CCNA 1

1. Which communication tool allows real-time collaboration?

instant messaging*

2. A company is expanding its business to other countries. All branch offices must remain connected to corporate headquarters at all times. Which network technology is required to support this requirement?

WAN*

3. What is the protocol that is used to discover a physical address from a known logical address and what message type does it use?

ARP, broadcast*

4. A host PC has just booted and is attempting to lease an address through DHCP. Which two messages will the client typically broadcast on the network? (Choose two.)

DHCPDISCOVER*

DHCPREQUEST* 5. TFTP is a best-effort, connectionless application layer protocol that is used to

transfer files. 6. Which two components are necessary for a wireless client to be installed on a

WLAN? (Choose two.)

wireless NIC*

wireless client software* 7. On which switch interface would an administrator configure an IP address so that

the switch can be managed remotely?

VLAN 1*

8. Which switching method has the lowest level of latency?

fast-forward*

9. Which WLAN security protocol generates a new dynamic key each time a client establishes a connection with the AP?

WPA*

10. Point-to-point communications where both devices can transmit and receive on the medium at the same time are known as full-duplex .

11. Which type of wireless security makes use of dynamic encryption keys each time a client associates with an AP?

WPA*

12. During data communications, a host may need to send a single message to a specific group of destination hosts simultaneously. This message is in the form of a Multicast message.

13. A logical topology influences the type of network framing and media access control that will be used.

14. What are two features of ARP? (Choose two.)

If a host is ready to send a packet to a local destination device and it has the IP address but not the MAC address of the destination, it generates an ARP broadcast.*

If a device receiving an ARP request has the destination IPv4 address, it responds with an ARP reply.*

15. What are two examples of the cut-through switching method? (Choose two.)

fast-forward switching*

fragment-free switching* 16. Which statement is true about DHCP operation?

When a device that is configured to use DHCP boots, the client broadcasts a DHCPDISCOVER message to identify any available DHCP servers on the networK.*

17. Which type of wireless security is easily compromised?

WEP*

18. A host PC is attempting to lease an address through DHCP. What message is sent by the server to the client know it is able to use the provided IP information?

DHCPOFFER*

19. Which two services or protocols use the preferred UDP protocol for fast transmission and low overhead? (Choose two)

VoIP*

DNS*

CCNA 2

20. What are two features of a link-state routing protocol? (Choose two.)

Routers send triggered updates in response to a change.

Routers create a topology of the network by using information from other routers.

21. Which switching method drops frames that fail the FCS check?

store-and-forward switching

22.

3

23. When a Cisco switch receives untagged frames on a 802.1Q trunk port, which VLAN ID is the traffic switched to by default?

native VLAN ID

24. A college marketing department has a networked storage device that uses the IP address 10.18.7.5, TCP port 443 for encryption, and UDP port 4365 for video streaming. The college already uses PAT on the router that connects to the Internet. The router interface has the public IP address of 209.165.200.225/30. The IP NAT pool currently uses the IP addresses ranging from 209.165.200.228-236. Which configuration would the network administrator add to allow this device to be accessed by the marketing personnel from home?

ip nat inside source static tcp 10.18.7.5 443 209.165.200.225 443

ip nat inside source static udp 10.18.7.5 4365 209.165.200.225 4365

25. Refer to the exhibit. A Layer 3 switch routes for three VLANs and connects to a router for Internet connectivity. Which two configurations would be applied to the switch? (Choose two.)

(config)# interface gigabitethernet 1/1 (config-if)# no switchport

(config)# ip routing 26. A network contains multiple VLANs spanning multiple switches. What happens

when a device in VLAN 20 sends a broadcast Ethernet frame?

Only devices in VLAN 20 see the frame.

27. Refer to the exhibit. R1 was configured with the static route command ip route 209.165.200.224 255.255.255.224 S0/0/0 and consequently users on network 172.16.0.0/16 are unable to reach resources on the Internet. How should this static route be changed to allow user traffic from the LAN to reach the Internet?

Change the destination network and mask to 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0

28. Two employees in the Sales department work different shifts with their laptop computers and share the same Ethernet port in the office. Which set of commands would allow only these two laptops to use the Ethernet port and create violation log entry without shutting down the port if a violation occurs?

switchport mode access switchport port-security switchport port-security maximum 2 switchport port-security mac-address sticky switchport port-security violation restrict

29. Refer to the exhibit. The Gigabit interfaces on both routers have been configured with subinterface numbers that match the VLAN numbers connected to them. PCs on VLAN 10 should be able to print to the P1 printer on VLAN 12. PCs on VLAN 20 should print to the printers on VLAN 22. What interface and in what direction should you place a standard ACL that allows printing to P1 from data VLAN 10, but stops the PCs on VLAN 20 from using the P1 printer? (Choose two.)

