Recalls September 2016 Paper 1
Transcript of Recalls September 2016 Paper 1
Recalls September 2016 Paper 1
Anatomy
1.During Laparoscopy injury to vessel during right lateral port insertion this vessel is a branch of which artery?
External iliac artery
Internal iliac artery
Uterine artery
Aorta
Inferior epigastric artery
Answer : External iliac artery
2.which structure Forms the lateral wall of the ischio-rectal fossa
A. Skin
B. Anal canal
C. Obturator internus fascia
D. Vagina
E. Rectum
ANSWER : Obturator internus fascia
3. To perform an elective lower segment caesarean section, the obstetrician
makes a transverse suprapubic incision. Which of the following abdominal wall
layers will not be encountered transected during this incision?
A. Anterior rectus sheath
B. Posterior rectus sheath
C. Rectus abdominis muscle
D. Skin and subcutaneous tissue
E. Transversalis fascia and parietal peritoneum
ANSWER : Posterior rectus sheath
4. At what level ovarian artery arise
L2
L1
L4
Answer : L2
5. Which of the following muscles leaves the lesser pelvis through the greater
sciatic foramen?
A. pubococcygeus
B. Iliococcygeus
C. Puborectalis
D. Piriformis
E. Coccygeus
ANSWER : Piriformis
6. To reduce postoperative pain after caesarean section, an obstetrician performs
ilioinginal-iliohypogastric nerve block (IINB) on his 25-year-old patient. What is the
nerve root of ilioinguinal and iliohypogastric nerve?
A. T12
B. T12 and L1
C. L1
D. L2
E. L1 and L2
ANSWER : L1
7. Following radical hysterectomy and pelvic lymphadenectomy for Stage I carcinoma of the cervix,
63-year-old woman reports weakness of hip adduction. Which nerve most likely to have been injured during the operation?
A. Obturator nerve
B. Femoral nerve
C. Inferior gluteal nerve
D. Superior gluteal nerve
E. Sciatic nerve
ANSWER Obturator nerve
8. Surgeon wants to take blood from femoral artery. What is the relation of nerve with femoral artery and vein from lateral to medial?
VAN
NAV
AVN
Answer NAV
9. Dorsal artery of clitoris and deep artery of clitoris are a branch of?
External iliac artery
Internal pudendal artery
Answer :Internal pudendal artery
10. What is the dermatome level at suprapubic incision
T10
L1
T12
L2
Answer L1
11. What is the level of dermatome for epidural at umblical region ?
L1
T12
T10
L3
L4
Answer T10
12. What is the nerve supply of external anal sphincter ?
Pelvic splanchnic nerve
Pudendal Nerve
Inferior hypogastric plexus
Answer : Pudendal nerve
13.Which structure in female is homologous to male prostate?
Skene gland
Gartner duct
Bartholin’s gland
Answer : Skene s gland
14. Pudendal cleft is defined as
Area btw labia majora and thigh
Area btw labia majora and hymen
Area between labia majora
Answer area btw labia majora
15. What is the anatomical location of Bartholin’s gland?
A. Deep perineal pouch
B. Ischiorectal fossa
C. Pudendal canal
D. Superficial perineal pouch
E. Urogenital diaphragm
Answer : superficial perineal pouch
16. Pyramidalis is supplied by which nerve?
Obturator n.
Genitofemoral nerve.
Subcostal nerve
Ilioinguinal
Iliohypogastric
Answer: subcostal nerve
17. Pain due to ovarion irritation can be felt through which nerve segment
A. T10
B. T12
C. L1
D.L2
18. During Laparoscopy structure is seen which is a remnant of Mesonephric duct
Epoophoron
Gartner duct cyst
Ovarian ligament
Answer Epoophoron
19.During Sacrospinous ligament fixation which artery can be damaged
Internal pudendal artery
Internal iliac
External iliac
Femoral artery
Inferior vesical artery
Answer : Internal pudendal artery
20. Superior vesicles artery is direct branch from
Anterior division of Internal iliac
External iliac
Umbilical artery
21 In Renal transplant kidney is anastomosed to
Vesical artery
Aorta
External iliac artery
Internal iliac artery
Uterine artery
Answer : external iliac artery
22. Symphysis diathesis in a patient ..what is the type of joint which is involves
Primary cartilaginous
Secondary cartilaginous
Synovial
Answer : Secondary cartilaginous
EMBRYOLOGY
23. Correct relation of round ligament with its embryological origin and anatomy is:
Gubernaculum ovarii. In front of the uterine cornu to the labia majora
Gubernaculum ovaria. In front of the uterine cornu to the ovarian ligament
Paramesonephric duct. In front of the uterine cornu to the labia majora
Paramesonephric duct. Behind the uterine cornu to the labia majora
Answer: Gubernaculum ovarii. In front of the uterine cornu to the labia majora
24. Partial mole genotype
46XX
69 XXY
47XX
46XY
Answer 69XXY
25. Layer surrounding the zona pellucida?
Mural granulosa cell
Cumulus oophorus
Basal lamina
Theca externa
Theca interna
26.. What happened to decidua basalis is in third trimester?
