Saab 340 Systems Study Cards

Term 1

What does the

OXYGEN light on the CWP

indicate?

Definition 1

That O2 system pressure is below 800 psi (+/- 35)

Term 2

The O2 gauge in the cockpit indicates ____________?

Definition 2

Fixed bottle pressure

Term 3

How is O2 made available to the passengers?

Definition 3

• The O2 pull knob must be ON (or pulled UP)

• Lift the pax O2 valve on the F/Os aft side panel

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Term 4

What is the normal charging pressure in the O2 bottle?

Definition 4

1850 psi

Term 5

At what speed can the crew hatch be opened?

Definition 5

160 knots max

Term 6

A reason to open the crew hatch inflight is ______?

Definition 6

Smoke removal



Term 7

Which doors are connected to the warning system?

Definition 7

Crew hatch, Main cabin & Cargo door

Term 8

What doors can be opened from the inside as well as

the outside?

Definition 8

All of them.

Term 9

What supplies the pnuematic system?

Definition 9

HIGH or LOW pressure bleed air, alternately.



Term 10

Pnuematic air operates which systems?

Definition 10

Pressurization, air conditioning & boot de-ice

Term 11

LP bleed air is the normal source for pnuematics

True or False?

Definition 11

True

Term 12

When is the only time HP bleed air is automatically

supplied?

Definition 12

When LP bleed air is insufficient.(Ng is <80%)



Term 13

What 5 things cause the HP bleed valve to close?

Definition 13

• Bleed air from precooler is too hot (>288C)

• HP switch selected OFF• Loss of Elec power • Ng is > 80%• Fire handle is pulled

Term 14

How do you open the HP valve after is closes for an over temp when the duct

cools?

Definition 14

HP valve to RESET, then AUTO

Term 15

What does the amber L/R HP HIGH light on the overhead panel mean?

Definition 15

The HP valve failed to close after being given a signal to

close.



Term 16

The overhead HP HIGH light illuminates with what other

light?

Definition 16

AIR COND light on the CWP

Term 17

LP & HP bleed valve are electrically actuated.

True or False?

Definition 17

False. They are pnuematically operated.

Term 18

Bleed valve switch on the A/C panel placed in AUTO

means _________?

Definition 18

Valve automatically regulates air into the

manifold as a function of altitude.



Term 19

What 6 things cause the LP bleed valve to close?

Definition 19

• The pressure is too high (>43.5psi)

• The bleed air temperature is too hot (>288C)

• ACM discharge is too hot (>255C)• Fire handle is pulled• Bleed switch selected OFF

Term 20

What indicates that the bleed valve failed to close after a signal was

given?

Definition 20

The BLD FAULT light and the AIR COND light on the

CWP illuminate

Term 21

What indicates a bleed closed?

Definition 21

Overhead BLD CLOSED light plus AIR

COND on CWP



Term 22

BLD FAULT light may indicate:________, ________, &_______

Definition 22

• The valve failed to close• The bleed pressure was too high

(illuminates, then goes out when bleed valve closes)

• The bleed air temp was too hot (illuminates and remains on,

bleed valve closes)

Term 23

When does the BLD FAULT light extinguish?

Definition 23

When the temperature is below limits

Term 24

The main function of the precooler?

Definition 24

The precooler (RAM air heat exchanger) lowers the HP bleed air temperature. A

separate flow through the precooler accomplishes LP bleed air cooling for use by pneumatic deice systems.



Term 25

If ELEC power to the LP BLD valve fails, it fails to the __________ position.

Definition 25

Open(HP valve fails closed)

Term 26

How is it possible to interconnect the two bleed

systems?

Definition 26

Via the cross valve (X VALVE) in the manifold

Term 27

The X VALVE may be opened inflightTrue or False?

Definition 27

FalseIt is only for ground operations



Term 28

What is required to open the X VALVE?

Definition 28

Set these switch positions:

• X VALVE switch to OPEN• One bleed valve must be closed

Term 29

What indicates a hot bleed air leak?

Definition 29

Overhead BLD LEAK light illuminates, plus the amber

AIR COND light on CWP

Term 30

Where is the hot air bleed air leak detection loop

installed?

Definition 30

Between the engine nacelles and the X VALVE



Term 31

The overhead L/R DUCT OV TEMP light means?

Definition 31

The ACM compressor outlet is too hot (>225C)

or the duct temp is too hot (>82C)

Term 32

What 4 things cause the AIR COND light on the CWP to

illuminate?

Definition 32

• Bleed air temperature too hot • Bleed air leak• Bleed valve closed• LP/HP valve not closed after

given a signal to close

Term 33

Will a bleed air leak close the LP bleed valve?

Definition 33

No.(Bleeds should be closed. If BLD AIR LEAK light fails to go out, an engine

shutdown may be necessary.)



Term 34

The RECIRC FAN light indicates?

Definition 34

The fan is operating at <80%

Term 35

When will the RECIRC FAN light extinguish?

Definition 35

Once the fan speed increases over 80%

Term 36

What cools the RECIRC FAN?

Definition 36

BLD AIR



Term 37

When can the RECIRC FANs operate without BLD AIR?

Definition 37

During takeoff, up to acceleration altitude.

