Regd. Office Admission-cum-Scholarship Test
Transcript of Regd. Office Admission-cum-Scholarship Test
INSTRUCTIONS TO THE CANDIDATES
1. The initial 10 minutes are earmarked for the candidates to carefully read the instructions. (Note : The
candidates are not allowed to either look inside the question booklet or start answering during these
initial 10 minutes.)
2. The question booklet and answer sheet are issued separately at the start of the examination.
3. This question booklet contains 90 questions.
4. Read each question carefully.
5. Determine the correct answer, one out of the four available choices given under each question.
6. It is mandatory to use Blue/Black Ball Point Pen to darken the appropriate circle in the answer sheet.
7. For each correct answer, four marks will be awarded. There is no negative marking.
For Example
Q. 12 : In the Question Booklet is : Which one is known as ‘black gold’?
(Answer Sheet)
(1) Old gold Q.12. � � � �
(2) Petroleum
(3) Silver
(4) Coal
Thus as the correct answer is choice 2, the candidate should darken completely (with a blue/black Ball
point pen only) the circle corresponding to choice 2 against Question No. 12 on the Answer Sheet. If
more than one circle is darkened for a given question such answer will be rejected.
8. Do not use white-fluid or any other rubbing material on answer sheet. No change in the answer once
marked is allowed. Before handing over the answer sheet to the invigilator, candidate should check that
Roll No. and Test-Booklet code have been filled and marked correctly.
9. Rough work should be done only on the space provided in the question booklet.
10. Immediately after the prescribed examination time is over, the Answer sheet and Question booklet
are to be returned to the invigilator. If the candidate wants to leave the examination hall before time,
he/she should hand over the question paper and answer sheet to the invigilator. However, no student can
leave the examination hall before half time.
Regd. Office : Aakash Tower, Plot No.-4, Sec-11, MLU, Dwarka, New Delhi-110075
Ph.: 011-47623456 Fax : 011-47623472
Admission-cum-Scholarship Test(Sample Paper)
(Integrated Classroom Course for Olympiads, NTSE & Class X 2017)
(Syllabus of the Test : Science & Mathematics of Class IX)
Time : 2 Hrs. Max.Marks : 360
Test Booklet Code : A
Space For Rough Work
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Integrated Classroom Course for Olympiads, NTSE & Class X 2017 Sample Paper
SCIENCE
Choose the correct answer :
1. Two objects of mass 1 kg and 2 kg are fixed at a
certain distance between them. If a mass of 4 kg,
placed between them, attains equilibrium at a
distance r from the smaller mass, then its distance
from the larger mass will be
(1) r (2) 2 r
(3) 2r (4) 4r
2. Which of the following speed-time graph is not
possible physically?
(1)
t
v
(2)
t
v
(3) t
v
(4) t
v
3. If ratio of relative densities of two liquids is 2 : 5,
then the ratio of their densities would be
(1) 5 : 2 (2) 1 : 1
(3) 2 : 5 (4) 2 : 3
4. Acceleration due to gravity on the surface of earth
is g. What will be the acceleration due to gravity
on the surface of a planet having same mass and
diameter half as that of earth?
(1)2
g(2)
4
g
(3) 4g (4) 2g
5. A body of mass 15 kg moving with a velocity of
10 m/s, is brought to rest by applying brakes.
Work done by the brakes is
(1) –250 J (2) –500 J
(3) –750 J (4) –1000 J
6. A shell explodes and its pieces fly off in opposite
directions. Which of the following quantities will be
conserved?
