Radio Nav Exam 3

Radio Navigation Exam 3 - 65 Questions, time allowed 90 minutes 1. Decimetric waves correspond to the frequency range:

(a) 3000 to 30000 MHz (b) 3000 to 30000 KHz (c) 300 to 3000 MHz (d) 300 to 3000 KHz

2. On an HSI (Horizontal Situation Indicator) used in combination with a

VOR receiver

(a) A pictorial presentation of aircraft deviation relative to VOR radials is provided

(b) The lubber line will indicate the reciprocal value of the received radial

(c) The lubber line will indicate the selected radial (d) There will be no Omni Bearing Selector knob, as this function is

automatic on this type of indicator

3. With regard to types of transmission, which statement is true:

(a) continuous wave transmission varies only in amplitude (b) pulse transmission is suitable only for periodic NDB's (c) in pulse transmission the frequency is modulated to facilitate range

measurement (d) continuous wave transmission can be either frequency or amplitude

modulated 4. A VOR indication of 240° FROM is given. Variation at the aircraft is 9W

and at the VOR is 7W. The heading °(T) in nil wind to reach the station is:

(a) 231 (b) 051 (c) 053 (d) 233

5. An aircraft is maintaining an airway centreline of 000° defined by a VOR

ahead of the aircraft. Variation at the VOR is 5E. At 60nm to go the QDM is 004. The aircraft's position relative to the airway lateral boundary is:

(a) 3nm inside the airways eastern boundary (b) 1nm inside the airways western boundary (c) 1nm outside the airways western boundary (d) 1nm inside the airways eastern boundary

Bristol Groundschool Radio Navigation Exam 3

C

D

BA

6 In the propagation diagram above the correct sequence for letters A, B, C

and D is: A B C D

(a) dead space skip distance sky wave ground wave (b) dead space skip distance ground wave sky wave (c) skip distance dead space sky wave ground wave (d) skip distance dead space ground wave sky wave

7. MLS consists of:

(a) a common azimuth and elevation transmitter (b) overlapping centre-line lobe transmission in azimuth angled to

provide glide slope information (c) an azimuth transmitter and an elevation transmitter on separate

frequencies and a DME (d) an azimuth transmitter and an elevation transmitter operating on a

shared frequency and a DME 8. What antennae must be used to obtain an ADF bearing?

(a) Loop (b) Sense (c) Loop and sense (d) Radome

9. For long range NDB's the most common type is:

(a) LF NON AlA (b) LF NON A2A (c) MF NON A1A (d) MF NON A2A


10. The maximum safe 'fly-up' indication on the glidepath needle (assuming a 5-dot indicator) is

(a) 2 dots (b) 1.5 dots (c) 2.5 dots (d) 1 dot

11. An aircraft is tracking the 255° radial inbound to VOR X. With 15° port drift which of the following indications will be correct when crossing the 121° radial from VOR Y?

12. Attenuation of radio waves means:-

(a) the weakening of the radiated waves (b) the atmospheric bending of the waves (c) only the scattering of the waves by the tropopause (d) only the absorbtion of radio energy by the sea

13. The geodetic reference system used to define latitude and longitude by

GPS equipment is:- (a) UKGRS 90 (b) GDR 95 (c) OSGB 36 (d) WGS 84


14. Your QUJ is 335° by VDF. The variation of a VOR at the same location is 12°W. What is the phase difference between the reference and variable signals in the aircraft's receivers from that VOR?

(a) 323° (b) 347° (c) 143° (d) 167°

15. If a ground D/F controller passes a bearing thus: "your true bearing is 256°, class alpha." This means:-

(a) QTE accurate to ± 5° (b) QUJ accurate to ± 3° (c) QDR accurate to ± 2° (d) QTE accurate to ± 2°

16. Use the 1 in 60 rule to determine the approximate height of an aircraft

3nm from touchdown on a 2.9° glide slope.