Remain decidua basalis
Become nutabach
Disappear
Merge with placenta
27. The ureteric bud is derived from which of the following embryonic structures?
A. Urogenital sinus
B. Pronephros
C. Mesonephros
D. Mesonephric duct
Answer Mesonephric duct
28. Lower part of vagina is derived from
Ectoderm
Endoderm
Urogenital sinus
Mesonephric duct
Answer : Endoderm
29. Which hernia will be the result of small defect in lateral umblical region due to regression of umblical vein
Congenital umbilical hernia
Omphalocele
Gastroschisis
Answer : Gastroschisis
30. The medial umbilical ligament is a remnant of what structure?
Fetal paraumbilical veins
Fetal umbilical arteries
Lateralumbilical fold
Urachus
Answer : fetal umblical arteries
31. In the new non invasive prenatal diagnostic test of cell -free fetal DNA what is the source of the cells in maternal blood ?
Fetal WBCs
Fetal fibroblasts
Amniotic cells
Placental trophoblast
Answer : placental trophoblast
32. Embryological origin of GnRH neurons
neural crest
Neural tube
Olfactory bulb
Hypothalamus
33. Gastrulation is the process of
Answer : Triple germ cell layer formation
34. Indifferent gonads arise from
Intermediate mesoderm
Paraxial mesoderm
Endoderm
Ectoderm
Answer : intermediate mesoderm
35. What is the name of structure that shunts oxygenated blood from the right to
left atrium in the fetus?
A. Ductus arteriosus
B. Ductus venosus
C. Foramen ovale
D. Ligamentum venosum
E. Pulmonary trunk
ANSWER : Foramen ovale
36. Which of the following agents can cause premature closure of the patent
ductus arteriosus?
A. Prostaglandin E1
B. Nitric oxide
C. Cortisone
D. Acetaminophen
E. Indomethacin
ANSWER : Indomethacin
Statistic
37. What do the bottom and top represent on the box-and-whisker plot?
A. Mean and mode
B. Mean and median
C. Standard deviation and mean
D. Least and greatest value
E. Lower and upper quartile
ANSWER : Lower and upper quartile
38. You wish to investigate the time it takes to perform a caesarean section on
women with and without pre-eclampsia. At the end of the study you have two
groups of women with the duration of caesarean sections recorded for each. It
can't be assumed that these are normally distributed.
Which non-parametric statistic test would you use?
A. Chi-squared test
B. Linear regression analysis
C. Mann-Whitney U test
D. Pearson’s R test
E. Student’s t-test
ANSWER : Mann-Whitney U test
39. .Data was collected from maternal records of the women having shoulder dystocia at delivery
and reviewed and compared with normal deliveries along with birth weight of babies.what is the type of study
Retrospective cohort
Case Control
Cross sectional
Randomised control
Answer : retrospective cohort
40.. The number of hours worked per week for a sample of students is shown
below
Hours. students
1. 12
2. 9
3. 29
4. 28
5. 15
6. 10
7. 18
8. 15
What is the mode of the above data?
10
4
3
12
2
ANSWER : 3
41. Calculate the odds ratio of asymmetrical iugr and symmetrical iugr ....etc etc
Assymetrical. Symmetrical
Apgar <7. 2. 10
2. 40
4
2.5
16
1.5
Answer: 4
42. .What type of variable is BMI ?
Ordinal
Nominal
Continuous
Categorical
Discrete
43. How to calculate standard error of the mean ?
Answer : SEM = SD/√n
44. A range of one SD above and one SD below the mean includes CI of
68.2%
95.4%
99.7%
Answer 68.2%
45. Which one of the following statements best describes a type I statistical
(α error)?
A. Rejecting a null hypothesis when there is a difference
B. Rejecting a null hypothesis when there is no difference
C. Rejecting the alternative hypothesis when there is a difference
D. Accepting a null hypothesis when there is a difference
E. Accepting the alternative hypothesis when there is a difference
ANSWER : Rejecting a null hypothesis when there is no difference
46. 700 women were enrolled for the assesment of PPV for test preterm labour?320 women were
test positive out of them 80 had preterm labor .380 were test negative and out of them 20 had preterm labor.what ia the positive predictive value of the test?
