Referred Quizzes for the Topics on Marketing Management (120 Questions)

1. Traditionally, mass marketing of a consumer product results in __________.

a. the largest potential market for that product

b. increased product prices due to the lack of differentiation and decreased

competition

c. easier channel selections

d. fewer competitors because there are fewer markets

e. lower profit margins

2. Bentley produces fine automobiles with price tags in the $300,000 and above range.

Because the number of people with sufficient income to purchase a Bentley is

relatively small, we might say Bentley is engaged in __________ marketing.

a. local

b. aggregated

c. individual

d. niche

e. derived

3. A(n) __________ market is characterized by a fairly narrowly defined market with

a complete and distinct set of needs, and a willingness to pay a premium to meet those

needs.

a. local

b. niche

c. individual

d. derived

e. homogeneous

4. All of the following are part of an attractive niche EXCEPT:

a. the niche has variety-seeking consumers

b. consumers in the niche have distinct needs

c. the niche is not likely to attract heavy competition

d. the niche can specialize and therefore realize certain economies

e. the niche has growth potential

5. A southern chain of barbecue restaurants would find it advantageous to prepare a

sweet pork sandwich with coleslaw inside for Mississippians, a mustard-based sauce

with pork and coleslaw on the side for Carolinians, and a smoky beef sandwich with

thick white bread instead of a bun for Texans. If the chain engages in __________

marketing, it will improve the likelihood of its success.

a. local

b. niche

c. individual

d. homogeneous

e. demographic

6. An argument against local marketing is that it __________.

a. makes it difficult to be profitable because of the small size of the market

b. makes it difficult to select a proper distribution channel

c. drives up marketing and manufacturing costs by reducing economies of scale

d. leads to a homogenization of the market

e. solidifies a brand’s overall image in the marketplace because it delivers the same

advertising message throughout its market

7. The ultimate level of marketing segmentation is __________ marketing.

a. local

b. niche

c. individual

d. homogeneous

e. mass

8. __________ combines mass customization with customized marketing.

a. Niching

b. Specialization

c. Customerization

d. Concentrated marketing

e. Clustered marketing

9. A company is customerized when it is able to respond to individual customers by

customizing its products, services and messages on a __________ basis.

a. macro

b. micro

c. uniform

d. one-to-one

e. cluster

10. Which of the following is NOT one of the five categories of PRIZM groups?

a. interests

b. race

c. mobility

d. education

e. lifecycle

11. If a food company segments a market on the basis of life stage information, its

basis for segmentation is __________.

a. behavioral

b. needs-based

c. demographic

d. geographic

e. psychographic

12. If you go to a Target store on the east side of Phoenix, you will find prayer

candles but no bicycle child carriers. The Target store in Scottsdale sells trailers but

does not stock portable heaters. You’d have to go to the Target store in Mesa to find

heaters. Target realizes that the people in each of these neighborhoods do not have the

same needs and should therefore not be offered the same products. This is an example

of __________.

a. benefits segmentation

b. geoclustering

c. demographic segmentation

d. behavioral segmentation

e. psychographic segmentation

13. When the parent company introduced Southern Belles magazine, it was described

as “a new publication that covers female style and southern life.” From this statement,

you should be able to describe the segmentation strategy used for the magazines as

__________.

a. benefits segmentation

b. geoclustering

c. demographic segmentation

d. behavioral segmentation

e. psychographic segmentation

14. While studying consumer-buying patterns for malt liquor, Joan has learned that

more of the product is consumed in ethnic neighborhoods on a per capita basis than in

less homogeneous areas. She is studying __________ data.

a. geographic

b. demographic

c. psychological

d. personality

e. lifestyle

15. Which of the following is an example of a demographic segmentation variable?

a. generation or social class

b. personality

c. attitude toward the product

d. lifestyle

e. user status

16. Perrigo Corporation makes One-Source Mature, a high potency, multivitamin for

active men and women over 50. This is an example of __________ segmentation.

a. gender

b. generation

c. age and life-cycle

d. user status

e. usage rate

17. Which of the following statements best describes the difference between age and

life-cycle segmentation and generational segmentation?

a. Age and life-cycle segmentation is rigid and unchanging over time while

generational segmentation changes with each decade.

b. Age and life-cycle segmentation assumes people are influenced by where they

are in life, and generational segmentation assumes they are influenced by what

they grew up with.

c. Age and life-cycle segmentation is a relatively straightforward segmentation

strategy while generational segmentation is much harder to implement.

d. Age and life-cycle segmentation assumes the effect of time, and generational

segmentation is based on the effects of economic and social status.

e. There are no differences between age and life-cycle segmentation and generational

segmentation.

