficing (e) Sampling error

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Question 14: An instrument completed by the participant without additional contact with an interviewer beyond the initial delivery of the instrument is called a:

(a) Computer-assisted self-interview (b) Disk-by-mail survey (c) Mail survey (d) Self-administered questionnaire (e) Web survey

Question 15: Self-administered questionnaires may be delivered via all of the following

channels except:

(a) Mail (b) Fax (c) Telephone (d) Internet (e) Disk-by-mail

Question 16: Which of the following is not a reason for the growth in web-based surveys?

(a) Participant perceptions of anonymity (b) Ability to use visual stimuli (c) Speed of response (d) Perceived anonymity (e) Internet penetration rates

Question 17: Surveys conducted via the internet reduce costs by eliminating the costs

associated with:

(a) Interviewers (b) Postage (c) Data entry (d) Printing (e) All of the above

Question 18: Which data collection mode imposes the fewest time constraints on the

participant?

(a) Mail (b) Telephone (c) Computer-administered (d) CATI (e) CAPI

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Question 19: Which type of data collection mode is most appropriate for a survey requiring 45 minutes to complete?

(a) Response rate (b) Computer-administered telephone (c) Mail (d) Online (e) Intercept

Question 20: The survey mode with the greatest perceived anonymity is the:

(a) Electronic mail survey (b) Mail survey (c) Telephone survey (d) Person-administered survey (e) Intercept survey

Question 21: One rule of thumb is that participants should be able to answer the questions in a

self-administered survey in no more than:

(a) 10 minutes (b) 15 minutes (c) 30 minutes (d) 45 minutes (e) There are no guidelines related to survey length

Question 22: The __________ suggests that a participant’s burden should be minimized in the

survey response process by creating surveys that are easy to read, offer clear response directions, include personalized communication, notify the participant about the survey in advance, and encourage the respondent to participate.

(a) Survey Design Bible (b) Economic decision making literature (c) Total Design Method (d) Gallup organization (e) Theory of reciprocation

Question 23: Which type of incentive has been shown to consistently improve response rates to

surveys?

(a) Free product samples (b) Money (c) Gift certificates (d) Prize draw chance (e) Receipt of post-study results

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Question 24: The Internet is the fastest growing survey data collection mode. Which of the following is not a reason for the growth in this mode?

(a) Speed of response (b) Cost savings (c) Elimination of data entry (d) Ease of providing monetary incentives (e) All of the above are reasons

Question 25: When a computer-administered telephone survey is capable of recognizing and

recording a wide range of verbal responses, it is capable of:

(a) Automatic speech recognition (b) Voice recognition (c) Automatic entry (d) Touch-tone data entry (e) Record analysis

Question 26: The presence of a __________ is the primary difference between a computer-

assisted telephone interview and a computer-administered telephone survey.

(a) Computer (b) Human interviewer (c) Supervisor (d) Participant (e) Recording device

Question 27: Which term below refers to the ratio of potential contacts that were never reached

to all potential contacts?

(a) Nonresponse (b) Noncontact (c) Incidence (d) Refusal (e) Reachable

Question 28: Which of the following trends is increasing the noncontact rate associated with

telephone surveys?

(a) Penetration of mobile telephones (b) Replacement of land line telephones with mobile telephones (c) Caller id systems (d) Voicemail systems (e) All of the above

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Question 29: The ratio of participants who decline the interview to all eligible contacts is the __________ rate.

(a) Nonresponse (b) Noncontact (c) Incidence (d) Refusal (e) Reachable

Question 30: Which of the following trends is increasing the refusal rate associated with

telephone surveys?

(a) Penetration of mobile telephones (b) Replacement of land line telephones with mobile telephones (c) Caller id systems (d) Negative attitudes toward survey participation (e) Voicemail

Question 31: Which limitation listed below can be overcome by the use of random digit dialing

in telephone surveys?

(a) Inaccessible households (b) Inaccurate or private listings in the telephone book (c) Limited interview length (d) Ease of interview termination (e) Low participant involvement

Question 32: Which of the following is not a type of personal interview data collection method?

(a) In-home (b) Mall intercept survey (c) Computer-assisted personal interview (d) Electronic mail survey (e) All of the above are personal interview methods

Question 33: Personal interviewing with computer-sequenced questions capable of employing

visualization techniques is called:

(a) Computer-assisted telephone interviewing (b) Computer-administered telephone interviewing (c) Computer-assisted personal interviewing (d) Computer-administered surveying (e) Personal-assisted computer interviewing

Question 34: Brittany is considering an intercept interview as the data collection mode for the

drinking behavior and sexual activity study. To execute this type of study, she could:

(a) Email students (b) Send a survey to a student’s permanent address (c) Approach students outside the dining hall (d) Telephone students using cell phone numbers (e) Text message students

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ANSWERS TO LESSON REVIEW EXERCISES 1. Research designs can be classified by the approach used to gather primary data. There are

two alternatives: We can observe conditions, behavior, events, people, or processes. Or we can communicate with people about various topics, including participants’ attitudes, motivations, intentions, and expectations.

2. The communication approach involves surveying or interviewing people and recording

their responses for analysis. The three communication approaches are personal interviews, telephone interviews and self-administered surveys.

3. A survey is a measurement process used to collect information during a highly structured

interview – with a human interviewer, or without. Questions are carefully chosen or crafted, sequenced, and precisely asked of each participant. The goal of the survey is to derive comparable data across subsets of the chosen sample, so that similarities and differences can be found.

4. When combined with statistical probability sampling for selecting participants, survey

findings and conclusions are applicable or projectable to large and diverse populations. 5. The greatest strength of the communication approach is its versatility. A few well-chosen

questions can yield information that would take much more time and effort to gather by observation. The telephone, mail, a computer, e-mail, or the Internet can expand survey geographic coverage at a fraction of the cost and time required by observation.

6. There are three sources of error in communication research. They are: (1) measurement

questions and survey instruments; (2) interviewers; and (3) participants. 7. Interviewer errors are a major source of sampling error and response bias. 8. There are numerous failures and practices that result in interviewer error. They are as

follows:

Failure to secure full participant cooperation (sampling error). Bias is likely if interviewers do not obtain full participant cooperation.

Failure to record answers accurately and completely (data entry error). Error may result from an interview recording procedure that forces the interviewer to summarize or interpret participant answers, or that provides insufficient space to record answers verbatim.

Failure to consistently execute interview procedures. Without consistent procedures the precision of survey estimates will be reduced. Inconsistency will produce more error in the survey to the extent that interviewers are inconsistent in ways that influence the data.

Failure to establish appropriate interview environment. Answers may be systematically inaccurate or biased when interviewers fail to train and motivate participants, or fail to find a suitable interpersonal setting.

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Falsification of individual answers or whole interviews. The most insidious form of interviewer error is cheating. This also includes the falsification of an answer to an overlooked question. Ill-trained or poorly motivated interviewers sometimes see cheating as an easy solution.

Inappropriate influencing behavior. An interviewer can distort the results of any survey by:

o Inappropriate suggestions, directions, verbal probes

o Word emphasis and question rephrasing

o Tone of voice

o Body language, facial reaction to an answer, or other nonverbal signals

Physical presence bias. This includes the perceived social distance between interviewer and participant and can have a distorting effect. The exact nature of the distortion is not clearly understood.

9. Participant-initiated response error or participant error are errors that occur when the

participant fails to answer fully and accurately; either by choice of inaccurate or incomplete knowledge.

10. The three broad conditions must be met by participants to have a successful survey are as

follows:

The participant must possess the information being targeted by the investigative questions.

The participant must understand the need to provide accurate information.

The participant must have adequate motivation to cooperate. 11. In surveys, nonresponse error occurs when the responses of participants differ in some

systematic way from the responses of non-participants. This occurs when the researcher cannot locate the person (the pre-designated sample element) to be studied or is unsuccessful in encouraging that person to participate. This is especially problematic when using a probability sample of subjects. For example, assume there is a population of residents in a small neighborhood of 1,000 people and the sample size is 50. Figuratively speaking each potential participant represents 20 residents. Further, assume that 7 participants refuse to respond to the survey. Figuratively, the 7 that refuse to respond to the survey represent 140 residents or 14% of the population of the neighborhood. The notion that the non-respondents differ from the population in a systematic way is illustrated by the fact that they all have either chosen not to respond or cannot be found. Error arises from the fact that the non-respondents could and probably do share other characteristics. Basically, the researcher does not know if the characteristics of the non-respondents would affect the study or not. This uncertainty is the source of the nonresponse error.

12. Response-based errors or response error result when the participant fails to give a correct

or complete answer.

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13. Generally, there are two sources of response-based errors. The first is when the participant fails to give a correct answer and the second is when the participant fails to give a complete answer.

14. The social desirability bias is a form of response error that results in the participant

giving an incorrect answer. Participants create response bias when they modify their responses to be socially acceptable, to save face or reputation with the interviewer or to appear rational and logical.

15. Acquiescence is the tendency to be agreeable. Participant acquiescence may be a result of

lower cognitive skills or knowledge related to a concept or construct, language difficulties, or perceived level of anonymity. As above, acquiescence can result in the participant giving incorrect answers to the questions posed. Note that researchers can contribute to acquiescence by the speed with which they ask questions (the faster questions are asked, the more acquiescence), and the placement of questions in an interview (the later the question, the more acquiescence.)

16. A self-administered survey is a research instrument that is delivered to the participant via

personal or impersonal means that is completed by the participant without additional contact with the interviewer.

17. Self-administered surveys can be delivered by the following means:

The U.S. Postal Service

Fax

Courier service

Computer

Intercept studies 18. Generally, self-administered surveys of all types typically cost less than surveys via

personal interviews (telephone or otherwise). The lowest cost methodology is the web survey, delivered either via e-mail or resulting from a visit to a web site. The use of a web survey eliminates the need for postage, data entry and printing.

19. Mailing self-administered surveys allows researchers to contact participants who might

otherwise be inaccessible. 20. Mail surveys are typically perceived as providing more anonymity than other

communication modes, including other methods for distributing self-administered questionnaires. Computer-delivered surveys enjoy that same perceived anonymity, although increased concerns about privacy may erode this perception in the future.

21. The rule of thumb regarding survey length is that the participants should be able to

answer the questionnaire in no more than 10 minutes. This is also generally true for telephone studies.

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22. The Total Design Method (TDM) suggests minimizing the burden on participants by designing questionnaires that:

Are easy to read

Offer clear response directions

Include personalized communication

Provide information about the survey via advance notification

Encourage participants to respond 23. Few approaches consistently showed positive response rates. However, several practical

suggestions emerge from the conclusions:

Preliminary or advance notification of the delivery of a self-administered questionnaire increases response rates

Follow-ups or reminders after the delivery of a self-administered questionnaire increase response rates

Clearly specified return directions and devices (e.g., response envelopes, especially postage-stamped) improve response rates

Monetary incentives for participation increase response rates

Deadline dates do not increase response rates but do encourage participants to respond sooner

A promise of anonymity, while important to those who do respond, does not increase response rates

An appeal for participation is essential 24. The telephone survey remains the workhorse of survey research. 25. The most attractive feature of the telephone interview is the moderate cost of data

collection. Sampling and data collection costs for telephone surveys can run from 45 to 64 percent lower than costs for comparable personal interviews. Much of the savings comes from cuts in travel costs and administrative savings from training and supervision.

26. CATI stands for Computer-Assisted Telephone Interviewing. It is used in research

organizations throughout the world. Generally, it is software that prompts the interviewer with introductory statements, qualifying questions, and pre-coded questionnaire items. Typically CATI works with telephone number management software to select numbers, dial the sample, and enter responses.

27. A computer-administered telephone survey is a survey where there is no human

interviewer; a computer calls the phone number, conducts the interview, places data into a file for later tabulation, and terminates the contact.

28. The noncontact rate is a ratio of potential but un-reached contacts (no answer, busy,

answering machine or voice mail, and disconnects, but not refusals) to all potential contacts.

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29. The refusal rate is the ratio of contacted participants who decline the interview to all potential contacts.

30. Approximately 94 percent of all United States households have telephone service. 31. From 1985 to 2002, the number of U.S. wireless telecommunication subscribers grew

from 203.6 thousand to 134.5 million. Many of these numbers are unlisted or possess screening or filtering services.

32. The highest incidence of unlisted numbers is in the West, in large metropolitan areas,

among 18 to 34 year old nonwhites. 33. There are many challenges faced by telephone researchers, most are as follows:

Inaccessible households

Inaccurate, unlisted and not functioning telephone numbers

Limited interview length

Limited query complexity

Ease of participant termination (they can hang up at any time)

Low participant involvement

Frequent environmental distractions 34. The greatest value lies in the depth of information and detail that can be secured. 35. The greatest disadvantage to the personal interview is the cost in terms of both time and

money. 36. Intercept interviews reduce costs associated with the need for several interviewers,

training, and travel. Also, product and service demonstrations can be coordinated, further reducing costs.

37. The most important factors to consider when choosing a survey type are:

Cost

Accessibility of the target population

Speed or length of time allotted for study

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LESSON 12



Application Lesson – Lessons 7 through 11 LESSON OBJECTIVE:


LESSON ASSIGNMENT: (100 points)

Please answer this assignment in between five hundred and seven hundred words. Please be sure to include your name and the assignment number in your proposal. Credit will be deducted if the proposal is less than the minimum number of words or dramatically in excess of the maximum number of words. Submit your proposal using the on-line testing system at www.agu.edu. Handwritten proposals are not acceptable. You are responsible to address every bolded item in the outline below.

NOTE: This lesson is weighted as 5% of the total course grade. Develop a brief research proposal. The research proposal should come from some dilemma you see in your daily life. As this is a “business” management course, try to develop a proposal based on a management dilemma. If, for example, you work in quality control on a banana plantation; you could use a banana quality dilemma as the basis of your proposal. Your proposal could be an examination of the quality of the bananas produced on the plantation. Use the structure illustrated below. The proposal will be evaluated using, in part, your use of the methodologies described in the text. Try to use a management dilemma that you have observed in your daily life. Describe the management dilemma

Describe and clarify the management dilemma. Illustrate how the management dilemma can be reduced to a clear research question.

~ From the example above, the management dilemma is “banana quality seems to be falling.” This dilemma can be reduced to a research question of “is the banana quality this year less than last year?”

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Create a Proposition or a Hypothesis based on the management dilemma/research question above. The hypothesis or proposition should be one of the following:

Proposition – a statement about observable phenomena that may be judged either true or false

Descriptive Hypothesis – states the existence, size, form or distribution of some variable

Relational Hypothesis – describes the relationship between two variables with respect to some case; relationships are correlational or explanatory.

~ From the example above, the relational hypothesis is “banana quality is falling.” This hypothesis states a relationship between the time of banana production and the quality.

Define the variables in the study

Independent variable Dependent variable

~ From the example above, the dependent variable is banana quality and the independent variable is time

Choose and defend a research design; the design should complement your hypothesis or proposition. Be sure to identify which of the following you will be using and why, in your proposal.

Qualitative Research Design Observational Research Design Survey Research Design Experimental Research Design

~ From the example above, a qualitative research design will be used. There are some bananas from last year in the freezer that can be compared to this year’s crop.

Describe the Decision Rule that will confirm, deny or prove your hypothesis or proposition

~ From the example above, if the bananas from last year are significantly better (greater than 35%) than this year’s bananas then the hypothesis is true. Banana quality is falling. If the bananas are the same or worse, then the hypothesis is false.

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LESSON 13



Measurement LESSON OBJECTIVES:


Distinguish among measuring objects, properties, and indicants of properties.

Compare and contrast the features of the four scale types used in measurement.

Explain when each of the four scale types should be used.

Illustrate the four major sources of measurement error.

Describe the criteria for evaluating good measurement.

LESSON ASSIGNMENT:

Business Research Methods, Twelfth Edition Chapter 11, “Measurement”

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LESSON 13 NOTE: The following exercises are study aids designed to help you prepare for the subject exam. Write your answers in the space provided after each exercise. Use the blank page to record other notes on the text content. Immediately check your answers with the key at the end of the guide. Do not submit your answers to AGU for grading. Question 1: What is measurement? Question 2: What is a mapping rule? Question 3: What are the three steps involved in measurement? Question 4: What is empiricism? Question 5: What is a concept in relation to measurement? Question 6: What is a construct in relation to measurement? Question 7: How are concepts, constructs and variables used in measurement?

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Question 8: What is an operational definition? Question 9: How are variables classified in terms of research? Question 10: What are the four characteristics of mapping rules? Question 11: What are the types of scales used to measure or describe the mapping rules? Question 12: What is a nominal measurement? Give an example. Question 13: What is dispersion? Question 14: When are nominal measures most useful? Question 15: What is the mode of a data set?

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Question 16: What is an ordinal measurement? Give an example. Question 17: What is the median in a data set? Question 18: Can dispersion be measured with ordinal data? Question 19: What is an interval measurement? Give an example. Question 20: What is the mean of a data set? Question 21: What is a ratio measurement? Give an example. Question 22: In terms of information quality how are the scales mentioned above ranked? Question 23: What are the two sources of error in measurement?

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Question 24: What is random error? Question 25: What are the four sources of measurement error? Question 26: What are some of the sources of respondent error? Question 27: What types of conditions result in situational error? Question 28: How can the measurer introduce error? Question 29: How can the instrument introduce error? Question 30: What are the three major criteria for evaluating a measurement tool? Question 31: What is validity in the context of measurement?

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Question 32: What are the two major forms of validity mentioned in the chapter? Question 33: What is external validity? Question 34: What is internal validity? Question 35: What are the three major classifications of internal validity mentioned in the text? Question 36: What is the content validity of a measurement instrument? Question 37: What is criterion-related validity? Question 38: What standards are used in judging criterion-related validity? Question 39: What are the two types of criterion-related validity?

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Question 40: What is construct related validity? Question 41: What are the two types of construct validity? Question 42: What is reliability in the context of measurement? Question 43: What is the relationship between reliability and validity? Question 44: What type of error does an unreliable instrument generate? Question 45: What are the three types of reliability estimates? Question 46: What is practicality in the context of measurement? Question 47: What are the three aspects of practicality that are important considerations when

developing measurement instruments?

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SUBJECT EXAMINATION




Student Services at [email protected]. MULTIPLE CHOICE: Question 1: Measurement in research consists of assigning numbers to __________ in

compliance with a set of rules.

(a) Events (b) Objects (c) Properties (d) Activities (e) All of the above

Question 2: A __________ is a scheme for assigning numbers or symbols to represent aspects

of the event being measured.

(a) Measurement tool (b) Mapping rule (c) Ruler (d) Scale (e) Property

Question 3: Which of the following is not an example of an object?

(a) Attitude (b) Furniture (c) Dog (d) Peer pressure (e) Weight

Question 4: What is the goal of measurement in research?

(a) To reflect both quantitative and qualitative concepts (b) To provide the highest-quality, lowest error data for data analysis (c) To make predictions before the information is gathered (d) To attach meaning to symbols (e) To specify the empirical information needed

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Question 5: Abilities are a type of:

(a) Object (b) Physical property (c) Psychological property (d) Social property (e) Mapping rule

Question 6: A(n) __________ defines a variable in terms of specific measurement criteria.

(a) Operational definition (b) Empirical definition (c) Measurement rule (d) Mapping rule (e) Conceptual definition

Question 7: In a survey of football fans, each respondent is asked to indicate whether they

have ever attended an NFL game. This question can be categorized as a(n) __________ scale.

(a) Ratio (b) Interval (c) Ordinal (d) Nominal (e) Semantic differential

Question 8: A nominal scale contains:

(a) Mutually exclusive and collectively exhaustive categories as well as the property of order, but not distance or unique origin

(b) The properties of order, classification, and equal distance between points but no unique origin

(c) Mutually exclusive and collectively exhaustive categories, but without the properties of order, distance, and origin

(d) The properties of classification, order, equal distance, and unique origin (e) The four major sources of error

Question 9: Which characteristics of data are exhibited by the variable, gender?

(a) Classification only (b) Classification and order (c) Classification, order, and distance (d) Classification, order, distance, and origin (e) Classification, order, distance, origin, and exclusivity

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Question 10: Attendance at a raceway’s most recent two races have hit attendance records with 60,000 present at one and 65,000 present at another. Which of the following characteristics are exhibited by these attendance measures?


Question 11: To ride the roller coaster ride at an amusement park, customers must report their

weight to the ride attendant. Which of the following characteristics are exhibited by weight?


Question 12: When the groups are mutually exclusive and collectively exhaustive, nominal

scales must be limited to __________ groups.

(a) Two (b) Three (c) Five (d) Ten (e) There is no limit

Question 13: An interval scale contains:

(a) Mutually exclusive and collectively exhaustive categories as well as the property of order, but not distance or unique origin

(b) The properties of order, classification, and equal distance between points but no natural origin

(c) Mutually exclusive and collectively exhaustive categories, but without the properties of order, distance, and origin

(d) The properties of classification, order, equal distance, and unique origin (e) The four major sources of error

Question 14: When analyzing nominal data, which measure of central tendency is appropriate?

(a) Mean (b) Mode (c) Median (d) Range (e) Dispersion

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Question 15: __________ describes how scores cluster or scatter in a distribution.

(a) Mode (b) Mean (c) Median (d) Dispersion (e) Range

Question 16: The appropriate measure of central tendency for an ordinal scale is the:

(a) Mode (b) Mean (c) Median (d) Range (e) Dispersion

Question 17: The New York Times Dining Section rates the restaurants it reviews using a

system such that one star means good, two stars means very good, three stars means excellent, and four stars means extraordinary. This is a type of __________ scale.

(a) Ratio (b) Interval (c) Ordinal (d) Nominal (e) Semantic differential

Question 18: The __________ is the midpoint of a distribution.

(a) Mode (b) Median (c) Mean (d) Range (e) Dispersion

Question 19: Which statistical technique listed below would be used to compare the results of

the March survey to the results of the June survey in the U.S. News and World Report's assessment of reliability?

(a) Mean (b) Dispersion (c) Correlation (d) Regression (e) ANOVA

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Question 20: The population of a city is an example of __________ data.

(a) Ratio (b) Interval (c) Nominal (d) Ordinal (e) Dispersed

Question 21: The effects of fatigue, boredom, and social class on the measurement of an object

are all errors originating from the:

(a) Situational factors (b) Respondent (c) Interviewer (d) Instrument (e) Sample

Question 22: Differences in respondent responses associated with where the interview took

place, such as at the mall, in a home, or over the telephone, are errors originating from the __________ associated with the study.

(a) Situational factors (b) Respondent (c) Interviewer (d) Instrument (e) Sample

Question 23: One form of __________ is the extent to which a measurement tool actually

measures what we wish to measure.

(a) Reliability (b) Validity (c) Practicality (d) Significance (e) Standardization

Question 24: An attitude scale that correctly forecasts the outcome of a purchase decision has

__________ validity.

(a) Discriminant (b) Content (c) Face (d) Concurrent (e) Predictive

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Question 25: __________ is the extent to which a measurement is accurate and precise.

(a) Reliability (b) Validity (c) Practicality (d) Significance (e) Standardization

Question 26: Which of the following types of validity refers to the extent to which the items

adequately represent the universe of all relevant items under study?

(a) External (b) Content (c) Criterion-related (d) Construct (e) Discriminant

Question 27: Convergent validity and discriminant validity are components of __________

validity.

(a) External (b) Internal (c) Criterion-related (d) Construct (e) Content

Question 28: Which type of validity refers to the degree to which scores on one scale correlate

with scores on other scales designed to assess the same construct?

(a) Predictive (b) Concurrent (c) Convergent (d) Discriminant (e) Content

Question 29: Which type of test is used in the U.S. News and World Report example to assess

reliability?

(a) Split-half (b) Test-retest (c) Cronbach’s alpha (d) Parallel forms (e) None of the above

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Question 30: The U.S. News and World Report is assessing the reliability of its measure of academic reputation used in its annual ranking of colleges and universities. To do so, it administers the same questions on academic reputation to its sample of academic administrators in March and again in June. If the U.S. News and World Report seeks to assess equivalence of alternate forms of measuring academic reputation, it should utilize a __________ type of test.

