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REAL ESTATE BROKERAGE PRACTICE

1. The following act is not considered a function of a real estate broker

a. To sell a house and lot of the owner

b. To assist the buyer in obtaining a housing loan

c. To draft the legal contract to sell

d. To find a developer for joint venture

2. The law that governs the relationship between the real estate broker and owner in a lease transaction

is

a. Law on Brokerage

b. Law on Agency

c. Law on Lease

d. Law on Real Estate Service

3. One of the most important things for a real estate broker to be entitled to a professional fee is

a. He must be the procuring cause

b. He must find a cash buyer

c. He must be registered with HLURB

d. He must post a bond required by the owner

4. If a real estate broker would want to entitled to professional fee even if the owner is the one who was

able to find a buyer, he must get the following authority to sell

a. Open Listing

b. Exclusive Right to Sell

c. Exclusive Agency

d. Non-exclusive authority

5. A main difference between the real estate broker versus the real estate dealer is that the broker earns

a professional fee, while the real estate dealer earns

a. Profit

b. A commission

c. Percentage of the selling price

d. Over riding commission

6. In real estate brokerage under a contract of agency, the owner is the principal while the real estate

broker is referred to as

a. Principal

b. Agent

c. Sales agent

d. Fiduciary agent

7. The following data is not really necessary in the authority to sell given to a real estate broker for the

sale of a vacant lot

a. Shape of the Lot

b. Area in sqms of lot

c. Lot No.

d. TCT NO.

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8. An arrangement where the real estate broker will get the professional fee only beyond the minimum

amount that the owner would want to receive is referred to as

a. Open Listing

b. Net percentage listing

c. Net listing

d. Minimum Net Listing

9. The following is not really an essential element of real estate brokerage

a. Honesty

b. Working Knowledge of Construction

c. Proficient in English

d. Tact and diplomacy

10. Two real estate brokers met and the other one had the listing. In case of sale, what will be the sharing

of the professional fee

a. Equal sharing\

b. As agreed between the brokers

c. As agreed with the owner

d. As agreed between the owner and the buyer

11. To protect the real estate broker, a provision may be included in the authority that if the buyer is

registered within the period of authority but was bought already after, the broker will still be entitled to

professional fee, and is referred to as

a. Safety Holdover Clause

b. Holdover Clause

c. Exclusive authority to sell

d. Commission Holdover Clause

12. It is the physical, tangible entity, together with all the additions or improvements on, above or below

the ground, includes all the rights, interest and benefits related to the ownership of real estate

a. Real estate

b. Real estate rights

c. Real property

d. Real estate ownership

13. To engage in real brokerage in the field of leasing warehouses, the person must be

a. Registered with HLURB

b. Licensed under PRC

c. Licensed under PRC and registered with HLURB

d. Licensed under PRC and licensed under HLURB

14. Mr. Roger wanted to start out in real estate brokerage practice. To do so, the first step in the real

estate brokerage practice is

a. To hire real estate salespersons

b. To secure property listings

c. To go tripping with clients

d. To put up an office

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15. In case the broker will assist the buyer to acquire the house and he will look for a house, it will be

considered what type of agency

a. Purchase agency

b. Sales agency

c. Lease agency

d. Exchange agency

16. An authority given by a buyer for the broker to secure financing, or an authority given by a financing

firm for the broker to procure borrowers

a. Loan agency

b. Financing agency

c. Mortgage agency

d. Borrower’s agency

17. This is the authority given by a party for the broker to look for a partner, whether the landowner or the

developer to develop a residential subdivision

a. Development agency

b. Sales agency

c. Joint venture agency

d. Joint project development

18. When brokers come into a cooperative arrangement where properties for sale or wanted by a broker

are circularized and shared with others is called

a. Listing sharing

b. Multiple listing

c. Cooperative listing

d. Organized listing

19. Which of the following is not a part of the steps in real estate brokerage

a. Negotiations

b. Closing

c. Presentation and Demonstration

d. Turnover of Possession of Property

20. The buyer and seller already agreed on the final price and the buyer gave earnest money to the

seller. The earnest money shall be considered

a. Separate from the purchase price

b. Forming part of the purchase price

c. A reservation amount

d. Option money

21. An industrial land was sold by two brokers at P12,000,000.00 with 3% professional fee. The brokers

agreed that the listing broker shall get 45% of the commission. What will be the share of the listing

broker?