(1) Kinetic energy only
(2) Momentum only
(3) Neither momentum nor kinetic energy
(4) Both momentum and kinetic energy
7. Identify the mechanical wave from the following.
(1) Sound waves (2) X-rays
(3) -rays (4) -rays
8. An object weights 600 N when measured on the
surface of earth. What would be its mass when
measured on the surface of the moon? [g = 10 m/
s2]
(1) 100 kg (2) 600 kg
(3) 60 kg (4) 36 kg
9. According to Archimedes principle when a body is
immersed fully or partially in a liquid, it
experiences an upward force that is equal to
(1) Weight of the body
(2) Weight of the part of body which is immersed
(3) Weight of the liquid displaced by it
(4) Weight of the part of body not immersed
10. If the wavelength of a sound wave is 35 cm and its
frequency is 2 kHz, then speed of the wave is
(1) 350 m/s (2) 700 m/s
(3) 175 m/s (4) 7000 m/s
11. For an object undergoing uniformly accelerated
motion, average velocity is given by [symbols have
their usual meaning]
(1)–
2
v u
(2)2
v u
(3)
2 2
2
v u(4)
2 2–
2
v u
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Sample Paper Integrated Classroom Course for Olympiads, NTSE & Class X 2017
12. The velocity time graph of a body is shown below.
The corresponding displacement time graph will be
V
t
(1)
S
t
(2)
S
t
(3)
S
t
(4)
S
t
13. Sound from a source vibrating at frequency 200 Hz
travels at speed of 300 m/s in air. Wavelength of
the sound is
(1) 15 m (2) 1.5 m
(3) 150 m (4) 6 m
14. An object is thrown up with a speed of 50 m/s. Its
height from the ground after 7 s is [Take g = 10 m/s2]
(1) 125 m (2) 20 m
(3) 105 m (4) 100 m
15. A net force of 20 N acts on a 5 kg mass kept at
rest. Distance travelled by the mass in 6 s is
(1) 72 m (2) 36 m
(3) 24 m (4) 12 m
16. Which of the following has the maximum number
of moles?
(1) 112 g of Na
(2) 50 g of Ne
(3) 40 g of He
(4) 60 g of C
17. If 10 g of sugar is dissolved in 90 g of water, then
what will be the mass percentage (w/w) of the
solution?
(1) 10% (2) 9%
(3) 1.11% (4) 0.11%
18. Which of the following mixtures can be separated
by sublimation?
(1) NaCl and KCl (2) NH4Cl and NaCl
(3) KCl and CaCl2
(4) MgCl2 and CaCl
2
19. Which of the following elements has the valency of
2?
(1) Sodium (2) Carbon
(3) Boron (4) Oxygen
20. The chemical formula of ammonium phosphate is
(1) (NH4)2PO
4(2) NH
4PO
4
(3) NH4(PO
4)3
(4) (NH4)3PO
4
21. Brass is an alloy of
(1) Copper and tin (2) Copper and zinc
(3) Iron and copper (4) Iron and zinc
22. The process ‘X’, ‘Y’ and ‘Z’ respectively are
Salt +Sand+Ammoniumchloride
Process ‘X’Salt +Sand
+ Ammonium chloride
Dissolu-tion inwater
Sand +Salt +Water
Salt +Water
Process ‘Y’Process ‘Z’Puresaltcrystals +
Sand(1) Melting, filtration and evaporation
(2) Evaporation, crystallisation and filtration
(3) Sublimation, filtration and crystallisation
(4) Sublimation, crystallisation and evaporation
23. Which of the following elements becomes liquid at
a temperature slightly above room temperature?
(1) Boron (2) Gallium
(3) Germanium (4) Bromine
24. The total number of oxygen atoms present in
1.12 g quick lime is
(1) 6.022 1022 (2) 6.022 1023
(3) 1.204 1022 (4) 1.204 1023
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Integrated Classroom Course for Olympiads, NTSE & Class X 2017 Sample Paper
25. The isotope of an element ‘X’ is used as a fuel in
the nuclear reactor. Element ‘X’ is
(1) Carbon (2) Hydrogen
(3) Iodine (4) Uranium
26. Read the following statements carefully
(A) One water atom contains two hydrogen atoms
and one oxygen atom.
(B) Number of moles of oxygen atom present in
0.22 g of carbon dioxide is 0.01.
(C) The charge on the particle which was
discovered by J.J. Thomson is negative.