Outbound

R1 Gi0/1.12 30. On a switch that is configured with multiple VLANs, which command will remove

only VLAN 100 from the switch?

Switch(config)# no vlan 100

31. What is a function of the distribution layer?

interconnection of large-scale networks in wiring closets

32. Refer to the exhibit. R1 has been configured as shown. However, PC1 is not able to receive an IPv4 address. What is the problem?

The ip helper-address command was applied on the wrong interface.

33. A network administrator is using the router-on-a-stick method to configure inter-VLAN routing. Switch port Gi1/1 is used to connect to the router. Which command should be entered to prepare this port for the task?

Switch(config)# interface gigabitethernet 1/1 Switch(config-if)# switchport mode trunk

34. Which three advantages are provided by static routing? (Choose three.)

The path a static route uses to send data is known.

Static routing does not advertise over the network, thus providing better security.

Static routing typically uses less network bandwidth and fewer CPU operations than dynamic routing does.

35. Which command will create a static route on R2 in order to reach PC B?

R1(config)# ip route 172.16.2.0 255.255.255.0 172.16.3.1

36. Which kind of message is sent by a DHCP client when its IP address lease has expired?

a DHCPREQUEST unicast message

37. What is the purpose of setting the native VLAN separate from data VLANs?

A separate VLAN should be used to carry uncommon untagged frames to avoid bandwidth contention on data VLANs.

38. Which command, when issued in the interface configuration mode of a router, enables the interface to acquire an IPv4 address automatically from an ISP, when that link to the ISP is enabled?

ip address dhcp

39. Refer to the exhibit. How many broadcast and collision domains exist in the topology?

5 broadcast domains and 10 collision domains

40. Which keyword is displayed on the web browser?

Static routes are configured by the use of the ” ip route” global configuration command.

41. Which three pairs of trunking modes will establish a functional trunk link between two Cisco switches? (Choose three.)

dynamic desirable – dynamic auto*

dynamic desirable – dynamic desirable*

dynamic desirable – trunk* 42. Which two characteristics describe the native VLAN? (Choose two.)

The native VLAN provides a common identifier to both ends of a trunk.*

The native VLAN traffic will be untagged across the trunk link.* CCNA3

43. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is attempting to upgrade the IOS system image on a Cisco 2901 router. After the new image has been downloaded and copied to the TFTP server, what command should be issued on the router before the IOS system image is upgraded on the router?

ping 10.10.10.2*

44. The ” backbone ” area interconnects with all other OSPF area types.

45. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator issues the show ipv6 eigrp neighbors command. Which conclusion can be drawn based on the output?

The link-local addresses of neighbor routers interfaces are configured manually.*

46. Refer to the exhibit. Which two conclusions can be derived from the output? (Choose two.)

There is one feasible successor to network 192.168.1.8/30.*

The neighbor 172.16.6.1 meets the feasibility condition to reach the 192.168.1.0/24 network.*

47. What two conditions have to be met in order to form a cluster that includes 5 access points? (Choose two.)

The APs have to be connected on the same network segment.*

Clustering mode must be enabled on the APs.* 48. Which mode configuration setting would allow formation of an EtherChannel link

between switches SW1 and SW2 without sending negotiation traffic?

SW1: on

SW2: on* 49. In a large enterprise network, which two functions are performed by routers at the

distribution layer? (Choose two.)

connect remote networks*

provide data traffic security*

50. Which characteristic would most influence a network design engineer to select a multilayer switch over a Layer 2 switch?

ability to build a routing table*

51. A network administrator enters the spanning-tree portfast bpduguard default command. What is the result of this command being issued on a Cisco switch?

Any switch port that has been configured with PortFast will be error-disabled if it receives a BPDU.*

52. Refer to the exhibit. What are two results of issuing the displayed commands on S1, S2, and S3? (Choose two.)

S1 will automatically adjust the priority to be the lowest.*

S2 can become root bridge if S1 fails.* 53. A remote classroom can successfully access video-intensive streaming lectures

via wired computers. However, when an 802.11n wireless access point is installed and used with 25 wireless laptops to access the same lectures, poor audio and video quality is experienced. Which wireless solution would improve the performance for the laptops? Add another access point.*

54. Which encryption protocol is used by the WPA2 shared key authentication technique? ” AES ”

55. Refer to the exhibit. When the show ip ospf neighbor command is given from the R1# prompt, no output is shown. However, when the show ip interface brief command is given, all interfaces are showing up and up. What is the most likely problem?