a. P 160,000.00

b. P 180,000.00

c. P 198,000.00

d. P 162,000.00

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22. An agreement wherein the consideration of a contract, or a portion thereof, is entrusted to a party in a

sale transaction

a. Earnest money agreement

b. Contract to sell

c. Option contract

d. Escrow agreement

23. The authority obtained by a real estate broker to find a lessee for the property of an owner is referred

to in real estate as

a. Listing

b. Lease authority

c. Power of attorney to lease

d. Lessor’s agreement to lease

24. In case the seller requests for time to vacate the property, the balance or portion of purchase price

may be put in escrow or another option is

a. Retention money until seller vacates

b. Cancellation of the sale

c. Eject the seller for failure to vacate

d. Reduce the balance of the purchase price

25. In a sale of rawland the following is not part of the negotiations between the seller and the buyer

a. Price and terms

b. Expenses for execution and registration of the sale

c. Payment of the association dues

d. Real estate taxes and other expenses

26. The buyer backed out of the sale after paying the earnest money to the seller, in general, the earnest

money in this case will be

a. Refunded to the buyer

b. Forfeited

c. Equally shared between the buyer and seller

d. Partially returned to the buyer as seller wishes

27. The broker hired a real estate salesperson to sell the house. His liability for the real estate

salesperson shall be limited to

a. Tripping with client

b. Negotiations with the client

c. Acts within the scope of authority given by the broker

d. Preparation of sale documents

28. The property owner wanted a net amount of P4,500,000.00 and seller will pay for the capital gains tax

and the 5% broker’s commission. What price should the property be sold?

a. P 4,995,000.00

b. P 5,056,180.00

c. P 5,142,857.00

d. P 5,062,500.00

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29. An owner bought a lot but would like to sell it with a profit of 25% of his cost of P2,500,000.00 with

capital gains, 3% commission and doc. Stamps tax for his account. How much should the broker sell

it?

a. P 3,470,031.00

b. P 2,762,500.00

c. P 3,125,000.00

d. P 3,491,620.00

30. What is the net commission before tax of a broker who sold a house for P 7,500,000.00 if 5% of the

5% is given to Mr. B as referral fee

a. P 356,250.00

b. P 375,000.00

c. P 320,625.00

d. P 187,500.00

31. A real estate broker may engage salespersons to assist in the brokerage practice provided that they

must be at most

a. 20 real estate salespersons

b. 20 accredited real estate salespersons

c. 20 licensed real estate salespersons

d. 20 registered real estate salespersons

32. It refers to the effect that is made by one aspect of the economy with the other economic activities in

the country

a. Economic effect

b. Multiplier effect

c. Ripple effect

d. Economic activity effect

33. It is said that real estate economics is the application of economic techniques to real estate markets

where it tries to describe, explain, and predict patterns of the following, except

a. Demand

b. Needs

c. Price

d. Supply

34. It is a result of the interplay and relationship between supply and demand in a particular market like

real estate

a. Financing

b. Scarcity

c. Price

d. Net value of property

35. What is the formula used to compute the monthly amortization on a diminishing balance method for

instalment sales of lots

a. Downpayment multiplied by interest rate

b. Amount Financed multiplied by interest rate

c. Amount financed multiplied by amortization factor

d. Principal amount multiplied by monthly interest rate

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36. In a subdivision, there were numerous lots being sold by the owners but only a few buyers were