The correct statements are/is
(1) Only (A) (2) Both (A) & (C)
(3) Both (B) & (C) (4) All (A), (B) & (C)
27. The electronic configuration of an element with
atomic number 20 is
(1) 2, 8, 10 (2) 2, 8, 8, 2
(3) 2, 8, 2, 8 (4) 2, 2, 8, 8
28. The molecular mass of calcium carbonate is
(1) 50 u (2) 75 u
(3) 100 u (4) 120 u
29. The composition of the nuclei of three elements are
given as
A B C
Number of neutrons 6 8 7
Number of protons 6 6 7
Elements
Consider the following statements
(i) The atomic number of element 'B' is 6 and
mass number of both 'A' and 'C' is 14
(ii) Element 'A' and 'B' are isotopes
(iii) Element 'A' and 'C' are isobars
Which of the given statement(s) is/are correct?
(1) Only (i) (2) Both (i) & (ii)
(3) Only (ii) (4) All (i), (ii) & (iii)
30. The dispersion medium in milk is
(1) Liquid (2) Gas
(3) Solid (4) Plasma
31. Who divided kingdom Monera into Archaebacteria
and Eubacteria?
(1) Robert Whittaker (2) Carolus Linnaeus
(3) Carl Woese (4) Aristotle
32. 'X' which causes Japanese Encephalitis is carried
by 'Y' and affect the organ 'Z' in humans. Identify
'X', 'Y' and 'Z'.
(1) X-bacterium, Y-mosquito and Z-liver
(2) X-virus, Y-air and Z-lung
(3) X-fungus, Y-water and Z-kidney
(4) X-virus, Y-mosquito and Z-brain
33. Statement-1: Rainfall patterns are decided by
prevailing wind patterns.
Statement-2: In large parts of India, rains are
mostly brought by the south-west or north-west
monsoons.
(1) Both the statements are true
(2) Both the statements are false
(3) Statement-1 is true and statement-2 is false
(4) Statement-2 is true and statement-1 is false.
34. Which of the following cell organelles is
responsible for storage, modification and packaging
of products in vesicles?
(1) Lysosomes
(2) Mitochondria
(3) Endoplasmic reticulum
(4) Golgi apparatus
35. Identify the connective tissue on the basis of given
information.
� It fills the space inside the organs.
� It supports internal organs and helps in repair
of tissues.
(1) Cartilage
(2) Ligament
(3) Adipose tissue
(4) Areolar connective tissue
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Sample Paper Integrated Classroom Course for Olympiads, NTSE & Class X 2017
36. Select the incorrect match.
(1) Mycoplasma – Monera
(2) Agaricus – Fungi
(3) Ulothrix – Protista
(4) Marchantia – Plantae
37. Statement-1: Making anti-bacterial medicines is
harder than making anti-viral medicines.
Statement-2 : Viruses have few biochemical
mechanisms of their own.
(1) Both the statements are correct
(2) Both the statements are incorrect
(3) Statement 1 is correct and statement 2 is
incorrect
(4) Statement 1 is incorrect and statement 2 is
correct
38. Select the incorrect statement w.r.t. the organism
given in the figure.
(Housefly)Musca
(1) It has bilateral symmetry and segmented body
(2) It belongs to the largest group of animals
(3) It has closed circulatory system
(4) It has jointed legs
39. How many of the following crops are grown in rainy
season?
(i) Paddy (ii) Wheat
(iii) Linseed (iv) Mustard
(v) Soyabean (vi) Cotton
(1) Three (2) Two
(3) Five (4) Four
40. Identify the cell organelle on the basis of the given
information.
These are sacs for storing solid and liquid
contents.
These are small sized in animal cells and very
large sized in plant cells.
(1) Mitochondria (2) Lysosomes
(3) Vacuoles (4) SER
41. Select an incorrect statement w.r.t. the given
figure.
(1) It controls a voluntary actions
(2) Its cells are spindle-shaped and uninucleate
(3) It is also called unstriated muscle
(4) It is found in ureters and bronchi
42. Which of the following groups of diseases are
caused by bacteria?