(If the fan is left running without BLD AIR more than 10 min depending on OAT, a thermal switch will shut off

the fan until the temp decreases and switch

resets.)

Term 38

What is indicated by the AVIONICS VENT FAN light?

Definition 38

The vent fan has failed.

Term 39

What does the CABIN PRESS light on the CWP

means?

Definition 39

Cabin altitude above 10,000ft or differential

pressure exceeds 7.5 psi



Term 40

The avionics vent fan draws air from the _______?

Definition 40

Cabin

Term 41

The FAULT light on the center consol cabin

pressure control panel indicates?

Definition 41

A system failureOR

ON for 3 seconds during system self test

Term 42

AIR COND on the CWP illuminates with any caution

light except?

Definition 42

L/R RECIRC FAN



Term 43

AUTO PILOT & FLIGHT DIRECTOR

AUTO TRIM light on CWP indicates _______ ?

Definition 43

Autopilot detects a failure in the elevator or rudder trim

systems

Term 44

Will the auto pilot operate if the Flight Director fails?

Definition 44

No.

Term 45

Will the auto pilot operate if the Flight Director is turned

off?

Definition 45

Yes.



Term 46

GO-Around displays a pitch command of ___ degrees on

the ______ ?

Definition 46

6.4 degrees on the EADI

Term 47

When is half bank inhibited?

Definition 47

In approach mode after APPR LOC/VOR capture

Term 48

1/2 bank limits?

Definition 48

Reduces bank from 27 to 13.5 degrees in HDG & NAV

mode



Term 49

Which modes on the MSP should not be selected in

icing conditions?

Definition 49

VS & Climb.Use only IAS when climbing in icing

conditions.

Term 50

What turns the AP off?

Definition 50

• A/P disconnect on yoke• A/P switch on center console• operating pitch trim switches• Go Around buttons on power

lever

Term 51

What turns the Yaw Damper off?

Definition 51

• A/P disconnect on yoke • A/P disconnect on center

console• Go Around bottons on power

levers



Term 52

A flashing red box with the letters FD on the EFIS

means?

Definition 52

A failure of the flight director.

(V bars also disappear)

Term 53

Auto pilot limitations?

Definition 53

A/P Not Authorized:

• During takeoff <500ft or Acceleration Altitude

• Speeds <1.3 stall in HDG mode• In severe icing conditions• Alt <50ft below MDA on non-

precision app OR <50ft below DH on an uncoupled ILS

• Alt <50ft AGL on coupled ILS in VFR or better wx

• Alt <69ft AGL on coupled ILS wen wx is <VFR

Term 54

What will automatically disengage the A/P?

Definition 54

Stall warning computer or AP/YD failure detected



Term 55

ELECTRICAL SYSTEM

What are the 4 separate parts of the ELEC system?

Definition 55

• Two 28v DC engine driven generators

• 115/26v AC inverter• Emergency DC power (lead acid

battery)• Two AC Wild frequency 115v

engine driven generators

Term 56

The AC Wild 115v generatros are used for ______ .

Definition 56

Powering Ice Protection systems

Term 57

What drives each respective AC Wild generator?

Definition 57

They are driven by the prop gearbox.



Term 58

How are the DC generators cooled?

Definition 58

Via a fan on the ground and ram air when airborne

Term 59

An overhead GEN OV TEMP light means?

Definition 59

The associated generator has overheated (150°C)

Term 60

What is indicated by the illumination of the L/R MAIN

BUS light?

Definition 60

The associated MAIN BUS is not powered.



Term 61

What AC power is lost when the L MAIN BUS is not

powered?

Definition 61

Loss of the #1 or main 115/26v INVERTER

(Rt bus powers #2 inverter)

Term 62

When does the L/R main bus light illuminate?

Definition 62

• During engine start when the L/R GEN busses are not powered (ESS & MAINS load shed)

• When MAIN BUS relay has tripped due to a tripped GEN

Term 63

What is indicated by the L/R GEN light?

Definition 63

The GEN relay is open.The GEN is disconnected from the GEN BUS and is

offline.



Term 64

The 2 starter generators are rated at ____ volts each.

Definition 64

28v DC

Term 65

How many alternators are on each engine?

Definition 65

One.Provides engine electrical power only.

(ESS)

Term 66

How many generators are on each engine?

Definition 66

Two.Starter/generator and AC wild

generator.



Term 67

What are the functions of the GCU?

Definition 67

• Excites field• Voltage regulation for control &

protection of the DC system against faults

• Controls engine start cycle

Term 68

How does the GCU control & protect the DC system?

Definition 68

If generator parameters are not correct OR if the fire handle is pulled, the GCU cuts out the generator by opening the relay which disconnects the generator

from the associated GEN BUS.

Term 69

The starter generators are rated at ___ amps each.

Definition 69

400



Term 70

What are the starter generator amp limits?

Definition 70

600 amps for 5 minutes, then 400 amps

Term 71

How is the GEN field relay reset?

Definition 71

The respective switch is set to RESET

Term 72

To connect a generator to the GEN BUS, Ng must be

above ____ ?

Definition 72

55% Ng(Starter cut out)



Term 73

What is indicated by the illumination of the L/R ESS

BUS light?

Definition 73

The associated bus is not powered.

Term 74

What is indicated by the illumination of the L/R BAT

light?