buying. This is referred to as what kind of market

a. Seller’s market

b. Open market

c. Buyer’s market

d. Down market

37. In computing the amortization factor on the financing of real estate sales, the factor will be based on

the following

a. Capacity of the barrower

b. No. Of years to pay

c. Interest rate and term of payment

d. Interest rate

38. In obtaining a housing loan from the bank, it is required that

a. The buyer must occupy the house

b. The buyer cannot sell the house until fully paid

c. The house purchased must be mortgaged to the bank

d. The house cannot be rented out

39. The payment to be made monthly by a buyer of a lot on instalment is generally referred to as

a. Monthly amortization

b. Monthly payments

c. Financing payments

d. Amortization schedule

40. One way of getting the amount to be financed by the buyer in the purchase of the lot is through the

following

a. Total contract price minus the downpayment

b. Total contract price minus reservation

c. Total contract price minus monthly amortization

d. Total amortization payments to be made multiplied by number of payments

41. If financing was made in the amount of 18% interest per annum, what would be the monthly interest

rate to be applied on a 24 months payment scheme

a. 1.0% per month

b. 1.5% per month

c. 2.0% per month

d. 0.75% per month

42. A payment scheme where the buyer of the condo unit pays the total price within a short period of time

without interest is referred to as

a. Short term financing

b. Deferred cash payment

c. Discounted cash payment

d. Deferred financing scheme

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43. The downpayment made by the buyer can be computed by using the following simple formula

a. Total contract price minus reservation deposit

b. Total contract price minus amount financed

c. Total contract price minus total amortization payments

d. Total contract price minus buyer’s equity

44. In a housing financing scheme based on diminishing balance, the interest in the payments

a. Increases while the payment for principal decreases

b. Decreases while the payment of principal increases

c. Remain constant for the term of the loan

d. Remain constant but the principal decreases

45. It is referred to as the amount of the property used as a basic for the maximum amount of loan that

can be given, among others

a. Appraised value

b. Loan value

c. Collateral to loan ratio

d. Foreclosure value

46. In a sale on instalment of really, after paying 5 years instalments, the buyer will make a lump sum

payment at the end which is referred to as

a. Full payment

b. Balloon payment

c. Final payment

d. Last payment

47. A movement in the supply of real estate housing versus the actual effective demand would affect the

following

a. Purchasing power

b. Price

c. Effective demand

d. Production cost

48. Aside from the value of the property, the bank will also determine the following to determine the

loanable amount to the borrower

a. Appraised value

b. Zonal value

c. Capacity to pay

d. Interest rate

49. It is a type of financing availed of by borrower in the meantime in the event his or her long term loan is

not yet approved for the purchase of a house in order to secure the purchase thereof

a. Bridge financing

b. Long term financing

c. Promissory note

d. Escrow arrangement

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50. A contract where the creditor acquires the title to receive the fruits of a property from the borrower to

be applied to the payment of the interest and thereafter to the principal amount

a. Usufruct

b. Antichresis

c. Pledge

d. Real estate mortgage

51. The agency that provides the most housing loans and provident loans to the public is

a. Home development mutual fund

b. Government service and insurance system

c. Social security system

d. Home guaranty corporation

52. It refers to the change in interest rate on agreed interval period of the loan between the lender and

the borrower

a. Escalation rate

b. Repricing

c. Restructuring

d. Inflation

53. It is the assurance given by a bank to the seller that he/she will be paid by the bank for the approved

buyer’s loan under certain conditions

a. Letter of assurance

b. Letter of guaranty

c. Letter of credit

d. Letter of approved loan

54. In a contract of real estate mortgage, it is used to refer to the person or entity which lends money to

the borrower for a housing loan

a. Lender

b. Mortgagee

c. Mortgagor

d. Financier

55. It refers to the amount charged to the borrower for early payment of the principal over a loan which is

still payable over several years

a. Unearned interest

b. Pretermination penalty

c. Loan penalty

d. Processing fee

56. An arrangement made with the developer and the Pag-ibig fund to guarantee the payment of the

monthly amortization by the borrower and failure of which a certain period, the developer will buy

back the contract to sell from Pag-ibig

a. CTS Buyback

b. Developer guaranty

c. Real estate mortgage

d. Pacto de recto

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57. It real estate, if refers to the most reasonable price of land and shelter based on the needs/ financial

capability of program beneficiaries under RA 7279

a. Economic housing

b. Affordable cost

c. Socialized housing cost

d. Low cost

58. They refer to the 244 areas in Metro Manila specifically described and identified in Proclamation

1967, and other sites later identifies and proclaimed

a. Areas of land reform

b. Areas for priority development

c. Urban reform zones

d. Urban areas for priority development

59. The rational approach of allocating available land resources as equitably as possible among

competing user groups and for different functions

a. Land resource plan

b. Land use plan

c. Land identification and segregation plan

d. Zoning plan

60. The acquisition of lots or varying ownership through purchase or expropriation for the purpose of

planned and rational development and socialized housing programs without individual property

boundary restrictions

a. Land banking

b. Land assembly

c. Land acquisition

d. Land collection

61. It refers to process of upgrading and rehabilitation of bighted and slum urban areas with a view of

minimizing displacement of dwellers in said areas.