(a) Test-retest (b) Cronbach’s alpha (c) Parallel forms (d) Split-half (e) KR20

Question 31: In the U.S. News and World Report study of school rankings, academic reputation

is measured with five questions about each university. Which test will assess the extent to which those five items reflect academic reputation?

(a) Test-retest (b) Parallel forms (c) Internal consistency (d) Stability (e) Equivalence

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ANSWERS TO LESSON REVIEW EXERCISES 1. Measurement is the process of assigning numbers to empirical events in compliance with

a mapping rule. Measurements are taken of indicants of properties of objects. For example, we measure the profitability of a company (property of an object) by an indicator in the form of the net profit figure for the year, as stated in the company’s annual report.

2. Mapping rules are a scheme for assigning numbers or symbols to represent aspects of the

event being measured. 3. The three steps involved in measurement are as follows:

Selecting observable empirical events

Developing a set of mapping rules: a scheme for assigning numbers or symbols to represent aspects of the event being measured

Applying the mapping rule(s) to each observation of that event 4. Empiricism is the practice of relying on observation and experiment. Empirical

observations and propositions are based on the sense experience and/or are derived from such experience by methods of inductive logic, including mathematics and statistics.

5. A concept is the object of measurement, the symbols we attach to bundles of meaning

that we hold and share with others. 6. A construct is a higher-level concept used for scientific explanatory purposes that are not

directly observable. Typically constructs are devices for thinking about and communicating abstractions.

7. Concepts, constructs, and variables have different operational uses. Variables accept

numerals or values for the purpose of testing and measurement, while concepts and constructs are used at a theoretical level.

8. An operational definition defines a variable in terms of specific measurement and testing

criteria. It must specify adequately the empirical information needed and how it will be collected. In addition, it must have the proper scope or fit for the research problem at hand. Specifically, it is a definition for a construct stated in terms of specific, empirical, criteria for testing or measurement.

9. Variables being studied in research may be classified as objects or as properties. Objects

include the concepts of ordinary experience, such as tangible items like furniture, laundry detergent, people, or automobiles. Objects also include things that are not as concrete, such as genes, attitudes, and peer-group pressures. Properties are the characteristics of the object. A person’s physical properties may be stated in terms of weight, height, and posture, among others. Psychological properties include attitudes and intelligence. Social properties include leadership ability, class affiliation, and status. These and many other properties of an individual can be measured in a research study.

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10. Mapping rules have four characteristics:

Classification – Numbers are used to group or sort responses. No order exists.

Order – Numbers are ordered. One number is greater than, less than, or equal to another number.

Distance – The difference between any pair of numbers is greater than, less than, or equal to the difference between any other pair of numbers.

Origin – The number series has a unique origin indicated by the number zero. This is an absolute and meaningful zero point. Note that the origin can have a definition of zero with a number other than zero. For example the absolute zero temperature is -273.15° on the Celsius scale and -459.67° on the Fahrenheit scale. These figures represent the complete absence of heat.

11. The characteristics of classification, order, distance, and origin provide four widely used

classifications of measurement scales: Nominal, Ordinal, Interval and Ratio. 12. A nominal measurement is a measurement that gives information on a variable that can

be grouped into two or more categories that are mutually exclusive and collectively exhaustive. One example could be classifying refrigerator doors into metal coated and not metal coated.

13. Dispersion describes how scores cluster or scatter in a distribution. 14. Nominal measures are useful in exploratory work where the objective is to uncover

relationships rather than secure precise measurements. 15. The mode is the most frequently occurring value in a data set. You can conclude which

category has the most members, but that is all. 16. An ordinal measurement is a measurement that includes the characteristics of the nominal

scale plus an indication of order. The use of an ordinal scale implies a statement of “greater than” or “less than” (an equality statement is also acceptable), without stating how much greater or less. Satisfaction can be measured on an ordinal scale. The scale might include; “satisfied,” “very satisfied,” and “super satisfied.” The states can be ranked in order but the distance between them is not quantifiable.

17. The median is the midpoint of a distribution of data. As in the example above; if all the

responses to a satisfaction survey were sorted by the level of satisfaction, the median would be the response in the middle or where half of the responses were above the median and half the responses were below.

18. Yes, a percentile or quartile will reveal the dispersion of ordinal data. Typically, all

responses are sorted into equally sized groups (say 20% or quintile). The median of each quintile would be used to identify the quintile. As above, the top three quintiles were “super satisfied” while the bottom two quintiles were “very satisfied.” This gives an indication of the distribution of responses as well as the median response (contained in the 3rd quintile).

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19. An interval measurement has the characteristics of nominal and ordinal measurements with one additional strength: they incorporate the concept of equality of interval (the scaled distance between 1 and 2 equals the distance between 2 and 3). A calendar is a good example of an interval scale with the dates being the interval measurements. The distance (in time) between the 5th and the 10th day is the same as the interval between the 25th and the 30th days.

20. The mean, also known as the average, is calculated by dividing the sum total of a set of

figures by the number of figures. 21. A ratio measurement has the characteristics of the previous scales plus the provision for

absolute zero or origin. In business research, of course, money is used as a ratio measurement.

22. In terms of information quality, the scales mentioned above ranked with the lowest from

being nominal to ratio being the highest. Specifically, from low to high levels of information quality; nominal, ordinal, interval and ratio.

23. There are two sources of error in measurement; systematic and random. Much error is

systematic (results from a bias), while the remainder is random (occurs erratically). 24. Random error is the error that comes from the random sampling process. Error is a

misnomer; an error is the amount by which an observation differs from its expected value; the latter being based on the whole population from which the statistical unit was chosen randomly. The expected value, being the average of the entire population, is typically unobservable. If the average height of 21-year-old men is 5 feet 9 inches, and one randomly chosen man is 5 feet 11 inches tall, then the “error” is 2 inches; if the randomly chosen man is 5 feet 7 inches tall, then the “error” is −2 inches (from Wikipedia).

25. There are four major error sources that may contaminate the results: the respondent, the

situation, the measurer, the data collection instrument. 26. Opinions can differ consistently and substantially according to respondents’ employment

status, ethnic group, social class or other social grouping. Additional respondent error can result from temporary factors, such as fatigue, boredom, anxiety, hunger, impatience, or general variations in mood or other distractions.

27. Any condition that places a strain on the interview or measurement session can have

serious effects on interviewer-respondent rapport and result in situational error. 28. The measurer can introduce error by rewording, paraphrasing, or reordering questions.

Inflections of voice and conscious or unconscious prompting with smiles, nods, and so forth, may encourage or discourage certain replies. The interviewer can also hold certain stereotypes that can result in error. Careless mechanical processing will distort findings as well as incorrect coding, careless tabulation, and faulty statistical calculation may introduce further errors.

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29. A defective instrument can cause distortion or error in two major ways: First, the instrument can be too confusing and ambiguous. The second is poor selection of content items.

30. There are three major criteria for evaluating a measurement tool:

Validity is the extent to which a test measures what we actually wish to measure.

Reliability has to do with the accuracy and precision of a measurement procedure.

Practicality is concerned with a wide range of factors of economy, convenience, and interpretability.

31. Validity is a characteristic of measurement concerned with the extent that a test measures

what the researcher actually wishes to measure; and that differences found with a measurement tool reflect true differences among participants drawn from a population.

32. This chapter features two major forms of validity: external and internal. 33. External validity characterizes the data’s ability to be generalized across persons,

settings, and times. 34. Internal validity characterizes the ability of a research instrument to measure what it is

purported to measure. 35. The three widely accepted classifications of internal validity are as follows:

Content validity

Criterion-related validity

Construct validity (see Exhibit 11-5) 36. The content validity of a measuring instrument is the extent to which it provides adequate

coverage of the investigative questions guiding the study. Simply speaking, it is the necessity to “cover all the bases” and not to forget any aspects of the question at hand.

37. Criterion-related validity reflects the success of measures used for prediction or

estimation. 38. For this question the example of the Scholastic Aptitude Test (SAT) is used. The SAT is

designed to predict the success of high school students in college. This example can easily be expanded to cover employment tests. The criterion-related validity is judged on four different scales. They are as follows: relevance, freedom from bias, reliability, and availability.

A criterion is relevant if it is defined and scored in the terms we judge to be the

proper measures of success. In the case of the SAT exam, the question would be “does the SAT predict the type of success in college that the universities are looking for.”

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Freedom from bias is attained when the criterion gives each student an equal opportunity to score well.

A reliable criterion is stable or reproducible. Does the SAT predict the same thing year after year?

Finally, the information specified by the criterion must be available. Does the SAT show successes and failures? Do all students take the test?

39. There are two types of criterion-related validity: concurrent and predictive. Concurrent

criterion-related validity judges the instrument’s ability to describe the present; the criterion data are available at the same time as the predictor scores. Predictive criterion-related validity judges the predictive capacity of the instrument. Criterion data are measured after the passage of time.

40. Construct related validity is the degree to which a research instrument is able to provide

evidence based on theory. Using an example from the text, an instrument would be judged valid with respect to the construct if similar constructs that were tested produce similar results. That is, if the construct is “dog trust” and it had been established that all the people named Hedden did not trust dogs then a new test of dog trust would have to show that the Heddens did not trust dogs.

41. As above in answer 40, construct validity is the degree to which a research instrument is

able to provide evidence based on theory. In the previous Hedden example, the convergent aspect of construct validity would measure or validate the Hedden’s distrust of dogs while discriminant validity would measure how much the Hedden scores measured dog trust or how much the new test does not correlate with the established test.

42. Reliability is the degree to which an instrument produces consistent results. 43. Reliability is a necessary contributor to validity, but it is not a sufficient condition of

validity. That is, a valid instrument must be reliable but reliability does not make an instrument valid.

44. When an instrument is unreliable it produces random error. 45. The three types of reliability estimates are as follows:

Stability is a measure of consistency without respect to time. A measure is said to possess stability if you can secure consistent results with repeated measurements of the same person with the same instrument. In the bathroom scale example, the scale is consistent when two successive weighings of the same person result in the same measurement.

Equivalence is concerned with variations at one point in time among observers and samples of items. In the bathroom scale example, the subject is weighed on the bathroom scale then weighed on a physician’s beam scale. If the measurements are the same then the scales are equivalent.

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Internal consistency uses only one administration of an instrument or test to assess the internal consistency or homogeneity among the items. In the bathroom scale example, two children could be weighed separately then weighed together. The scale is internally consistent when the sum of the separate weighings add up to the combined weighing.

46. Practicality is characterized by the economy, convenience, and interpretability of a study

or instrument. 47. The three aspects of practicality that are important considerations when developing

measurement instruments are listed below:

Economy – Data are not free, and instrument length is one area where economic pressures dominate. More items give more reliability, but to limit the interview or observation time (and therefore costs), we hold down the number of measurement questions.

Convenience – A measuring device passes the convenience test if it is easy to administer. A questionnaire with a set of detailed but clear instructions, with examples, is easier to complete correctly than one that lacks these features. Complicated, confusing or time consuming questions will reduce response rates and accuracy.

Interpretability – This aspect of practicality is relevant when persons other than the test designers must interpret the results. It is usually, but not exclusively, an issue with standardized tests. In such cases, the designer of the data collection instrument provides several key pieces of information to make interpretation possible.

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LESSON 14



The Characteristics, Selection and Use of Measurement Scales LESSON OBJECTIVES:


Describe the nature of attitudes and their relationship to behavior.

List and explain the critical decisions involved in selecting an appropriate

measurement scale.

Explain the characteristics and use of rating, ranking, sorting, and other preference scales.

LESSON ASSIGNMENT:

Business Research Methods, Twelfth Edition Chapter 12, “Measurement Scales”

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LESSON 14

NOTE: The following exercises are study aids designed to help you prepare for the subject exam. Write your answers in the space provided after each exercise. Use the blank page to record other notes on the text content. Immediately check your answers with the key at the end of the guide. Do not submit your answers to AGU for grading. Question 1: What is an attitude in the context of research? Question 2: What are the three bases or components of attitudes? Question 3: Is it always the case that the more favorable one’s attitude is toward a product or

service, the more likely that the product or service will be purchased? Question 4: What is a hypothetical construct? Question 5: What are some of the better indicators of attitudes? Question 6: What is scaling? Question 7: What is attitude scaling?

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Question 8: What are the three most important considerations when selecting a measurement scale?

Question 9: What are the various factors that play a role in the selection process? Question 10: What are the two general types of scaling objectives? Question 11: What are the measurement scale response types? Question 12: Chapter 12 in the text describes four data types; what are they? Question 13: Measurement scales can be classified with regard to their dimension. What are the

two dimensional classifications? Question 14: What is the difference between a balanced and an unbalanced scale? Question 15: What is a forced-choice scale? Question 16: What is the ideal number of points for a rating scale?

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Question 17: What is the relationship between the number of scale points used and the characteristics of reliability and validity?

Question 18: What are the three common rater errors? Question 19: What is a simple attitude scale and how can it be characterized relative to the

options presented? Question 20: What are summated rating scales and what is the most famous summated rating

scale? Question 21: Is summation necessary when using a summated rating scale? Question 22: What are the three features of the Likert scale that make it popular? Question 23: Describe, in detail, the process of item analysis. Question 24: What is the resulting measure from item analysis?

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Question 25: What is the problem of summation that arises with item analysis? Question 26: What does the semantic differential scale measure? Question 27: Generally, how is the semantic differential scale used? Question 28: What three factors contribute most to obtaining meaningful judgments by

participants in a semantic differential scale? Question 29: What are the advantages to using a semantic differential scale? Question 30: What is one alternative to the semantic differential scale? Why use one? Question 31: What is a numerical scale and how does it work? Question 32: How is a multiple rating list scale different from a numerical scale?

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Question 33: What is the best scale for finding proportions? Question 34: What is the best scale for determining fine or small differences? Question 35: How many points are on a graphic rating scale? Question 36: What is a ranking scale? Question 37: What are the three different general categories of ranking scales? Question 38: What is a Q-sort? Question 39: What are the problems with the Q-sort methodology? Question 40: What is a cumulative scale? Question 41: What is a scalogram analysis?

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SUBJECT EXAMINATION

COURSE 653 – LESSON 14 Please read the following: 1. After carefully reading each question, mark your answers in the appropriate spaces

in the on-line testing system at www.agu.edu. 2. Submit any inquiries through “Contact Us” on the webpage, or by contacting

Student Services at [email protected]. MULTIPLE CHOICE:

Question 1: Which of the following terms refers to a learned, stable predisposition to respond

to oneself, other persons, objects, or issues in a consistently favorable or unfavorable way?

(a) Opinion (b) Attitude (c) Personality trait (d) Construct (e) Behavior

Question 2: Which of the following characteristics is not true of attitudes?

(a) Learned (b) Stable (c) Consistent (d) Relative permanence (e) Fluctuating

Question 3: Kim is convinced that MindWriter has terrific products. This statement is an

example of a(n) __________ attitude.

(a) Cognitive (b) Affective (c) Conative (d) Behavioral (e) Peripheral

Question 4: A cognitive basis for an attitude means that the attitude is based on a:

(a) Feeling (b) Behavior (c) Value (d) Culture (e) Belief

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Question 5: An affective basis for an attitude means that the attitude is based on a(n):

(a) Feeling (b) Behavior (c) Opinion (d) Culture (e) Belief

Question 6: A conative basis for an attitude means that the attitude is based on a:

(a) Feeling (b) Behavior (c) Value (d) Culture (e) Belief

Question 7: Which of the following statements is true concerning the applicability of attitudes

in understanding behavior?

(a) General attitudes are the best predictors of behavior (b) Behavior is affected equally by those attitudes formed via social learning

and those formed via behavioral learning (c) Cognitive attitudes influence behavior better than affective-based attitudes (d) A single, global measure of attitude is necessary to predict behavior (e) All of the above are true

Question 8: The assignment of numbers or symbols to a property of objects according to value

or magnitude is called:

(a) Measurement (b) Scaling (c) Weighing (d) Sampling (e) Coding

Question 9: Participants are grouped using __________ scales.

(a) Ranking (b) Rating (c) Categorization (d) Sorting (e) Recording

Question 10: Which type of scale is used when participants score an object according to its

comparative order among two or more objects?


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Question 11: A __________ scale is a scale that scores an object or property without making a direct comparison to another object or property.


Question 12: Which type of scale is used when participants place cards into piles using criteria

established by the researcher?


Question 13: A(n) __________ scale seeks to simultaneously measure more than one attribute

of the participant or object.

(a) Multidimensional (b) Unidimensional (c) Balanced (d) Unbalanced (e) Valid

Question 14: A scale that uses the response options “very bad, bad, average, good, very good”

is a(n) __________ rating scale.

(a) Unidimensional (b) Multidimensional (c) Balanced (d) Unbalanced (e) Valid

Question 15: Which of the following situations favors the use of unbalanced rating scales rather

than balanced rating scales?

(a) Participants’ scores lean in one direction (b) Object being rated is familiar to participants (c) Participants are known to be easy raters (d) Participants are known to be hard raters (e) All of the above

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Question 16: When a scale seeks to measure only one attribute of the participant or object it is said to be:

(a) Cognitive (b) Affective (c) Unidimensional (d) Multidimensional (e) Balanced

Question 17: Which type of scale provides participants with an opportunity to express no

opinion when they are unable to make a choice among the alternatives offered?

(a) Forced-choice (b) Multidimensional (c) Balanced (d) Unbalanced (e) Unforced-choice

Question 18: What is the ideal number of points for a rating scale?

(a) 5 (b) 7 (c) 9 (d) 10 (e) Appropriate for purpose

Question 19: Participants tend to __________ when they make an error of central tendency.

(a) Be easy raters (b) Give extreme judgments (c) Choose the central or neutral point (d) Rate objects consistently from question to question (e) Procrastinate in making choices

Question 20: Which type of rater error occurs when a participant is reluctant to give extreme

judgments?

(a) Error of leniency (b) Error of central tendency (c) Halo effect (d) Demand effect (e) Socially desirable responding

Question 21: What is the systematic bias that the rater introduces by carrying over a

generalized impression of the subject from one rating to another?

(a) Halo effect (b) Error of leniency (c) Unbalanced rating (d) Forced-choice (e) Nominal and interval

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Question 22: Which of the following is a Likert Scale Summated Rating?

(a) Yes, no (b) Agree, disagree (c) Strongly agree, agree, neither, disagree, strongly disagree (d) Important, unimportant (e) Male, female

Question 23: What type of data is produced by simple category scales?

(a) Nominal (b) Ordinal (c) Interval (d) Ratio (e) Nominal and interval

Question 24: What type of data is produced by summated rating scales?

(a) Nominal (b) Ordinal (c) Interval (d) Ratio (e) Nominal and interval

Use the following information to answer Questions 25 through 28: Jason is designing a survey to measure the extent to which college students who own iPads will recommend that others should also buy an iPad. He has created the following measures. Question 1: Have you ever recommended an iPad to anyone? Response options: yes or no

Question 2: If yes, to whom did you recommend an iPad? Check all that apply. Response options: friends, family members, teachers, other

Question 3: How likely are you to recommend an iPad to someone in the future? Response options: not at all likely, somewhat unlikely, neither likely nor unlikely, somewhat likely, very likely

Question 25: What type of scale is used in Jason’s first question about the recommendation of

iPads?

(a) Dichotomous (b) Multiple-choice, single-response (c) Multiple-choice, multiple-response (d) Balanced (e) Unbalanced

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Question 26: Jason’s third question is designed to determine the likelihood that an iPad owner will recommend the iPad to others. Which of the following choices captures the characteristics of the scale used for this question?

(a) Balanced, unforced choice, multiple-choice, single-response (b) Balanced, forced choice, multiple-choice, single-response (c) Unbalanced, forced choice, simple category (d) Unbalanced, unforced choice, multiple-choice, multiple-response (e) Balanced, forced choice, dichotomous

Question 27: What type of scale is used in Jason’s second question about the recommendation

of iPads?

(a) Dichotomous (b) Multiple-choice, single-response (c) Multiple-choice, multiple-response (d) Balanced (e) Unbalanced

Question 28: What type of scale is used in Jason’s third question about the recommendation of

iPods?

(a) Dichotomous (b) Multiple-choice, single-response (c) Multiple-choice, multiple-response (d) Unbalanced (e) Forced-choice

Question 29: Which type of scale consists of statements that express either a favorable or

unfavorable attitude toward an object of interest?

(a) Multiple-choice, multiple-response (b) Summated rating (c) Simple category scale (d) Constant sums (e) Checklist

Question 30: A __________ scale measures the psychological meanings of an attitude object

using bipolar adjectives.

(a) Likert (b) Summated rating (c) Stapel (d) Semantic differential (e) Constant sums

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Question 31: The data obtained from a Stapel scale can be analyzed in the same way as data obtained with a __________ scale.

(a) Dichotomous (b) Constant sum (c) Semantic differential (d) Multiple-choice, multiple-response (e) Graphic rating scale

Question 32: All of the following may be used with graphic rating scales except:

(a) Icons (b) Pictures (c) Words (d) Comparisons (e) Numbers

Question 33: Paired comparison scales result in __________ data.

(a) Nominal (b) Ordinal (c) Interval (d) Ratio (e) Absolute

Question 34: In a __________ scale, the participant orders several objects or properties of

objects relative to each other.

(a) Comparative (b) Constant sum (c) Forced ranking (d) Paired-comparison (e) Semantic differential

Question 35: The purpose of __________ is to get a conceptual representation of a

respondent’s attitude toward the attitude object and to compare the relationships between people.

(a) Likert scales (b) Comparative scales (c) Forced rating (d) Q-sorts (e) Stapel scales

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ANSWERS TO LESSON REVIEW EXERCISES 1. An attitude is a learned, stable predisposition to respond to oneself, other persons,

objects, or issues in a consistently favorable or unfavorable way. 2. The three bases or components of attitudes are as follows:

Cognitively based attitudes represent memories, evaluations, and beliefs about the properties of the object. A belief in a cognitively based attitude is an estimate (probability, likelihood) about the truth of something. For example: Mercury outboards are generally better than Evinrude.

Affectively based attitudes represent feelings, intuitions, values, and emotions toward the object. For example; I prefer vanilla ice cream or she thought a right turn would lead them back to the lake.

Conative or behaviorally based attitudes reflect expectations and behavioral intentions. Conative or behaviorally based attitudes represent predispositions based on instincts, cravings or impulses to action. For example, whenever I go to the county fair, I always get a funnel cake. I simply cannot resist it.

3. Because an attitude is a predisposition, it would seem that the more favorable one’s

attitude is toward a product or service, the more likely that the product or service will be purchased. But, that is not always the case. For example, Evinrude might be on sale, a sign may point to the lake or my diet may prevent me from eating a 750 calorie funnel cake.

4. A hypothetical construct is an attitude inferred only from data; it is a hypothesis of

attitudes that must be tested. Attitudes cannot be directly measured; they must be first hypothesized then tested.

5. Generally, behavior is best predicted by the following:

Specific attitudes are better predictors of behavior than general ones.

Strong attitudes are better predictors of behavior than weak attitudes.

Direct experiences with the attitude object produce behavior more reliably.

Cognitive-based attitudes influence behaviors better than affective-based attitudes.

Affective-based attitudes are often better predictors of consumption behaviors.

Using multiple measurements of attitude or several behavioral assessments across time and environments improves prediction.

The influence of reference groups and the individual’s inclination to conform to these influences improves the attitude-behavior linkage.

6. Scaling is the “procedure for the assignment of numbers (or other symbols) to a property

of objects in order to impart some of the characteristics of numbers to the properties in question.” In other words properties are measured and assigned a magnitude based on the strength or weakness of property.

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7. Attitude scaling is the process of assessing an attitudinal disposition using a number that represents a person’s score on an attitudinal continuum. For example, scale choices might range from extremely favorable to extremely unfavorable giving the researcher an insight into the general attitude.