Definition 74

The associated BAT relay is open

Term 75

What is indicated by the illumination of the L/R BAT

lights?

Definition 75

The associated BAT relays are open (Battery disconnected)



Term 76

What is indicated by the illumination of the BAT HOT

light?

Definition 76

The associated BAT temp is excessive.

(>71°C)

Term 77

Takeoff is prohibited with the BAT HOT light on.

True or False?

Definition 77

True.

Term 78

Takeoff is prohibited when the BAT temp is 67°C and

the BAT HOT light is not on.True or False?

Definition 78

True.

Takeoff is prohibited when BAT temp exceeds 64°C



Term 79

What is indicated by the NO BAT START light?

Definition 79

L or R BAT temp exceeds 57°C

Term 80

Takeoff is prohibited with a NO BAT START light.

True or False?

Definition 80

False.(Unless the BAT temp exceeds 64°C)

Term 81

A BAT temp of >71°C automatically disconnects

the battery.True or False?

Definition 81

True



Term 82

To read external power, the EXT PWR switch must be

ON.True or False?

Definition 82

False.

Voltage should be checked via the volt meter before it

is aplied to the aircraft

Term 83

The blue EXT PWR AVAIL light indicates?

Definition 83

External power is available (At least 7v for light to illuminate)

Term 84

White EXT PWR ON light indicates?

Definition 84

Ext power is ON and the left battery bus is powered.

(When EXT OWR is applied, it is the only source of power to the aircraft.)



Term 85

EMER PWR light on the DC elec panel indicates?

Definition 85

The EMERG PWR bus is unpowered OR

Lead acid BAT emergency power <24v

Term 86

Can the 71°C (BAT HOT) thermal switch be

overriden?

Definition 86

Yes.In an emergency, the BAT switch can

be placed to OVRD which assures power to GEN bus.

Term 87

INVERTER light on the overhead AC panel indicates?

Definition 87

The selected inverter has failed OR

The switch is in the OFF position



Term 88

L/R AC GEN light on the overhead AC elec panel

indicates?

Definition 88

The associated AC GEN has failed or dropped off line

Term 89

Will the CWP ELEC light come on with a L/R AC GEN

light?

Definition 89

No.The CWP ICE PROT light will

illuminate

Term 90

How many 24v batteries are on the Saab 340?

Definition 90

Three:

• One lead acid• Two NiCad



Term 91

Does the BAT automatically disconnect with a BAT hot

light?

Definition 91

Yes.

Term 92

What does the illumination of the green BUS TIE light

mean?

Definition 92

The relay joining the left and right GEN buses is

closed

Term 93

What are the 3 reasons the BUS TIE closes?

Definition 93

• To conect the two main batteries• To supply the L/R GEN BUS

when EXT PWR is ON• To supply 28v power to both L &

R GEN BUS from only one generator during single engine ops

(Anytime there is less than 1 GEN online, the BUS TIE should be closed.)



Term 94

What is the purpose of the BUS TIE over current relay

protection?

Definition 94

Protects the main distribution system in case of a short in the system

Term 95

The BUS TIE relay opens if the over-current exceeds

_______ ?

Definition 95

800 amps

Term 96

Is there any time the 800 amp over current relay can

be exceeded?

Definition 96

Yes.During engine start



Term 97

Generators automatically disconnect when EXT PWR

is applied.

True or False?

Definition 97

True.

Term 98

What 5 things can be powered by the EMERG BAT?

Definition 98

• Master warning system• BUS TIE relay CONN function • Fire Detection• Tailpipe Hot detection• EMERG volatge indication

Term 99

During preflight, all the exterior lights may be checked using BAT power.

True or False?

Definition 99

False.

Only the L fwd nav, R rear nav & beacon function in

BAT power.



Term 100

What is required to close the Utility Bus relay?

Definition 100

At least two generators online OR

External power

Term 101

Is EXT PWR connected to the R GEN bus via the BUS

TIE relay?

Definition 101

Yes

Term 102

How is the battery compartment ventilated?

Definition 102

Via a fan on the ground and RAM air inflight



Term 103

Will external power de-energize the BAT relays?

Definition 103

Yes

(unless the BAT switches are in OVRD, a maintenance

only function to charge them)

Term 104

When a GEN relay closes, which bus is powered?

Definition 104

The associated GEN bus.

Term 105

Three conditions for a GEN relay to close?

Definition 105

1. EXT PWR relay open2. Engine start complete3. GEN field reset



Term 106

Below ___ volts, EXT PWR drops offline and the switch

spring loads to OFF.

Definition 106

Approx 10 volts

Term 107

What is the lowest EXT PWR voltage during engine

start?

Definition 107

Approx 7 volts

Term 108

During engine start, if EXT PWR drops off line will the

start continue?

Definition 108

Yes, it will continue on batteries.



Term 109

The L BAT is connected to the ____ bus.

Definition 109

The START BUS

Term 110

What bus charges the batteries?

Definition 110

Its respective GEN BUS with at east 1 GEN online.

Term 111

The R BAT is connected to the _____ bus.

Definition 111

The R GEN BUS



Term 112

When does the EMERG BAT begin to power the EMERG

BUS?

Definition 112

When the L BAT BUS drops below 24 volts

Term 113

What powers the EMERG Avionics Bus?