a. On site development

b. Slum development

c. Slum upgrading

d. On site upgrading

62. It refers to those whose only real property consists of residential lands not exceeding eight hundred

meters (800 sq.m.) in other urban areas

a. Medium property owner

b. Small property owner

c. Urban property owner

d. Rural property owner

63. The acquisition of land at values based on existing use in advance of actual need to promote planned

development and socialized housing program

a. Land consolidation

b. Land use plan

c. Land banking

d. Land forecasting

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64. The process of land acquisition by exchanging land for another piece of land of equal value, or for

shares of stock in a government or quasi-government corporation, for the purpose of planned and

rational development and provision for socialized housing

a. Land banking

b. Land acquisition

c. Land swapping

d. Land exchange

65. The program of the NHA of upgrading and improving blighted squatter areas outside of Metro Manila

pursuant of existing statutes and pertinent executive issuances

a. Slum improvement program

b. Slum improvement and resettlement program

c. Slum resettlement and community program

d. Slum resettlement program

66. If the land of a person is in an area other than highly urbanized cities, or in other urban areas, a small

property owner is one whose only real property consists of residential lands not exceeding

a. 600 square meters

b. 800 square meters

c. 1,000 square meters

d. 5,000 square meters

67. Beneficiaries of this Act and to individuals or families residing in urban and urbanizable areas whose

income or combined household income falls within the poverty threshold as defined by the NEDA and

who do not own housing facilities

a. Blighted families

b. Underprivileged and homeless citizens

c. Slum families

d. Families in areas for priority development

68. Urban areas under RA 7279 refer to all cities regardless of their population density and to

municipalities with a population density of at least

a. 500 persons per square kilometre

b. 1,000 persons per square kilometre

c. 1,500 persons per square kilometre

d. 5,000 persons per square kilometre

69. Sites and lands which, display marked and great potential of becoming urban areas within the period

of five (5) years

a. Potential urban areas

b. Future urban areas

c. Urbanizable areas

d. Identified urban areas

70. The Urban and Development Housing Program does not cover the following

a. Areas for priority development

b. Lands in urbanizable areas

c. Resettlement sites

d. Sites used or set aside for parks, reserves for flora and fauna

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71. For planning purposes, the Housing and Urban Development Coordinating Council shall be furnished

by each local government unit a copy of its inventory which shall be updated every

a. 2 years

b. 3 years

c. 5 years

d. 10 years

72. In acquisition of land, this shall be resorted to only when other modes of acquisition have been

exhausted

a. Community mortgage

b. Expropriation

c. Land swapping

d. Negotiated purchased

73. Should the beneficiary unlawfully sell, transfer, or otherwise dispose of his lot he shall also lose his

right to the land, and shall be barred from the benefits under this Act from date of violation for a

period of

a. 5 years

b. 10 years

c. 15 years

d. 25 years

74. To qualify for socialized housing program, a beneficiary must not be

a. A Filipino citizen

b. Underprivileged and homeless

c. Landless

d. Member of squatting syndicate

75. For developers of proposed subdivision projects, it shall be required to develop an area for socialized

housing equivalent of the total subdivision area or total subdivision project at least

a. 10%

b. 15%

c. 20%

d. 30%

76. Socialized housing or resettlement areas shall be provided by NHA or

a. HUDCC

b. Department of Housing

c. Local government unit

d. Private development

77. This shall be implemented whenever possible in order to ensure minimum movement of occupants of

blighted lands and slum areas

a. Temporary shelter

b. New resettlement

c. On-site development

d. On-site relocation

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78. Professional squatters or members of squatting syndicates shall be imposed the penalty of