25%
50%
70%
10%
100%
Answer. :25%
Genetics
47.. In which phase of the cell cycle do chromosome are allign to the equatorial plate
Metaphase
Anaphase
Telophase
Interphase
Answer metaphase
48. Which chromosomes are capable of robertsonian translocation
C. 16, 17,18, 20
D. 9, 10, 11, 12
E. 13, 14, 15, 21, 22
Answer : 13, 14, 15, 21, 22
49. .In which stage DNA replicates.
G1
G0
G2
S phase
Answer S phase
50. What is the primary function of DNA polymerase?
Addition of nucleotide
DNA repair
51. Which one of the following stages of the cell cycle is cell become quiescent?
A. Synthetic phase (S)
B. Gap phase 1 (G1)
C. Gap phase 0 (G0)
D. Gap phase 2 (G2)
E. Mitotic phase (M)
ANSWER : Gap phase 0 (G0)
52.. Mother has sickle cell disease married to sickle cell trait husband chance of baby to having disease
25%
50%
75%
100%
Answer 50%
53. Father with cystic fibrosis mother normal
Chance of baby to have cystic fibrosis ?
0%
25%
50%
Answer 0%
54.. What role does messenger RNA play in the synthesis of proteins?
Translation
55. Detection of protein?
Southern plot
Northen plot
Western plot
PCR
Answer : western plot
56. Which nucleotide only present in DNA
Answer Thymine
57. Which protein coiled in DNA ?
Answer Histones
58. Image
What is the diagnosis?
Answer : Klinefelter syndrome
59. Pedigree of X linked recessive
Endocrinology
60. Which hormone prevent regression of corpus luteum?
Hcg
Progesterone
Estrogen
HPL
FSH
Answer hcg
61. Estradiol 20% bound to?
A)shbg
B)albumin
Answer : albumin
62..Patient with primary hyperparathyroidism what will be the correct value of calcium and
phosphate
Inc Ca. Dec phosphate
Dec Ca. Inc phosphate
Inc Ca. Inc phosphate
Dec Ca. Dec phosphate
Answer : increase Ca. Dec phosphate
63. ADH synthesised in
Para ventricular nucleus of hypothalamus
Acidophillic cells of anterior pituitary
Neuroendocrine cells of posterior pituitary
Answer : para ventricular nucleus of the hypothalamus
64. HPL similar to?
FSH
GH
Answer : GH
65. What is the second common cause of congenital adrenal hyperplasia (CAH)?
A. 17-hydroxylase deficiency
B. 21-hydroxylase deficiency
C. 11-Beta hydroxylase deficiency
D. 3 Beta- hydroxysteroid dehydrogenase deficiency
E. 17 Beta-hydroxysteroid dehydrogenase deficiency
ANSWER : 11-Beta hydroxylase deficiency
66. What kind of cells produces parathyroid hormone (PTH)?
A. Chief cells
B. Parathynotic cells
C. Oxyphilic cells
D. C cells
E. Follicular cells
ANSWER: chief cells
67. most common cause of hyperthyroidism in young woman
Graves disease
Hashimoto’s thyroiditis
Iodine deficiency
Answer Grave s disease
68. Commonest cause of cushing disease
A) pituitary adenoma
B) adrenal adenoma
Answer : pituitary adenoma
69. What percentage (T4) is free?
A. 0.1%
B. 1%
C. 5 %
D. 15%
E. 70%
Answer : 0.1%
70. Which test you is used to check ovarian reserves in pre menopausal women
Antimullerian hormone
FSH
LH
Answer : Antimullerian hormone
71. which inhibit prolactin
Dopamine
72. Question about obesity amenorhea which hormone decrease apetite?
Answer : Leptin
73. After how many hours of LH surge ovulation occur
A. 16 hr
B. 24 hr
C. 36 hr
D. 48 hr
E. 72 hr
ANSWER : 36 Hours
74. Which hormone causes rupture of graffian follicle and release of esrtogen and progesterone?
LH
FSH
TSH
GnRH
Hcg
Answer : LH
75. Increase Order of potency In male
DHT ...Testosterone. ...Androstanedione A2 ...DHEA
DHT...A2...DHEA ...testosterone
Testosterone. .DHT...A2...DHEA
Answer : DHT(most potent) ...Testosterone. ...Androstanedione A2 ...DHEA (least potent)
76. Androgen secreted through which layer of adrenal ?
Zona fasciculata
Zona reticularis
Zona glomerulosa
Answer zona reticularis
Physiology
77. The graph showing normal spirometry of a preoperative woman.
Which lung volume is indicated by the number 6 on the spirometry tracing?
A. Residual volume
B. Expiratory reserve volume
C. Inspiratory reserve volume
D. Tidal volume
E. Vital capacity
ANSWER : Residual volume
78. In ECG lead V1 and aVR represent which portion of heart
Inferior wall
Right atrium and right ventricle
Right atrium and left ventricle
Left atrium right ventricle.