Definition 113

The EMERG BUS

(Powered via the L BAT BUS when the ESS AVION switch is ON. Otherwise it will seek power via the led

acid battery)

Term 114

What items are powered by the EMER AVIONICS BUS?

Definition 114

VHF / COM 1&

standby horizon



Term 115

Min prop rpm to keep the AC Wild

generator online?

Definition 115

About 1,000 rpm

Term 116

On taxi out, why would you see an AC gen light on?

Definition 116

Prop rpm dips below 1,000 rpm

Term 117

Why is it a "Wild" frequency AC system?

Definition 117

Frequency varies460 - 640 Hz due to prop rpm

variations



Term 118

How do you reset an AC gen if prop rpm drops below

1,000 and gen drops offline?

Definition 118

Resets are automatic when rpm increases to 1,000

Term 119

What 6 items are powered by the AC Wild GEN

busses

Definition 119

1. Pitot tubes2. AOA sensors 3. OAT probe4. Prop De-Ice5. Windshield heat6. Galley hot jugs.......

(Yes, you need a prop turning at 1,000 rpm to keep the coffee hot even with the

hot jug warmer switch "ON"!)

Term 120

Is the ENG intake anti-ice powered by the AC Wild

GEN bus?

Definition 120

No.

It gets its power directly off its respective AC Wild GEN.

(That is why during a AC GEN failure, intake heat

cannot be powered by the opposite side.)



Term 121

What 3 conditions must be met for a battery relay to

close?

Definition 121

1. BAT switches ON2. EXT PWR OFF3. BAT temp below 71°C

Term 122

What is an indication of a malfuntioning GEN?

Definition 122

• Fluctuation, blinking or complete loss of more than one EFIS display.

• WEU status light illumination• Low voltage can cause a loud

squeal from the audio system REU.

Term 123

When a GEN OV TEMP light comes on, doesthe gen

automatically disconnect?

Definition 123

No

The affected GEN must be manually taken offline.

(Look for BUS TIE relay closure)



Term 124

FIRE PROTECTION

AVIONIC SMOKE on the CWP indicates?

Definition 124

Smoke has been detected in the Avionics Bay

Term 125

How long will the Avionic (or Cargo or Lav) somke

light stay on?

Definition 125

As long as the smoke condition exists

Term 126

How long will the L/R ENG

FIRE light remain illuminated?

Definition 126

As long as the fire exists



Term 127

L/R FIRE DET FAIL light on the CWP indicates?

Definition 127

A short circuit is detecetd in the fire loop on the related engine.

Light will remaim illuminated for as long as the condition exists.

Term 128

Actions required to discharge either engine fire

bottle?

Definition 128

1. Fire handle pull2. Fire Extingusher switch ON

Term 129

Overhead white CARGO EXTG light indicates?

Definition 129

Low pressure is detected in the respective bottle



Term 130

What kind of fire protection is available for the avionics rack?

Definition 130

A halon fire extinguisher in the cockpit(Discharge into the Avionic rack port

behind Captain)

Term 131

What kind of fire protection is available in the lav?

Definition 131

An automatically discharged halon fire

extinguisher in the trash bin.

(Halon discharged via a heat sensitive blow out plug)

Term 132

What is the MIN time between firing CARGO FIRE

EXTG #1 & #2?

Definition 132

2 minutes

(To prevent excessive pressure buildup within the compartment and risk blow out panel rupture, leaking

halon into the cabin)



Term 133

What is the normal wait time before firing CARGO FIRE EXTG #2?

Definition 133

25 minutes

Discharge of the 2nd bottle within 25 minutes of the

first increases fire suppresion time limit to 60 minutes over 40 minutes

from bottle #1 alone

Term 134

When a cargo fire extinguiisher is activated, will the CARGO EXTG light

come on right away?

Definition 134

If the bottle is functioning normally, it should not.

It can take 15 minutes for the while EXTG light to

illuminate

Term 135

What happens when the fire handle is pulled?

(6)

Definition 135

1. Fuel valve closes2. GEN relay opens3. Bleeds close4. Arms the squibs5. Resets the WEU6. Fire bell cancelled



Term 136

Can the R engine fire bottle be discharged into the L

engine nacelle?

Definition 136

Yes Bottles are connected via a manifold to allow selective discharge to either

engine.

Term 137

FUEL SYSTEM

How many fuel pumps are on the Saab 340 and how

are they powered?

Definition 137

Four:

• Two engine driven driven main pumps

• Two elec driven standby pumps

Term 138

What controls the elec standby pumps?

Definition 138

Overhead switches&

Automatic switches in the CLs



Term 139

How many ways can fuel quanitity be checked?

Definition 139

Three:

• Cockpit fuel gauges• Refuel panel gauges• Wing tank dripsticks

Term 140

What elec bus powers the refueling panel?

Definition 140

Hot Battery Bus

Term 141

What is indicated by the illumination of the L/R STBY

PRESS light?

Definition 141

Pump senses positive pressure is sensed in the

fuel line.

(Directly or via crossfeed)



Term 142

What is indicated by the illumination of the L/R MAIN

PRESS light?

Definition 142

The associated main pump is pressure differential is

low

(<6 psid)

Term 143

What happens is a main pump fails or has low

pressure?