imprisonment of

a. 3 years

b. 5 years

c. 6 years

d. 10 years

79. Eviction or demolition as a practice shall be discouraged. Eviction or demolition, however, may be

allowed under the following situations but not

a. When persons or entities occupy danger areas such as esteros, railroad tracks

b. When there is a court order for eviction and demolition

c. When government infrastructure projects with available funding are about to be implemented

d. When the private owner needs the land

80. In the execution of eviction or demolition orders involving underprivileged and homeless citizens, the

following shall be mandatory, except

a. Execution of eviction or demolition only during regular office hours from Monday to Fridays

b. Execution of eviction or demolition only during good weather, unless the affected families

consent otherwise

c. Adequate permanent relocation

d. Presence of local government officials or their representatives during eviction or demolition.

81. Should relocation provided under RA 7279 not be possible within the said period, financial assistance

in the amount equivalent to the prevailing minimum daily wage multiplied

a. 30 days

b. 60 days

c. 90 days

d. 15 days

82. In cases of eviction of demolition, relocation shall be undertaken by the local government unit

concerned and the NHA with the assistance of other government agencies from service of notice of

final judgment by the court, within

a. 30 days

b. 45 days

c. 60 days

d. 90 days

83. It is a mortgage financing program of the NHMFC which assists legally organized associations of

underprivileged and homeless citizens to purchase and develop a tract of land under the concept of

community ownership

a. Community mortgage program

b. Community housing program

c. Socialized community housing

d. Community housing for underprivileged

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84. Beneficiaries of CMP shall not be evicted of their lands unless they have incurred arrearages in

payments of amortizations for

a. 2 months

b. 3 months

c. 120 days

d. 6 months

85. To encourage greater participation, participants in the CMP shall be granted with the following

privilege of exemption from

a. Percentage tax

b. Capital gains tax

c. Income tax

d. Real estate tax

86. Under RA 7279, this government agency shall administer the Community Mortgage Program

a. Housing and Land Use Regulatory Board

b. Housing and Urban Development Coordinating Council

c. National Home Mortgage Finance Corporation

d. National Housing Authority

87. With the constitution principle that the ownership and enjoyment of property’s social function and to

raise funds, all local government units are authorized to impose an additional real estate tax on land

of

a. 1% of the assessed value

b. ½ of 1% of the assessed value

c. ¾ of 1% of the assessed value

d. 2% of the assessed value

88. Any person who violates any provision of RA 7279 shall be imposed the penalty of imprisonment of

not more than

a. 3 years

b. 5 years

c. 6 years

d. 12 years

89. Under Section 18 of RA 7279, the following are covered for the 20% requirements for socialized

housing

a. Residential subdivisions

b. Townhouse projects

c. Condominium project

d. Office condominium projects

90. The following shall be responsible for the implementation of RA 7279 in their respective localities

a. HMDF

b. NHA

c. Local government units

d. Presidential Commission on Urban Poor

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91. Urban Land Reform was declared under the law for the whole Philippines, under

a. PD 1217

b. PD 1517

c. RA 7279

d. PD 957

92. The government sector mandated to provide local housing needs for their homeless constituents is

the

a. HLURB

b. NHA

c. Local government units

d. HUDCC

93. A local city or municipal legislation which logically arranges, prescribes, defines and apportions a

given political subdivision into specific land uses

a. Land use plan

b. Zoning ordinance

c. Locational clearance

d. Zoning clearance

94. Decisions of the local zoning boards may be appealed to

a. Regional Trial Court

b. HLURB

c. Court of appeals

d. Local board of assessment appeals

95. The programs of NHA of upgrading and improving blighted areas pursuant to existing statutes and

pertinent executive issuances

a. Areas for priority development

b. Socialized housing program

c. Slum improvement and resettlement program

d. Blighted areas improvement program

96. To encourage greater private sector participation in socialized housing the following are tax

exemption extended under RA 7279

a. Documentary stamp tax

b. Real estate taxes on the project

c. Capital gains tax on raw land used for the project

d. Professional taxes

97. It is on official public document adopted by local government units as a guide to decision regarding

the physical and socio-economic development of the community

a. Land use plan

b. Town plan

c. Community plan

d. Local government community plan

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98. The rational and deliberate allocation of land resources to different uses on the comprehensive and

integrated plan for the area

a. Area usage plan

b. Town plan

c. Land use plan

d. Zoning plan

99. The division of the community into function zones based on the recent and potential uses of

properties for the purpose of regulating the use and growth of properties

a. Planning

b. Town planning

c. Area allocation

d. Zoning

100. It refers to the rational and judicious approach of allocating available land resources to different

land using activities such as residential, commercial, etc.