Answer : Right atrium and ventricle
79. women 7 week not feeling well came in ER with shortness of breath
PH 7.36
PCO2 normal
PO2 12
Base excess 9.8
HCO3 18
Normal pregnancy values
Respiratory acidosis
Metabolic acidosis
Compensatory metabolic acidosis
80. Renin is secreted from
Answer : Juxtaglomerular cells
81 . What is the most abundant carbohydrate in the breast milk?
A. Caesin
B. Galactose
C. Glucose
D. Lactose
E. Sucrose
Answer : Lactose
82. Acid base disturbance in Conns syndrome
Answer : metabolic alkalosis
83.. GFR is maximum at which gestation
32 wk
36 wk
18 wk
16wk
84. A 20 year old girl goes for walking in a hill with friends and when she is on the extreme of the
hill she becomes little breathless and has paraesthesia in her hands . What is the appropriate acid base imbalance?
A. Metabolic acidosis
B. Metabolic alkalosis
C. Mixed metabolic and respiratory acidosis
D. Respiratory alkalosis
E. Respiratory acidosis
ANSWER : Respiratory alkalosis
85. Vaginal arousal secretion are released from
Ectocervix.
Endocervix
Skene gland
Bartholin’s gland
Transudate from vagina
86. Iodine accumulation in thyroid cells involves symport with
A. Chloride
B. Potassium
C. Hydrogen
D. Sodium
E. Calcium
ANSWER : Sodium
87. Mg excreted :
Excreted Unchanged in urine
Metabolized in liver and excreted thru kidney
Conjugated in liver and excreted through kidney.
88. Vitamin C action
Synthesize collagen
89. Which enzyme is present in granulosa cells but not in theca cells?
Aromatase
17 B hydroxylase
Answer Aromatase
90. Cloasma in pregnancy is due to
Cortisol
MSH
Answer : MSH
91. A women had two children who had recived phototherapy after delivery she has O - blood group
got married 2nd time and currently pregnant. Husband has A + CDe CDe what can be the blood
group of the fetus
A+ A- O+ O -
A+
O-
A+ O-
A+ O +
Answer A+O+
92. Physiological variation of the menstrual cycle between 21-35 days due to
A. Aberrant LH surge
B. Estrogen fails to produce negative feedback on pituitary
C. Estrogen fails to produce positive feedback on pituitary
D. Luteal phase varies in duration by time taken for corpus luteum to degenerate
E. Loss of progesterone secretion
Answer : Estrogen fails to produce positive feedback on pituitary
93. What is the change in plasma volume during pregnancy?
Increase 20 to 30%
Increase 30 to 50%
Increase 60 to 70%
Increase 50 to 70%
Answer :increase 30 to 50%
94. Transfer of free fatty acid thru placenta
Active
Passive
Facilitated
Endocytosis
Pinocytosis
95. Glucose transported across the placenta thru
Facilitated diffusion
Active transport
Passive diffusion
Endocytosis
Answer facilitated diffusion
96.. Which types of cells are phagocytic for residual bodies left over from the
process of spermiogenesis?
A. Testicular mesenchymal cells
B. Testicular macrophages
C. Fibroblast cells
D. Interstitial cells of leydig
E. Sertoli cells
ANSWER : Sertoli cells
BIOCHEMISTRY
97. NO from which amino acid
L arginine
L aspartate
L lysine
L guanine
Answer L arginine
98. Gonadotropin Releasing Hormone (GnRH) is what type of Biochemical structure
A. Tripeptide
B. Octapeptide
C. Nanopeptide
D. Decapeptide
E. Polypeptide
ANSWER Decapeptide
99. Cristae are present in
Mitochondria
Rough endoplasmic reticulum
Smooth ER
Answer : Mitochondria
100. In which part of the cell does glycolysis take place?
A. Cytosol
B. Mitochondrial matrix
C. Mitochondrial cristae
D. Rough endoplasmic reticulum
E. Smooth endoplasmic reticulum
ANSWER : Cytosol
Paper 2
1. Arrow was on columnar epithelium
1) columner
2)squamous
3) transformation zone
Answer : columnar epithelium
2. a graph showing x y z levels (almost same in past papers) ..what is y that was asked
Answer : LH
3. Picture showing cut section of umblical cord and asked about labelled thing
Answer : umbilical vein
4. Indian Origin Lives In London Have History Of Low Grade Fever Weight Loss Cough For 5 Months. She is pregnant. CXR image given
Diagnosis
Tuberculosis
Bronchitis
Pneumonia
Answer : Tuberculosis
5. Fetal skull picture and question was asking about bone marked
Ans. Parietal bone
6. Brow presentation in labor what is the head diameter
Ans : mentovertical
7. Growth chart showing growth above 10th centile
Answer : Normal for gestational age
8. Ct scan of a post hysterectomy patient who came in emergency as not feeling well
shows
a. Ureteric obstruction
B. Pelvic hematoma
Answer : ureter injury
Pharmacology
9. Labetalol
Non selective alpha and beta blocker
Selective alpha and beta blocker
Non selective beta blocker
Selective beta blocker
10. What is the objective of phase 3 clinical trial?
Answer : Check effectiveness of the drug
11. Which of the following drugs is used to suppress lactation postpartum in
mother who suffers from stillbirth?