(a) 880 ft (b) 765 ft (c) 840 ft (d) 825 ft

17. The TO/FROM indicator of a VOR

(a) Tells whether you are now flying towards or from the VOR (b) Tells whether a track equal to the selected bearing will bring you to

or away from the VOR (c) Tells whether the deviation indicator shows that you should

manoeuvre the aircraft towards or from the CDI needle (d) Tells whether you should turn the aircraft towards or away from

the CDI indication 18. The transmission band used by INMARSAT is: (a) HF (b) VHF (c) UHF (d) SHF 19. The maximum range of a primary pulse radar can be affected by:

(a) PRF (b) pulse width (c) transmission frequency (d) either (a), (b) or (c)


20. “DME is a .....................radar which provides......................distances between the aircraft and a ground.....................” Which sequence most accurately completes the above statement?

(a) primary accurate transmitter (b) secondary earth transmitter (c) secondary slant transponder (d) primary slant transponder

21. If a DME transponder becomes saturated it will;

(a) give preference to the nearest 100 aircraft (b) give preference to the furthest aircraft up to a maximum of 70 (c) give preference to the aircraft with the strongest transmissions (d) give preference to the first 100 aircraft which interrogated it

22. The tilt angle on Aircraft Weather Radar (AWR) at which an active cloud

just disappears from the screen is 4°. If the beam width is 5° and the range of the cloud is 40nm, the height of the cloud above the aircraft is approximately:

(a) 3000 ft (b) 6000 ft (c) 4000 ft (d) 9000 ft

23. Which of the ILS signal presentations shown below indicates that the

aircraft is at its maximum recommended deviation below the glidepath and is to the right of the centreline?

a) b)

c) d)


24. The VHF frequency band has a wavelength limit of:

(a) 100 m to 10 m (b) 1 m to 100 cms (c) 10 m to 1m (d) 100 cms to 10 cms

25. 119.70 Mhz is a typical frequency for;

(a) VOR (b) Approach Control (c) DME (d) ILS localiser

26. An aircraft bears 036°(T) from a VOR beacon. Its heading is 330°(T) and

the variation at the beacon and aircraft is 8°E. What OBS setting would make the CDI needle central with 'TO' showing?

(a) 028° (b) 208° (c) 232° (d) 052°

27. In the diagram above the correct action to regain glide slope and

centreline is:

(a) fly left and decrease descent rate (b) fly right and decrease descent rate (c) fly left and increase descent rate (d) fly right and increase descent rate

28. The visual and aural indications of the ILS outer marker are:-

(a) a blue light and 2 dashes per sec of a 400 hz modulated tone (b) a white light and 6 dots per sec of a 30 hz modulated tone (c) an amber light and alternate dashes/dots of a 1300 hz modulated

tone (d) a blue light and 2 dashes per sec of a 1300 hz modulated signal


29. The antenna polar diagram of a conventional VOR

(a) Is always directed towards the aircraft (b) Is like a figure of 8 (c) Is a pencil beam (d) Rotates at 30 revolutions per second

30. Microwave Landing Systems allow the aircraft to fix its position

accurately in three dimensions by means of:

(a) timing the interval between pulses in azimuth and elevation and timing the delay for pulses to reach the aircraft to define range

(b) information from four satellites transmitting microwaves (c) timing the passage of two scanning beams integrated with DME (d) directional aerials and DME

31. A radar which employs an interrogator/transponder technique is:

(a) primary radar (b) continuous wave radar (c) secondary radar (d) Doppler radar

32. The PRF of a primary radar is 500. Its maximum range in nm is

approximately

(a) 300 (b) 160 (c) 320 (d) 600

33. By using a random PRF the airborne DME can:-

(a) prevent interference from random transmissions (b) recognise a beacons reply among a mass of ground returns (c) reduce the effect of weather interference (d) distinguish between its own replies and those replies triggered by

other aircraft 34. Which sequence completes the following statement? With regard to AWR, in the cosecant2 or ............. beam ............is progressively ........... as distances ........... to equalise screen brightness.