a. Land planning

b. Land use planning

c. Land development planning

d. land use and development planning

101. The land use plans of various cities and municipalities shall be enacted through their respective

a. Governor or Mayor

b. Zoning ordinance

c. Executive orders

d. HLURB Resolutions

102. A graphic presentation of the zone classifications, location, boundaries of the districts/zones duly

established in the zoning ordinance

a. Zoning classification map

b. Town plan map

c. Zoning map

d. Land use map

103. Under the comprehensive land use plan guide, any person, group or institution that has an

interest in the development activity, program or project is referred to as

a. Interest party

b. Participant

c. Constituent

d. Stakeholder

104. It is a method of studying the effects of population growth and urban development on the

ecological system, public facility systems and environmental protection

a. Impact analysis

b. Carrying capacity analysis

c. Growth effects analysis

d. Population study

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105. The classification of R-1 in a zoning area means

a. High Density Residential Zone

b. Low Density Residential Zone

c. Medium Density Residential Zone

d. General Residential Zone

106. A parcel of land was located in a C-2 classified area which means

a. Medium density commercial zone

b. Low density commercial zone

c. General commercial zone

d. High density commercial zone

107. SHZ is used to classify land in a locality and means

a. Selected Housing Zone

b. Socialized Housing Zone

c. Segregated Housing Zone

d. Special Housing Zone

108. It is defined as a contiguous grouping of 10 or more structures

a. High density area

b. Integrated area

c. Built-up area

d. Contiguous structure area

109. Refers to areas designated principally for trade, services and business purposes as used in the

zoning ordinances

a. Commercial Area

b. Central Business District

c. Commercial Business District

d. Commercial Zone

110. A use of an area in accordance with the zoning classification

a. Compliance use

b. Conforming use

c. Qualified use

d. Approved use

111. Refers to a documents embodying specific proposal for guiding, regulation growth and

development of a city or municipality

a. Community land use plan

b. Comprehensive community development plan

c. Comprehensive land use plan

d. Comprehensive land usage and development plan

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112. It is primarily concerned with the use of the land and control of density of population through

imposition of building heights, open space and density provisions in a given area

a. Land use plan

b. Land restrictions

c. Zoning

d. Comprehensive land use plan

113. A device, defined in the CLUP, which grants an owner relief from certain provisions of a zoning

ordinance where because of the specific use would result in a particular hardship upon the owner, as

distinguished from mere inconvenience

a. Exemption

b. Certificate of non coverage

c. Exception

d. Exemption clearance

114. The ration between the gross floor area of a building and the area of the lot on which it stands

a. Floor Area Ratio

b. Maximum Height Ratio

c. Lot Floor Area Ration

d. Height to Floor Ration

115. It refers to uses or land activities with contrasting characteristics sited adjacent to each other, e.g.

residential adjacent to industrial plants

a. Contracting uses

b. Contradicting uses

c. Non- congruent uses

d. Conflicting uses

116. The Floor Area Ratio is computed through the following

a. Building Height divided by the Floor Area

b. Gross Floor Area of Building divided by area of the lot

c. Gross Floor Area divided by the height of the building

d. Floor Area of Units divided by the area of the lot

117. As defined in the CLUP, uses or land activities capable of existing together harmoniously, e.g.

residential use and parks and playgrounds

a. Congruent use

b. Compatible use

c. Co-classification use

d. Non contrasting use

118. The Comprehensive Land Use Plan [CLUP] once enacted into a zoning ordinance is for the

purpose of

a. Evaluation

b. Monitoring

c. Supervision

d. Enforcement

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119. The open space left between the building the lot lines is referred to as