A. Quetiapine
B. Metoclopramide
C. Loperamide
D. Leuprolide
E. Cabergoline
ANSWER : Cabergoline
12. Drosperinone is
Antiandrogenic
Androgenic
Estrogenic
Progestogenic
Antiminrelocorticoid
Answer: Antiandrogenic
13. When should the prophylactic dose of low molecular weight heparin (LMWH)
be stopped before regional analgesia?
A. 6 hr
B. 12 hr
C. 24 hr
D. 48 hr
E. 72 hr
ANSWER : 12 hr
14. Mirena secret in 24 hours
1_20 micro gram
2_35 micro gram
3_75 micro gram
Answer : 20 microgram per 24 hour
15. Women on anti emetics came in ER with complain of involuntary muscle movements
Which drug she is using
Answer : Metoclopramide
16. Main action of cocps
Inhibit ovulation
Inhibit fertilization
Thick cervical mucus
Answer : inhibit ovulation
17. Drugs readily cross the placenta because of which quality
A. High lipid solubility
B. High protein binding
D. ionization of molecules
18. What is the term used for the anticancer agent methotrexate?
A. plant alkaloid
B. Antimetabolite
C. Alkylating agent
D. Chain cutting agent
E. Intercalating agent
ANSWER : Antimetabolite
19.. What is the mechanism of action of hydralazine?
A. α2 agonist
B. Angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitor
C. α blocker
D. β2 agonist
E. Direct-action on smooth-muscle
Answer : direct action on smooth-muscle
20. What is the mechanism of action of trimethoprim?
Inhibit Nucleic acid synthesis
Antimetabolite
21. Patient on lithium me which organ anomaly occur
Heart
Kidney
Brain
Answer : heart
22. Which organ anomaly occur with the use of ACE inhibitor
Heart
Cranio facial
Kidney
Answer : kidney
23. 28 year old Women on carbamazepine for epilepsy what is the suitable contraception
Coc
High dose coc
Mirena
Pop
Implant
Answer: mirena
24. Patient on ulipristal acetate for the treatment of fibroid which contraceptive method you advice to her
Barrier method
POP
COC
Mirena
Answer : barrier method
25.A woman experiences a postpartum hemorrhage after delivery and is
administrated carboprost to promote uterine contraction. What type of drug is
carboprost?
A. Oxytocin agonist
B. Progestogen
C. prostaglandin E1
D. prostaglandin E2
E. prostaglandin F2
ANSWER : prostaglandin F2
26. Aspirin and indomethacin what is the difference in action?
Aspirin Irreversibly inhibit COX 1 than ibuprofen
Aspirin reversibly inhibits COX 1 than ibuprofen
27. Patient allergic to penicillin which drug is adviced in labor as GBS Prophylaxis?
Clindamycin
Ceftriaxone
Erythromycin
Ciprofloxacin
Answer : Clindamycin
28. Most common side effect of misoprostol
A-vomiting
B-diarrhea
C-nausea
D-constipation
29. Mifipristone action??
Anti progesterone
Clinical management
30. A 70-year-old lady had an ultrasound because she was feeling bloated which showed bilateral
ovarian masses with no solid areas associated with abdominal ascites. She is post menopausal and
otherwise well. She was sent for a CA 125 which comes back as 50 U/mL. What is her risk of
malignancy index score (RMI)?
A. 5
B. 10
C. 150
D. 300
E. 450
Answer 450
31. Commonest cause of postmenopausal bleeding?
Endometrial hyperplasia
Endometrial cancer
Atrophic vaginitis
Endometrial polyp
Answer : atrophic vaginitis
32. On performing hysteroscopy on a postmenopausal women surgeon find resistence at internal Os what is the ratio of uterine corpus till this point
1:3
3:1
1:1
1:2
2:1
33. Women presented in emergency with acute abdomen which waked her up at night..she has a
history of surgical management of missed miscarriage one week ago.hitopathology report showed normal decidua no chorionic villi.what is your further action
A. Admit for observation and ultrasound in morning
B. Urgent CT scan
C. Call surgical team to check for bowel perforation
D. Call a consultant as you think she may have ruptured ectopic and might need intervention
34. CTG image of 45 minutes
Baseline normal
Acceleration present
Variability normal
Some variable decelerations which are v shaped and going down upto 20 seconds.