(a) weather power increased decrease (b) mapping power decreased decrease (c) weather gain decreased increase (d) mapping gain increased decrease


35. The phase difference between the VOR reference signal and the variable phase signal measured at an aircraft bearing 297°(T) from a VOR, where the magnetic variation is 23E, is:-

(a) 320° (b) 274° (c) 297° (d) none of the above 36. With regard to SSR which of the following statements is true:

(a) it is a secondary radar system operating in the UHF frequency band.

(b) mode A is used for identification, with mode C for automatic height information

(c) it is compulsory when flying in Upper Airspace and in the whole of U.K. controlled airspace under IFR to carry Mode A 4096 codes and also Mode C

(d) all of the above 37. What is the height of the cloud if an aircraft is at 5000ft, cloud range is

30nm, the AWR tilt angle is 5° and the beam width is 4°?

(a) 9000ft (b) 14000ft (c) 21000ft (d) 17000ft

38. The rate of descent (in ft/min) for a 3° glide-slope at a GS of 140 kt is

(a) 325 (b) 640 (c) 710 (d) 520

39. A hyperbolic position line joins all points of

(a) equal range between two ground stations (b) zero phase difference between two signals (c) equal difference in range between two stations (d) equal time taken by two simultaneous transmissions

40. When a Mode C check is carried out, and assuming the equipment is

working without error, the Mode C will report an pressure altitude of 35,064 ft as flight level:

(a) 350 (b) 35064 (c) 3506 (d) 351


41. The wavelength of a radio signal is 200 metres. What is its frequency? (a) 1.5KHz (b) 1.5GHz (c) 1.5MHz (d) 15MHz 42. The approximate ground waves of LF and MF are (by day) ...... and ......

respectively, with ….... suffering more from atmospheric attenuation. (a) 1500nm l000nm MF (b) l000nm 500nm LF (c) l000nm 300nm MF (d) 500nm l00nm LF 43. In UK airspace if an ATS unit is unable to verify the altitude of the

aircraft or there is more than ...... feet between height indication and pilot reported altitude, mode ...... should be de-selected

(a) 300 Mode A (b) 200 Mode C (c) 300 Mode C (d) 200 Mode A 44. The needle of a Course Deviation Indicator is showing 3 dots right on a 5

dot OBI, with 268° set and FROM showing. What radial is the a/c on? (a) 082 (b) 094 (c) 262 (d) 274 45. The AWR screen on the right is

operating in the mapping mode. Given that the magnetic heading is 018° and the variation is 8°E the true bearing of the aircraft from the island is............. and the .............. scale is selected.

(a) 176° 120 nm (b) 160° 70 nm (c) 176° 100 nm (d) 160° 300 nm 46. NDBs transmit mainly in the: (a) VHF band (b) UHF band (c) HF band (d) MF band


47. The 95% accuracy for ADF bearings of an NDB by day is: (a) ± 2° (b) ± 7° (c) ± 10° (d) ± 3° 48. With reference to a VOR, the "cone of confusion" is: (a) the area outside the DOC (b) the area overhead the VOR (c) the change over of the TO & FROM flag when the OBS is set 90° to the radial (d) the area in which more than one VOR can be received on the same frequency 49. Accurate glidepath signals cannot be guaranteed above a certain angle

relative to the horizontal. The angle is:- (a) 0.45 x the glidepath angle (b) 5.25 x the glidepath angle (c) 1.35 x the glidepath angle (d) 1.75 x the glidepath angle 50. If a NDB with a transmitter power of 25KW which has a range of 50nm is

adjusted to give a power output of 100KW the range of the NDB will be about

(a) 100 nm (b) 200 nm (c) 50 nm (d) 150 nm

51. The indications of a VOR in an aircraft tracking towards a VOR are

075°(M) TO and deviation indicator central. A co-located NDB shows 012° relative. What are the drift and heading in °(M)?