a. Perimeter space

b. Property line easement

c. Setback

d. Easement

120. A municipal/ city/government employee responsible for the implementation/ enforcement of the

zoning ordinance in a community

a. Land Use Plan Engineer

b. City or Municipal Engineer

c. Zoning Administrator

d. Building Engineer

121. In a Low Residential Density Zone no building or structure for human occupancy shall be higher

than the grade line in the property or sidewalk by more than

a. 10 meters

b. 12 meters

c. 15 meters

d. 21 meters

122. A clearance issued to a project that is allowed under the provisions of the zoning ordinance

a. Building permit

b. Zoning clearance

c. Ordinance clearance

d. Location clearance

123. It is the scientific study of the distribution and abundance of life and the interactions between

organisms and their environment

a. Environment study

b. Ecology

c. Ecosystem

d. Environmentalism

124. “Ecology” is often used more loosely in such terms in common parlance as a synonym for the

word

a. Natural environment

b. Ecological balance

c. Green technology

d. Ecosystem

125. It is biological environment consisting of all the organisms living in a particular area, as well as all

the nonliving, physical components of the environment

a. Environment

b. Ecosystem

c. Environmental system

d. Bio-eco system

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126. It refers to the no living elements and physical components of the environment

a. Inert elements

b. Biotic

c. Abiotic

d. Non living elements

127. The process that involves predicting and evaluating the likely impacts of a project

a. Impact study

b. Environmental study

c. Environmental impact assessment

d. Environmental evaluation assessment

128. A certificate issued to which the proponent conforms with by signing the sworn undertaking of full

responsibility over implementation of specified measures which are necessary to comply with existing

environmental regulations.

a. Environmental Compliance Conformity

b. Environmental Compliance Certificate

c. Affidavit of Compliance

d. Affidavit of environmental measure

129. The certificate issued by the EMB certifying that, based on the submitted project description, the

project is not covered by the EIS System and is not required to secure an environmental compliance

certificate or ECC

a. Certificate of ECC Exemption

b. Certificate of Non-Coverage

c. Certificate of Coverage Exemption

d. Certificate of ECC Clearance

130. It refers to project belonging to project types declared thru Proclamation No. 2146 and

Proclamation No. 803 which may pose significant negative environmental impact at certain thresholds

of operation regardless of location

a. Environmentally critical area

b. Environmental critical project

c. Environmental impact project

d. Environmentally negative project

131. A general area declared thru Proclamation 2146 as environmentally sensitive such that

significant environmental impacts are expected if certain types/ thresholds of proposed projects are

located, developed or implemented in it

a. Critical area for Development

b. Environmentally critical location

c. Environmentally critical area

d. Environmentally sensitive area

132. The certificate issued by the DENR to a vehicle manufacturer certifying that a new vehicle meets

the requirements under the law

a. Certificate of compliance

b. Certificate of passing

c. Certificate of conformity

d. Vehicle clearance certificate

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133. The geographic-based instrument for planners and decision makers which present an evaluation

of the environment quality and carrying capacity of an area

a. Eco-evaluation report

b. Eco-profile

c. Eco-based profile

d. Eco-quality profile

134. The following is not considered as part of the solid waste reduction and avoidance scheme

a. Composting

b. Rep-use

c. Recycling

d. Treatment

135. A disposal site at which solid waste is deposited in accordance with the minimum prescribed

standards of site operation

a. Sanitary landfill

b. Open dump

c. Controlled dump

d. Open landfill

136. It is the liquid produced when waste undergo decomposition, and when water percolate through

solid undergoing decomposition

a. Sludge

b. Leachate

c. Leakage

d. Contaminated liquid

137. A solid waste transfer station or sorting station, drop-off center, a composting facility, and a

recycling facility

a. Junk shop

b. Materials recovery facility

c. Materials waste station

d. Solid waste dumping facility

138. The waste disposal site designed, constructed, operated and maintained in a manner that exerts

engineering control over significant potential environment impact

a. Controlled dump site

b. Open dump

c. Materials waste facility

d. Sanitary landfill

139. The solid waste container depending on its use shall be properly marked and for non

biodegradable wastes, the color code is

a. Blue

b. Yellow

c. Black

d. Green

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140. Freshwater means water containing dissolved common salt, sodium chloride containing less than