(1) Dengue, anthrax and cholera
(2) Typhoid, cholera and tuberculosis
(3) Malaria, AIDS and elephantiasis
(4) Kala azar, influenza and typhoid
43. Statement-1: Oxygen is an abundant element on
our earth.
Statement-2: Oxygen from atmosphere is used up
in processes like combustion, photosynthesis,
respiration, etc.
(1) Both the statements are true
(2) Both the statements are false
(3) Statement-1 is true and statement-2 is false
(4) Statement-1 is false and statement-2 is true
44. How many micronutrients given in the box are
absorbed by plants through soil?
Nitrogen, Hydrogen, Sulphur, Zinc,
Iron, Magnesium
(1) Two (2) Three
(3) Four (4) Five
45. Which of the following permanent tissues becomes
modified to give buoyancy to aquatic plants and
helps them float?
(1) Collenchyma (2) Parenchyma
(3) Sclerenchyma (4) Xylem
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Integrated Classroom Course for Olympiads, NTSE & Class X 2017 Sample Paper
MATHEMATICS
46. Which of the following is not a rational number?
(1)7
11 (2) 7.232332333.....
(3) 0 (4) 18.25
47. Which of the following points is a solution of the
linear equation 2 3 4?x y
(1) (3, 2) (2) ( 2, 4)
(3) ( 3, 2) (4) ( 2, 2)
48. The statements which are proved using definitions,
axioms, previously proved statements and
deductive reasoning are called
(1) Theorems (2) Axioms
(3) Postulates (4) Consistent axioms
49. In the given figure, ABCD is a cyclic quadrilateral
with its circumcircle having centre O. Side DC is
extended to E. If BOD = 160°, then BCE is of
160°
O
A B
CD E
(1) 40° (2) 80°
(3) 20° (4) 160°
50. If points C and D lie between two points A and B
such that AC = CD = DB, then CB is equal to
(1)2
3AB (2)
3
AB
(3)1
2AB (4)
4
AB
51. Area of a rhombus, whose diagonals are of length
10 cm and 24 cm respectively, is
(1) 240 sq. cm
(2) 120 sq. cm
(3) 60 sq. cm
(4) 480 sq. cm
52. Which of the following angles cannot be
constructed with the help of a compass and a
scale?
(1) 30° (2)1
222
(3) 165° (4) 87°
53. The difference between total surface area and
curved surface area of a hemisphere of radius r is
(1) 2r2 (2) 3r
2
(3) r2 (4) 4r
2
54. If there are 20 blue balls, 15 red balls and 10
green balls in a bag and a ball is drawn at random
from the bag, then the probability of the ball not to
be green is
(1)2
9(2)
4
9
(3)13
9(4)
7
9
55. If (3, – 4) lies on the graph of the equation 4x +
3ky = 2, then the value of k is
(1) –6 (2)5
6
(3) 6 (4)5
6
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Sample Paper Integrated Classroom Course for Olympiads, NTSE & Class X 2017
56. If PQ || RS || UV and a transversal AB intersects
PQ, RS and UV at C, D and E respectively, then
which of the following is an incorrect conclusion?