R1 or R2 does not have a network statement for the 172.16.100.0 network.*

56. Refer to the exhibit. Which two conclusions can be drawn from the output? (Choose two.)

The EtherChannel is down.*

The port channel ID is 2.*

57. Refer to the exhibit. Based on the command output shown, what is the status of the EtherChannel?

The EtherChannel is in use and functional as indicated by the SU and P flags in the command output.*

58. A network engineer is configuring a LAN with a redundant first hop to make better use of the available network resources. Which protocol should the engineer implement? GLBP*

59. Users on an IEEE 801.11n network are complaining of slow speeds. The network administrator checks the AP and verifies it is operating properly. What can be done to improve the wireless performance in the network?

Split the wireless traffic between the 802.11n 2.4 GHz band and the 5 GHz band.

60. A network administrator is troubleshooting slow performance in a Layer 2 switched network. Upon examining the IP header, the administrator notices that the TTL value is not decreasing. Why is the TTL value not decreasing?

This is the normal behavior for a Layer 2 network.*

61. What is a wireless modulation technique used by 802.11 WLAN standards that can implement MIMO?

OFDM*

62. Which technology is an open protocol standard that allows switches to automatically bundle physical ports into a single logical link?

LACP*

63. A set of switches is being connected in a LAN topology. Which STP bridge priority value will make it least likely for the switch to be selected as the root?

61440*

64. Which wireless network topology is being configured by a technician who is installing a keyboard, a mouse, and headphones, each of which uses Bluetooth?

ad hoc mode*

65. Refer to the exhibit. Which route or routes will be advertised to the router ISP if autosummarization is enabled?

10.0.0.0/8*

66. What method of wireless authentication is dependent on a RADIUS authentication server?

WPA2 Enterprise*

67. A network administrator wants to verify the default delay values for the interfaces on an EIGRP-enabled router. Which command will display these values?

show interfaces*

68. Refer to the exhibit. Interface FastEthernet 0/1 on S1 is connected to Interface FastEthernet 0/1 on S2, and Interface FastEthernet 0/2 on S1 is connected to Interface FastEthernet 0/2 on S2. What are two errors in the present EtherChannel configurations? (Choose two.)

Two auto modes cannot form a bundle.*

The channel group is inconsistent.* 69. Which port role is assigned to the switch port that has the lowest cost to reach

the root bridge? root port*

70. A network administrator has configured an EtherChannel between two switches that are connected via four trunk links. If the physical interface for one of the trunk links changes to a down state, what happens to the EtherChannel?

The EtherChannel will remain functional.*

71. Refer to the exhibit. Which destination MAC address is used when frames are sent from the workstation to the default gateway?

MAC address of the virtual router*

72. What are two requirements to be able to configure an EtherChannel between two switches? (Choose two.)

All the interfaces need to work at the same speed.*

All the interfaces need to be working in the same duplex mode.* 73. At a local college, students are allowed to connect to the wireless network

without using a password. Which mode is the access point using? open*

74. What are three access layer switch features that are considered when designing a network? (Choose three.)

forwarding rate***

Power over Ethernet***

port density***

75. Refer to the exhibit. What can be concluded about network 192.168.1.0 in the R2 routing table?

This network was learned through summary LSAs from an ABR.*

76. An STP instance has failed and frames are flooding the network. What action should be taken by the network administrator?

Redundant links should be physically removed until the STP instance is repaired.*

77. What are the two methods that are used by a wireless NIC to discover an AP? (Choose two.)

receiving a broadcast beacon frame*

transmitting a probe request*

78. Refer to the exhibit. Why did R1 and R2 not establish ad adjacency?

The AS number must be the same on R1 and R2.*

79. Which Cisco IOS Software Release 15.0 technology pack is shipped with a permanent license on all Cisco ISR G2 devices?

IPBase*

80. The spanning-tree “mode rapid-pvst” global configuration command is used to enable

Rapid PVST+.

81. A WLAN user wants to allocate an optimal amount of bandwidth to a specific online game. What is a Linksys Smart Wi-Fi tool that will allow the user to do this?