Good uterine contractions
G2P1+0 with previous normal delivery with labor pains and membrane ruptured showed thick meconium shebus 5cm dilated.what will be your plan
Continue CTG and reassess in 30min
Do fetal blood sampling
Cesarian section category 1
Cesarean section category 2
Answer: continue CTG and reassess in 30 min
35. Which radiotherapy need vaginal devise insertion
Answer: Brachytherapy
36. Postpartum haemorrage after vaginal delivery. pharmaceutically failed to stop the bleeding.what is the first surgical step to stop the bleeding?
A. Intrauterine balloon tamponade
B. Bilateral uterine artery ligation
C. Bilateral int. iliac ligation
D. Uterine b-lynch brace suture
E Uterine artery embolization
Answer: intrauterine balloon tamponade
37. mother with twins diagnosed hyperthyroidism comes with vomiting TSH 0.1
FT4 29 .
A) start propiothiouracil
B) start radioactive iodine
C) bring preganncy to singleton. Like seriously.
D) treat hyerpemesis repeat tests in a week.
38. Which vitamin is deficient in wernick s encephalopathy
Answer Vitamin B1
39. Most common site of vulval cancer?
Labia majora,
Labia minora
Vestibule
, vagina
Answer : labia majora
40. Women died after cesarian she had shortness of breath postpartum haemorrhage. .was in DIC
Postmortem showed fetal hair and epithelial cells
Diagnosis : Amniotic fliud embolism
41. 42 year old with frequency urgency urge incontinence. No stress incontinence bladder diary showed low compliance bladder us normal ..no improvement in symptoms with bladder drill
What is the next plan
Antimuscarinic
Pelvic floor exercise
Post tibial nerve stimulation
Urodynamic studies
Beta blocker
Answer : antimuscarinic
42. Women with PPROM..Which test is using in practice to diagnose preterm labor
Fern test
Fibronectin test
Nitrazine test
Answer : fibronectin
43. A male came for infertility check up who was taking Finasteride .Finasteride exert its action by inhibition of which enzyme?
A. 21-hydroxlase
B. 5-alpha reductase
C. Aromatase
D. Phosphodiesterase
E. Desmolase
ANSWER : 5 alpha reductase
44. 15 yrs old British Teenager Ask about having contraception . What will the Doctor do in line with
best practice?
A. Follow Fraser's Law
B. Follow British guidelines
C. Follow non British guidelines
ANSWER: Follow Fraser's Law
45. A 34 week prenatal lady came in emergency with the complain of heavy painless vaginal bleeding.
She is vitally stable.what you will advice
CBC
Perform vaginal examination
Cesarian section
Answer CBC
46. Treatment of hypovolemia after surgery?Patient vitally stable
500 ml crystaloid over 15 min
500ml haemaccel over 15 min
Group specific blood
Gelofusin infusion in 30 min
Ans : 500 ml crystalloid
Biophysics
47. Which one of the following imaging techniques gives maximum radiation exposure to the pat ient during checking tubal patency?
A. Robin tube cannulation
B. Hysterosalpingography
C. hystero contrast salpingography
D. Hysteroscopic tube visualization
E. Laparoscopy and dye intubation
Answer : Hysterosalpingography
48. Which modality you will use to check growing thyroid nodule in pregnancy
Technetium scan
Radio isotope
Ultrasound
CT
MRI
49. What is the SI Unit of magnetic field
Tesla
Weber
Gray
Answer Tesla
50. What is the threshold for ultrasound frequency
Answer : 20 KHz
51. The difference between the peak and the base line of ultrasound wave is called?
A. Amplitude
B. Acoustic impedence
C. Frequency
D. Resolution
E. Wave length
Answer: Amplitude
52. A 14-year-old girl is treated with radiotherapy. Which of following tissues is
most radioresistant?
A. Intestinal epithelium
B. Cerebral nuerons
C. Respiratory epithelium
D. Bone marrow
E. Skin
ANSWER : Cerebral nuerons
Data interpretation
53. An Asian woman books in for her third pregnancy at 12 weeks of gestation. She
has recently moved to the UK from Thailand to be with her new husband. After pre -test counselling,
with the aid of an interpreter, she agrees to hepatitis B virus (HBV) screening. The results return as
follows. What is the significance of these results?