8. The three most important considerations when selecting a measurement scale are the

reliability, validity, and practicality of the scale. 9. The factors that must be considered when optimizing the reliability, validity, and

practicality of the scale are as follows:

Research objectives (scaling objectives)

Response types

Data properties

Number of dimensions

Balanced or unbalanced

Forced or unforced choices

Number of scale points

Rater errors 10. The first general scaling objective is to measure characteristics or properties of the

participants who participate in the study. The second is to use participants as judges of the objects or indicants presented to them.

11. The measurement scale response types fall into one of four general types. They are as

follows:

Rating scale – used when participants score an object or indicant without making a direct comparison to another object or attitude.

Ranking scale – constrain the study participant to making comparisons and determining order among two or more properties (or their indicants) or objects.

Categorization – asks participants to put themselves or property indicants into groups or categories.

Sorting – requires that participants sort cards (representing concepts or constructs) into piles using criteria established by the researcher.

12. The four data types described in Chapter 12 are as follows:

Nominal data classify data into categories without indicating order, distance, or unique origin. – Classify

Ordinal data show relationships of more than and less than but have no distance or unique origin. – Classify + Order

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Interval scales have both order and distance but no unique origin. – Classify + Order + Distance

Ratio scales possess all four properties’ features. – Classify + Order + Distance + Origin

13. Measurement scales are either unidimensional or multidimensional. With a unidimensional

scale, only one attribute of the participant or object is measured. A multidimensional scale recognizes that an object might be better described with several dimensions than on a unidimensional continuum.

14. A balanced rating scale has an equal number of categories above and below the midpoint.

An unbalanced rating scale has an unequal number of favorable and unfavorable response choices.

15. A forced-choice scale requires that participants select one of the offered alternatives. 16. Whatever is appropriate for its purpose. There is no ideal number. 17. As the number of scale points increases, the reliability of the measure increases. In some

studies, scales with 11 points may produce more valid results than 3-, 5-, or 7-point scales. That is, both reliability and validity increase when more points are used. For example, a graphical rating scale has a vast number of potential points for measurement and can be both reliable and valid.

18. The error of central tendency involves the reluctance to give extreme judgments. The

error of leniency involved raters who consistently give extreme ratings; they may also be “easy raters” or “hard raters.” Note that leniency can mean both negative and positive biases. The halo effect is the systematic bias that the rater introduces by carrying over a generalized impression of the subject from one rating to another. An example of the halo effect could be in food testing. Asking the participants to evaluate the taste of a bell pepper could affect the subsequent rating of a banana.

19. The simple category scale (also called a dichotomous scale) offers two mutually

exclusive response choices. A variation, the multiple-choice, multiple-response scale (also called a checklist), allows the rater to select one or several alternatives. Where there are multiple options for the rater, but only one answer is sought, the multiple choice, single-response scale is appropriate.

20. Summated rating scales consist of statements that express either a favorable or an

unfavorable attitude toward the object of interest. The participant is asked to agree or disagree with each statement. Each response is given a numerical score to reflect its degree of attitudinal favorableness, and the scores may be summed to measure the participant’s overall attitude. The Likert scale is the most famous and frequently used variation of the summated rating scale.

21. Summation is not necessary and in some instances may actually be misleading.

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22. First, the Likert scale is easy and quick to construct. Second, it is more reliable and provides more data than many other scales. Finally, it produces interval data.

23. Item analysis follows the procedures below:

In the first step, a large number of statements were collected that met two criteria:

o Each statement was relevant to the attitude being studied;

o Each reflected a favorable or unfavorable position on that attitude.

People similar to those who are going to be studied were asked to read each statement and to state the level of their agreement with it, using a 5-point scale. A scale value of 1 indicated a strongly unfavorable attitude (strongly disagree). The other intensities were 2 (disagree), 3 (neither agree nor disagree), 4 (agree), and 5 (strongly agree), a strongly favorable attitude. To ensure consistent results, the assigned numerical values are reversed if the statement is worded negatively (1 is always strongly unfavorable and 5 is always strongly favorable). Each person’s responses are then added to secure a total score.

The next step is to array these total scores and select some portion representing the highest and lowest total scores (generally the top and bottom 10 to 25 percent). The middle group (50 to 80 percent of participants) is excluded from the subsequent analysis. The two extreme groups represent people with the most- and least-favorable attitudes. These extremes are the two criterion groups by which individual items are evaluated.

24. Item analysis assesses each item based on how well it discriminates between those

persons whose total score is high and those whose total score is low. It measures the capacity of the question under analysis to produce the desired information helping the researcher to weed out attitudinal statements that do not discriminate well.

25. The problem of summation arises because different (sometimes conflicting) patterns are

concealed by the same total score. 26. The semantic differential scale measures the psychological meanings of an attitude object

using bipolar adjectives. 27. Researchers use this scale for studies of brand and institutional image. The semantic

differential scale is based on the proposition that an object can have several dimensions of connotative meaning.

28. The three factors that contribute most to obtaining meaningful judgments by participants

in a semantic differential scale are evaluation, potency and activity. 29. Semantic differential has several advantages. These include:

It is an efficient and easy way to secure attitudes from a large sample.

Attitudes may be measured in both direction and intensity.

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The total set of responses provides a comprehensive picture of the meaning of an object and a measure of the person doing the rating.

It is a standardized technique that is easily repeated but escapes many problems of response distortion found with more direct methods.

It produces interval data. 30. The Stapel scale is used as an alternative to the semantic differential, especially when it is

difficult to find bipolar adjectives that match the investigative question. 31. The numerical scale is a scale that has equal intervals that separate their numeric scale

points (see Exhibit 12-3 in the text). The verbal anchors serve as the labels for the extreme points. Numerical scales are often 5-point scales but may have 7 or 10 points. Participants write a number from the scale next to each item.

32. A multiple rating list scale (Exhibit 12-3) is similar to the numerical scale, but differs in

two ways: It accepts a circled response from the rater and the layout facilitates visualization of the results.

33. The best scale for finding proportions is the constant-sum scale. With this scale, the

participant allocates points to more than one attribute or property indicant, such that they total a constant sum, usually 100 or 10.

34. The graphic rating scale is the best scale for discerning fine or small differences along a

continuum. 35. Theoretically, an infinite number of points are possible if participants are sophisticated

enough to differentiate and record them. 36. A ranking scale is a scale that asks the participant to directly compare two or more

objects and make choices among them. Frequently, the participant is asked to select one as the “best” or the “most preferred.” When there are only two choices, this approach is satisfactory, but it often results in ties when more than two choices are found.

37. There are three general categories of ranking scales. They are:

A paired-comparison scale where the participant can express attitudes unambiguously by choosing between two objects. A paired comparison provides ordinal data.

The forced ranking scale lists attributes that are ranked relative to each other. A drawback to forced ranking is that the number of stimuli that can be handled by this method is limited.

The comparative scale involves benchmarking that uses a standard by which other programs, processes, brands, point-of-sale promotions, or people can be compared. It is ideal for comparisons where the participants are familiar with the standard.

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38. A Q-sort is a methodology that requires the sorting of a deck of cards into piles that represent points along a continuum. The participant – or judge – groups the cards based on his or her response to the concept written on the card.

39. Researchers using Q-sort resolve three special problems: item selection, the choice

between using structured or unstructured choices in sorting, and data analysis. 40. A cumulative scale is a scale development technique in which scale items are tested

based on a scoring system where agreement with one extreme scale item results also in endorsement of all other items that take a less extreme position.

41. Scalogram analysis is a procedure for determining whether a set of items forms a

unidimensional scale. A scale is unidimensional if the responses fall into a pattern in which endorsement of the item reflecting the extreme position results in endorsing all items that are less extreme.

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LESSON 15



Measurement Instruments; Question Types and Content LESSON OBJECTIVES:


Illustrate the link forged between the management dilemma and the communication

instrument by the management-research question hierarchy.

Describe the influence of the communication method on instrument design.

List and explain the three general classes of information and what each contributes to the instrument.

Describe the influence of question content, question wording, response strategy, and

preliminary analysis planning on question construction.

List and describe each of the numerous question design issues influencing instrument quality, reliability, and validity.

Identify some of the sources for measurement questions.

Demonstrate the importance of pre-testing questions and instruments.

LESSON ASSIGNMENT:

Business Research Methods, Twelfth Edition Chapter 13, “Questionnaires and Instruments”

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LESSON 15 NOTE: The following exercises are study aids designed to help you prepare for the subject exam. Write your answers in the space provided after each exercise. Use the blank page to record other notes on the text content. Immediately check your answers with the key at the end of the guide. Do not submit your answers to AGU for grading. Question 1: What are the three questions in the management research question hierarchy that

have been addressed when the researcher begins to design actual survey questions?

Question 2: What type of question is a survey question? Question 3: Once the researcher understands the connection between the investigative

questions and the potential measurement questions, what is the next step in the research process?

Question 4: What are the prominent strategic concerns in forming a survey strategy? Question 5: What are some of the affects that technology has had on the design of survey

instruments? Question 6: What is a disguised question?

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Question 7: Generally, why would a researcher “disguise” a question? Question 8: What are the four situations where disguising the study objective is, or is not, an

issue? Question 9: What are projective techniques and why might they be used? Question 10: What is a good way to test how well a study plan adequately covers the topic at

hand, and secures information that is useable? Question 11: List and briefly describe the three categories of measurement questions used in

questionnaires. Question 12: What are the two types of target questions? Question 13: What type of question can lead to significant error by inferring that one response

should be favored over another? Question 14: What are the four questions that should guide the question designer in selecting

the appropriate question content?

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Question 15: What are the criteria or principles that should guide the question designer in creating the optimal question wording?

Question 16: What are the overall goals the question designer should try to achieve? Question 17: What is an alternative term for a questionnaire used in a personal interview? Question 18: What is a “response strategy”? Question 19: What are the two response strategies mentioned in the text? Question 20: What are the deciding factors to evaluate when choosing a response strategy? Question 21: List and describe the six general types of response strategies (questions)? Question 22: Why do researchers try to limit the number of free response questions? Question 23: What type of data do dichotomous questions generate?

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Question 24: What are some of the problems associated with multiple choice questions? Question 25: What is a double barreled question and why is it bad? Question 26: What is order bias and what are the two “effects” often observed with nonnumeric

response categories? Question 27: What is the split-ballot technique and what is it used for? Question 28: What type of data do multiple choice questions generally create? Question 29: Why would a researcher use questions that have been used in the past and where

would the researcher obtain used questions? Question 30: What is the biggest problem researchers face when using questions from existing

studies? Question 31: List and briefly describe the five basic steps to drafting and refining a research

instrument.

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Question 32: What is a screen question? Question 33: Where does the screen question(s) occur in a study? Question 34: What is a branched question? Question 35: What is the basic principle used to guide the sequence of questions in a study? Question 36: What four guidelines are suggested to implement the guiding principle? Question 37: What is a buffer question; why use one? Question 38: At what point in a survey should the researcher ask for personal classification

information? Question 39: What is the preferred order of questions in terms of complexity? Question 40: What is the preferred order of questions in terms of specificity?

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Question 41: What is the funnel technique? Question 42: What is the primary guideline to consider in grouping questions? Question 43: What are the two guiding purposes in constructing instructions, and possibly in

life as well? Question 44: What are the four topics the instructions should cover? Question 45: What is the role of the conclusion to a study? Question 46: What is the role of a rapport in conducting an interview? Question 47: What is one way to overcome reticence on the part of survey respondents? Question 48: What is pretesting and why use it?

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SUBJECT EXAMINATION



Student Services at [email protected]. MULTIPLE CHOICE: Question 1: All of the following questions must be answered prior to designing a

questionnaire except:

(a) What type of scale is needed to perform the desired analysis to answer the management question?

(b) What communication mode will be used? (c) Should the question be structured, unstructured, or some combination? (d) Should the questions be disguised or undisguised? (e) How will the results be translated into managerial recommendations?

Question 2: A(n) __________ question is one designed to conceal the question’s and the

study’s true purpose.

(a) Undisguised (b) Disguised (c) Unstructured (d) Structured (e) Projective

Question 3: In which of the following situations should a study’s objective be disguised?

(a) When the study’s objective is unlikely to affect the participants’ responses (b) When requesting willingly shared, conscious-level information (c) When requesting reluctantly shared, conscious-level information (d) When requesting knowable, conscious-level information (e) When requesting willingly shared, knowable information

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Question 4: Which of the following goals should a good survey instrument accomplish?

(a) Encourage each participant to provide accurate responses (b) Encourage participants to be succinct in their responses (c) Encourage participants to answer only those questions they are comfortable

answering (d) Encourage participants to end the survey when they feel they have

contributed enough information (e) Ask as much as possible from the respondents

Question 5: Which of the following terms is used to refer to questionnaires used in personal

interviews?

(a) Administrative questions (b) Interview schedules (c) Moderator guides (d) Survey schedules (e) Interview guides

Question 6: When target questions present the participants with a fixed set of choices, they

are:

(a) Unstructured (b) Undisguised (c) Structured (d) Disguised (e) Open-ended

Question 7: All of the following question types are asked of the survey participant except:

(a) Classification questions (b) Target questions (c) Supervisory questions (d) Administration questions (e) Disguised questions

Question 8: What type of question seeks to address the investigative questions of a specific

study?

(a) Classification questions (b) Target questions (c) Supervisory questions (d) Administrative questions (e) Disguised questions

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Question 9: Which of the following types of data are collected using a classification question?

(a) Gender (b) Purchase behavior (c) Attitude toward the brand (d) Personality (e) Behavioral intent

Question 10: A measurement question whose wording suggests to the participant the desired

answer is a(n) __________ question.

(a) Double-barreled (b) Leading (c) Open-ended (d) Forced-choice (e) Free-response

Question 11: The issue of biased wording in the design of questions asks:

(a) Does the question contain wording that implies the researcher’s desire for the participant to respond in one way rather than another?

(b) Is the question worded from the researcher’s perspective or the participant’s perspective?

(c) Does the question ask the participant for information that relates to thoughts or activity too far in the participant’s past to be remembered?

(d) Does the question use words that have no meaning or a different meaning for the participant?

(e) Is it reasonable to assume that the participant can frame an answer to the question?

Question 12: Which issue related to the design of measurement questions addresses whether it

is reasonable to assume that the participant can frame an answer to the question?

(a) Precision (b) Frame of reference (c) Time for thought (d) Biased wording (e) Adequate alternatives

Question 13: The issue of frame of reference in the design of questions and questionnaires asks:






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Question 14: The issue of memory decay in the question’s content asks:






Question 15: A study of donor behavior for the Tsunami Relief Fund seeks to identify

participation from consumers through indirect gifts such as purchasing items of which a portion of proceeds will benefit Tsunami victims. Because such purchases do not record whether an individual made the purchase decision as a form of donation, a survey will be used to identify this behavior. In writing the target questions for the study, the instrument designer should be aware of errors arising from the issue of:

(a) Precision (b) Time for thought (c) Sensitive information (d) Recall and memory decay (e) Presumed knowledge

Question 16: A measurement question where the participant chooses the words to frame the

answer is a __________ question.

(a) Double-barreled (b) Leading (c) Free-response (d) Structured (e) Multiple-choice

Question 17: How many answer choices are provided in a free-response question?

(a) 2 (b) 3-10 (c) 10 or fewer (d) None (e) It depends on the question

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Question 18: Which type of measurement question poses more than two response choices but seeks a single answer?

(a) Free-response (b) Open-ended (c) Dichotomous (d) Multiple-choice (e) Checklist

Question 19: In a study of grocery shopping behavior, one of the questions asked, “Why do you

shop at this grocery store?” The question was a multiple-choice, closed ended question and offered the following response options: (a) it is near my home; (b) it is on my way home from work; (c) the prices are reasonable; (d) it offers a good selection; and (e) it stocks the items I like to buy. This question should be redesigned because:

(a) It is double-barreled (b) The response options are not mutually exclusive (c) It suffers from memory decay (d) It requests sensitive information (e) It is too general

Question 20: In a study of grocery shopping behavior, one of the questions on the instrument

asked, “To what extent are you comfortable with and willing to use self-serve checkout lines at grocery stores?” This question should be redesigned because it is:

(a) Leading (b) Sensitive (c) Subject to memory decay (d) Too general (e) Double-barreled

Question 21: A measurement question that includes two or more questions in one is said to be:

(a) Double-barreled (b) Leading (c) Sensitive (d) Subjective (e) Unfocused

Question 22: How can an instrument designer counteract biases arising from primacy and

recency effects?

(a) Randomize the question order (b) Utilize the split-ballot technique (c) Include questions designed to measure a participant’s susceptibility to order

bias (d) Provide another option in the response choices (e) All of the above

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Question 23: In surveys conducted with telephone interviews or in-person interviews, which form of order bias is likely to occur?

(a) Recency effect (b) Primacy effect (c) Halo effect (d) Demand effect (e) Leniency

Question 24: In mail and in web-based surveys, which form of order bias is likely to occur?

(a) Recency effects (b) Primacy effects (c) Halo effects (d) Demand effects (e) Leniency

Question 25: A question that asks “What sources of information do you consider when making

purchase decisions?” is a __________ question.

(a) Rating (b) Free-response (c) Double-barreled (d) Checklist (e) Ranking

Question 26: Every time a Netflix customer rents a movie, Netflix asks the customer to

evaluate the movie on a scale of 1 to 5. A 5 means that the customer thoroughly enjoyed the movie while a 1 means that the customer hated the movie. In this example, Netflix is using a(n) __________ question to learn customer preferences.

(a) Administrative (b) Checklist (c) Ranking (d) Rating (e) Semantic differential

Question 27: A survey of preferences among frequent air travelers will be conducted at airports

nationwide. Prior to asking target questions regarding respondent preferences, which of the following should occur?

(a) Screen questions should ensure that participants are frequent air travelers (b) Socio-economic questions should be asked (c) Questions about terrorist concerns should be asked (d) Branching questions can distinguish between frequent air travelers and less

frequent travelers (e) Free-response questions should be asked

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Question 28: A(n) __________ question is a measurement question, the sequence of which is determined by the participant’s previous answers.

(a) Administrative (b) Screen (c) Target (d) Branched (e) Classification

Question 29: Where in a survey should personal or potentially sensitive questions be placed?

(a) At the beginning (b) In the middle (c) Near the end (d) After screen questions (e) It doesn’t matter

Question 30: What type of measurement question is designed to establish rapport with the

participant?

(a) Screen (b) Branch (c) Target (d) Buffer (e) Administrative

Question 31: Funnel approach in questionnaire design means to:

(a) Begin with general questions to more specific questions (b) Branch from buffer questions to target questions (c) Begin with buffer questions and end with screen questions (d) Move from screen questions to buffer questions to classification questions (e) Ask sensitive questions early

Question 32: All of the following can improve participant motivation to respond except:

(a) Developing rapport (b) Assuring confidentiality (c) Building participant interest in the topic (d) Offering an incentive (e) Limiting the number of questions asked

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ANSWERS TO LESSON REVIEW EXERCISES 1. The researcher begins to design actual survey questions when the process of moving from

the general management dilemma to specific measurement questions has gone through the first three question levels of the management research question hierarchy. The specific questions are as follows:

Research question(s) – the fact-based translation of the question the researcher

must answer to contribute to the solution of the management question.

Investigative questions – specific questions the researcher must answer to provide sufficient detail and coverage of the research question. Within this level, there may be several questions as the researcher moves from the general to the specific.

Measurement questions – the actual questions to be asked the respondents. This information will seek to provide answers to the investigative questions.

2. A survey question is a type of measurement question – specifically, a measurement

question is a question that the researcher must answer if the researcher is to gather the needed information and resolve the management question.

3. Once the researcher understands the connection between the investigative questions and

the potential measurement questions, a strategy for the survey is the next step. 4. The following are prominent among the strategic concerns in forming a survey strategy:

What type of scale is needed?

What communication approach will be used?

Should the questions be structured, unstructured, or some combination?

Should the questioning be undisguised or disguised? If disguised, to what degree? 5. Some of the affects that technology have had on the design of instruments and surveys

generally are as follows:

The method of survey delivery.

Questionnaires are developed more quickly by tapping question banks for appropriate, tested questions.

Questions can be created using visually driven instruments that enhance the process for the participant.

Surveys can use questionnaire software that eliminates separate manual data entry, and build questionnaires that save time in data analysis.

6. A disguised question is a question designed to conceal the question’s true purpose. 7. Generally, a question is disguised when the researcher believes that the participants will

respond differently than they would if both or either the sponsor or the objectives are known by the participant.

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8. The decision about using disguised questions may be made easier by identifying four situations where disguising the study objective is, or is not, an issue:

Willingly shared, conscious-level information. In surveys requesting conscious-

level information that should be willingly shared, the situation rarely requires disguised techniques.

Reluctantly shared, conscious-level information. When the research question asks for an opinion on some topic on which participants may hold a socially unacceptable view, disguised questions are often used.

Knowable, limited-conscious-level information. Not all information is at the participant’s conscious level, but given some time and motivation, it can usually be expressed. Some level of concealment may be appropriate.

Subconscious-level information. Any attempt to reveal psychological factors that might affect recovery and satisfaction might require disguised questions.

9. Projective techniques are qualitative methods that encourage the participant to reveal

hidden or suppressed attitudes, ideas, emotions and motives. The survey designer may phrase the questions in a hypothetical way or ask how other people in the participant’s experience would answer the question. Projective techniques are used so that participants will express their true feelings and avoid giving stereotyped answers.

10. A good way to test how well the study plan meets the needs of a study is to develop

“dummy” tables that display the data one expects to secure. 11. The three categories of measurement questions used in questionnaires are as follows:

Administrative questions – these identify the participant, interviewer, interview location, and conditions. These questions are rarely asked of the participant, but are necessary for studying patterns within the data and identify possible error sources.

Classification questions – these questions usually cover sociological-demographic variables that allow participants’ answers to be grouped so that patterns are revealed and can be studied. These questions usually appear at the end of a survey (except for those used as filters or screens).

Target questions – these questions address the investigative questions of a specific study. They are typically grouped by topic in the survey.

12. There are two types of target questions classified by the level of structure in the response.

Target questions may be structured; they present a fixed set of choices, often called closed questions. Target questions may also be unstructured; they do not limit responses, but do provide a frame of reference for participants’ answers. Unstructured questions are sometimes referred to as open-ended questions.

13. Leading questions can inject significant error by inferring that one response should be

favored over another.

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14. Four questions, covering numerous issues, guide the instrument designer in selecting appropriate question content:

Should this question be asked (does it match the study objective)?

Is the question of proper scope and coverage?

Can the participant adequately answer this question as asked?

Will the participant willingly answer this question as asked? 15. The criteria or principles that should guide the question designer in creating the optimal

question wording are as follows:

The question should be stated in terms of a shared vocabulary

The question should contain vocabulary with a single meaning

The question should not contain unsupported or misleading assumptions

The question should not contain biased wording

The question should be appropriately personalized

Adequate (comprehensive and exclusive) alternatives should be presented within the question

16. The overall goals the question designer should try to achieve in the design of the order,

type, and wording of the measurement questions, the introduction, instructions, transitions, and closure in a quality communication instrument are as follows:

Encourage each participant to provide accurate responses.

Encourage each participant to provide an adequate amount of information.

Discourage each participant from refusing to answer specific questions.

Discourage each participant from early discontinuation of participation.

Leave the participant with a positive attitude about survey participation.

Note: Please review Exhibit 13-5 carefully; familiarize yourself with the content, wording and response strategy challenges posed by question design.

17. “Interview schedule” is an alternative term for the questionnaires used in personal

interviews. 18. The response strategy is the third (beyond wording and content) major area of question

design. It concerns the choice of structure imposed on participants’ responses. 19. The response strategies mentioned in the text are as follows:

Unstructured response (or open-ended response, the free choice of words). Unstructured responses include free responses. Free responses range from allowing participants to express themselves extensively to those in which responses are restricted by space, layout, or instructions to choose one word or phrase.

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Structured response (or closed response, specified alternatives provided). Structured responses include closed responses. Closed responses typically are categorized as dichotomous, multiple-choice, checklist, rating, or ranking response strategies.

20. The major factors influencing the choice of a response strategy include the following:

Objectives of the study.