Bandwidth Prioritization*

82. When a Cisco router is configured with fast-switching, how are packets distributed over equal-cost paths?

on a per-destination basis*

83. A network administrator is analyzing first-hop router redundancy protocols. What is a characteristic of VRRPv3?

It supports IPv6 and IPv4 addressing.*

84. Which two channel group modes would place an interface in a negotiating state using PAgP? (Choose two.)

auto *

desirable *

85. A network administrator is analyzing the features that are supported by different first-hop router redundancy protocols. Which statement is a feature that is associated with GLBP?

GLBP allows load balancing between routers.*

86. A network administrator is analyzing the features that are supported by different first-hop router redundancy protocols. Which statement describes a feature that is associated with HSRP? HSRP uses active and standby routers.*

87. What is the purpose of a Cisco IOS 15 EM release?

It is used for long-term maintenance, enabling customers to qualify, deploy, and remain on the release for an extended period.*

88. Which function is provided by EtherChannel? creating one logical link by using multiple physical links between two LAN switches *

89. Which wireless encryption method is the most secure? -WPA2 with AES *

90. Refer to the exhibit. What are the possible port roles for ports A, B, C and D in this RSTP-enabled network?

alternate, designated, root, root*

91. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is configuring PVST+ for the three switches.

What will be a result of entering these commands?

S3 will set the priority value for VLAN 30 to 8192*

CCNA 4

92. What is a disadvantage of a packet-switched network compared to a circuit-switched network?

higher latency*

93. Which statement describes a characteristic of dense wavelength division multiplexing (DWDM)?

it can be used in long-range communications, like connections between ISPs.*

94. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is troubleshooting the OSPF network. The 10.10.0.0/16 network is not showing up in the routing table of Router1. What is the probable cause of this problem?

There is an incorrect wildcard mask statement for network 10.10.0.0/16 on Router2.*

95. The security policy in a company specifies that the staff in the sales department must use a VPN to connect to the corporate network to access the sales data when they travel to meet customers. What component is needed by the sales staff to establish a remote VPN connection?

VPN client software*

96. Which two statements correctly describe asymmetric encryption used with an IPsec VPN? (Choose two.)

Public key encryption is a type of asymmetric encryption.* Encryption and decryption use a different key.*

97. Which WAN technology can serve as the underlying network to carry multiple types of network traffic such as IP, ATM, Ethernet, and DSL?

MPLS*

98. Which two statements describe remote access VPNs? (Choose two.)

Client software is usually required to be able to access the network.* Remote access VPNs support the needs of telecommuters and mobile users.*

99. Refer to the exhibit. Which three steps are required to configure Multilik PPP on the HQ router? (Choose three.)

Assign the serial interfaces to the multilink bundle.*

Create and configure the multilink interface.*

Enable PPP encapsulation on the serial interfaces.*

100. What are two examples of network problems that are found at the data link layer? (Choose two.)

framing errors*

encapsulation errors*

101. What is required for a host to use an SSL VPN to connect to a remote network device?

A web browser must be installed on the host.*

102. Which IEEE standard defines the WiMax technology?

802.16*

103. The DLCI number assigned to a Frame Relay circuit is to be manually added on a point-to-point link. Which three subinterface commands could be used to complete the configuration? (Choose three.)

ip address ip-address mask*

bandwidth kilobits*

frame-relay interface dlci dlci*

104. What is a type of VPN that is generally transparent to the end user?

site-to-site*

105. Which two statements about DSL are true? (Choose two.)

user connections are aggregated at a DSLAM located at the CO*

local loop can be up to 3.5 miles (5.5km)*

106. Which two technologies are implemented by organizations to support teleworker remote connections? (Choose two.)

VPN*

IPsec*

107. A branch office uses a leased line to connect to the corporate network. The lead network engineer confirms connectivity between users in the branch office, but none of the users can access corporate headquarters. System logs indicate that nothing has changed in the branch office network. What should the engineer consider next to resolve this network outage?

The service provider for the branch office should troubleshoot the issue starting from the point of demarcation.*

108. Two corporations have just completed a merger. The network engineer has been asked to connect the two corporate networks without the expense of leased lines. Which solution would be the most cost effective method of providing a proper and secure connection between the two corporate networks?

site-to-siteVPN*

109. What is a Frame Relay feauture that supports the IP address-to-DLCI dynamic mapping?

Inverse ARP*

110. A small remote office needs to connect to headquarters through a secure IPsec VPN connection. The company is implementing the Cisco Easy VPN solution. Which Cisco Easy VPN component needs to be added on the Cisco router at the remote office?

Cisco Easy VPN Server*