Definition 143

The associated STBY pump is acutuated

(Providing the switch is in the normal

AUTO position)

Term 144

What supplies fuel to the engine during start?

Definition 144

The Standby Pump



Term 145

During engine shutdown when the main pump pressure drops, a CL

actuated switch will inhibit the standby pump auto starting feature.

True or False?

Definition 145

True

Term 146

What is indicated by the blue fueling light?

Definition 146

• The fueling/defueling panel is powered

OR

• The fueling/defueling valve is open

Term 147

Fuel gauges are calibrated to show actual fuel

remaining.

True or False?

Definition 147

False

They show useable fuel remaining.



Term 148

What is indicated by the L/R FUEL FILTER light?

Definition 148

Fuel filter blockage

Bypass impending

Term 149

"X FEED ON" indicates switch position or valve

position?

Definition 149

Valve posiiton

Term 150

"CONN VLV OPEN" indicates switch position or

valve position?

Definition 150

Valve position



Term 151

How to do test a STBY fuel pump?

Definition 151

By moving a CL to the start position

(The associated green light should illuminate)

Term 152

The L/R VALVE closed light indicates?

Definition 152

The associated fuel valve is closed.

Term 153

How many ways can you close a Fuel Shutoff Valve?

Definition 153

One.

(Shut off valves in the wing prior to the engine nacelle are powered by their

respective BAT bus when the fire handle is pulled.)



Term 154

L/R LOW LEVEL light on the Fuel Panel indicates?

Definition 154

The associated tank is below 300 lbs (+/- 70lb)

Term 155

What lights on the overhead fuel panel do not cause an amber FUEL light on the

CWP?

Definition 155

• FEED ON• CONN VLV OPEN • L/R STBY PRESS

Term 156

What is the useable fuel quantity?

Definition 156

5,690 lbs



Term 157

Where are the STBY fuel pumps located?

Definition 157

Inside each respective wing tank hopper.

Term 158

The fuel vent also serves as an overflow.

True or False?

Definition 158

True

Term 159

Can one STBY pump supply enough fuel to operate both

engines?

Definition 159

Yes.



Term 160

How is fuel transferred between wings?

Definition 160

By gravity via the interconnect line.

Term 161

Does the green STBY PRESS light indicate the respective pump is on?

Definition 161

No

Only that positive pressure is sensed at the pump inlet.

Term 162

HYDRAULICS

What causes the CWP HYDR light to illuminate?

Definition 162

Main reservior is too hot (>116°C)

OR

Main or Emergency accumulator pressure is low

(<1,850 psi)



Term 163

Why might the hyd fluid get too hot and trigger the CWP

HYDR light?

Definition 163

Continuous pump operation

Term 164

What aircraft systems use hydraulic power?

Definition 164

• Landing gear• Flaps• Brakes• Nose Wheel Steering

Term 165 Definition 165



Term 166

The HYDR pump is electircally driven.

True or False?

Definition 166

True

L Main bus in AUTO and L BAT Bus* in OVRD

(*on later modified a/c)

Term 167

What systems can be operated with the

emergency HYD hand pump?

Definition 167

• Flaps• Landing gear• Brakes

Term 168

What triggers activation of the main HYD pump?

Definition 168

• Landing gear operation• Main accumulator pressure

drops below 2100 psi

(With pump switch in normal AUTO mode)



Term 169

How many HYD accumulators are there?

Definition 169

4

(Main, EMERG, inboard brakes, outboard brakes)

Term 170

What pressure is displayed on the accumulators in the nose wheel well?

Definition 170

The sum of the nitrogen precharge pressure plus pressure developed by

the HYD pump (if any).

Term 171

Which HYD accumulators have check valves?

Definition 171

EMERG, inboard brake & outboard brake

(All but the main as it supplies gear, flaps, brakes,

steering)



Term 172

How does EMERG landing gear extension use

hydraulics?

Definition 172

HYD pressure disengages the uplocks, allowing the gear to free fall

into position.

Term 173

What bus supplies power to the HYD pump in AUTO?

Definition 173

L MAIN BUS

Term 174

Is there a circuit breaker for the HYD pump?

Definition 174

No

(It is protected by a 200 amp fuse in the

L Power Distribution Unit)



Term 175

The main HYD reservoir is pressurized by ____ ?

Definition 175

An internal spring backed up by emergency uplock accumulator

pressure (to 35 psi in the reservior).

Term 176

The HYDR light on the CWP indicates low fluid quantity.

True or False?

Definition 176

False.

(Only low main or emerg acc pressure or high temp)

Term 177

Can the main hyd accumulator be pressurized

by the hand pump?

Definition 177

Yes



Term 178

Can the emerg hyd accumulator be pressurized

by the hand pump?

Definition 178

No

Term 179

Can the flaps be extended and retracted by the hand

pump?

Definition 179

Yes

Term 180

Hydraulics are pressurized up to _____ on OVRD.

Definition 180

3,000 psi



Term 181

What systems are supplied with HYD pressure from the emergency

accumulator?

Definition 181

Landing gear uplock release&

Main reservior pressure to assist spring

Term 182

Fluid pumped with the hand pump returns to the main

reservoir

True or False?

Definition 182

True




Term 184

ICE & RAIN PROTECTION

What ice protection systems use BLD air?