A
C
D
E
S
QP
R
U V
B
(1) ACQ + VEB = 180°
(2) ACQ = UEB
(3) RDE + VEB = 180°
(4) ACP = DEV
57. ABC and PBC are two isosceles triangles on
the same base BC such that AB = AC and
PB = PC. If BAC = 30° and BPC = 40°, then
ABP is
B C
P
A
(1) 170°
(2) 135°
(3) 145°
(4) 180°
58. In the given ABC, if AC > AB and ADB >
ADC, then
B D C
A
(1) BAD > CAD (2) BAD < CAD
(3) BAD = CAD (4) BAD CAD
59. x3 + 3x
2 – 2x – 6 can be factorised as
(1) ( 3)( 3)( 2)x x x
(2) (x + 2) (x – 3) (x + 1)
(3) (x – 2) (x + 3) (x – 1)
(4) ( 2)( 2)( 3)x x x
56. If the ratio of curved surface area and total surface
area of a cone is 3 : 4, then the ratio of height and
radius of the cone is
(1) 4 2 :1 (2) 2 2 :1
(3) 3 : 1 (4) 2 : 1
61. If (x – 3) and (x – 2) are factors of ax3 – 19x
2 + bx
– 6, then 13a + 2b is equal to
(1) 200 (2) 300
(3) 100 (4) 150
62. A polynomial of degree 6 in y has at most____
unlike terms
(1) 6 (2) 5
(3) 7 (4) 2
63. In the given figure, PQ || SW and QT || UV. If
PQT = 70°, then the measure of VUW is
PS
R
U
W
Q T
V
(1) 110° (2) 70°
(3) 120° (4) 20°
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Integrated Classroom Course for Olympiads, NTSE & Class X 2017 Sample Paper
64. In the given figure, DEAL is a rectangle. If P and
Q are the mid-points of AL and DL respectively,
then the length of PQ is
L P A
D E24 cm
18 cmQ
(1) 60 cm (2) 90 cm
(3) 15 cm (4) 30 cm
65. The mean of first eight composite natural numbers
is
(1) 10 (2) 9.75
(3) 3.625 (4) 8
66. The probability of an event of a trial cannot be
(1)1
2(2)
2
3
(3)4
3(4)
5
6
67. The distance of the point (–6, –2) from the x-axis
is
(1) 8 units (2) 6 units
(3) 2 units (4) 4 units
68. In the given figure, O is the centre of a circle. If
OA = 10 cm, AB = 16 cm, then the distance of
AB from the centre is
A C B
O
(1) 12 cm (2) 10 cm
(3) 8 cm (4) 6 cm
69. If 1
,3 2 2
x
then the value of
2
1
x
⎛ ⎞⎜ ⎟⎝ ⎠
is
(1) 17 12 2 (2) 17 2 2
(3) 12 17 2 (4) 12 17 2
70. If p2 + 4p + q
2 + 8q + r2 + 10r = –45, then the
value of p + q – r is
(1) 11 (2) –1
(3) 1 (4) –11
71. In the given figure, NETA is a square. If PQ || EA
and M is the mid-point of PQ, then which of the
following is true?
3 12
4 8
6
M
PA T
7
5
Q
EN
(1)1
7 82
(2) 3 = 24
(3) 12 (4) 56
72. On putting x = 15 in x – 10 0,7
y we get y2 –
5 as
(1) 1225 (2) 1210
(3) 1220 (4) 1230
73. To construct a triangle, if its base and a base
angle are given, then which of the following
conditions must also be given?
(1) Product of other two sides
(2) Sum of other two angles
(3) Difference of other two sides
(4) Difference of other two angles
74. The capacity (in liters) of a cylindrical vessel of
height 100 cm and radius 70 cm is
(1) 1540 (2) 15.4
(3) 154 (4) 1.54
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Sample Paper Integrated Classroom Course for Olympiads, NTSE & Class X 2017
75. If ax3 – b3 = (3x – 2) (9x
2 + 6x + 4), then the value
of a – (b)2 is
(1) 27 (2) 4
(3) 23 (4) 25
76. Three coins are tossed 570 times and the
outcomes are recorded as below:
Number of tail 3 2 1 0
Frequency 255 90 125 100
Based on this information, the probability of getting
at most two tails is
(1)23
28(2)
21
38
(3)3
19(4)
15
38
77. If the curved surface area of a cone is 550 cm2 and