Participant’s level of information about the topic.

Degree to which participant has thought through the topic.

Ease with which participant communicates.

Participant’s motivation level to share information. 21. The six general types of response strategies are as follows:

Free-response questions (open-ended questions) ask the participant a question and either the interviewer pauses for the answer (which is unaided) or the participant records his or her ideas in his or her own words in the space provided on a questionnaire.

Dichotomous questions suggest opposing responses, but this is not always the case. They can also present alternatives that are not in direct opposition.

Multiple-choice questions are appropriate where there are more than two alternatives, or where we seek gradations of preference, interest, or agreement.

Checklist questions allow the respondent to give multiple responses to a single question.

Rating questions ask the participant to position each factor on a companion scale, verbal, numeric, or graphic.

Ranking questions ask the respondent to sort the responses according to some order. When relative order of the alternatives is important, the ranking question is ideal.

22. Researchers try to reduce the number of such questions because they pose significant

problems in interpretation and are costly to analyze. 23. Dichotomous questions generate nominal data. 24. One type of problem occurs when responses have not been anticipated. A second problem

occurs when the list of choices is not exhaustive. A third is when the options presented are not mutually exclusive.

25. A double barreled question is a measurement question that includes two or more

questions in one statement. The participant is called to answer both questions with a single answer. It is a problem because the results will be clouded by differing interpretations and responses. The researcher should separate the questions to enhance the clarity of the questions and their responses.

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26. Order bias with nonnumeric response categories often leads the participant to choose the first alternative (primacy effect) or the last alternative (recency effect) over the middle ones. The primacy effect dominates in visual surveys – self-administered via web or mail. The recency effect dominates in oral surveys – phone and personal interviews.

27. The split-ballot technique is the process of presenting different segments of the sample

with alternatives arranged in different orders. Using the split-ballot technique can counteract or balance out any order bias that may be present.

28. Multiple-choice questions generally generate nominal data. When the choices are

numeric alternatives, this response structure may produce at least interval and sometimes ratio data.

29. Inventing, refining, and pretesting questions demands considerable time and effort. A

researcher with limited time or money may opt to use questions that have been used in the past. A review of literature will reveal instruments used in similar studies that may be obtained by writing to the researchers or purchased through a clearinghouse.

30. The tools of data collection should be adapted to the problem, not the reverse. There is a

great temptation to adapt the hypothesis to the questions that are readily available. Changing the hypothesis can invalidate much or all the work done in earlier development stages and corrupt the results of the research.

31. The five basic steps to drafting and refining the research instrument are as follows:

Develop the participant-screening process and the introduction. This is done typically with personal or phone surveys, but can apply to early notification procedures, e-mail and web surveys.

Arrange the measurement question sequence: this has three steps as follows:

o Identify groups of target questions by topic.

o Establish a logical sequence for question groups and questions within groups.

o Develop transitions between question groups.

Prepare and insert instructions – for the interviewer or participant – including termination instructions, skip directions, and probes.

Create and insert a conclusion, including a survey disposition statement.

Pretest specific questions and the instrument as a whole. 32. Screen questions or filter questions are used to determine if the potential participant has

the knowledge or experience necessary to participate in the study. 33. In the introduction to the instrument chosen; at the beginning. 34. A branched question is a question that results from a specific response to a previous

question. For example a study of sock use may ask if the participant is male or female. Depending on the response, the branched question could be “do you use panty hose” or “do you use ankle socks.”

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35. The basic principle used to guide sequence decisions is that the nature and needs of the participant must determine the sequence of questions and the organization of the interview schedule.

36. Four guidelines are suggested to implement this principle:

The question process must quickly awaken interest and motivate the participant to participate in the interview. Specifically, put the more interesting questions first and leave classification questions (age, family size, income level) not used as filters or screens at the end.

The participant should not be confronted by early requests for information that might be considered personal or ego-threatening. Questions that might influence the participant to discontinue or terminate the questioning process should be near the end.

The questioning process should begin with simple items and then move to the more complex, as well as move from general items to the more specific.

Changes in the frame of reference should be small and clearly pointed out. Also, use transition statements between different topics of the target question set.

37. A buffer question is a neutral measurement question designed to chiefly establish a

rapport with the participant. Once established, a rapport with the participant can help the researcher to obtain more personal or sensitive information.

38. The request for personal classification information should be made at the end of the

survey. If this information is requested at the start, it often causes participants to feel threatened, dampening their interest and motivation to continue.

39. Generally, questions should be asked in increasing orders of complexity. Deferring

complex questions, or simple questions that require thought, can help reduce the number of “don’t know” responses.

40. It is common practice to move from the general to the specific. 41. The funnel technique is the procedure of moving from general to more specific questions.

The objectives of this procedure are to learn the participant’s frame of reference and to extract the full range of desired information while limiting distortion.

42. The primary guideline in arranging questions is to arrange them in such a way as to

minimize shifting in subject matter and frame of reference. Participants often interpret questions in the light of earlier questions and miss shifts of perspective or subject unless they are clearly stated. Participants fail to listen carefully and frequently jump to conclusions about the import of a given question before it is completely stated.

43. Two principles form the foundation for good instructions: clarity and courtesy.

Instruction language needs to be unfailingly simple and polite.

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44. The four topics the instructions should cover are as follows:

Terminating an unqualified participant – defining for the interviewer how to terminate an interview when the participant does not correctly answer the screen or filter questions.

Terminating a discontinued interview – defining for the interviewer how to conclude an interview when the participant decides to discontinue.

Moving between questions on an instrument – defining for an interviewer or participant how to move between questions or topic sections of an instrument (skip directions) when movement is dependent on the specific answer to a question or when branched questions are used.

Disposing of a completed questionnaire – defining for an interviewer or participant completing a self-administered instrument how to submit the completed questionnaire.

45. The role of the conclusion is to leave the participant with the impression that his or her

involvement has been valuable. 46. A rapport is a close and harmonious relationship in which there is common

understanding. Building a common understanding is crucial for the researcher to discovering and recording the sentiments to the participants.

47. One can overcome participant reticence or unwillingness by providing compensation for

cooperation. This approach has been especially successful in mail surveys and is increasingly used in web surveys.

48. Pretesting is the process of submitting the instrument to a small sample of chosen

participants to test the efficacy of the chosen instrument. Some of the reasons for pretesting include the following:

Discovering ways to increase participant interest.

Increasing the likelihood that participants will remain engaged to the completion of the survey.

Discovering question content, wording, and sequencing problems.

Discovering target question groups where researcher training is needed.

Exploring ways to improve the overall quality of survey data.

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LESSON 16



Sampling; Purpose and Methodology LESSON OBJECTIVES:


Illustrate the two basic premises on which sampling theory is based.

Describe the characteristics of accuracy and precision for measuring sample validity.

List the five questions that must be answered to develop a sampling plan.

Describe the two categories of sampling techniques and the variety of sampling

techniques within each category.

Describe some of the various sampling techniques listed in the text and when each is used.

LESSON ASSIGNMENT:

Business Research Methods, Twelfth Edition Chapter 14, “Sampling”

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LESSON 16 NOTE: The following exercises are study aids designed to help you prepare for the subject exam. Write your answers in the space provided after each exercise. Use the blank page to record other notes on the text content. Immediately check your answers with the key at the end of the guide. Do not submit your answers to AGU for grading. Question 1: What is the basic idea behind sampling? Question 2: What is a population in the context of research? Question 3: What is a population element? Question 4: What is a census? Question 5: What is a statistic? Question 6: What is a population parameter? Question 7: What are the four reasons given to justify the use of samples in measurement?

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Question 8: What are two reasons to use a census rather than a sample? Question 9: How can a sample be considered more accurate than a census? Question 10: What is a good sample? Question 11: What do the terms accuracy and precision mean in terms of sampling? Question 12: What is the measure of how closely the sample represents the population? Question 13: What is systematic variance? Question 14: What type of error results from low precision? Question 15: What is the difference between sampling error and systematic error?

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Question 16: What are the two basic methodologies that can be used to select a sample? Question 17: What is nonprobability sampling? Question 18: What is probability sampling? Question 19: Can the precision of a sample be measured with nonprobability sampling? Question 20: What questions must be answered in order to design the appropriate sample? Question 21: What is the population proportion of incidence? Question 22: What is the sample frame? Question 23: What is the difference between the sample frame and the population?

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Question 24: What is the main advantage of probability sampling over nonprobability sampling?

Question 25: What are some of the problems with probability sampling? Question 26: What is the most pervasive myth in sampling? Question 27: What are some of the considerations important to selecting a sample size? Question 28: What is simple random sampling? Question 29: What are some of the problems associated with simple random sampling? Question 30: What are the complex sampling methodologies mentioned in the text? Question 31: What is systematic sampling?

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Question 32: What is a monotonic trend and where does it come from? Question 33: What is periodicity? Question 34: What is stratified random sampling? Question 35: What is cluster sampling, why use it? Question 36: What is area sampling? Question 37: What is double sampling? Question 38: What is a convenience sample? Question 39: What is purposive sampling and what are the two major types of purposive

sampling? Question 40: What is snowball sampling?

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SUBJECT EXAMINATION



Student Services at [email protected]. MULTIPLE CHOICE: Question 1: A __________ is the total collection of elements about which the researcher

wishes to make inferences.

(a) Population (b) Target population (c) Population element (d) Sampling frame (e) Sample

Question 2: The list of elements in a population from which the sample is actually drawn is

known as the:

(a) Sample frame (b) Population extent (c) Database (d) Sampling base (e) Population directory

Question 3: What type of sampling is appropriate when a population is small and the elements

are quite different from each other?

(a) Double (b) Complex random (c) Census (d) Judgment (e) Quota

Question 4: Which of the following terms refers to the variation in measures due to some

known or unknown influence that causes the scores to skew in one direction or another?

(a) Precision (b) Standard error (c) Systematic variance (d) Sampling error (e) Random error

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Question 5: Sampling error refers to:

(a) Differences between the sample statistics and the population’s parameters caused by random fluctuations inherent in the sampling process

(b) Bias caused by using a poor sampling frame (c) Error created by systematic variance (d) Differences between the results of a census and the population’s parameters (e) Error created by differences between those who respond to the survey and

those who do not Question 6: The standard error of the estimate is a type of measure of:

(a) Central tendency (b) Accuracy (c) Significance (d) Confidence (e) Standard deviation

Question 7: With what does one measure the degree of precision of a sample estimate?

(a) Feasibility studies (b) Census comparisons (c) Unstandardized coefficients (d) Standard error of the estimate (e) Significance indicators

Question 8: Assuming that the sampling frame is appropriate, systematic variance can be

minimized in a study by:

(a) Decreasing the sample size (b) Increasing the sample size (c) Contacting nonrespondents (d) Increasing response rates (e) Matching

Question 9: Estimates of precision are possible with __________ samples.

(a) Nonprobability (b) Probability (c) Judgment (d) Quota (e) All of the above

Question 10: Which word below best describes nonprobability sampling?

(a) Subjective (b) Objective (c) Random (d) Systematic (e) Generalizable

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Question 11: All of the following are methods of probability sampling except:

(a) Systematic (b) Simple random (c) Stratified (d) Cluster (e) Purposive

Question 12: Which term below refers to the descriptors of variables computed from sample

data used to estimate those same variables in the population?

(a) Sample statistics (b) Population parameters (c) Systematic estimates (d) Standard errors (e) Standardized coefficients

Question 13: __________ are summary descriptors of variables of interest in the population.

(a) Sample statistics (b) Population parameters (c) Systematic estimates (d) Standard errors (e) Standardized coefficients

Question 14: What is the most frequent proportion measure?

(a) Mean (b) Standard deviation (c) Mode (d) Correlation (e) Percentage

Question 15: In a study of college search behaviors among the families of college-bound high

school students, the search behaviors are very different from family to family. In the situation described, which guideline below best explains why the researcher will use a larger sample size?

(a) The greater the variance within the population, the larger the sample should

be (b) The greater the proportion of incidence of the estimate, the larger the sample

should be (c) The smaller the dispersion range, the larger the sample must be (d) The higher the level of frequency control in the estimate, the larger the

sample must be (e) The greater the number of quotas of interest within a sample, the larger the

sample must be

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Question 16: Which term below refers to a controlled procedure that assures that each population element is given a known nonzero chance of selection into the sample?

(a) Nonprobability sampling (b) Random selection (c) Systematic selection (d) Judgment sampling (e) Statistical selection

Question 17: If one selects a sample by beginning with a random start of an element and then

selecting every kth element in the frame for inclusion in the sample, which type of sampling method is being used?

(a) Simple random (b) Systematic (c) Cluster (d) Stratified (e) Double

Question 18: Which type of sampling technique can result in a skewed sample if periodicity

exists in the population?

(a) Simple random (b) Systematic (c) Stratified (d) Cluster (e) Double

Question 19: Which sampling method includes elements from each of several mutually

exclusive strata within a population?

(a) Simple random (b) Systematic (c) Stratified (d) Cluster (e) Double

Question 20: Which two sampling techniques employ subpopulations as a component of the

selection criteria?

(a) Simple random, systematic (b) Systematic, stratified (c) Stratified, cluster (d) Quota, cluster (e) Quota, snowball

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Question 21: At Metro University, there are more female students than male students. However, because Brittany is particularly interested in male drinking behavior, she plans to include an equal number of men and women in the sample. What type of sampling will Brittany use?

(a) Simple random (b) Quota (c) Systematic (d) Proportionate stratified (e) Disproportionate stratified

Question 22: In the alcohol consumption study at Metro University, students who do not belong

to Greek organizations outnumber those who do by 6 to 4. If Brittany draws the study sample such that 60% of the sample is made up of non-Greek-affiliated students and 40% of Greek-affiliated students, what type of sampling has she used?

(a) Simple random (b) Quota (c) Systematic (d) Proportionate stratified (e) Disproportionate stratified

Question 23: A survey that uses a sample of city blocks from a map as a way of sampling city

residents is based on the __________ sampling technique.

(a) Convenience (b) Quota (c) Stratified (d) Systematic (e) Cluster

Question 24: If Brittany drew a sample of class locations (buildings and classrooms) on

campus, and then sampled all of the students in those buildings, what type of sampling technique was employed?

(a) Convenience (b) Simple random (c) Area (d) Quota (e) Systematic

Question 25: With which of the following sampling techniques is the practice of double

sampling typically found?

(a) Simple random (b) Stratified (c) Systematic (d) Purposive (e) Quota

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Question 26: When selecting a convenience sample, element selection is based on:

(a) Accessibility (b) The kth element (c) Cluster selection (d) Stratum analysis (e) Multiphasic selection

Question 27: In which sampling technique are participants in a study selected by referral?

(a) Convenience (b) Judgment (c) Quota (d) Snowball (e) Area

Use the following information to answer Questions 28 through 33. Hilton Hotels wishes to conduct a study on the determinants of brand loyalty among Hilton Hotel customers. The Hilton organization estimates that 10% of its 2,600,000 Hilton Honors club members are loyal to the Hilton brand wherever they travel. However, the remaining members may choose other hotel brands at times. The organization wants to understand how to increase loyalty among the other 90% of club members. Question 28: In the Hilton example, the Hilton Honors membership list represents the:

(a) Census (b) Sample frame (c) Population (d) Element (e) Target population

Question 29: In the Hilton example, the individual club members represent the:

(a) Quota (b) Samples (c) Sampling frames (d) Population elements (e) Census

Question 30: In the Hilton example, the sampling frame is made up of the:

(a) List of Hilton Honors club members (b) List of guests staying at any Hilton hotel during a designated period of time (c) List of the top 10% of Hilton Honors club members (d) List of the 90% of Hilton Honors members who are not brand loyal (e) List of guests at Hilton’s top competitors

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Question 31: In the Hilton example, the population for the study is:

(a) Travelers requiring overnight lodging (b) Guests at Hilton-brand hotels (c) Hilton Honors club members (d) The top 10% of Hilton Honors club members

Question 32: In a follow-up survey to the Hilton study on brand loyalty, the organization plans

to focus solely on estimating the attributes of the 10% of Hilton Honors members who are thought to be brand loyal. In this example, 10% is the:

(a) Sample statistic (b) Population parameter (c) Population variance (d) Population proportion of incidence (e) Sampling frame

Question 33: Hilton plans to send surveys to 10,000 Hilton Honors club members. This group

of people is known as the:

(a) Systematic variance (b) Population (c) Census (d) Sample (e) Population element

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ANSWERS TO LESSON REVIEW EXERCISES 1. The basic idea behind sampling is that by selecting some of the elements in a population,

we may draw conclusions about the entire population. A good example of sampling is taste. One taste of a drink, a sample, will allow the taster to draw a conclusion about the whole drink.

2. A population is the total collection of elements about which we wish to make inferences. 3. A population element is the individual participant or object on which the measurement is

taken (the unit of study). 4. A census is a count or survey of all the elements in a population. 5. A statistic is a summary descriptor of a variable derived from a sample. A statistic is an

estimate of a parameter. For example, a study of height in the population might estimate the average height in adult men to be 5 ft. 9 in. Since the information is based on a sample it is a statistic and is an estimate of the population parameter.

6. A population parameter is a summary descriptor of a variable of interest in the

population. A population parameter comes from a census. For example a census of height in the population might calculate the average height in adult men to be 5 ft. 9 in. Since the information is based on a census it is a true measure of the population parameter.

7. The four reasons given for sampling are as follows:

Lower cost

Greater accuracy of results

Greater speed of data collection

Availability of population elements 8. There are two reasons to use a census rather than a sample. The first is feasibility. A

census is only practical and feasible when the population is small. When the population is small the researcher can fully access and query each population element to discover the necessary information. The second reason for using a census is when a census is mandated by the nature of the population at hand. When each population element varies significantly from other elements a census is necessary. For example, it may be necessary to study all 110 pyramids in Egypt to gather accurate information on the age or size of the average pyramid.

9. The text quotes Dr. W. Edwards Deming as saying that “Sampling possesses the

possibility of better interviewing (testing), more thorough investigation of missing, wrong, or suspicious information, better supervision, and better processing than is possible with complete coverage.” That is to say that accurate sampling can offer a greater depth of information through carefully controlled procedures and methodologies that a census will not be able to provide. Indeed, the Census Bureau has been lobbying Congress to allow sampling in urban areas in the United States to increase the accuracy of various numbers. (See the note on sampling and the census)

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10. A good sample is accurate and precise. 11. Accuracy is the degree to which bias is absent from the sample; the sample is free from

systematic variance. Precision is the degree to which the sample accurately reflects the population. No sample will fully represent its population in all respects.

12. The measure of how closely the sample represents the population (precision) is the

standard error of the estimate. The smaller the standard error of the estimate the more precise the sample is or the more accurately the sample reflects the actual population.

13. Systematic variance is “the variation in measures due to some known or unknown

influences that ‘cause’ the scores to lean in one direction more than another.” The larger the systematic variance the lower the accuracy of the sample. For example, a study of canned tomatoes may not be accurate if all the sampled cans came from shelves at eye level missing, systematically, those cans on the top and bottom shelves.

14. Low precision is the result of sampling error. Sampling error is what is left after all

known sources of systematic variance have been accounted for. In theory, sampling error consists of random fluctuations only, although some unknown systematic variance may be included when too many or too few sample elements possess a particular characteristic.

15. The difference between sampling error and systematic error is the randomness of the

error. Sampling error is random and systematic error is not. Sampling error results from the vagaries of chance while systematic error results from some flaw in methodology.

16. There are two basic types of sampling; probability and nonprobability sampling. 17. Nonprobability sampling is sampling that is arbitrary and subjective. When we choose

subjectively, we usually do so with a pattern or scheme in mind (e.g., only talking with young people or only talking with women). Each member of the population does not have a known chance of being included.

18. Probability sampling is based on the concept of random selection – a controlled

procedure that assures that each population element is given a known nonzero chance of selection. The procedure is never haphazard.

19. No, only probability samples provide estimates of precision. 20. The following questions must be answered in order to design the appropriate sample:

What is the target population?

What are the parameters of interest?

What is the sampling frame?

What is the appropriate sampling method?

What size sample is needed?

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21. The population proportion of incidence is the number of category elements in the population divided by the number of elements in the population. Simply put, it is the percentage of the category under study in the population. For example it might be the percentage of faulty reports of all the reports.

22. The sample frame is the written or recorded list from which the sample is actually drawn

from. 23. The difference between the population and the sample frame is a matter of careful

definition. Theoretically they are exactly the same. In many cases they are. In the example above, it is possible to isolate 100% of the reports and find the exact population of faulty reports and list them. That list is the sample frame. When studying consumer preferences or some other less clearly defined subject it is more difficult to precisely identify the population under study and therefore more difficult to establish a comprehensive sample frame.

24. With probability sampling, the researcher can make probability-based confidence

estimates of various parameters that cannot be made with nonprobability samples. 25. Some of the problems associated with probability sampling are as follows:

Interviewers or others may modify the selections made.

Only the selected elements from the original sampling frame are included. Additions or subtractions, no matter how seemingly appropriate, will increase the error or invalidate the information.

Despite all due care, the actual sample achieved will probably not perfectly match the sample that is originally drawn.

Some people will refuse to participate, and others will be difficult, if not impossible, to find.

No matter how careful we are in replacing those who refuse or are never located, sampling error is likely to rise.

26. The most pervasive myth in sampling is that the sample size must be large to get a

representative sample. The best example of this is the so called birthday paradox. That is, in a room full of 60 people, there is a 99% chance that two or more people will have the same birthday. In a group of 26 people the chance falls to 50%. Simply put, if there is little variation in the data (birthdays, excluding February 29, have only 365 different possibilities) the sample size does not have to be large. See the “birthday paradox” article in Wikipedia. (http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Birthday_paradox)

27. Some of the considerations important to selecting a sample size are as follows:

The greater the dispersion or variance within the population, in the variable under study, the larger the sample must be to provide estimation precision.

The greater the desired precision of the estimate, the larger the sample must be. For example, in the birthday paradox (mentioned above) to get to a virtual 100% chance that two people will share a birthday in a group the selection must be 366.

http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Birthday_paradox

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The narrower or smaller the error range, the larger the sample must be.

The higher the confidence level in the estimate, the larger the sample must be.

The greater the number of subgroups of interest within a sample, the greater the sample size must be, as each subgroup must meet minimum sample size requirements.

When the data collection method is changed, the amount and type of data that can be obtained also change.

Cost considerations influence decisions about the size and type of sample and the data collection methods. Almost all studies have some budgetary constraint, and this may encourage a researcher to use a nonprobability sample. Probability sample surveys incur list costs for sample frames, callback costs, and a variety of other costs that are not necessary when nonprobability samples are used.

28. Simple random sampling is the unrestricted random choice of an element of the

population where each element of the population has an equal nonzero chance of being selected. The unrestricted, simple random sample is the purest form of probability sampling. An example of random sampling used in the text is random dialing. With this approach each number in the sample frame (numbers) has an equal chance of being selected.

29. Some of the problems associated with simple random sampling are as follows:

It requires a population list (sampling frame) that is often not available.

It fails to use all the information about a population, thus resulting in a design that may be wasteful.

It may be expensive to implement, in terms of time and money. 30. The complex sampling methodologies mentioned in the text are as follows:

Systematic

Stratified

Cluster

Double 31. In the systematic sampling approach, every kth element in the population is sampled,

beginning with a random start of an element in the range of 1 to k. The kth element, or skip interval, is determined by dividing the sample size into the population size to obtain the skip pattern applied to the sampling frame.

32. A monotonic trend is a trend that follows the order of the list of elements. For example,

the population may vary from the smallest to the largest element, or vice versa according to the list. The example in the text uses a list of banks – Assume that a list of 2,000 commercial banks is created, arrayed from the largest to the smallest, from which a sample of 50 must be drawn for analysis. A skip interval of 40 beginning with a random start at 16 would exclude the 15 largest banks and give a small-size bias to the findings.

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33. Like monotonicity, periodicity involves an error caused by the sampling process. Unlike monotonicity, which is an error in the whole list, periodicity involves regular patterns within the list. An example used in the text involves sampling restaurant sales. In sampling restaurant sales of dessert by drawing days of the year, a skip interval of seven would bias results, no matter which day provides the random start.