HBsAg POSITIVE
Anti-HBc POSITIVE
Anti-HBc IgM NEGATIVE
AntiHBs NEGATIVE
A.Post vaccination
B Resolved infection
C.Natural HBV immunity
D.Chronic infection
E.Acute HBV infection
Answer : chronic infection
54. Women has PPROM at 29 weeks clear liquor managed conservatively as an outpatient
coticosteroids given.she came in labor at 32 weeks and delivered normally...she also had pph after delivery...she was asses (on next day or after 2 days ) in ward round
Pulse 120
RR 22
Temp 38.2
BP 110/50
Urine output 100ml in last 4 hours
Labs
normal Hb
Tlc 18000
Plt normal
Lactate 3
CRP >250
Rest I forgot
What is your diagnosis
Hypovolemic shock
Sepsis
Internal bleeding
55. A pregnant woman got screening test for down's syndrome and the following report is obtained
Age related risk; 1:1000MoM
AFP; 1.05MoM
β-hCG; 1.7 mom
NT : 0.85MoM
Test risk; 1:100000
What will you counsel this woman?
A. The fetus has down's syndrome
B. The fetus does not have down's syndrome
C. It is high risk for down's
D. It is low risk for down's
E. Ask the patient to go home
Answer : it is low risk for down’s
56. Young girl secondary amenorrhea for 5 months
Fsh 4
.Lh 3
Prolactin normal
Tsh normal
Diagnosis
Hypothalamic amenorrhea
Premature ovarian failure
Hyperthyroidism
Answer : Hypothalamic amenorrhea
57. According to who definition of perinatal mortality
Answer : No. Of stillbirth after 22 week and early neonatal deaths
58. A 28 year old tall man normal normally virilaized and do regular daily exercise came for infertility check up
Fsh <0.1iu/L
Testosterone 42
Prolactin 300
What is the diagnosis
A kallman
B steroid use
C retrograde ejaculatio
D pituitary adenoma
E adrogen tumor
Pathology
59. Peripartum cardiomyopathy resembles to which type
Dilated cardiomyopathy
Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy
60. SIADH is associated with which cancer
Answer : Small cell lung cancer
61. 23-year-old woman presents with fishy foul smelling vaginal odour. 'Clue cells'
are found in the smear. Which of the following cell types is belong to 'Clue cells'?
A. Neutrophils
B. Natural killer cells
C. Lymphocytes
D. Macrophages
E. Vaginal Epithelial cells
Answer : vaginal epithelial cells
62. Most common site of endometriosis?
Fallopian tube
Ovaries
Uterosacral
Pouch of douglas
Peritoneum
Answer : ovaries
63. An 18 year-old woman is found to have a largely solid ovarian neoplasm.
Tumor markers were obtained and demonstrated a markedly elevated LDH value.
Which of the following tumors is the
most likely histology for this neoplasm?
A. Theca cell tumour
B. Dysgerminoma
C. Immature teratoma
D. Brenner cell tumour
E. Endodermal sinus tumour
ANSWER : Dysgerminoma
64. Psammoma bodies are a histologic feature of ovarian papillary serous
cystadenoma. ' Psammoma bodies' are composed of
A. calcium
B. iron
C. Fibrin
D. Mucin
E. Lipid
ANSWER : calcium
65. Two months postoperatively, a 55-year-old woman who is being treated with
a diagnosis of small lung cancer presents with excessive polyuria and depression and urine showed red cells +++
what is the electrolyte imbalance?
A. Hypernetremia
B. Hyponatremia
C. Hyperkalemia
D. Hypokalemia
E. Hypercalcemia
Answer : Hypercalcemia
66. Which cancer is most commonly diagnosed in pregnancy and postpartum
Breast cancer
Cervical cancer
Melanoma
67. Kleihauer test is a test to quantify the amount of fetal blood in maternal circulation, following a fetomaternal hemorrhage. What is the basis behind Kleihauer test?
Answer : HbF is resistant to denaturation by acids
68 . Commonest type of vulval Cancer
Melanoma
Squamous cell carcinoma
Adenocarcinoma
Answer : squamous cell canrcinoma
69. In pre eclampsia what changes occur in kidney
Vascular enditheliosis
Acute renal failure
Glomerulonephritis
Answer : Vascular enditheliosis
70. Most common type of degeneration in fibroid
a. red degeneration
b. Hyaline degeneration
c. sarcomatous changes
ANSWER : Hyaline degeneration
71. A 42-year-old perimenopausal woman complains of 12 months history of Heavy vaginal
bleeding. Pelvic examination normal.Her husband had vasectomy since 2 years. Her family is
complete. Which investigation will you do before starting treatment
Complete blood count
Arrange for ultrasound
Perform an endometrial biopsy
ANSWER : Arrange for ultrasound
72. What is the single best description for the histological appearance of the
secretory endometrium?
A. Simple columnar
B. Simple columnar with sub nuclear vacuolation
C. Stratified columnar
D. Stratified cuboidal
E. Simple cuboidal epithelium
ANSWER : Simple columnar with subnuclear vacuolation
73. Which pattern of endometrim do simple endometrial hyperplasia most likely
resemble?