a. 100 ppm

b. 200 ppm

c. 300 ppm

d. 500 ppm

141. It is the subsurface water that occurs beneath a water table in soils and rocks, or in geological

formulations

a. Surface water

b. Atmospheric water

c. Groundwater

d. Water table

142. It is the discharge from known sources which is passed into a body of water or land, or

wastewater flowing out of a manufacturing plants, industrial plant including domestic, commercial and

recreational facilities

a. Sewage

b. Septage

c. Effluent

d. Water waste

143. Refers to any solid, semi-solid or liquid waste or residue generated from a wastewater treatment

plant, water supply treatment plant, or water control pollution facility, or any other such waste having

similar characteristics and effects

a. Sludge

b. Sewage

c. Wastewater

d. Septage

144. This is a remedy available to non-govermental organization whose constitutional right to a

balanced and healthful ecology is violated

a. Temporary restraining order

b. Writ of ecology

c. Writ of kalikasan

d. Writ of environment protection

145. The highest major source of water pollution in the country is due to

a. Industrial sources

b. Domestic waste

c. Livestock

d. Non-point sources

146. It refers an estimate of value as of a particular point in time expressed in peso amount

a. Fair market value

b. Appraisal

c. Assessment

d. Value estimate

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147. The value of replaceable property tends to be indicated by the value of an equally desirable

substitute property is called the principle of

a. Desire

b. Substitution

c. Replacement

d. Competition

148. The principle that value is the worth of all present and future benefits arising from ownership and

use of real property

a. Principle of value

b. Principle of highest return

c. Principle of income return

d. Principle of anticipation

149. When a real property’s value depreciates in view of the decline in the utility of a feature of the

property may be referred to as

a. Principles of utility

b. Functional obsolescence

c. Functional depreciation

d. Use depreciation

150. The gross income multiplier may also be used to determine the value of the property and may be

computed by dividing the selling price of a comparable property by the

a. Annual gross income

b. Net income

c. Monthly income

d. Income after taxes

151. A property has an annual gross income of P 1,400,000.00. In this market study market study, an

investor found that a comparable property with an annual gross of P1 Million was recently sold for P6

Million. Using GIM, what is the estimated value of the property?

a. P 7,200,000

b. P 8,400,000

c. P 9,600,000

d. P 12,000,000

152. Under the RESA, a private real estate appraiser must pay the following bond to engage in

practice

a. P 10,000

b. P 5,000

c. P 25,000

d. P 20,000

153. It is considered an imaginary lined used by the geodetic engineer in plotting and locating a

specific property

a. Straight line

b. Geodetic reference line

c. Tie line

d. Reference line

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154. A map which provides the general location of a real property including the surrounding landmarks

and reference points is referred to as

a. Subdivision lot plan

b. Vicinity map

c. Road map

d. Lot plan

155. To determine the shape and dimension of the lot being purchased, the buyer must be able to

obtain a copy of this plan

a. Subdivision plan

b. Survey plan

c. Vicinity plan

d. Lot plan

156. It is the counting the number of steps in a required distance to determine the distance

a. Pacing

b. Step counting

c. Estimated foot distance

d. Step measurement

157. It is the angle less than 90° measured from N or S (meridian) and referred to in plotting a lot as

a. Degrees

b. Bearing

c. Tie line

d. Compass degrees

158. In plotting the technical description or lot, one degree is considered equivalent to

a. 60 seconds

b. 60 minutes

c. 100 seconds

d. 90 degrees

159. A map that identifies flood-prone and landslide-prone areas in the country and shows which areas

have high chances of soil erosion and which areas are low-lying and flood-prone areas is referred to

as a

a. Geohazard map

b. Hazard map

c. Philvocs ecomap

d. Soil hazard map

160. The map showing all the details that make up the surface features of the earth is generally called

a

a. Surface map

b. Terrain map

c. Topographic map

d. Elevation map

Friday, November 13, 2015