34. Stratified random sampling involves the process of segregating the population into strata

and randomly sampling from each stratum. There are two separate approaches to this type of sampling. The first is proportionate stratified sampling. In proportionate stratified sampling, each stratum is properly represented so that the sample size drawn from the stratum is proportionate to the stratum’s share of the total population. Of course, in disproportionate random sampling the portion samples are not the same as they are in the population.

35. Cluster sampling is the process of dividing the population into groups or clusters then

sampling those groups. There are two general reasons for using a cluster sample methodology. The first is the need for more economic efficiency than can be provided by simple random sampling. The second is the frequent unavailability of a practical sampling frame for individual elements.

36. Area sampling is a type of cluster sampling that is applied to a population with well-

defined political or natural boundaries. The clusters are developed along some physical lines.

37. Double sampling is the process of collecting some information from a sample then using

that information as the basis for selecting a sub-sample for further study. Double sampling is also known as sequential sampling, or multiphase sampling.

38. A convenience sample is any sample collected using any unrestricted nonprobability

sampling methodology. 39. Purposive sampling is a nonprobability sampling methodology that conforms to certain

criteria. There are two major types – judgment sampling and quota sampling. Judgment sampling occurs when a researcher selects sample members to conform to some criterion. Quota sampling is the process of using relevant characteristics to stratify a sample. It is used to improve representativeness. The logic behind quota sampling is that certain relevant characteristics describe the dimensions of the population.

40. Snowball sampling involved an initial stage of, perhaps, random sampling to identify a

specific population. Then those identified are asked to identify others in the population. This design has found a niche in recent years in applications where respondents are difficult to identify and are best located through referral networks.

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LESSON 17


COURSE 653

LESSON TOPIC:





NOTE: This lesson is weighted as 5% of the total course grade.

This lesson allows you to elaborate on the work you did in Lesson 12. Using the research proposal you developed in Lesson 12 as a foundation, choose a sampling methodology that compliments your original proposal. Do not include specific questions in your proposal. Use the structure illustrated below. The proposal will be evaluated using, in part, your use of the methodologies described in the text. Restate the Proposition or a Hypothesis developed in Lesson 12

~ From the example in Lesson 12: “banana quality is falling” Restate the variables in the study

~ From the example above, the dependent variable is banana quality and the independent variable is time

Define the population and the population parameters that will be examined in the research.

~ The population is the banana crop ~ The parameter to be estimated is banana quality

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Choose and defend the type of sampling you will be using. Be sure to note whether or not the sample will be probabilistic. Probabilistic

− Simple Random − Systematic − Stratified − Cluster − Double

Non-probabilistic

− Convenience − Purposive − Snowball

~ Probabilistic: ~ Systematic sampling will be used. This is the best methodology considering the large number of bananas to be evaluated. The risk of periodicity will be minimized by insuring that the sample will contain bananas from across the whole plantation. The comparison sample will also be selected using a systematic approach to insure that all bananas in the freezer have an equal chance of being selected for the study.

Generally describe and defend the type of instrument you will be using to analyze the sample collected (questionnaire, interview, etc…)

~ Petrina and Horace, from the accounting department will evaluate the bananas. They both love bananas and have a keen sensibility for their quality.

Describe the type of data that will be collected (nominal, ordinal, interval or ratio). Explain why the measurement used is valid, reliable and practical.

~ Petrina and Horace will rate the bananas chosen for the sample on a scale from 1 to 5. The data collected will be ordinal. Using Petrina and Horace is valid because they both have a keen sensibility for the quality of bananas. Each of them has a broad experience in tasting bananas. They are capable of discerning many gradations of banana quality. They are reliable because they are both accounting professionals and can be trusted to accurately and precisely rate each banana they taste. Using Petrina and Horace is practical because their office is next to the warehouse where all the bananas are stored.

Explain how the data collected will provide the data necessary to support or negate the hypothesis or proposition

~ Petrina and Horace will rate the bananas chosen for the sample. Of course, they will not be told which group the bananas come from. The ratings will be averaged for each year’s production and the average ratings will be compared. If the average rating for last year’s crop is more than 20% higher than the average rating for this year’s crop, this year’s crop will be judged to be worse than last year’s crop.

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LESSON 18



Data Preparation and Description in General Qualitative and Quantitative Terms LESSON OBJECTIVES:


Explain the importance of editing the collected raw data to detect errors and

omissions.

Describe how coding is used to assign numbers and other symbols to answers and to categorize responses.

Explain the use of content analysis to interpret and summarize open questions.

Illustrate the problems with and solutions for “don’t know” responses and missing

data.

Describe the options for, and some of the methodology of, data entry and manipulation.

Review the basic statistical descriptors.

LESSON ASSIGNMENT:

Business Research Methods, Twelfth Edition Chapter 15, “Data Preparation and Description”

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LESSON 18 NOTE: The following exercises are study aids designed to help you prepare for the subject exam. Write your answers in the space provided after each exercise. Use the blank page to record other notes on the text content. Immediately check your answers with the key at the end of the guide. Do not submit your answers to AGU for grading. Question 1: What activities are associated with data preparation? Question 2: What are the goals associated with editing raw data? Question 3: What is field editing and when would it be useful? Question 4: Does a field editor ever contact participants? Question 5: What is central editing and what are the guidelines that an editor should use? Question 6: What is coding? Question 7: How are categories used in coding and what is the main problem with

categorization?

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Question 8: What is a codebook and how is a codebook used? Question 9: What are the factors that should limit the categories within a single variable? Question 10: How is the appropriateness of a given category judged? Question 11: How do researchers insure that the choices for a given measurement question are

exhaustive? Question 12: Why is it important for a category set to be one dimensional? Question 13: What type of analysis measures the semantic content or the “what” aspect of a

message? Question 14: What are the four types of data units analyzed with content analysis? Question 15: Is content analysis qualitative or quantitative analysis?

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Question 16: Is triangulation used in content analysis? Question 17: Briefly describe syntactical units. Question 18: Briefly describe referential units. Question 19: Briefly describe propositional units. Question 20: Briefly describe thematic units. Question 21: What are the three strategies used by computer software to extract meaning from

responses to open ended questions? Question 22: When does the “don’t know” response become a major problem in data

preparation and analysis? Question 23: What are the two categories that most of the “don’t know” responses fall into?

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Question 24: What is the best way to deal with “don’t know” (DK) answers? Question 25: What are some of the analytical techniques used for dealing with DK answers? Question 26: What are the common reasons for missing data in survey studies, longitudinal

studies and elsewhere? Question 27: What do the initials MCAR, MAR and NMAR stand for? Question 28: Briefly describe MCAR, MAR and NMAR. Question 29: How can data “missing at random” have a relationship with data in the study that

is not random? Question 30: What are the three common types of techniques used in dealing with missing

data? Question 31: What is a database?

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SUBJECT EXAMINATION



Student Services at [email protected]. MULTIPLE CHOICE: Question 1: All of the following activities except __________ are included in the data

preparation process.

(a) Editing (b) Coding (c) Data entry (d) Descriptive statistical summary (e) Evaluating reliability estimates

Question 2: The process of ensuring the accuracy of data and their conversion from raw form

into classified forms appropriate for analysis is called:

(a) Coding (b) Data entry (c) Data preparation (d) Data measurement (e) Quality control

Question 3: Field editing is necessary to:

(a) Send data back to the analysis team each day (b) Elaborate on abbreviations commonly used during field work (c) Validate that interviews took place (d) Screen for qualified respondents (e) All of the above

Question 4: __________ involves assigning numbers or other symbols to answers so that the

responses can be grouped into a limited number of categories.

(a) Editing (b) Data entry (c) Coding (d) Measurement (e) Operationalization

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Question 5: Which type of variable is coded using a 0 for one response and a 1 for the other?

(a) Nonmetric (b) Ordinal (c) Interval (d) Numeric/dummy (e) Ratio

Question 6: A codebook generally contains all of the following information except:

(a) Question number (b) Record number (c) Descriptors for response options (d) Location of variable’s code (e) Variable name

Question 7: Closed questions are favored over open-ended questions by researchers for all of

the following reasons except:

(a) Ease of coding (b) Ease of recording (c) Ease of analysis (d) Insight provided (e) Efficiency

Question 8: Which of the following guidelines must be followed in the development and use

of coding rules?

(a) Categories within a single variable must be appropriate (b) Categories within a single variable must be exhaustive (c) Categories within a single variable must be mutually exclusive (d) Categories must be derived from one classification principle or single

dimension (e) All of the above

Question 9: Which term below refers to an analytical process for measuring the semantic

content of a communication?

(a) ANOVA (b) Regression (c) Content analysis (d) Factor analysis (e) Reliability analysis

Question 10: All of the following techniques are used in content analysis software except:

(a) Stemming (b) Aliasing (c) Exclusion (d) Triangulation (e) All of the above are used with content analysis

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Use the following information to answer Questions 11 through 15. An advertisement for the drug, PLAVIX, states the following: “‘if you’ve been hospitalized for heart-related chest pain or a certain type of heart attack.’ Doctors call these conditions ACS, or Acute Coronary Syndrome. You can do more to help protect yourself against a future heart attack or stroke – ask your doctor about adding PLAVIX. For most, heart attack or stroke is caused when platelets form clots that block the flow of blood to the heart or brain. Think aspirin and other heart medications alone are enough? Adding PLAVIX could help protect you against a future heart attack or stroke. PLAVIX, added to aspirin and your current treatment, helps raise your protection against a future heart attack or stroke. Prescription PLAVIX and your other medications work in different ways. Adding PLAVIX can go beyond your current treatment. PLAVIX, taken with aspirin, plays its own role in keeping platelets from sticking together and forming clots – which helps keep blood flowing. Talk to your doctor about PLAVIX.” Question 11: If we were to conduct a content analysis of the PLAVIX advertisement, platelets

would be considered __________ units.

(a) Syntactical (b) Referential (c) Propositional (d) Thematic (e) Semiotic

Question 12: In a content analysis of the PLAVIX advertisement, the words “adding” or

“added” are used four times and the phrase “heart attack” is used five times. These are __________ units in our analysis.


Question 13: In the PLAVIX advertisement, the claim that adding PLAVIX to aspirin helps

raise a person’s protection against future heart attack is a __________ unit, because it makes an assertion about the benefits of aspirin alone.


Question 14: The broad topic of “protection” featured in the PLAVIX advertisement is a

__________ unit.


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Question 15: If we were using content analysis software to analyze the PLAVIX advertisement, which of the following words would require the use of stemming?

(a) Protect (b) Help (c) Aspirin (d) Form (e) Heart attack

Question 16: Which of the following groups of words indicates a series of words for which

aliasing would be used in the analysis?

(a) Be, is, of, the (b) Pretty, beautiful, attractive (c) Search, searching, searches, searched (d) Going, walking, running, flying (e) All of the above

Question 17: Which of the following groups of words indicates a series of words for which

stemming would be used in the analysis?

(a) Be, is, of, the (b) Pretty, beautiful, attractive (c) Search, searching, searches, searched (d) Going, walking, running, flying (e) All of the above

Question 18: Which of the following is an accurate interpretation for a “don’t know” (DK)

response from the respondent?

(a) It isn’t important enough to answer (b) I don’t know (c) I don’t want to answer that question (d) I’m too ambivalent to figure out the best answer (e) All of the above

Question 19: Which number below is frequently used to code DK or missing-value responses?

(a) 0 (b) 9 (c) 11 (d) 100 (e) Missing responses are not coded

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Question 20: Which missing data technique is most appropriate when missing data are considered MCAR?

(a) Pair-wise deletion (b) Replacement (c) Listwise deletion (d) Minimized deletion (e) Weighting

Question 21: With the __________ method, missing values are estimated using all cases that

had data for each variable in the analysis.

(a) Pair-wise deletion (b) Replacement (c) Listwise deletion (d) Minimized deletion (e) Case-specific deletion

Question 22: A collection of data organized for computerized retrieval is called a:

(a) Data mine (b) Data field (c) Database (d) Data code (e) Computer recognition retrieval system

Question 23: Which data entry technique uses a software program to transfer printed text into a

computer file for editing?

(a) Data mining (b) Optical character recognition (c) Keyboarding (d) Transcripting (e) Voice recognition

Question 24: Which of the following statements is not true of the mode?

(a) The mode is the most frequently occurring value (b) There may be more than one mode in a distribution (c) Distributions may not be multimodal (d) Some distributions have no mode (e) The mode is most appropriate for nominal data

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Use the following information to answer Questions 25 through 28. Consider the following array of numbers: 5 6 7 7 7 8 8 9 9 9 10 15 19 20 21 Question 25: In the array provided, what is the mean?

(a) 7 (b) 9 (c) 10 (d) 15 (e) Both (a) and (b)

Question 26: In the array provided, what is the mode?

(a) 7 (b) 9 (c) 10 (d) 15 (e) Both (a) and (b)

Question 27: What is the range for the array provided?

(a) 5 (b) 7 (c) 9 (d) 10 (e) 16

Question 28: In the array provided, what is the median?

(a) 7 (b) 9 (c) 10 (d) 15 (e) Both (a) and (b)

Use the following information to answer Questions 29 through 31. Consider the following survey question and response categories: Where do you like to go on vacations? Check all that apply. The response options are 1) beach, 2) spa, 3) adventure, 4) big city, 5) foreign travel, 6) cruise. Question 29: For the vacation survey, how many variables would be represented in the

codebook with this question?

(a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) 4 (e) 6

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Question 30: Which of the following code descriptions is most appropriate for coding responses to the vacation survey?

(a) 1 = beach, 2 = spa, 3 = adventure, 4 = big city, 5 = foreign travel, 6 = cruise (b) 1 = beach only, 2 = beach and spa, 3 = beach, spa, and adventure, 4 = beach,

spa, adventure, and big city, 5 = beach, spa, adventure, big city, and foreign travel, 6 = all of the above

(c) 1 = one item checked, 2 = two items checked, 3 = three items checked, 4 = four items checked, 5 = five items checked, 6 = six items checked

(d) 1 = yes, 0 = no for each variable (e) None of the above are correct

Question 31: What type of data results from the vacation question?

(a) Interval (b) Nominal (c) Ordinal (d) Ratio (e) Classification

Use the following information to answer Questions 32 through 34. On a survey of how students spend their time, one question asks, "Which of the following best describes your employment status?" The response options provided are 1) not employed, 2) employed part-time, 3) employed full-time, 4) full-time student, and 5) other. Question 32: Which of the following code descriptions is most appropriate for the employment

status question?

(a) 1 = not employed, 2 = employed part-time, 3 = employed full-time, 4 = full-time student, 5 = other, 9 = missing

(b) 1 = checked, 0 = not checked (c) 1 = not employed, full-time student, 2 = employed full-time, 3 = employed

part-time, full-time student, 4 = not employed, other, 5 = other (d) All of the above are correct (e) None of the above are correct

Question 33: In the example, which of the following characteristics of coding rules did the

researcher fail to address adequately?

(a) Appropriate categories (b) Exhaustive options (c) Mutual exclusivity (d) Single dimension (e) Closed-ended

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Question 34: In the example, employment levels and student status are both included as response options. This indicates that the requirement for categories to be __________ may be in violation.

(a) Appropriate (b) Exhaustive (c) Mutual exclusivity (d) Single dimension (e) Numeric

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ANSWERS TO LESSON REVIEW EXERCISES 1. The activities associated with data preparation are as follows:

Editing

Coding

Data entry

Rudimentary frequency and distribution analysis 2. The editor’s goal is to guarantee that data are:

Accurate

Consistent with the intent of the question and other information in the survey

Uniformly entered

Complete

Arranged to simplify coding and tabulation 3. Field editing, generally the responsibility of the field supervisor, is the process of

translating the ad hoc abbreviations and special symbols used by the researchers in interviews into codes applicable to the study at hand. A second important control function is to validate the field the results gathered. It is most useful soon after the interview, experiment, or observation.

4. Yes, when entry gaps are present from interviews, a callback or repeat visit should be

made rather than guessing what the respondent “probably would have said” or to verify that they have participated and that the interviewer performed adequately.

5. Central editing is the process of reviewing the data separately for obvious errors or

inconsistencies. Occasionally an editor may clarify data that was misplaced or that can be gathered from surrounding data. The guidelines editors should follow are as follows:

Be familiar with instructions given to interviewers and coders.

Do not destroy, erase, or make illegible the original entry by the interviewer.

Make all editing entries on an instrument in some distinctive color and in a standardized form.

Initial all answers changed or supplied.

Place initials and date of editing on each instrument completed. 6. Coding is the process of assigning numbers or other symbols to answers so that the

responses can be grouped into a limited number of categories. 7. Categories are the partitions of a data set of a given variable. Categorization is the

process of using rules to partition a body of data. Categorization of data sacrifices some data detail but is necessary for efficient analysis.

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8. A codebook, or coding scheme, contains each variable in the study and specifies the application of coding rules to the variable. It provides instructions for coding. It is used by the researcher or research staff to promote more accurate and more efficient data entry. It is the definitive source for locating the positions of variables in the data file during analysis.

9. The factors that should limit the categories within a single variable are as follows:

Appropriate to the research problem and purpose

Exhaustive

Mutually exclusive

Derived from one classification principle 10. The appropriateness of a given category is determined at two levels; the first level is that

the best partitioning of the data for testing hypotheses and showing relationships should be maintained. The second level is the availability of comparison data.

11. Researchers often add an “other” option to a measurement question to insure that the

choices in a given measurement question are exhaustive. 12. It is important for a category set to follow a single classificatory principle or dimension

so that each option in the category set is defined in terms of one concept or construct. That is, it is important to limit the choices to a single principle. For example, when asking for a fruit preference, it is important to limit the choices to fruit and not include broccoli, eggs or biscuits.

13. Content analysis measures the semantic content or the “what” aspect of a message.

Content analysis follows a systematic process for coding and drawing inferences from texts or interviews.

14. The four types of data units analyzed with content analysis are as follows:

Syntactical

Referential

Propositional

Thematic 15. All content analysis is fundamentally qualitative. Typically qualitative analysis results in

nominal data. Please review the notes on qualitative analysis that appear in chapter eight. 16. Yes, triangulation is a methodology used in content analysis. 17. Syntactical units can be words, phrases, sentences, or paragraphs; words are the smallest

and most reliable data units to analyze.

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18. Referential units are described by words, phrases, and sentences; they may be objects, events, persons, and so forth, to which a verbal or textual expression refers.

19. Propositional units are assertions about an object, event, person, and so on. 20. Thematic units are topics contained within (and across) texts; they represent higher-level

abstractions inferred from the text and its context. 21. Content analysis software applies statistical algorithms to open-ended question responses.

The three strategies mentioned in the text for computational analysis of text are stemming, aliasing, and the exclusion processes. Stemming uses derivations of common root words to create aliases (e.g., using searching, searches, searched, or search). Aliasing searches for synonyms (wise or smart for intelligent). Exclusion filters out trivial words (be, is, the, of) in the search for meaning.

22. The “don’t know” response becomes a major problem in data preparation and analysis

when it is the most common or a very common response to any or all of the measurement questions in a survey.

23. Most “don’t know” answers fall into two categories. The first category is the legitimate

“don’t know” responses, when the respondent does not know the answer. The second category represents a failure to get the appropriate information because of poor question design or methodology.

24. The best way to deal with “don’t know” answers is to pretest the measurement questions

sufficiently so that flaws in the design or methodology will be revealed and resolved before the “don’t know” answer becomes a measurement problem.

25. One method is to estimate the allocation of DK answers from other data in the

questionnaire; the pattern of responses may parallel some other statistic in the sample like income, height, age etc…. When it is not clear how to treat the DK response, it should be kept as a separate reporting category so the research sponsor or designer can determine how the data will be treated.

26. In survey studies, missing data typically occur when participants accidentally skip, refuse

to answer, or do not know the answer to an item on the questionnaire. In longitudinal studies, missing data may result from participants dropping out of the study, or being absent for one or more data collection periods. Missing data also occur due to researcher error, corrupted data files, and changes in the research or instrument design after data were collected from some participants, such as when variables are dropped or added (design error).

27. The initials MCAR, MAR and NMAR stand for: data missing completely at random

(MCAR), data missing at random (MAR), and data not missing at random (NMAR). 28. Data are MCAR if the probability of “missingness” for a particular variable is dependent

on neither the variable itself nor any other variable in the data set. Data are MAR if the probability of “missingness” for a particular variable is dependent on another variable,

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but not itself, when other variables are held constant. NMAR occurs when data are not missing completely at random and are not predictable from other variables in the data set. Data NMAR are non-ignorable and must be treated on an improvised basis.

29. The notion of “missing at random” revolves around the idea that some random variable is

being expressed in the “missingness” of the variable but the researcher is unable to qualify the relationship. For example, survey on favorite fruit included melons, bananas and tomatoes. The answer to this question is frequently left blank. The researcher notices that the missing data is concentrated in the surveys collected in the morning and there is no missing data in surveys collected in the afternoon. There is a pattern of “missingness” but it is a random pattern as there is no way to account for the “missingness.” What the researcher can’t know is that the economics students who arrive late in the morning do not know that tomatoes are fruit while the botany students, who leave in the early afternoon, are uniformly aware of the fact that tomatoes are fruit.

30. The three basic types of techniques that can be used to salvage data sets with missing data

are as follows:

Listwise deletion, or complete case analysis, is perhaps the simplest approach, and is the default option in most statistical packages like SPSS and SAS. No bias will be introduced because the sub-sample of complete cases is essentially a random sample of the original sample.

Pairwise deletion, also called available case analysis, assumes that data are MCAR. Missing values are estimated using all cases that had data for each variable, or pair of variables, in the analysis.

The replacement of missing values with estimated values. This option assumes that data are MAR, because the missing values on one variable are predicted from observed values on another variable.

31. A database is a collection of data organized for computerized retrieval.

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LESSON 19



Methodologies in Exploring, Displaying and Examining Data LESSON OBJECTIVES:


Describe how exploratory data analysis techniques provide insights through the use of

visual representations of data.

Explain how the use of visual representations of data can illustrate problems with collected data.

Illustrate how cross-tabulation is used to examine relationships involving categorical

variables.

Explain how contingency tables are related to cross-tabulation tables and how contingency tables serve as a framework for statistical testing.

Describe how percentages should be used and how they are often abused.

LESSON ASSIGNMENT:

Business Research Methods, Twelfth Edition Chapter 16, “Exploring, Displaying, and Examining Data”

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LESSON 19 NOTE: The following exercises are study aids designed to help you prepare for the subject exam. Write your answers in the space provided after each exercise. Use the blank page to record other notes on the text content. Immediately check your answers with the key at the end of the guide. Do not submit your answers to AGU for grading. Question 1: What is exploratory data analysis? Question 2: What is confirmatory data analysis? Question 3: What is one of the major advantages of exploratory data analysis? Question 4: What is a frequency table? Question 5: What is a histogram, how is it used and what questions does it address? Question 6: When is a histogram, pie chart or frequency table not useful for the display of

data? Question 7: What is a stem-and-leaf display? What advantages does a stem-and-leaf display

have over a histogram?

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Question 8: What is a Pareto diagram? Question 9: What is a boxplot? Question 10: What is the five-number summary? Question 11: What is “resistance” in a statistic? Question 12: What is the interquartile range? Question 13: What is an outlier? Question 14: What is a GIS system? Question 15: What is cross-tabulation?

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Question 16: What is a marginal? Question 17: What is a contingency table? Question 18: What are the some of the main purposes that the use of percentages serves in data

presentation? Question 19: What are the common errors often seen in the use of percentages? Question 20: What is a control variable? Question 21: What is automatic interaction detection?

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SUBJECT EXAMINATION



Student Services at [email protected]. MULTIPLE CHOICE: Question 1: Visual representations of data values are consistent with which form of data

analysis?

(a) Confirmatory (b) Exploratory (c) Conclusive (d) Descriptive (e) Hypothesis-testing

Question 2: Data analysis is __________ when the analytical process is guided by classical

statistical inference in its use of significance and confidence.