Definition 184

• Boot de-ice• Engine splitter lip• Inlet guide vanes

Term 185

What is powered automatically when the first

AC GEN comes online?

Definition 185

• L/R pitot heat• L/R Alpha vane / AOA • OAT probe

Term 186

What is indicated by the DE ICE OV TEMP light on the overhead Ice Protection

panel?

Definition 186

Bleed air to the boots is too hot(>150°C)



Term 187

What is indicated by the TIMER light on the overhead ice protection panel?

Definition 187

A pressure problem or a timer malfunction

Term 188

If the TIMER light is on, how do you test to see if it resulted from a timer

malfunction?

Definition 188

The TIMER light will extinguish if the

W OUTBD button is pushed and illuminates again when

released.

Term 189

What is the order of boot inflation when one cycle is

selected?

Definition 189

Stabilizer, outboard wing, inboard wing, stabilizer



Term 190

How is boot inflation monitored?

Definition 190

Via the green indicator lights on the overhhead

ice protection panel(When the BOOT IND switch is on)

Term 191

In CONT mode, inflation boot cycles repeat every ___________ .

Definition 191

Every third minute

Term 192

Will the boots inflate if LP & HP bleed valves are closed?

Definition 192

Yes

Regulated, temperate air is sent directly to the boot

distribution duct via a valve in each engine nacelle.




Term 194

What does the

L/R AIR VALVElight indicate?

Definition 194

The associated AIR VALVE is not properly positioned in accordance

with the switch selection.

Term 195

What ice protection systems have a light on the

flight status panel?

Definition 195

Engine Anti-Ice&

Prop De-Ice



Term 196

What is indicated by the illumination of the L/R AC

GEN light?

Definition 196

The associated AC GEN has dropped offline

Term 197

The R AC GEN can power the L intake heat.

True or False?

Definition 197

False

Intake heat is the only thing that cannot be powered by the opposite side AC GEN.

Term 198

The blue PROP DE-ICE light on the flight status panel

will go out in case of a system failure.

True or False?

Definition 198

True



Term 199

What is the time cycle for the props in NORM?

Definition 199

ON for 11 seconds, OFF for 79 seconds

Term 200

What is the time cycle for the props in MAX?

Definition 200

ON for 90 seconds, then OFF for 90 seconds

Term 201

The blue L/R ENG ANTI-ICE light on the flight status panel will go out in

case of a system failure.True or false?

Definition 201

False.(Indicative of switch position.)



Term 202

What is the only item on the ice protection panel that is not powered

by the AC wild system?

Definition 202

The STBY PITOT heat (24V)

Term 203

How long must the STBY PITOT heat be on to reach full operating

temperature?

Definition 203

5 minutes

Term 204

How long must the window heat be on to reach full operating temperature?

Definition 204

6 minutes



Term 205

How many phases of the 115v AC wild GEN output are required to power the

pitot, alpha & OAT?

Definition 205

One

Term 206

How many phases of the 115v AC wild

GEN output are required to power

the windshield heat?

Definition 206

Two

Term 207

How many phases of the 115v AC wild GEN output are required to power the

prop heat?

Definition 207

All three phases



Term 208

What is indicated by the illumination of the L/R

INTAKE light?

Definition 208

A failure has occured in the engine duct heating system.

(An intermittent INTAKE light may

indicate operation in

under heat or over heat condition)

Term 209

LANDING GEAR

EMERG gear extension is by free fall or use of hand

pump.

True or False?

Definition 209

True

Term 210

What does the anti-skid need to function?

Definition 210

Anti-Skid switch ON, LDG gear handle down plus

power levers below flight idleOR

wheel speed in excess of 50 knots



Term 211

What is the touchdown brake protection feature?

Definition 211

Prevents brake application until 3 seconds after main

gear compression

ORWheel speed exceeds 50 knots

Term 212

Anti-Skid system cuts out at approximately ___ kts.

Definition 212

20 knots

Term 213

A-SKID INOP light on CWP indicates?

Definition 213

A system faultOR

Gear is down with anti-skid switch OFF



Term 214

Which CWP light comes on if the gear is not down

below 500ft RA?

Definition 214

CONFIG

Term 215

PARK BRK ON light on the CWP indicates?

Definition 215

Brake handle is pulled with a psi of >1700

Term 216

Is it possible to set the brake without the CWP light

coming on?

Definition 216

Yes(Brake will set with 1500 psi but light

will not illuminate until 1700 psi)



Term 217

Where is the Anti-Skid switch located?

Definition 217

On the HYD panel, center console

Term 218

EMERG gear extension & nose wheel steering are powered by what bus?

Definition 218

L & R BAT bus

Term 219

Nose wheel steering is ______ actuated

and ________ operated.

Definition 219

Electrically, Hydraulically



Term 220

Which CWP light comes on with > flaps 15° and gear

not down?

Definition 220

CONFIG

Term 221

What happens when you pull the EMERG LDG GEAR

handle?

Definition 221

• HYD pressure from the EMERG accumulator releases the uplocks

• A path for HYD fluid is opened for the fluid to drain to the reservior

• Explosive bolts detonate and separate the main gear doors from the gear, which extends and locks via gravity, slipstream force & springs.

Term 222

MISC

What is powered by the EES?