(a) 12°S 087 (b) 12°P 063 (c) 12°S 063 (d) 12°P 087 52. The factor which determines the minimum range of a radar is: (a) PRF (b) Pulse interval (c) Pulse width (d) Radio frequency of transmission


53. The max theoretical range of a radar whose PRF is 750 pps is: (a) 218 nm (b) 132 nm (c) 200 nm (d) 108 nm 54. When receiving an NDB signal on an ADF receiver the BFO can be

selected OFF for the (a) tone signal on NONAlA (b) ident signal on NONAlA (c) tone signal on NONA2A (d) ident signal on NONA2A 55. A transmitter using a wavelength of 4 cm moves directly towards a

receiver at 240m/sec. The doppler shift is............. and of................ (a) negative 60 Hz (b) positive 6 KHz (c) negative 6 KHz (d) positive 60 Hz 56. In order to be able to penetrate cloud, a primary radar signal must have: (a) a short pulse length (b) a high frequency (c) a long wavelength (d) a high PRF 57. The range (in nm) at which an aircraft flying at 8500ft wi1l receive a VHF

transmission from a station 520ft amsl is: (a) 115 (b) 144 (c) 87 (d) 131 58. The ILS localiser transmits VHF frequencies between:- (a) 108 and 117.95 Mhz (b) 112 and 117.95 Mhz (c) 108 and 111.95 Mhz (d) 118 and 136.95 Mhz 59. With reference to ground DF, the controller can refuse to give bearings if: (a) the requesting aircraft is not from a consenting country (b) conditions are poor and bearings do not fall within the stations classified limits (c) the pilot does not use the prescribed terminology (d) none of the above


60. The ILS localiser signal provides azimuth guidance. The signal is made up of two lobes

(a) on the same frequency with the same modulation (b) on different frequencies with the same modulation (c) on different frequencies with different modulations (d) on the same frequency with different modulations 61. As the frequency of a transmitter is increased, the range of the ground

wave will:- (a) Increase (b) Decrease (c) Decrease only at night (d) Increase only over the sea 62. With reference to a VDF bearing, the true bearing of the aircraft from the

ground station is a: (a) QDM (b) QDR (c) QUJ (d) QTE 63. An aircraft is tracking 060° (T) in still air. The relative bearing of an NDB

is 035° at 1300. 12 min later the relative bearing is 070°. If the G/S is 180kt, what is the aircraft's distance from the NDB at 1312

(a) 18 nm (b) 36 nm (c) 24 nm (d) 30 nm 64. A Class B VDF bearing has accuracy limits of plus or minus: (a) 2 degrees (b) 7 degrees (c) 3 degrees (d) 5 degrees 65. Night effect is a quoted NDB error. It refers to the mixing of the: (a) Groundwave and sky waves from the station being used (b) Groundwave and sky waves from other stations (c) Direct wave and sky waves from the station being used (d) Direct wave and sky waves from other stations


Radio Navigation

Exam 3, 65 Questions. Time allowed: 1hr 30min. A B C D 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10

A B C D

11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20

41 42 43 44

45 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55

61 62 63 64 65

A B C D

21 22

23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40

56 57 58 59 60


1 c 21 c 41 c 61 b 2 a 22 b 42 c 62 d 3 d 23 c 43 b 63 b 4 c 24 c 44 c 64 d 5 b 25 b 45 c 65 a 6 d 26 b 46 d 7 d 27 a 47 b 8 c 28 a 48 b 9 a 29 d 49 d 10 c 30 c 50 a 11 d 31 c 51 c 12 a 32 b 52 c 13 d 33 d 53 d 14 d 34 b 54 d 15 d 35 b 55 b 16 a 36 d 56 c 17 b 37 b 57 b 18 c 38 c 58 c 19 d 39 c 59 b 20 c 40 d 60 d


Radio Nav Exam 3

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