(a) Exploratory (b) Confirmatory (c) Qualitative (d) Quantitative (e) Forensic

Question 3: Data analysis is __________ when patterns in the collected data guide the data

analysis or suggest revisions to the preliminary data analysis plan.

(a) Confirmatory (b) Descriptive (c) Exploratory (d) Conclusive (e) Forensic

Question 4: The primary benefit of exploratory data analysis is its ability to be:

(a) Conclusive (b) Exclusive (c) Discriminatory (d) Flexible (e) Inexpensive

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Question 5: What does not follow a rigid structure and is free to take many paths in unraveling data?

(a) Resistant statistics (b) Nonresistant statistics (c) Exploratory data analysis (d) Cross-tabulation (e) None of the above

Question 6: In a __________, category codes are ordered from lowest value to highest value

with columns for count, percent, valid percent, and cumulative percent.

(a) Boxplot (b) Histogram (c) Stem-and-leaf diagram (d) Pareto diagram (e) Frequency table

Question 7: Which type of chart uses bars to represent data values such that each value

occupies an equal amount of area within the enclosed area?

(a) Bar chart (b) Pie chart (c) Histogram (d) Stem-and-leaf display (e) Line chart

Question 8: Histograms can be used to display the __________ of a distribution.

(a) Skewness (b) Kurtosis (c) Modal pattern (d) All of the above (e) None of the above

Question 9: The horizontal axis on a histogram indicates the:

(a) Number of observations in each interval (b) Midpoint for each interval (c) Variable of interest (d) Cumulative percent (e) Valid percent

Question 10: The vertical axis on a histogram indicates the:

(a) Number of observations in each interval (b) Midpoint for each interval (c) Variable of interest (d) Cumulative percent (e) Valid percent

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Question 11: A stem-and-leaf display differs from a histogram in that a stem-and-leaf display:

(a) Presents actual data values (b) Groups values into intervals (c) Represents data using bars or asterisks (d) Illustrates each interval with a color for visualization (e) Is appropriate for nominal data

Question 12: What information is presented in a stem-and-leaf display?

(a) Percent (b) Actual values (c) Valid percent (d) Cumulative percent (e) Value labels

Question 13: In a stem-and-leaf display, each piece of information on the stem is called a:

(a) Leaf (b) Stem (c) Trunk (d) Flower (e) Root

Question 14: Which of the following display choices is most similar to the histogram?

(a) Bar chart (b) Pie chart (c) Boxplot (d) Stem-and-leaf display (e) Line graph

Question 15: Consider the following array of values found in a stem-and-leaf display: 5 | 4 6 7

8 8 9 9 9 9. Which of the following statements best reflects the meaning of this line?

(a) There are nine items in the data set whose first digit is five (b) The numbers in the data set range from 4 to 9 (c) The variance in the data set is 5 (d) The mean of the data set is 5 (e) The values in the display are 95, 85, 75, 65, and 45; 95 appears four times

and 85 appears twice

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Question 16: All of the following are sources of data that can be used in a Pareto diagram except:

(a) Multiple-choice-single-response scales (b) Multiple-choice-multiple-response scales (c) Frequency counts of words (d) Dichotomous scales (e) None of the above are sources of data used in Pareto diagrams

Question 17: Which type of display represents frequency data as a bar chart, ordered from most

to least, overlayed with a line graph denoting the cumulative percentage at each variable level?

(a) Stem-and-leaf display (b) Histogram (c) Pareto diagram (d) Pie chart (e) Line graph

Question 18: Which of the following best explains the meaning of the 80/20 rule?

(a) 80% of quality defects are caused by 20% of problems (b) An 80% improvement in performance can be expected by eliminating 20%

of the causes of poor performance (c) 20% of sales are generated by 80% of customers (d) The benefits of performance increases accrue to 20% of people (e) All of the above are interpretations of the 80/20 rule

Question 19: Boxplots are said to incorporate resistant statistics because they:

(a) Are constructed with a five-number summary (b) Do not contain weak measures of central tendency like the median (c) Are based on a new type of dispersion statistics (d) Use whiskers to represent quartiles

Question 20: Which of the following statistics is resistant?

(a) Mean (b) Standard deviation (c) Variance (d) Median (e) All of the above

Question 21: Measures that are resistant are:

(a) Inappropriate for statistical analysis (b) Corrupted with measurement bias (c) Based on nominal scales (d) Able to resist influence of extreme values (e) Sensitive to localized data

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Question 22: A __________ reduces the detail of the stem-and-leaf display and provides a different visual image of the distribution’s location, spread, shape, and tail length.

(a) Histogram (b) Boxplot (c) Pareto diagram (d) Frequency table (e) Geographic map

Question 23: Which of the following statistics is nonresistant?

(a) Median (b) Mode (c) Range (d) Quartiles (e) Standard deviation

Question 24: All of the following are ingredients of box plots except:

(a) Rectangular plot that encompasses 50% of the data values (b) Center line marking the median (c) Jagged line marking the mean (d) Box hinges (e) Whiskers that extend from the right and left hinges to the largest and

smallest values Question 25: Which of the following is an appropriate situation for the use of mapping?

(a) Identification of competing businesses to identify location for a new store (b) Identification of the geographic location of target segments (c) Plotting the geographic rollout of a new product (d) Plot responses to promotions according to geographic location (e) All of the above

Question 26: Which of the research questions/hypotheses below is best answered using cross-

tabulations?

(a) What percentage of men and women prefer brand A over brand B? (b) What percentage of residents shop at the local grocery store? (c) Is brand loyalty related to brand image? (d) What happens to sales when prices drop? (e) Where do most of our consumers live?

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Question 27: A statistical technique that describes two or more variables simultaneously and results in tables that reflect the joint distribution of two or more variables that have a limited number of categories or distinct values is a(n):

(a) T test (b) ANOVA (c) Factor analysis (d) Cross-tabulation (e) Regression

Question 28: Marginals are the totals of row and/or column variables in a:

(a) Piechart (b) Barchart (c) Cross-classification (cross-tabulation) table (d) Frequency table

Question 29: When are cross-tabulations called contingency tables?

(a) Anytime (b) When used for statistical testing (c) When used for display purposes (d) When presented with percentages rather than raw counts (e) When used to present data

Question 30: Which of the following best expresses the value of using percentages in data

presentation?

(a) Allows for relative comparisons (b) Allows for mathematical manipulation of the values (c) Focuses on the count of cases (d) Provides for the calculation of marginals (e) All of the above

Question 31: What oversight has occurred in the following example? The price is reduced by

400% because it was $1 and is now just 25 cents.

(a) Use of too large percentages (b) Percentage decreases cannot exceed 100% (c) Use of too small a base (d) Averaging percentages (e) Percentages cannot exceed 100%

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Question 32: The data partitioning procedure that can search up to 300 variables for the single best predictor of a dependent variable is called:

(a) Cross-tabulation (b) Regression (c) Automatic interaction detection (d) Data mining (e) Factor analysis

Question 33: Cross-tabulations with more than two variables are called __________ tables.

(a) Multivariate (b) N-way (c) kth (d) CHAID (e) Nested

Question 34: The purpose of a control variable is to:

(a) Help interpret the relationship between variables (b) Control for outliers (c) Provide a comparison for the results (d) Establish precision (e) All of the above

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ANSWERS TO LESSON REVIEW EXERCISES 1. Exploratory data analysis is both a data analysis perspective and a set of techniques. In

exploratory data analysis the researcher has the flexibility to respond to the patterns revealed during preliminary analysis of the data. Thus, patterns in the collected data guide the data analysis or suggest revisions to the preliminary data analysis plan. This flexibility is an important attribute of this approach. Generally, the hypothesis or proposition is not an important factor. With this type of analysis the researcher is attempting to understand the subject and discover relationships rather than prove a hypothesized relationship.

2. Confirmatory data analysis is an analytical process guided by classical statistical

inference in its use of significance and confidence. Confirmatory analysis is used to confirm or deny a hypothesis. “Traditional” in this case is referring to hypothesis based testing. Data analysis is confirmatory when the analytical process is used to confirm or deny a relationship or premise.

3. One of the major advantages of exploratory data analysis is the emphasis on visual

representations and graphical techniques over summary statistics. Summary statistics may obscure, conceal, or even misrepresent the underlying structure of the data. When numerical summaries are used exclusively, and accepted without visual inspection, the selection of confirmatory models may be based on flawed assumptions.

4. A frequency table is a simple device for arraying data (see Exhibit 16-2 in the text). It

arrays data by assigned numerical value, with columns for percent, valid percent (percent adjusted for missing data), and cumulative percent.

5. Histograms are charts that are constructed with bars (or asterisks) that represent data

values, where each value occupies an equal amount of area within the enclosed area. Histograms are used when it is possible to group the variable’s values into intervals. Histograms are useful for the following:

Displaying all intervals in a distribution, even those without observed values Examining the shape of the distribution for skewness, kurtosis, and the modal

pattern Illustrating multiple modes Illustrating straggling data values detached from the central concentration

6. A histogram, pie chart or frequency table is not useful for the display of data when the

variable of interest is measured on an interval-ratio scale and is one with many (infinite) potential values. This is because interval-ratio scale data is not discrete. For example, measuring apples, oranges and lemons will give three distinct numbers that are easily categorized into discrete categories. This is not the case when measuring height or any continuous variable. The average height of a male in the United States is 5’9”. Depending on the accuracy of the instrument, every male in the United States may have a totally unique height. Using the height example, a histogram might be impossibly wide as the frequency of each unit decreases. In the case of a pie chart there may be a large number of slices. Also, a histogram would not be used for a nominal variable like ad recall that has no order to its categories.

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7. The stem-and-leaf display is a tree type frequency distribution for each data value, without equal interval grouping. It shares some of the histogram’s features but offers several unique advantages. They are as follows:

It is easy to construct by hand for small samples or may be produced by computer

programs.

It presents actual data values that can be inspected directly, without the use of enclosed bars or asterisks as the representation medium.

It reveals the distribution of values within the interval and preserves their rank order for finding the median, quartiles, and other summary statistics.

It also eases linking a specific observation back to the data file and to the subject that produced it.

The range of values is apparent at a glance, and both shape and spread impressions are immediate.

Patterns in the data – such as gaps where no values exist, areas where values are clustered or outlying values that differ from the main body of the data – are easily observed.

8. A Pareto diagram is a bar chart whose percentages sum to 100 percent. 9. The boxplot, or box-and-whisker plot, is another technique used frequently in exploratory

data analysis. It is a visual image of the variable’s distribution, location, spread, shape, tail length and outliers. A boxplot reduces the detail of the stem-and-leaf display and provides a different visual image of the distribution’s location, spread, shape, tail length, and outliers. Boxplots are extensions of the five-number summary of a distribution. The basic ingredients of the plot are as follows:

The rectangular plot that encompasses 50 percent of the data values.

A center line (or other notation) marking the median and going through the width of the box.

The edges of the box, called hinges.

The “whiskers” that extend from the right and left hinges to the largest and smallest values.

10. The five-number summary of a distribution consists of the median, the upper and lower

quartiles, and the largest and smallest observations. 11. Resistance is a characteristic that “provides insensitivity to localized (aberrance)

misbehavior in data.” Note: the median is resistant. For example, real estate prices are always quoted in “median” because averages are sensitive to extremes. Resistant statistics are unaffected by outliers and change only slightly in response to the replacement of small portions of the data set.

12. The interquartile range measures the distance between the first and third quartiles of a

data distribution (the mid-spread).

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13. Outliers, data points that exceed +1.5 the interquartile range, reflect unusual cases and are an important source of information for the study. They are displayed or given special statistical treatment, or other portions of the data set are sometimes shielded from their effects.

14. A GIS system is a Geographic Information System. It is software and coordinated

measuring devices used to link data sets to geographic information and data. A GIS system allows the researcher to connect target and classification variables from a survey to specific geographic-based databases, like U.S. census data, to develop a richer understanding of the sample’s attitudes and behavior.

15. Cross-tabulation is a technique for comparing data from two or more categorical

variables, such as gender and selection by one’s company for an overseas assignment. Cross-tabulation is used with demographic variables and the study’s target variables (operationalized measurement questions). The technique uses tables having rows and columns that correspond to the levels or code values of each variable’s categories. A simple example would be a table containing data of preferences for chocolate or vanilla. The rows would contain gender information and the columns would contain preference information. It is best illustrated in the text in Exhibit 16-11.

16. Marginals are the row and column totals in a cross-tabulation table. They appear at the

bottom and right “margins” of the table. They show the counts and percentages of the separate rows and columns.

17. A contingency table is a cross-tabulation table constructed for statistical testing, with the

test determining whether the classification variables are independent. A contingency table is used to summarize categorical data. It may be enhanced by including the percentages that fall into each category.

18. The two purposes that percentages serve in data presentation are: first to simplify the data

by reducing all numbers to a range from 0 to 100; and second to translate the data into standard form, with a base of 100, for relative comparisons. Percentages are useful when comparing data from two or more different distributions by normalizing the data to a comparable figure.

19. The common errors seen in the use of percentages revolve around the following:

Averaging percentages. Percentages cannot be averaged unless each is weighted by the size of the group from which it is derived.

Use of too large percentages. This often defeats the purpose of percentages, which is to simplify. A large percentage is difficult to understand. If a 1,000 percent increase is experienced, it is better to describe this as a 10-fold increase.

Using too small a base. Percentages hide the base from which they have been computed. A figure of 60 percent when contrasted with 30 percent would appear to suggest a sizable difference. Yet if there are only three cases in the one category and six in the other, the differences would not be as significant as they have been made to appear with percentages.

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Percentage decreases can never exceed 100 percent. This type of mistake occurs frequently. The higher figure should always be used as the base or denominator. For example, if a price was reduced from $1 to $.25, the decrease would be 75 percent (75/100).

20. A control variable is a variable introduced to help interpret the relationship between

variables. It is any variable apart from the independent variable that is controlled by the experimenter by being randomized, held constant, statistically controlled, or suppressed in some other way. It is an attribute used for sorting data into categories, usually for subsequent analysis or for sampling. A control variable helps to interpret the relationship between two variables.

21. Automatic interaction detection (AID) is a computerized statistical process that requires

that the researcher identify a dependent variable and a set of predictors or independent variables. Once identified, the computer searches among up to 300 variables for the best single division of the data according to each predictor variable, chooses one, and splits the sample using a statistical test to verify the appropriateness of the choice.

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LESSON 20



Hypothesis Testing LESSON OBJECTIVES:


Describe the nature and logic of hypothesis testing.

Explain what a statistically significant difference is.

Outline the six-step hypothesis testing procedure.

Describe the differences between parametric and nonparametric tests and when to use

each.

Describe the factors that influence the selection of an appropriate test of statistical significance.

Explain how to interpret the various test statistics.

LESSON ASSIGNMENT:

Business Research Methods, Twelfth Edition Chapter 17, “Hypothesis Testing”

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LESSON 20 NOTE: The following exercises are study aids designed to help you prepare for the subject exam. Write your answers in the space provided after each exercise. Use the blank page to record other notes on the text content. Immediately check your answers with the key at the end of the guide. Do not submit your answers to AGU for grading. For this lesson, please focus on the various types of tests and samples rather than the

mechanics of testing and the various measurement statistics. Use the lesson review exercises as a guide to focus your attention.

Question 1: What is inferential statistics and how is it different from descriptive statistics? Question 2: What is the difference between classical statistics and Bayesian statistics? Question 3: What is statistical significance and how is it different from practical significance? Question 4: What is the null hypothesis and what is the alternative hypothesis? Question 5: What is the difference between a one-tailed test and a two-tailed test? Question 6: In statistical notation, why do they use Greek letters for some things while Latin

letters are used for others?

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Question 7: What are the two types of error in hypothesis testing? Question 8: What is the “power of the test measurement” and what does it mean? Question 9: What is the level of significance? Question 10: What are the six stages in statistical testing that are outlined in the text? Question 11: What is the p value, and what does it mean? Question 12: Compare and contrast parametric and nonparametric tests. Question 13: What is a normal probability plot? Question 14: What are the three questions one must answer to select a statistical methodology

correctly?

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Question 15: What are two-independent-sample tests? What do they measure? Question 16: What are two-related-sample tests? What do they measure? Question 17: What are k-independent-sample tests? What do they measure? Question 18: What are k-related-sample tests? What do they measure? Question 19: What is analysis of variance? Question 20: What is the a priori class of tests? Question 21: What is a multiple comparison test? Question 22: What are trials? Question 23: What is the point in studying business research methods anyway?

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SUBJECT EXAMINATION



Student Services at [email protected]. MULTIPLE CHOICE: Question 1: __________ statistics considers subjective probability estimates while

__________ statistics considers only objective estimates.

(a) Classical, Bayesian (b) Inductive, deductive (c) Bayesian, classical (d) Descriptive, exploratory (e) Exploratory, descriptive

Question 2: If a difference is not caused only by random sampling fluctuations, it is said to

have:

(a) Resistance (b) Statistical significance (c) Substantive significance (d) Reasonable doubt (e) Practical significance

Question 3: Which of the following hypotheses is an alternative hypothesis?

(a) There is no relationship between grade point average and drinking behavior among college students

(b) Seniors are no more likely than freshmen to binge drink (c) Men are more likely to binge drink than women (d) Athletes and non-athletes are equally likely to binge drink (e) There is no difference in alcohol consumption among beer drinkers and

wine drinkers Question 4: The hypothesis that men and women use the Internet approximately the same

number of hours per week is a __________ hypothesis.

(a) Null (b) One-tailed test (c) Two-tailed test (d) Test of proportions (e) Test of means

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Question 5: The hypothesis that the number of hours worked is related to student grade point average is a __________ hypothesis.

(a) Null (b) One-tailed test (c) Two-tailed test (d) Test of proportions (e) Test of means

Question 6: What type of hypothesis states that a sample statistic is either greater than or less

than the population parameter?

(a) Null (b) One-tailed (c) Two-tailed (d) Three-tailed (e) None of the above

Question 7: Which of the following hypotheses is a null hypothesis?

(a) There is no difference in the monthly grocery bills of families with one child and families with two children

(b) Grocery bills vary according to the number of meals eaten outside the home (c) Families with two children have significantly higher grocery bills than

families with just one child (d) There is a relationship between grocery bills and the number of people in a

household (e) The mean age in a household is predictive of the amount of money spent on

food each month Question 8: Which of the following hypotheses is a two-tailed test?

(a) Hamburger consumption differs among men and women (b) Men consume more hamburgers than women (c) Women are more concerned with the health consequences associated with

eating hamburgers than are men (d) There is no difference in hamburger consumption among men and women (e) All of the above are two-tailed tests

Question 9: Which of the following statements is not correct about the alternative hypothesis?

(a) It may be directional or nondirectional (b) The alternative hypothesis represents the conclusion for which evidence is

sought (c) The alternative hypothesis is the opposite of the null hypothesis (d) It is always the hypothesis tested (e) None of the statements are correct

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Question 10: What type of hypothesis states that the sample statistic is not the same as the population statistic but is either greater than or less than, but not both?

(a) Null (b) One-tailed (c) Two-tailed (d) Three-tailed (e) None of the above

Question 11: Which of the following hypotheses is a one-tailed test?

(a) Hybrid cars get better gas mileage than traditional cars (b) There is a difference in the gas mileage of cars and trucks (c) There is no difference in gas mileage among two-door and four-door

vehicles (d) There is a relationship between the number of miles to one’s job and the gas

mileage associated with his or her chosen car (e) All of the above are one-tailed tests

Question 12: Which of the following outcomes is roughly the equivalent of committing a type I

error?

(a) Finding a guilty person guilty (b) Finding a guilty person not guilty (c) Finding an innocent person not guilty (d) Finding an innocent person guilty (e) None of the above

Question 13: Also known as beta error, __________ occurs when the sample results lead to the

nonrejection of a null hypothesis that is in fact false.

(a) Type I error (b) Two-tailed error (c) Type II error (d) One-tailed error (e) Single-tailed error

Question 14: Which type of error is also known as alpha (α)?

(a) Type I error (b) Type II error (c) Beta error (d) Standard error (e) Demand error

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Question 15: __________ occurs when the sample results lead to the rejection of a null hypothesis that is in fact true.

(a) Type I error (b) Two-tailed error (c) Type II error (d) One-tailed error (e) Parametric significance

Question 16: As one increases the significance level (α) accepted for hypothesis testing, the

probability of committing a type II error:

(a) Increases (b) Decreases (c) Stays the same (d) Is rejected (e) Is accepted

Question 17: The __________ is the probability of rejecting the null hypothesis when it is in

fact false, and should be rejected.

(a) Type I error (b) Level of significance (c) Type II error (d) Power of a test (e) Z score

Question 18: Statisticians recommend that the power of a test equal __________, that is, the

probability that one will correctly reject a false null hypothesis.

(a) 5% (b) 10% (c) 50% (d) 80% (e) 95%

Question 19: A researcher should consider answers to all of the following questions except

__________ when selecting a particular test of significance.

(a) How sample is drawn (b) Nature of population (c) Power efficiency of test (d) Level of significance (e) Type of measurement scale used

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Question 20: The most common level of significance used in hypothesis testing is:

(a) .05 (b) .10 (c) .25 (d) .90 (e) .95

Question 21: The probability of observing a sample value as extreme as, or more extreme than,

the value actually observed, given that the null hypothesis is true is called the:

(a) Level of significance (b) Critical value (c) t statistic (d) p value (e) alpha

Question 22: Under which of the following conditions must the null hypothesis be rejected?

(a) p value < α (b) p value > α (c) p value = α (d) p value cannot be determined (e) p value is unrelated to hypothesis testing

Question 23: The level of significance chosen for hypothesis testing is based on:

(a) The desired level of confidence one wishes to have in the results (b) The desired degree of precision (c) How much risk of a type I error one is willing to accept (d) The statistical test used (e) Whether the sample is a probability sample

Question 24: The null hypothesis is typically rejected when:

(a) The calculated value is smaller than the critical value (b) The critical value is smaller than the calculated value (c) The level of significance chosen is .05 (d) A chi-square statistic is computed (e) The Z score approaches 1

Question 25: How can a researcher determine whether data meet the assumption of normality

necessary for using parametric tests?

(a) Assess the level of significance (b) Determine the probability of making a type II error (c) Determine the probability of making a type I error (d) Examine a normal probability plot (e) Examine whether the distribution is bimodal or multimodal

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Question 26: __________ tests are hypothesis testing procedures that assume that the variables are measured on a nominal or ordinal scale.

(a) Parameter (b) Parametric (c) Nonparametric (d) Resistant (e) Type I

Question 27: __________ tests are hypothesis testing procedures that assume that the variables

of interest are measured on at least an interval scale.

(a) Parameter (b) Parametric (c) Nonparametric (d) Significance (e) Metric

Question 28: Which statement is not true concerning the t distribution?

(a) Compared to the normal distribution, the t distribution has more area in the tails and less in the center

(b) As the number of degrees of freedom increases, the t distribution approaches the normal distribution

(c) The t distributions are skewed to the left (d) The population variance is unknown and is estimated by the sample variance

s2 (e) As the sample size increases beyond 120, the t and Z distributions are

indistinguishable Question 29: When sample sizes exceed __________, the t and Z distributions are virtually

identical.

(a) 120 (b) 300 (c) 500 (d) 1000 (e) The t and Z distributions will never be identical

Question 30: Which of the following involves a test of two-independent samples?

(a) Test of differences in the percent of men and women who are or are not members of Greek organizations on campus

(b) Test of the average incomes of subscribers of Southern Living and Better Homes and Gardens

(c) Test of whether the mean salary of professors at Metro University is higher than the national average for university professors

(d) Test of whether a change occurred in the proneness for heart disease among people who switched to a diet high in fish

(e) Test of differences in ad recall among three experimental groups (each of which saw a different advertisement) and a control group

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Question 31: Which of the following involves a test of two-related samples?






Question 32: Which of the following involves a test of k-independent-samples?