Definition 222

The EES powers "DINg"

• DECU• Ignition exciters• Ng indication



Term 223

What is powered by the DECU?

Definition 223

• TRQ indication• ITT indication• Np indication • CTOT & APR functions• Bottom Governing• Auto-Ignition• 1572 PRPM overspeed drain

valve

Term 224

Where does the EES get its power?

Definition 224

Engine driven alternator on the prop gearbox.

Term 225

What are the 3 ways to feather the propellers?

Definition 225

1. Condition levers2. Autocoarsen3. Manual feather



Term 226

What are the 4 levels of prop

overspeed protection?

Definition 226

• Constant speed governor (set by oil pressure)

• Overspeed governor (dumps oil to lower RPMs)

• 1572 rpm overspeed (temporary DECU controlled flameout, with auto relight)

• 110% Ng overspeed (HMU cuts off fuel, with no auto relight)

Term 227

What are the indications of a failed DECU?

Definition 227

• Zero TRQ• Zero Np• ITT reads raw data

Term 228

In order to operate the APR function, what other systems must be

functioning?

Definition 228

Autocoarsen and CTOT



Term 229

What are the 4 fucntions of the HMU?

Definition 229

1. Metered fuel for base governing2. Unmetered fuel for Engine Anti-

Ice/Start Bleed Valve operation3. 110% Ng overspeed protection

fuel cut off4. Fuel cut off via the CLs

Term 230

When are you in bottom governing range?

Definition 230

• CLs are at MIN• PLs are below flight idle • 830-1040 rpm

Term 231

What is the constant speed governor range?

Definition 231

1150-1396 PRPM



Term 232

Why can't the prop be moved to unfeather when

the prop oil is below 25°C?

Definition 232

Because the bottom governor won't engage unless the seal in the HMU has been warmed. Prop oil heats fuel, fuel warms the seal on the torque motor servo piston and it expands. During the time the seal is leaking fuel, the bottom governor will not engage.

Term 233

What happens if you lose the oil pressure in the prop

control unit?

Definition 233

You get a fixed pitch prop

Term 234

What are the 6 amber lights on

the overhead that are not

associated with the CWP?

Definition 234

1. NO BAT START2. X VLV OPEN3. X FEED4. CONN VLV OPEN5. L RECIRC6. R RECIRC

(there are 7 if you count the F/A CALL button too)



Term 235

What indications will you see if the FI stop knob is

inadvertantly pulled during flight?

Definition 235

Both the amber & blue FI stop lights on the flight

status panel will illuminate.

Term 236

What causes the cabin emergency lighting system

to illuminate?

Definition 236

A loss of power to the R main bus

Term 237

Using a HP on the ground for cabin cool down is prohibited between ____

and ____ degrees

Definition 237

0°C - 15°C



Term 238

What voltage will kick off the GPU?

Definition 238

<10v or >31v

Term 239

Maximum time for starter engagement?

Definition 239

70 seconds, 30 of which may be motoring.

Term 240

Max Continuous power limitations?

Definition 240

940°C ITT

• TQ - Green arc• Ng - Red line• Np - Red Line



Term 241

Max ITT for engine start?

Definition 241

965°C

Term 242

Limitations for takeoff power withAPR?

Definition 242

940°C ITT (for 5 minutes)OR

950°C ITT (for 2 minutes)

• TQ - Red line• Ng - Red line• Np - Red Line

Term 243

Takeoff power limitations?

Definition 243

917°C (for 5 minutes)OR

927°C (for 2 minutes)

• TQ - Green arc• Ng - Green arc• Np - Red line



Term 244

What is rough air penetration speed for the Saab?

Definition 244

Va= 190kts up to FL210Va= Vmo - 30kts above FL210

Term 245

Max airspeed for flaps 7° or 15°?

Definition 245

175 knots

Term 246

Max airspeed for flaps 20°?

Definition 246

165 knots



Term 247

Max airspeed for flaps 35°?

Definition 247

140 knots

Term 248

MTOW?

Definition 248

29,000 lbs

Term 249

Max Ramp Weight?

Definition 249

29,300 lbs



Term 250

MLW?

Definition 250

28,500 lbs

Term 251

MZFW?

Definition 251

26,500 lbs

Term 252

On takeoff or landing an pitch of _____ degrees will

cause a tail strike.

Definition 252

13 degrees



Term 253

Max operating altitude?

Definition 253

25,000 feet

Term 254

Min takeoff and landing altitude?

Definition 254

-1,000 ft

Term 255

Max takeoff and landing altitude?

Definition 255

8,000 feet



Term 256

Min temperature for take off?

Definition 256

-55°C

Term 257

Max temperature for takeoff?

Definition 257

47°C (-1,000 to 1,500 ft pressure alt)33°C (at 8,000 ft pressure alt)

Term 258

Runway slope limits for takeoff?

Definition 258

-2% to +1.5%



Term 259

Runway slope limits for landing?

Definition 259

-2% to +2%

Term 260

Max tailwind?

Definition 260

10 knots

Term 261

Flaps UP load limit?

Definition 261

+2.75g to -1.0g



Term 262

Flaps DOWN load limits?

Definition 262

+2.0g to 0g

Term 263

Vlor?

Definition 263

150 knots

Term 264

Vloe?