its radius is 7 cm, then the volume of the cone is
(1) 1323 cm3 (2) 1332 cm3
(3) 1232 cm3 (4) 1233 cm3
78. In the given figure, AC and BD are two diameters
and O is the centre of the circle. If OP and OR are
the angle bisectors of DOC and AOB
respectively, then BR is always equal to
R
A
P
OC
B
D
(1) DC (2) PC
(3) AO (4) OC
79. If the area of an equilateral triangle is2
4 3 cm ,
then the perimeter of triangle is (in cm)
(1) 16 (2) 12
(3) 14 (4) 10
80. ABCD is a rhombus and OP AD. If AOP = 20°,
then measure of CBO is equal to
20°
D B
A
C
P
O
(1) 70° (2) 90°
(3) 20° (4) 50°
81. ABCD and PQCA are two parallelograms. If
ar(ABCD) = x sq. units, then ar(APQC) is equal to
A
P
B
Q
CD
(1) 2x sq. units (2) x sq. units
(3)2
x
sq. units (4) 3x sq. units
82. In a frequency distribution, the mid value of a class
is 12.5 and the width of the class is 7. The lower
limit and upper limit of the class are respectively
(1) 10, 17 (2) 9, 16
(3) 12, 19 (4) 8, 17
83. The volume of the largest right circular cone that
can be fitted in a cube whose edge is 4r is equal
to
(1) Volume of a hemisphere of radius r
(2) Volume of a sphere of radius 2
r
(3) Volume of a hemisphere of radius 2r
(4) Volume of a sphere of radius 2r
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Integrated Classroom Course for Olympiads, NTSE & Class X 2017 Sample Paper
84. If x3001 + 71 is divided by x + 1, then the remainder
is
(1) 72 (2) 0
(3) 1 (4) 70
85. An equation of the type y = mx, where m is any
real number, represents a line
(1) Passing through (0, 1)
(2) Passing through (10, 0)
(3) Parallel to x-axis
(4) Parallel to y-axis
86. The value of 2.9 + 2.19 in the form p
q, where p
and q are integers and q 0 is
(1)21
5(2)
26
5
(3)17
5(4)
14
5
87. Which of the following expressions is a
polynomial?
(1)1
1 5
3 xx (2) 1 3x
(3)( 3)( 5)x x
x
(4)
7/29 2
5
x x
x
88. In the given figure, if PQRS is a parallelogram,
then which of the following alternatives is not true?
O
Q
SM
N
R
P
(1) ar(POM) = ar(QOR)
(2) ar(QRM) = ar(SMN)
(3) ar(PSM) = ar(SMN)
(4) ar(PRS) = ar(PNS)
89. In a parallelogram PQRS, if P = 70°, then the
measure of S is
(1) 120° (2) 60°
(3) 110° (4) 70°
90. The point of the form (b, b) always lies on the line
(1) y = 0 (2) x = 0
(3) x – y = 0 (4) y + x = 0
� � �
Answers
Test Booklet Code: A
Regd. Office : Aakash Tower, Plot No.-4, Sec-11, MLU, Dwarka, New Delhi-110075
Ph.: 011-47623456 Fax : 011-47623472
19. (4)
20. (4)
21. (2)
22. (3)
23. (2)
24. (3)
25. (4)
26. (3)
27. (2)
28. (3)
29. (3)
30. (1)
31. (3)
32. (4)
33. (3)
34. (4)
35. (4)
36. (3)
1. (2)
2. (3)
3. (3)
4. (3)
5. (3)
6. (2)
7. (1)
8. (3)
9. (3)
10. (2)
11. (2)
12. (4)
13. (2)
14. (3)
15. (1)
16. (3)
17. (1)
18. (2)
37. (4)
38. (3)
39. (1)
40. (3)
41. (1)
42. (2)
43. (3)
44. (1)
45. (2)
46. (2)
47. (4)
48. (1)
49. (2)
50. (1)
51. (2)
52. (4)
53. (3)
54. (4)
Admission-cum-Scholarship Test(Sample Paper)
(Integrated Classroom Course for Olympiads, NTSE & Class X 2017)
55. (2)
56. (4)
57. (3)
58. (2)
59. (4)
60. (2)
61. (3)
62. (3)
63. (1)
64. (3)
65. (2)
66. (3)
67. (3)
68. (4)
69. (1)
70. (2)
71. (3)
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85. (2)
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88. (3)
89. (3)
90. (3)