Question 33: ANOVA can be used as a parametric test of:

(a) One sample (b) Two-related samples (c) Two-unrelated samples (d) k-independent samples (e) All of the above

Question 34: Which of the following is not true of the Kruskal-Wallis test?

(a) It is a one-way analysis of variance by ranks (b) It assumes random selection (c) It assumes a continuous distribution (d) It is used with two-related samples (e) All of the above are true

Question 35: Repeated measures taken from the same participant are called:

(a) Examinations (b) Related samples (c) Time series data (d) Trials (e) n-way tests

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ANSWERS TO LESSON REVIEW EXERCISES 1. Inferential statistics are statistics which permit the researcher to demonstrate the

probability that the results deriving from a sample are likely to be found in the population from which the sample has been drawn. They therefore allow researchers to generalize from representative samples, by applying “tests of significance” to patterns found in these samples, in order to determine whether these hold for populations as a whole. The other type of statistics in which researchers are interested are descriptive statistics, which summarize the patterns in the responses within a data-set, and provide information about averages, correlations, and so forth.

2. Classical statistics is an objective view of the probability in which the hypothesis is

rejected or accepted based on the sample data collected. Bayesian statistics uses subjective probability estimates based on general experience rather than on data collected. That is, Bayesian statistics use recent experience and trends to inform and bias the sample data rather than purely mathematical estimation.

3. Statistical significance is an index of how meaningful the results of a statistical

comparison are. The magnitude of difference between a sample value and its population value. The difference is statistically significant if it is unlikely to have occurred by chance. Practical significance is the level of statistical significance that is meaningful or important to the decision maker. For example the statistically significant sample mean of penguin beak length may be 52 millimeters while the population mean may be 51 millimeters. Although the sample is statistically significant it is practically insignificant. Statistical significance is concerned with whether there is truly a difference or not. Practical significance concerns whether the difference, even if it exists, is of any useful value for decision making.

4. The null hypothesis is a hypothesis of no change or no difference. More specifically, we

conclude that a population value has not changed from one time to another, or that a sample statistic does not vary significantly from an assumed population parameter. In other cases we use the null hypothesis to state that one sample distribution does not differ from another (i.e., that they both are from the same population). The alternative hypothesis holds that there is a difference between sample statistics or between a sample statistic and population parameter. The alternative hypothesis is not always tested. It is the opposite and frequently the null hypothesis is the only hypothesis of interest. You want to know what is true rather than what is not true. From the example above: the null hypothesis may be that “sun spots have no effect on beak length” while the alternative hypothesis is that “beaks are shrinking due to the sun spot activity.” Another example of a null hypothesis would be that “the defect rate in this sample of widgets is the same as the population defect rate.” The alternative would be that “the sample of widgets is not representative of the population of widgets.”

5. A two-tailed test is a significance test in which the alternative hypothesis specifies no

direction of difference from the population parameter value such as µ. Equal rejection regions are in both tails of the distribution. In a one-tailed test we specify a “less than” or “greater-than” direction to the alternative hypothesis, placing all of a rejection region in one tail, or differing amounts of rejection region in each tail.

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6. Greek letters indicate parameters, information gathered from a census – while Latin letters are used to signify estimates or statistics – information gathered from a sample. For example, is the sample mean, while µ represents the (theoretical, typically unknown) population parameter. In this case is the estimate of µ.

7. When testing a null hypothesis we have two choices: we can reject the null hypothesis, or

we can fail to reject it (loosely, we refer to this as accepting the null, but this is not technically correct). We also find that two circumstances may exist – either the null hypothesis is true or it is false. This combination of states of nature (i.e. null hypothesis is true or false) and decisions (i.e., reject or not reject the null) gives us four conditional outcomes, two of which are correct and two of which are not. Type I error is measured by alpha which we set in our hypothesis testing. It is the probability (or significance) level at which we will risk rejecting the null hypothesis. We define it by choosing some critical value beyond which the occurrence of a sample value leads us to conclude that the null hypothesis is false. Given such a critical value, we then compute the probability that we will incorrectly fail to reject the null hypothesis when it is false. This is Type II error or beta error. It is not difficult to compute this arithmetically, but it is sometimes difficult to explain conceptually. The beta error depends upon what assumptions we make as to how far the population parameter may have changed. For example, if µ was originally 50 and changes to 52 we get a different beta than if µ changes only to 51. Please see the table below.

Null hypothesis is… True False Accept the null hypothesis Correct Decision Incorrect Decision

Type II error Probability

p=1-alpha Probability p=beta

Reject null hypothesis Incorrect decision Type I error

Correct Decision

p=alpha power of test p=1-beta

8. The probability that we will incorrectly fail to reject (accept) the null hypothesis when it

is false is a Type II error or beta error. The power of the test is calculated as 1-beta and is the probability with which we will correctly reject the false null hypothesis (see Exhibit 17-3).

9. The level of significance is the probability of rejecting a true null hypothesis (accepting

the alternative incorrectly). This is the α probability level. 10. The six-stage sequence of statistical testing is as follows:

State the null hypothesis

Choose the statistical test

Select the desired level of significance

xxxx

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Compute the calculated difference value Obtain the critical test value Interpret the test

11. The p value is the probability of observing a sample value as extreme as, or more extreme

than, the value actually observed, given that the null hypothesis is true. The alpha and beta values are chosen to reflect the researcher’s tolerance for the risk of error. The p value is calculated based on actual observations. For example, the researcher might choose an α of .05. That is to say that the researcher is willing to accept the chance of 5% that (s)he is wrong. For a two tailed test the researcher is willing to accept the probability of 2.5% that (s)he will incorrectly accept the alternative hypothesis when the null is true. The null is the hypothesis that the sample mean and the population mean are the same while the alternative is that the sample mean and the population mean are different, be they penguin beaks or widget defect rates. Once the researcher determines a level of risk that (s)he is comfortable with, the p value is calculated for the sample mean. The p value is compared to the established level of risk and the hypothesis is confirmed or denied based on whether or not the p value is lower or higher than the established risk level.

12. Both parametric and nonparametric tests assume random probability sampling. Recall

also that significance testing is concerned only with possible sampling errors, and tells us nothing about the many other types of error that might exist. Nonparametric tests typically have fewer and less restrictive assumptions than parametric tests. The particular assumptions vary from test to test, but nonparametric tests are often referred to as '"distribution-free tests.” While this is an exaggeration, they usually do have few distribution requirements. Parametric tests assume that the measurement is at least interval in nature, while nonparametric testing assumes only nominal or ordinal scales depending on the test. Many parametric tests also assume the following:

Independent observations Observations from a normally distributed population Populations that have equal variances

13. A normal probability plot compares the observed values with the expected values from a

normal distribution. In the case of the penguins above, the penguins are expected to have shorter beaks due to sun spot activity. A probability plot would show the expected beak lengths and the measured beak lengths. The probability plot shows what would probably happen if the expected relationship is true alongside the values of the sample actually collected. If the expected line is different than the observed data it is likely that there is no relationship between the variables selected (beak length and sun spots).

14. The three questions are as follows:

Does the test involve one, two or k samples? (Note that k denotes any number greater than two)

If two or k samples are involved, are the individual cases independent or related? As in the penguin example above, are the samples all penguin samples or are terns or puffins included in the beak length calculations?

What is the measurement scale?

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15. The two-independent-sample tests are parametric or nonparametric tests used when the measurements are taken from two samples that are unrelated. These tests are designed to test the probability that both samples come from the same population.

16. The two-related-sample tests are parametric and nonparametric tests used when the

measurements are taken from closely matched samples or the phenomena are measured twice from the same sample. These tests assume that both samples are from the same population. They measure the probability of whether or not some population parameter has changed. For example, a hypothesis that the consumption of hard boiled eggs increases driving acuity would be tested with a two-related-sample test. First, the driving acuity of the sample would be tested. Then, the sample would be given hard boiled eggs for lunch. The sample’s driving ability would then be tested again. A two-related-sample test would be used to compare the two measurements of driving acuity. The results of the two-related-sample test would be probability figure indicating the likelihood of a relationship between hard boiled egg consumption and driving acuity.

17. Like the two-independent-sample tests, the k-independent-sample tests are parametric or

nonparametric tests used when the measurements are taken from three or more samples that are unrelated. These tests are designed to test the probability that all the samples tested come from the same population.

18. Like the two-related-sample tests the k-related-sample tests are parametric and

nonparametric tests used when the measurements are taken from closely matched samples or the phenomena are measured twice from each sample. These tests assume that all samples are from the same population. They measure the probability of whether or not some population parameter has changed. For example, as above, a hypothesis that the consumption of hard boiled eggs increases driving acuity could be tested with a k-related-sample test. First the driving acuity of the k samples would be tested. Then, each sample would be given hard boiled eggs for lunch. Then each of the k samples’ driving acuity would be tested again. A k-related-sample test would be used to compare each measurement of driving acuity. The results of the k-related-sample test would be a probability figure indicating the likelihood of a relationship between hard boiled egg consumption and driving acuity in all of the k samples.

19. Analysis of variance tests the null hypothesis that the means of several independent

populations are equal. To use this test certain conditions must be met. They are as follows:

The samples must be randomly selected from normal populations

The populations should have equal variances

The distance from one value to its groups mean should be independent of the distances of other values to that mean (independence of error). One good example of this is the weather. If it is cold outside at 10:00AM it is likely to be cold outside at 10:05AM. These samples are not sufficiently independent to provide a good sample of average temperature in February. A sample consisting of all 10:00AM temperatures in all recorded Februarys would give a better idea of the average temperature for that month than 50 samples taken on the same day.

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20. The a priori class of tests is a special class of tests used in conjunction with the F test that is specifically designed to test the hypothesis of the experiment of study. These tests are custom tests used in specialized situations and should be valued accordingly.

21. The multiple comparison tests compare pairs of means following the finding that all the

means tested did not, probably, come from the same population. That is, once the group means have been shown to be from separate populations, one may try to test the hypothesis on the various combinations of the means to discover homogeneous subsets of means that are not different from each other.

22. Trials are repeated measures taken from the same subject or participant. 23. The point of studying business research methods is to allow the student some insight into

the daily onslaught of statistical information. Equipment is tested, management practices are evaluated, communications are monitored, performance is evaluated, etc… all using statistical methodology. Often this methodology is misapplied or interpreted incorrectly. This course gives the student sufficient insight to question statistical information effectively and reject it when necessary. My favorite example of statistical nonsense is the “snapshot.” Often the premises are not clearly stated and the results are misleading at best. Review the following example and try to find the problem with the information presented.

A DIFFERENCE IN PRIORITIES

People who attend worship services every week rate the importance of some issues differently than those who don’t. A look at the percentage who said the issue was "extremely important" for their vote in November's congressional elections:

All surveyed Attend weekly Weekly, monthly Attend less often Terrorism 47% 50% 50% 44% Economy 45% 37% 48% 48% Immigration 33% 37% 34% 31% Abortion 27% 38% 24% 23% Same-sex marriage 24% 33% 25% 19%

Source: USA TODAY/Gallup Poll taken June 23-25 of 1,000 adults. Margin of error +/- 3 percentage points for entire sample, 5-7 points for subsamples.

Note that the error for the sub-samples is from 5% to 7% and that the margin of error for

the whole sample is +/- 3%. If we assume that the same-sex marriage figure is off by -3% and that the “attend less often” sample is off by +7% the table would show that the number of “attend less often” people who thought that same-sex marriage was extremely important would be 26%. That is 5% more than the minimum figure for “all surveyed” and exactly the same as the minimum figure for the “attend weekly” group. Essentially, this table shows that the public is similarly inclined regardless of their church attendance in spite of the headline.

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LESSON 21







NOTE: This lesson is weighted as 5% of the total course grade. Develop a brief research proposal based on the following scenario: ABC Shirt Corporation (ABC) produces and sells shirts throughout the United States and Canada. At a recent meeting of the board of directors of ABC two of the board members discussed changes in the level of long sleeved shirt sales in the western region. Carri Szekely, the Chair of the marketing committee, believes that growing concern over the West Nile Virus inspired an up-tick in sales of long sleeved shirts over the previous summer season. Basil Hartless, the Chair of the production committee, believes that the West Nile Virus threat is unrelated to the change in consumers’ preferences. Mr. Hartless believes that there may be some kind of shift in tastes but that it is unrelated to the West Nile Virus. The ABC board resolved to authorize Ms. Szekely to commission a study of consumer preferences for sleeve length and the relationship between those preferences to the ongoing threat of the West Nile Virus. The management dilemma in this case is that there seems to be some change in sleeve preference in the western region. Management is concerned that the shift in consumer preferences may continue and intensify if news of a fresh West Nile Virus outbreak comes during the next summer season.

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Ms. Szekely has retained your company to develop a research proposal based on the above management dilemma. In your proposal please follow the outline below and the format used in the previous application lessons. Do not list any specific questions. Do not attempt to evaluate the efficacy of mosquito repellant or sleeve length on preventing the West Nile Virus. The only question the board at ABC is concerned about is consumer preferences for sleeve length. Create a Hypothesis based on the management dilemma above. The hypothesis should be a relational hypothesis. That is, the hypothesis should describe the relationship between two variables with respect to some case; relationships are correlational or explanatory. Define the variables in the study

Independent variable Dependent variable

Choose and defend a research design. The design should complement your hypothesis. Be sure to identify which of the following you will be using and why, in your proposal.

Qualitative Research Design Observational Research Design Survey Research Design Experimental Research Design

Select a sample. Choose and defend the type of sampling you will be using. Be sure to note whether or not the sample will be probabilistic. Also, be sure to note how, why and where the sample will be collected.

Probabilistic Simple Random Systematic Stratified Cluster Double

Non-probabilistic Convenience Purposive Snowball

Describe the type of data that will be collected (nominal, ordinal, interval or ratio). Explain why the measurement used is valid, reliable and practical. Describe the Decision Rule that will confirm, deny or prove your hypothesis or proposition. Note that Ms. Szekely is eager to add a “West Nile Virus” feature to the coming summer marketing campaign while Mr. Hartless is quite sure that the current marketing strategy is fine as it is. Use your judgment and common sense to establish a decision rule that will satisfy both Ms. Szekely and Mr. Hartless.

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Both Ms. Szekely and Mr. Hartless have seen the following press release and feel that it bolsters their point of view. PRESS RELEASE Four in Ten Americans in High-Mosquito Areas Are Not Yet Taking Precautions Against West Nile/Mosquito Bites For immediate release: Thursday, July 31, 2003 BOSTON, MA — A new study, conducted by the Harvard School of Public Health Project on the Public and Biological Security shortly after this year’s first human cases of West Nile virus in the U.S., finds that nearly four in ten (38%) residents of high-mosquito areas have not yet taken any precautions against mosquito bites. These findings are similar to those found at the end of last year’s outbreak of West Nile virus. “This suggests the need for better communication by public health officials and health professionals to educate Americans on what steps they should take to protect themselves against West Nile virus,” said Robert J. Blendon, professor of Health Policy and Political Analysis at the Harvard School of Public Health. The survey also shows that nearly half (48%) of people in high-mosquito areas are concerned that they or a family member may get sick from West Nile virus in the next 12 months. These findings, based on interviews with 1,015 Americans nationwide, including 471 who said there are a lot of mosquitoes where they live, come shortly after this year’s first human case of West Nile virus in the U.S. was confirmed. So far in 2003, 44 human cases of illness from West Nile have been reported in the U.S. (as of July 30, 2003) with one confirmed death. Last year 4,156 human cases of illness from West Nile, resulting in 284 deaths, were reported nationwide. West Nile is a virus that is mainly transmitted by mosquito bites. Precautions against Mosquito Bites In high-mosquito areas, nearly four in ten (38%) residents report not having taken any precautions against mosquito bites since the beginning of June 2003. At the end of last year’s outbreak of the disease, a similar proportion (43%) reported not having taken any precautions. Given the number of cases of West Nile in 2002 and the fact that the disease has recurred in humans this year, this finding raises an important public health concern. The Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC) recommend using mosquito repellent containing DEET, but only 46% of Americans living in high-mosquito areas say they have used such a repellent (including the brands Off and Cutter) since the beginning of June. Three in ten (32%) have used a mosquito repellent containing citronella, and 13% report using some other kind of mosquito repellent.

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Fewer than half of Americans living in high-mosquito areas report that they have taken each of four other specific recommended precautions since the beginning of June. Four in ten report having removed standing water from spare tires, gutters, bird baths, kiddie pools and other places where water collects (44%) and having avoided going outdoors at the peak mosquito hours of dawn and dusk (40%). Three in ten (30%) say they have worn long-sleeve shirts and other protective clothing outdoors. Twenty percent report having replaced or repaired window screens.

Much smaller numbers report having taken other precautions, such as using a “bug zapper” in their yard (11%) or buying mosquito netting (4%). Neither precaution has been specifically recommended by the CDC.

It cannot be determined from these results whether people are taking these precautions specifically to protect against getting the West Nile virus. In high-mosquito areas, separating general precautions against mosquitoes from those aimed at dealing with a specific mosquito-borne threat is difficult. Many people living in high-mosquito areas, in order to prevent the annoyance of mosquito bites and probably aware of other dangers such as encephalitis, would take precautions in any case. [Encephalitis is a brain inflammation that can be caused by viruses, including some carried by insects.]

Not surprisingly, far fewer residents of areas where there are not very many mosquitoes report having taken precautions against bites (32%, compared with 62% in high-mosquito areas). No more than one in five took any of the individual precautions, including using mosquito repellents that contain DEET (19%).

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LESSON 22



The Creation, Types and Contents of Written Research Reports LESSON OBJECTIVES:


Explain how the quality of a presentation of research findings can have an inordinate

effect on a reader’s or a listener’s perceptions of a study’s quality.

Describe the contents, types, lengths, and technical specifications of research reports.

Explain why the writer of a research report should be guided by questions of purpose, readership, circumstances/limitations, and use.

Recognize that while some statistical data may be incorporated in text, most statistics

should be placed in tables, charts, or graphs.

LESSON ASSIGNMENT:

Business Research Methods, Twelfth Edition Chapter 19, “Presenting Insights and Findings: Written Reports”

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LESSON 22 NOTE: The following exercises are study aids designed to help you prepare for the subject exam. Write your answers in the space provided after each exercise. Use the blank page to record other notes on the text content. Immediately check your answers with the key at the end of the guide. Do not submit your answers to AGU for grading. Question 1: Why is the presentation of research results an important part of the research

process? Question 2: When are short research reports appropriate? Question 3: What are the basic components of a short research report? Question 4: What are some of the guidelines the writer of a short research report should

follow to help the reader understand the report? Question 5: What are the two types of long research reports? Question 6: Generally, what does a technical report contain? Question 7: Generally, what does a management report contain?

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Question 8: Regardless of their order, what are the general components of a long research report?

Question 9: Briefly describe the prefatory items in a long research report. Question 10: Briefly describe the items in the introduction to a long research report. Question 11: Briefly describe the items in the methodology section of a long research report. Question 12: Briefly describe the findings section in a long research report. Question 13: Briefly describe the conclusions section in a long research report. Question 14: What are the questions that should be answered before writing a research report? Question 15: What are the two types of outlines? Question 16: What is a readability index?

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SUBJECT EXAMINATION



Student Services at [email protected]. MULTIPLE CHOICE: Question 1: John must submit a progress report to his client every six weeks throughout the

research project. What type of report should John use?

(a) Formal (b) Technical (c) Short (d) Management (e) Long

Question 2: When writing for an audience of researchers, which type of report should be

used?

(a) Informal (b) Technical (c) Management (d) Informational (e) Interim

Question 3: All of the following are contained in a written research report except:

(a) Findings (b) Research objectives (c) Data analysis (d) Conclusions (e) All of the above are part of a research report

Question 4: Which of the following is among the prefatory information provided in the written

research report?

(a) Executive summary (b) Introduction (c) Limitations (d) Appendices (e) Bibliography

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Question 5: The letter of transmittal in the written research report includes a discussion of all of the following except:

(a) Scope of report (b) Authorization for the project (c) Limitations of the study (d) Recognition of the person who prepared the report (e) Purpose of the study

Question 6: Which of the following types of written reports does not require a letter of

transmittal?

(a) External report (b) Internal report (c) Technical report (d) Management report (e) Informational report

Question 7: All of the following components should be included in the title page of a written

research report except:

(a) Study variables (b) Type of relationship studied (c) Population of interest (d) Time when study was conducted (e) All of the above should be included

Question 8: How many pages are typically needed to adequately report the required

components of an executive summary?

(a) 1 page (b) 2 pages (c) 3 pages (d) 10 pages (e) It depends on the report length

Question 9: Jacob is writing a report on a correlation study of how store traffic changes based

on the weather among senior citizens in Florida. Which title below is most appropriate?

(a) An investigation into the effects of weather on store traffic among senior

citizens in Florida (b) Store traffic and weather effects (c) Driving patterns among seniors in Florida (d) The weather effect (e) State-based investigation of weather and store traffic

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Question 10: A list of tables, list of graphs, list of appendices, and list of exhibits are found in which part of the written business research report?

(a) Table of contents (b) Letter of transmittal (c) Letter of authorization (d) Executive summary (e) Introduction

Question 11: Which of the following written research reports should have a table of contents?

(a) Informational report of 5 pages (b) Letter of transmittal (c) Management report of 5 pages (d) Technical report of 10 pages (e) All reports should have a table of contents

Question 12: Which written research report section contains a clear statement of the

management question and the business research problem?

(a) Approach (b) Problem statement (c) Background (d) Statement of needs (e) Methodology

Question 13: Which section of a written technical report includes discussion of sampling

design, research design, and data collection procedures?

(a) Introduction (b) Background (c) Methodology (d) Appendix (e) Findings

Question 14: Which question below best guides what should be included in the findings section

of a written research report?

(a) Is the material important to understanding the problem and findings? (b) What statistical techniques were used to determine the findings? (c) How does the finding relate to the hypothesis? (d) Who is reading the report? (e) What are the limitations of the findings?

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Question 15: Which section of a research report is generally the longest?

(a) Introduction (b) Methodology (c) Findings (d) Conclusions (e) Appendix

Question 16: In what section of a written research report are complex tables, statistical tests,

and supporting documents placed?

(a) Introduction (b) Findings (c) Methodology (d) Recommendations (e) Appendix

Question 17: What is the first question a report writer should ask prior to writing the research

report?

(a) Who will read the report? (b) What is the purpose of this report? (c) What are the limitations of the report? (d) How will the report be used? (e) How important is the topic?

Question 18: Where are copies of materials such as the survey instrument, cover letter, and

consent forms placed in a written research report?

(a) Introduction (b) Immediately following the table of contents (c) In an appendix (d) In the methodology section (e) These are not included in a report

Question 19: Mary is developing an outline for a written research report. She is using complete

sentences to express the essential thoughts associated with each topic. What type of outline is Mary using?

(a) Topic outline (b) Bullet outline (c) Sentence outline (d) Paragraph outline (e) List outline

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Question 20: A readability analysis of a written research report scored a 10 on Gunning’s Fog Index. Which of the following statements is the best interpretation of this score?

(a) People over the age of 10 should be able to read the report comfortably (b) People with less than a 10th grade education will be comfortable reading the

report (c) A person with a 10th grade education or higher will be able to read the

report comfortably (d) 10% of the report is difficult to read (e) The report is unreadable to most people on a scale of 1 to 10

Question 21: Which of the following techniques is useful in a written report for offsetting

(clarifying) text that is difficult to understand?

(a) Use of headings (b) Use of ample white space (c) Use of visual aids (d) Use of well-known vocabulary terms (e) Use of italics

Question 22: The rate at which the printed page presents information to the reader is called:

(a) Readability (b) Speed (c) Comprehensibility (d) Pace (e) Gait

Question 23: Which of the following techniques is useful in a written report for emphasizing

important material?

(a) Use headings (b) Use ample white space (c) Use visual aids (d) Choose well-known vocabulary terms (e) Use italics

Question 24: Which of the following techniques to control pace in a written report is thought to

create a positive psychological effect on the reader?

(a) Use of headings (b) Use of ample white space (c) Use of visual aids (d) Use of well-known vocabulary terms (e) Use of italics

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Question 25: Which method for presenting statistics is most common in a written report when there are only a few statistics?