Definition 264

200 knots



Term 265

Va?

Definition 265

180 knots

Term 266

Vmo?

Definition 266

Max operating KIAS:

• 250 knots (up to 16,000 ft)• 232 knots (at FL200)• 210 knots (at FL250)

Term 267

Vmcl?

Definition 267

Minimum control speed in landing configuration:

(flaps 20° or 35°):

• 103 knots (B+ model)

• 106 knots (B model)



Term 268

Max Altitude for unpressurized flight?

Definition 268

10,000 feet

Term 269

Max cabin differential pressure?

Definition 269

7.5 psi

Term 270

Max cabin differential pressure in AUTO mode?

Definition 270

7.1 psi



Term 271

Max negative differential pressure?

Definition 271

-0.5 psi

Term 272

Max differential pressure for landing?

Definition 272

0.2 psi

Term 273

Max airspeed for windshield wipers on HIGH?

Definition 273

160 knots



Term 274

Max airspeed for windshield wipers on LOW?

Definition 274

130 knots

Term 275

What a/c lights operate on the 5 minute timer?

Definition 275

Cargo & Entry

Term 276

How do you test the bus tie?

Definition 276

With both engines running and both GENs online,

select a GEN switch to OFF. Bus Tie should illuminate.



Term 277

What part of the stall warning system is inhibited when the L/R STALL FAIL

light cones on?

Definition 277

Stick pusher operation

Term 278

Are the trim tabs controlled mechanically?

Definition 278

NoThey are all electrically controlled

Term 279

When the trim switches on the yoke are activated, which elevator trim tab

is actuated?

Definition 279

The Left geared servo tab.



Term 280

Can you pump down the flaps if no electrical power

is available?

Definition 280

NoThe flap selector valve to direct HYD

fluid is electrically operated.

Term 281

What is the problem if there is a loss of background

color on the EADI & ATT? What should you do?

Definition 281

An AHRS failure.Select XSIDE data.

Term 282

If both EFIS tubes on the F/Os side go dark, what has

happened?

What do you do?

Definition 282

A DPU failure.Select DRIVE XFER on the F/Os EFIS

switch



Term 283

What items are on the EMERGENCY AVIONICS BUS?

Definition 283

VHF COMM #1 &

STBY ADI

Term 284

What is powered by the 115v/26v AC inverter?

Definition 284

A♦ F ♦ R ♦ O ♦ G (115v)

• ACARS• Flight data recorder• Radar Stabilization• Overhead Panel Lights• GPWS

plus VOR flags & RMI flags (26V)

Term 285

What items are powered by the HOT BAT BUS?

Definition 285

(Think "FEABLE RAT")

• Fire handle• Engine fire bottle• AHRS backup power• BAT vltage indication• Lights (dome, cargo, entry)• Extinguisher (cargo)• Refueling panel• ACARS back up power• Time (clocks)



Term 286

What things are powered from the EMERGENCY BUS?

Definition 286

(Think WEBALLS)

• Warning system back up power• Emergency voltage indication• Bus tie relay connect function• Audio system back up power• L/R engine fire detection • L/R engine tailpipe hot detection• Stanbyinstrument lighting

Term 287

What warnings are let through during Takeoff

Inhibit mode?

Definition 287

(think "RGAP")

• Red lights• Gust lock• Autocoaren• Parking brake

Term 288

What do you need for the CTOT to work?

Definition 288

• DECU (sends signal to torque motor)

• Torque Motor (fuel injection to CTOT valve beyond that selected by PLs)

• "ON" or "APR" selected • Power levers beyond 64° PLA (to

arm CTOT)



Term 289

What do you need for the APR to work?

Definition 289

• DECU (regulates torque motor ops)

• Torque Motor (fuel injection for CTOT/APR functions)

• CTOT/APR switch to "APR"• Power levers above 64 PLA

(arms APR)• Autocoarsen ON (must be ON to

send the ENG fail signal and activate APR)

Term 290

Ice formation on the engine scroll vanes is prevented by heating from

________________?

Definition 290

Hollow scroll vanes are heated with hot scavenge engine oil.

Term 291

The manually controlled part of the pressurization system is completely

___________ .

Definition 291

Pnuematic



Term 292

During flight if you experience a loss of TRQ & PRPM gauge indications and

have raw data erratic temperature indication, what has happened?

Definition 292

A DECU failure.

Term 293

Anti-Skid is inhibited below what speed?

Definition 293

Below 20 knots (So as not to interfere with braking

and turns.)

Term 294

What causes an autocoarsen event in HIGH mode?

Definition 294

• One engine TRQ is >50%, with other <50%

• A difference of 25% TRQ between engines

• P3 on bad engine <120 psi

with the power levers above 64° PLA



Term 295

What causes an autocoarsen event in LOW mode?

Definition 295

• Ng >55% on good engine• Ng < 55% on bad engine• Starter/Gen rpm <60% on bad

engine

Term 296

What happens if the switch is turned off after an autocoarsen event occurs?

Definition 296

Uncoarsening of the prop

Term 297

During flight if you experience a loss of TRQ, Ng & PRPM gauge indications and have raw data erratic temperature

indication, what has happened?

Definition 297

A failure of the EES

(Loss of DECU will also occurs as it powers it)



Saab 340 Systems Study Cards

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