A. Proliferative endometrim
B. Secretory endometrim
C. Endometritis
D. Endometrial polyp
E. Endometrial carcinoma
ANSWER : Proliferative endometrim
74. From which organ / system does the Krukenberg tumor of the ovaries originate
from?
A. Lung
B. Brain
C. Kidney
D. Uterus
E. GIT
ANSWER : GIT
75. Twin pregnancy rash on abdomen especially at linea nigra ...rash was not on any other place
ALT normal
Bile salt 5 mmol
Alk phosphatase mildly raised
Diagnosis
A Obs cholestasis
B Polymorphic eruption of pregnancy
Answer Polymorphic eruption of pregnancy
76. Most common cancer type in fallopian tube
Adenocarcinoma
Sq cell carcinoma
Sarcoma
Answer : Adenocarcinoma
77. Patient presented in emergency with complain of shortness of breath and hemoptysis she has
history of miscarriage and histopathology showed molar pregnancy .Chest x ray showed above
pocture.which tumor marker is raised in this condition
Answer : Bhcg
78. Patient with complete molar pregnancy with ultrasound showing bilateral cyst with thin septa
Theca leuten cysts
PCOS
Corpus luteal cysts
Follicular cysts
Answer : theca lutean cyst
79. Ovarian solid mass on ultrasound Benin histopathology with spindle shaped cells chest X ray showing pleural effusion diagnosis?
Fibroma
Leiomyoma
Endomerioma
Dermoid
Answer Fibroma
(This is meig syndrome)
80. Most commonly seen female urethral cancer?
Transitional cell
Squamous cell
81. What is the most common congenital solid tumor of the newborn?
astrocyte
wilms tumor
Sacrococcygeal teratoma
hepatic Hemangioma
Answer : sacrococcygeal teratoma
82. Question about cystoscopy which showed papillary bladder cancer which is the commonest type of cancer in bladder
Transitional
Microbiology
83. A women got infection in first trimester rash and joint pain later on ultrasound showed only fetal ascites with no other structural defect
Parvovirus b19
84 .A patient is diagnosed as having vaginal infection Trichomonas vaginalis. .what will be the
treatment
1gm metronidazole stat
Metronidazole 400 mg BD for 5 days
1 gm Azithromycin
85. Which group of viruses causes molluscum contagiosum?
A. Adenovirus
B. Herpes virus
C. Papovavirus
D. Parovirus
E. Pox virus
ANSWER : Pox virus
86. Bacteria causing sepsis in pregnancy
Group A streptococcus
Group Bstreptococcus
Answer : Group A streptococcus
87. Bacteria causing toxic shock syndrome?
Staph aureus
Group B streptococcus
Answer : staph aureus
88. Condylomata lata seen in which stage of syphilis
Second stage syphilis
Third stage syphilis
Answer : Secondary syphilis
89. Which HPV virus is high risk for cervical cancer
33
11
6
Ans 33
90. Patient with Iucd came for a routine check up and high vaginal sab showed gonorrhoea .What will be your management?
Only remove iucd
Treat the patient with antibiotics and remove iucd
Treat with antibiotics and keep iucd in situ
91 . Patient presented with thin yellow fishy smelling discharge. Vaginal ph 5
What is the most likely causative organism?
Trichomonas
Gardenela vaginalis
Chlamydia
Gonorrhoea
Answer : Gardenela vaginalis
92. Patient came out to be chlamydia positive .She is 12 weeks pregnant.what is the management plan?
Treat the partner
Do not treat the patient till delivery
Treat the patient and screen the partner
Answer treat the patient and screen the partner
Ask to use barrier method in pregnancy
Answer : treat the patient and screen the partner
Immunology
93. Origin of macrophage
A- lymphocyte
B- neutrophil
C Monocytes
Answer: monocytes
94. Characteristics of igG
A) crosses placenta, activates complement pathway, makes up 7p percent of pool, binds to fc, froms antibody complexes
B) crosses placenta, binds to fc, forms antibody complexes
95. Most important complement in opsonisation
C3a
C3b
Answer C3b
96.. Which of the following is the main immunoglobulin in mucosa
A. IgA
B. IgD
C. IgE
D. IgG
E. IgM
97. Which antigen-presenting cells (APCs) are mainly found in the cervix?
A. Plasma cells
B. Hofbauer cells
C. Langerhans cells
D. B cells
E. T cells
ANSWER: Langerhans cells
98 Rubella vaccine is which type of vaccine
Answer : Live attenuated vaccine
99. Thrombosis in protein C and S deficiency is due to
Dec antithrombin III
Factor 5 and 8a