(a) Text presentation (b) Semitabular form (c) Tables (d) Graphics (e) Bullet listing

Question 26: According to a recent poll in the Prevention magazine: “Most people (56%)

reported that even though they are overweight, their doctor never discusses the role of weight in leading a healthy life. Only 14% indicated that it was not an issue because they are already in good shape.”

The Prevention magazine survey is presented using __________ to present the statistics.

(a) Text presentation (b) Semitabular form (c) Tables (d) Graphics (e) Allegory

Question 27: What should not be done when editing the final version of a written report?

(a) Simplify complex or jargon filled sentences (b) Use shorter paragraphs (c) Organize text with meaningful headings (d) Put multiple, complex charts on the same page (e) Use color consistency to enhance meaning

Question 28: Which format for presenting statistics in a written report is best for enhancing

comprehension and providing adequate information?

(a) Text presentation (b) Semitabular form (c) Tables (d) Graphics (e) Line chart

Question 29: Which format for presenting statistics in a written report is best for making

comparisons?

(a) Text presentation (b) Semitabular form (c) Tables (d) Graphics (e) Bullet listing

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Question 30: A statistical presentation technique used for time series and frequency distributions over time is called a:

(a) Boxplot (b) Bar graph (c) Pie chart (d) Line graph (e) Pareto diagram

Question 31: In a written research report, if you were restricted to the choices below, which

type of chart would be better for depicting clarity of relationship between two variables?

(a) Simple pie chart (b) Simple column chart (c) Bullet bar chart (d) Pictograph (e) None of the above

Question 32: In a written research report, if you were restricted to the choices below, which

type of chart would be better for depicting components of a whole or frequencies of a single variable?

(a) Bubble graph (b) Pie chart (c) Area chart (d) Stacked pie (e) Geographic map or chart

Question 33: What type of chart uses symbols or images rather than bars to represent frequency

data?

(a) Line graph (b) Pie chart (c) Area chart (d) Pictograph (e) Map

Question 34: Which of the following graph or chart types offer a danger of obscuring rather

than clarifying data?

(a) Bar charts (b) 3-D surface line charts (c) Column charts (d) Exploding pie chart (e) Scatter plot

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ANSWERS TO LESSON REVIEW EXERCISES 1. A poor final report or presentation can destroy a study because most readers or audiences

are influenced by the quality of the reporting. 2. Short reports are appropriate when the problem is well defined, is of limited scope, and

has a simple and straightforward methodology. 3. Short reports, generally, follow the following format:

The letter of transmittal is a vehicle used to convey short reports

A brief statement at the beginning describing the authorization for the study, the problem examined, and its breadth and depth

The conclusions and recommendations

The findings that support conclusions and recommendations

Section headings should be used 4. The writer of a short research report should follow the guidelines below to help the reader

understand the report.

Tell the reader why you are writing

If the memo is in response to a request for information, remind the reader of the exact point raised, answer it, and follow with any necessary details

Write in an expository style with brevity and directness

Leave time between the writing of the report and the final editing

Attach detailed materials as appendices when needed 5. The two types of long research reports are technical reports and management reports. A

technical report is a report written for an audience of researchers. A management report is a report written for the non-technically-oriented manager or client.

6. A technical report should include full documentation and detail of the research along with

a full presentation and analysis of significant data. 7. Generally, a management report contains much of the same detail contained in a technical

report. The difference is that the management report is for the non-technical client. The order of presentation is often the reverse of the technical report. Even though the report is long, the results should be delivered at the beginning to help the reader grasp the results without reading the whole report.

8. The general components of a long research report are as follows: (1) prefatory items; (2)

introduction; (3) methodology; (4) findings; (5) conclusions; (6) appendices; and (7) bibliography.

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9. The prefatory items in a long research report are as follows:

A letter of transmittal – It is the element of the final report that provides the purpose of, scope of, authorization for, and limitations of the study. Internal projects do not require this letter

The title page – It should contain the following four items:

o The title of the report

o The date the report is published

o For whom it was prepared

o By whom it was prepared

Authorization letter – The letter shows who sponsored the research and delineates the original request

An executive summary – A concise summary of the major findings, conclusions and recommendations

Table of contents – If the report totals more than 6 to 10 pages, it should have a table of contents

10. The items in the introduction to a long research report are as follows:

The problem statement – Contains the need for the research project

Research objectives – The research objectives address the purpose of the project. The objectives may be research questions and associated investigative questions.

Background – Previous research, theory, or situations that led to the management question are discussed in this section.

11. The items in the methodology section of a long research report are as follows:

Sampling design – The researcher explicitly defines the target population being studied and the sampling methods used.

Research design – The coverage of the design must be adapted to the purpose. Strengths and weaknesses should be identified.

Data collection – This part describes the specifics of gathering the data. Contents of this section depend on the selected design. Relevancy of secondary data would be discussed here. Any instructions should be placed in an appendix.

Data analysis – This section summarizes the methods used to analyze the data. A rationale for choices should be provided. A brief commentary on assumptions and appropriateness of use should be presented.

Limitations – The section should be a thoughtful presentation of the significant methodology or implementation problems if any exist. All studies have their limitations.

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12. The findings section of a long research report is generally the longest section of the report. The objective is to explain the data rather than draw interpretations or conclusions.

13. The conclusions section of a long research report contains the following:

Summary and conclusions – This section is a brief statement of the essential findings.

Recommendations – In applied research the recommendations will usually be for managerial action, with the researcher suggesting one or several alternatives that are supported by the findings.

Appendices – The appendices are the place for complex tables, statistical tests, supporting documents, copies of forms and questionnaires, detailed descriptions of the methodology, instructions to field workers, and other evidence important for later support.

Bibliography – The use of secondary data requires a bibliography. A bibliography documents the sources used by the writer.

14. Before writing the research report the researcher should visit or revisit the following

questions:

What is the purpose of this report?

Who will read the report?

What is the technical background of the audience or reader?

What are the circumstances and limitations under which the researcher is writing?

How will the report be used? 15. The two types of outlines are a topic outline and a sentence outline. A topic outline is a

report planning format using key words or phrases and a sentence outline is a report planning format using complete sentences.

16. A readability index measures the audience’s level of understanding of the research

material. Using a readability index allows the writer to revise the draft if necessary to match the audience of the report.

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LESSON 23



The Creation, Types and Contents of Oral Research Presentations LESSON OBJECTIVES:


Explain how the oral research presentation differs from and is similar to traditional

public speaking.

Describe why historical rhetorical theory has practical influence on business presentation skills in the 21st century.

Explain how to plan for the research presentation.

Recognize the frameworks and patterns of organizing a presentation.

Illustrate the uses and differences between the types of materials designed to support

your points. Describe how the proficiency in research presentations requires designing good

visuals and knowing how to use them effectively.

Recognize the importance of delivery to getting and holding the audience attention.

Explain why practice is an essential ingredient to success and how to do it.

Provide a description of what needs to be assembled and checked to be certain that the arrangements for the occasion and venue are ready.

LESSON ASSIGNMENT:

Business Research Methods, Twelfth Edition Chapter 20, “Presenting Insights and Findings: Oral Presentations”

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LESSON 23 NOTE: The following exercises are study aids designed to help you prepare for the subject exam. Write your answers in the space provided after each exercise. Use the blank page to record other notes on the text content. Immediately check your answers with the key at the end of the guide. Do not submit your answers to AGU for grading. Question 1: Provide some advice for an inexperienced speaker who is preparing to make an

oral presentation. Question 2: What are three ways to keep your audience from "checking out?" Question 3: Describe the seven supporting materials for presentations listed in the chapter. Question 4: Describe the most important ways by which you can understand your audience in

the planning phase of creating your presentation. Question 5: In what ways does oral presentation differ from traditional public speaking? How

is it similar? Question 6: How has the historical rhetorical theory influenced business presentation skills in

the 21st century? What are the three principles of proof?

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Question 7: What frameworks and patterns are available for organizing a presentation? What are the preferred organizational strategies?

Question 8: Describe the types of materials designed to support your points. Question 9: What factors influence visualization of the presentation? Question 10: What is the importance of delivery in getting and holding the audience attention? Question 11: Explain why practice is an essential ingredient to success and how to do it. Question 12: Provide a description of what needs to be assembled and checked to be certain

that the arrangements for the occasion and venue are ready.

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SUBJECT EXAMINATION



Student Services at [email protected]. MULTIPLE CHOICE: Question 1: An oral research presentation has some unique characteristics that distinguish it

from other kinds of public speaking. Which of the following is not true?

(a) Small audience (b) Audience members who will each use the research findings and conclusions

differently given their managerial responsibilities (c) Presenter condenses a lengthy and complex body of information (d) A large audience with expectations to be entertained (e) All of the above

Question 2: The basis of persuasion was defined by Aristotle with his three principles of

proof. They are:

(a) Logos, pathos, and ethos (b) Logos, enthymeme, and forensic (c) Forensic, deliberative, and epideictic (d) Dialectic, rhetoric, and ethos (e) None of the above

Question 3: When the research presenter gives the primary premise but expects the audience

to supply any missing knowledge (premises) in order to reach the researcher's conclusion, the presenter is using:

(a) Ethos (b) Kinesthetic learning (c) Enthymeme (d) Stories (e) Testimony

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Question 4: Which of the following describes how pathos is established in a research presentation?

(a) By collecting past impressions from prior associations (b) Interviewing critical members of the intended audience (c) Surveying a sample of the invitees regarding agreement with a series of

statements about issues (d) Discovering demographic and dispositional audience characteristics (e) All of the above

Question 5: Logos provides explicit support for a position and:

(a) This translates into supporting evidence that reveal the researchers' findings (b) Should not be the only source of support although it is the core of most

research presentations (c) Uses a variation of the syllogism where one or more minor premises are left

unstated, but where the audience provides the missing premises to reach the conclusion

(d) Is not the strongest of the three appeals (e) All of the above

Question 6: "Who will I be addressing?" and "Why should my listeners really care about the

information I present?" are two questions that are:

(a) Key for developing the logos of your presentation (b) Essential for audience analysis (c) Primary considerations for delivering web presentations (d) Desirable for recall at the beginning of the presentation (recency effect) (e) Ways of adapting to auditory learners

Question 7: What are the three types of learners?

(a) Learners in small, large, and research presentation audiences (b) Visual, auditory, and media-savvy (c) Rule of thirds-type learners (d) Visual, auditory, and kinesthetic (e) Peers, superiors, subs

Question 8: Visuals are important in an oral research presentation because:

(a) Recall accuracy varies as a function of an item's position on a list or an argument's sequence

(b) The motivated sequence produces superior immediate recall through sight visualization

(c) About 40 percent of us are visual learners (d) The narrative pattern of organization results in significantly favorable

attitudes toward the presentation through visuals

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Question 9: Research presenters are not just data presenters, but must convince research sponsors to act. In building a presentation, if a researcher puts the primary argument at the beginning of their recommendations, they are relying on __________ in building their presentation's organization.

(a) Recency effect (b) Believability (c) Credibility (d) Primacy effect (e) Contrast

Question 10: According to recent research in molecular biology, the brain appears to be making

choices according to a timing pattern influenced by genetics and environment. Once thought of as a "20-minute fatigue factor," it is now more reasonable to consider your audience will become bored in:

(a) 5 minutes (b) 10 minutes (c) 15 minutes (d) 20 minutes (no change) (e) 25 minutes

Question 11: The research literature on speech organization:

(a) Recommends the narrative pattern as the organizational framework that is superior

(b) Does not support the conclusion of one overall superior method for organizing

(c) Provides experimental research for the use of trios, triplets, or triads (d) Recommends the chronological time sequence for a framework

Question 12: What is the motivated sequence form of presentational organization?

(a) Uses time sequence for a framework [e.g., by when each research activity (focus group, survey, experiment) occurred]

(b) The sequence of ideas, which, by following the normal processes of human thinking, motivates an audience to respond to the speaker's purpose

(c) First part describes the cause of a problem, the second describes its effect, and the third presents a solution

(d) Material is organized from the least important information to the most important

(e) Benefits, disadvantages, how benefits are superior are discussed Question 13: An oral research report that starts with a brief statement that sets the stage for the

findings and explains the nature of the project is called a(n):

(a) Deposition (b) Interview (c) Research Briefing (d) Announcement (e) Speech

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Question 14: A three-point speech may contain which of these organizational variations?

(a) Introduction-body-conclusion (b) Overview-body-recap (c) Introduction-three best supporting points-conclusion (d) Surprising introduction-three stories-memorable conclusion tying the stories

together (e) All of the above

Question 15: Using a metaphor as support material enhances an oral research presentation's:

(a) Relevancy (b) Believability (c) Balance (d) Stylistic properties (e) Detail

Question 16: A(n) __________ uses a single instance to clarify a complex concept.

(a) Story (b) Demonstration (c) Example (d) Fact (e) Flow aid

Question 17: Sara decides to build audio sound clips of some participant's answers into her

final oral research report. This is called __________, and it enhances the presentation's __________.

(a) Example, ethos (b) Testimony, pathos (c) Example, pathos (d) Testimony, ethos (e) Testimony, logos

Question 18: A means of support in a research presentation that enhances ethos is:

(a) Testimony/expert opinion (b) Statistics (c) Specific instance (d) Metaphor (e) None of the above

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Question 19: Stories are a strong form of supporting material. Which is a principle of a good story?

(a) Use the principle of "tweets" – 140 characters or less – to keep your

sentences dramatic and punchy (b) Use the story as a mechanism to show passion and excitement about your

topic (c) Use audience analysis to match the story to your audience and topic (d) Keep humorous stories short to deliver the punch line quickly (e) All of the above

Question 20: A good demonstration is defined as:

(a) Is essential in research presentations to facilitate understanding of statistics (b) Creates a natural, emotional response (c) Contains logos, ethos, pathos (d) Is short, simple, sweet, swift, and substantial (e) All of the above

Question 21: Which psychological principle influences visualization?

(a) Principle of capacity expansion (b) Principle of irrelevance (c) Principle of remote organization (d) Principle of salience (e) None of the above

Question 22: A flow aid is used:

(a) To advance a story (b) To plan an oral research report (c) To serve as an example (d) To establish associations or correlations between key findings (e) None of the above

Question 23: Photographic framing or creating a focal point for all visuals involves:

(a) Use high contrast to quickly draw audience attention to the main point (b) Rule of thirds: the cross-hairs form nine cells with four intersecting crossing

points which may be used to line up the image, creating a balanced, arresting visual

(c) Reduce clutter and use only the information and visual techniques necessary to convey the data, idea, or conclusion

(d) Conceptualize the visual support materials on paper before composing the digital versions

(e) The audience should be able to perceive meaning from the location of elements on the slide or handout

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Question 24: Which of the following design principles refers to the fact that the audience should be able to see the connection between visual slide elements and sense what information goes together?

(a) Contrast (b) Clarity (c) Relationship (d) Whitespace (e) Flow aids

Question 25: What is the 10-20-30 rule?

(a) 30% of the audience will grasp 20% of your statistics if you speak longer than 10 minutes

(b) Use no more than 10 slides, no more than 20 minutes, and never use text on a slide smaller than 30 points

(c) Font size = oldest age/20 (d) The ratio of proofs should be 10 ethos to 20 pathos to 30 logos (e) A revision of the visual principle of one-thirds

Question 26: Which of the following is not a mode of delivery?

(a) Persuasive speaking (b) Manuscript reading (c) Impromptu speaking (d) Extemporaneous presentation (e) Memorization

Question 27: Scripts (full manuscripts of a presentation) are:

(a) Most frequently used in impromptu speaking (b) Important in the planning phase but should be shelved by the time you get to

practice (c) More reliable than note cards to reduce stage fright (d) Are more accepted as props than speaker note cards (e) All of the above

Question 28: Which term below refers to a conversational-style of oral research report that

relies on minimal notes?

(a) Briefing (b) Extemporaneous presentation (c) Formal presentation (d) Interview (e) Discussion

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Question 29: Which of the following best describes nonverbal communication?

(a) Is not conveyed through other than through verbal means (b) Does not encompass clothing and bodily characteristics, but considers the

physical environment (physical space and time) (c) Is a significant component of the speaker's presentation, studies cite as high

as 93 percent (d) Is principally composed of paralanguage (nonverbal cues of the voice) (e) None of the listed answers are correct

Question 30: Which of the following describes the characteristics of paralanguage the speaker

should focus on?

(a) Frequency of eye contact with the audience helps to establish rapport and comfort

(b) A speaking style that is animated and lively gains audience attention (c) Standing erect, but not rigid, and leaning slightly forward communicates

that you are approachable (d) Nonverbal communication including such vocal elements as tone, pitch,

rhythm, pause, timbre, loudness, and inflection (e) None of the above

Question 31: When making an oral research report, the speaker should:

(a) Vary the volume, pitch, voice quality, articulation, and pace of speaking (b) Memorize the speech (c) Begin with recommendations (d) Be comfortable enough with the material to "wing it" (e) Speak quickly

Question 32: An optimal strategy for coping with performance anxiety includes:

(a) Eliminate the imagination of negative possibilities, and think about the positive outcomes of a successful presentation

(b) Remember that one cannot control other's reactions or judgments, but only one's own performance

(c) Refocus one's attention away from self and increase one's awareness of others, without considering them as judges

(d) Reduce the imagined power of others by increasing the sense of one's own power

(e) All of the above Question 33: The choice of facilities is affected by:

(a) Seating arrangement (b) Size of the room (c) Sound system (d) Lighting (e) All of the above

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ANSWERS TO LESSON REVIEW EXERCISES 1. The speaker should maintain good eye contact. Nervous gestures like rocking should be

minimized. Practice using visuals so that they are used properly and at the right time in the presentation. Be sure not to turn your back to the audience when viewing visual aids. The speaker should speak loud enough for everyone to hear easily. The rapidity of speech should be fast enough to maintain interest but not so fast as to be distracting. One should vary tone and volume during the speech.

2. Three ways to keep your audience from checking out are:

Accuracy varies as a function of an item's position on a list or an argument's sequence, referred to as the Audience Memory Curve and otherwise known as the serial position effect. People recall best those items they hear at the end of the list (recency effect). Items at the end of the list seem to reside in short-term memory at the time of recall.

Among earlier list items, or arguments, the first item in a list is initially distinguished as important (primacy effect) and may be transferred to long-term memory by the time of recall.

Audiences are now believed to become bored in 10 minutes. The 10-minute rule suggests varying content by interspersing straight talk with graphs, videos, demonstrations, questions, and other means that allow the brain to seek new stimuli.

3. The seven supporting materials for presentations are:

Facts are verifiable data about situations that exist or events that are known to have occurred; often involve statistical data; the foundation of many research presentations.

Statistics are numerical data used in the collection, analysis, and interpretation of data, but also found in data collection planning, measurement, and design; useful and expected for research presentations.

Specific instance is a critical incident selected to prove an overarching claim; brief rather than detailed stories. An instance used in the research presentation of a survey might relate the responses of an individual respondent.

Example includes a single instance used to clarify a complex concept; often less developed than a specific instance but helps listeners visualize the point; may be true or hypothetical. In a research presentation, an example might relate the impact of a recommended action based on the responses of a single respondent or group of respondents.

Testimony/expert opinion is the perspective of recognized experts on a topic; project credibility; allow the audience to absorb success stories; often in the form of a video clip, a quote, or participation of a recognized expert. These opinions represent an excellent source of support because they enhance ethos.

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Analogy is the use of reasoning; a comparison between two different things to highlight a point of similarity; not offered as conclusive proof for an argument, but may be useful to clarify the argument or presenter's position.

Metaphor is an implicit comparison between two unlike things that actually have something important in common; expresses the unfamiliar in terms of the familiar, achieving its effect via association, comparison, and resemblance.

4. Some important ways to help you understand the nature of your audience are:

Who are they? Demographics and psychographics are a great start, but connecting with your audience means understanding them on a personal level.

Why are they here? Why did they come to hear you? Are they willing participants or mandatory attendees? What do they think they're going to get out of this presentation?

What keeps them up at night? Everyone has a fear, a pain point. Let your audience know you empathize and offer a solution.

Why should they care? What's in it for the audience? How are you going to make their lives better?

What do you want them to do? Make sure there's clear action for your audience to take.

Should you expect resistance? What will keep them from adopting your message and carrying out your call to action?

How can you best reach them? People vary in how they prefer to receive information. This can include everything from the setup of the room to the availability of materials after the presentation. Give the audience what they want, how they want it.

5. An oral research presentation has unique characteristics that distinguish it from public

speaking but with which it shares similarities, including:

A small group of people is normally involved.

Statistics often constitute an important portion of the topic.

The audience members are usually managers with an interest in the topic, but they want to hear only the data and conclusions that will help them make critical decisions.

Speaking time will often be as short as 20 minutes, but may run longer than an hour.

The presentation is normally interspersed with questions and discussion. 6. Aristotle’s rhetorical influence on business presentation in the 21st century acquaints us

with persuasive possibilities in every presentational situation. The basis of persuasion has three principles of proof: ethos, pathos, and logos. Ethos is our perception of a presenter’s character and affects how believable or convincing we find that person.

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Pathos relies on an emotional connection between the speaker and the audience. Logos (logical argument) is the supporting evidence and analytical techniques that reveal and uphold the researcher’s findings and conclusions.

7. A presentation framework assists the audience to follow and understand the presentation.

Traditional patterns of organization include: topical, spatial, classification, climax order, problem/solution, chronological, past/present/future, cause/effect/solution, pros/cons/ recommendation, and research briefings. The preferred organizational strategies are the motivated sequence, the narrative style of development, the rule of three, and the three-point speech.

8. Supporting materials are leaves on the branches of the organizational framework. They

include facts, statistics, specific instances, examples, testimony/expert opinion, analogy and metaphor, conveying personal experience through story and demonstrations.

9. Visualization involves developing and organizing supporting materials that help the

audience understand the findings. Several psychological principles influence the visualization of the presentation:

Principle of relevance – Only information critical to understanding should be

presented.

Principles of appropriate knowledge – Limitations in your audience’s knowledge level.

Principle of capacity limitations – Inability to process large amounts of information at one time.

Principle of informative changes – Convey what is new with a separate slide or handout.

Principle of salience – The audience’s attention is drawn to large perceptible differences.

Principle of discriminability – Two properties must differ by a large amount to be discerned.

Principle of perceptual organization – When establishing associations or correlations between key findings, your supporting materials should group in proximity to each other.

In addition to selecting the right visual elements to convey your findings and conclusions, design principles should guide the design of visual support materials. They include visual preparations, flow aids, visibility, whitespace, picture supremacy, contrast, compatibility, relationship, simplicity, and clarity.

10. How the speaker delivers the message is very important. Demeanor, posture, dress and

total appearance should be appropriate for the occasion. Speed of speech, clarity of enunciations, pauses, and gestures all play a part. Voice pitch, tone quality, and inflections are proper subjects for concern. Rapport-developing techniques are essential so that the speaker can get and hold the audience’s attention. The modes of delivery by

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which you communicate your message to the audience include impromptu speaking, memorization, manuscript reading, or extemporaneous presentation. Nonverbal communication accounts for approximately 50-93% of communication meaning, and therefore deserves careful attention. Major categories include eye contact, gestures, posture and body orientation, and paralanguage.

11. Practice is the critical ingredient that super achievers and star performers have in

common. It serves to recreate the presentational setting as you practice, prevent embarrassment later, check your ratio of material versus available time, uncover holes in your supporting material, and prepare for the unexpected. A video rehearsal helps overcome many problems, especially with feedback from your practice audience. Stage fright occurs to people of all experience levels. The best thing to do is overwhelmingly, painstakingly, and totally prepare.

12. Arrangements for the presentation occasion and venue, sometimes referred to as staging,

involve detailed management of facilities, operational problems, and equipment (lecterns, lights, projectors, cords, controls, sound systems, video, internet conferencing, electronic boards, racks for charts, displays/models/props). Arrangements require attention to the meeting room, seating, screens and lighting, testing of virtually everything, along with preparation/backup for disasters.

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