18. Which of the following is NOT an example of a loyalty status segmentation

variable?

a. medium

b. none

c. strong

d. absolute

e. negligible

19. The Lazy H Dude Ranch is open to people of all sizes, shapes, and belief systems.

It’s a place people can go to unwind from the stress of daily life. Which of the

following is an example of a psychographic variable the owner of the retreat could use

in its marketing strategy?

a. occupation

b. age

c. lifestyle

d. social class

e .income

20. A segmentation study of people who would be interested in subscribing to a music

and entertainment magazine discovered three distinct groups of potential subscribers:

1) those who wanted reviews of the latest music releases, 2) those who wanted to

know behind the scenes gossip about the stars, and 3) those who sought to improve

their own musicianship. This magazine discovered its market can be segmented using

__________ variables.

a. demographic

b. social class

c. lifestyle

d. generation

e. geographic

21. Because two-thirds of the sales of new motorcycle policies at Dairyland Insurance

Company are to current policyholders, it should use a __________ segmentation

strategy.

a. education-based

b. benefit

c. demographic

d. behavioral

e. psychographic

22. For years Spiral-Cut Hams have been on thousands of Easter dinner tables. Spiral-

Cut is working hard to implement other segmentation strategies beyond the limited

__________ strategy it used in the past.

a. user rate

b. lifestyle

c. family life-cycle

d. benefit

e. occasion

23. Research by Voicestream Wireless revealed that it serves two different kinds of

consumers: chatterboxes who seemed to live on the phone and those that make lots of

short calls. Based on this research, it should use a(n) __________ segmentation

strategy.

a. age-based

b. usage rate

c. user status

d. loyalty status

e. occupation-based

24. Which of the following is NOT true of the VALS framework?

a. VALS uses date of birth to help determine market segment membership

b. Over 80,000 new surveys a year are added to the VALS data.

c. SRI identifies eight primary VALS segments in the United States.

d. The Innovators segment has high resources.

e. The experiencers segment is primarily motivated by self-expression.

25. Which of the following is an example of a behavioral segmentation variable?

a. generation

b. user status

c. personality

d. religion

e. social class

26. Which of the following is an example of a behavioral segmentation variable?

a. occupation

b. education level

c. buyer-readiness

d. lifestyle

e. family life cycle

27. Ninety percent of all sales made by GEICO Insurance Company are initiated by

the buyer rather than commissioned agents. Before purchasing insurance, buyers had

typically researched and compared GEICO to other providers; they felt that GEICO

best satisfied their needs. Given this information, GEICO should develop a strategy

around which of the behavioral segmentation strategies?

a. buyer-readiness

b. income

c. education

d. lifestyle

e. attitude

28. When dealing with loyalty status, buyers can be segmented in a variety of ways.

When given a choice of canned fruit at the supermarket, Barton will select either

Libby’s or the house brand, and no other brand. He makes his selection based on

which brand first catches his eye. Barton is an example of a __________.

a. hardcore loyal

b. split loyal

c. shifting loyal

d. switcher

e. splinter loyalist

29. According to Bonoma and Shapiro, the most important segmentation variable for

business markets is __________.

a. demographic variables

b. operating variables

c. situational factors

d. purchasing approaches

e. personal characteristics

30. Which of the following is NOT a major business segmentation variable?

a. demographic

b. geographic (difficult)

c. purchasing approaches

d. operating variables

e. personal characteristics

31. A company’s power structure and the nature of its existing relationships with

suppliers are all related to which of the major business market segmentation

variables?

a. demographic

b. operating variables

c. purchasing attributes

d. situational factors

e. personal characteristics

32. A company’s size and physical location are all related to which of the major

business market segmentation variables?

a. demographic

b. operating variables

c. purchasing attributes

d. situational factors

e. personal characteristics

33. Which of the following is a situation factor segmentation variable?

a. location

b. loyalty

c. technology

d. power structure

e. urgency

34. Which of the following is a personal characteristic segmentation variable?

a. loyalty

b. size

c. technology

d. industry

e. politics

35. Which of the following is NOT necessary to make a market segment useful?

a. It is measurable.

b. It is satisfied.

c. It is substantial.

d. It is actionable.

e. It is accessible.

36. A sports car manufacturer considered marketing to a market segment made up of

individuals separated from their spouses but not yet divorced. However, investigation

of the segment showed that this group of individuals could not be reached by any

specific media. In effect, this group was not a(n) _________ market.

a. accessible and substantial

b. measurable, differentiable, and accessible

c. accessible, differentiable, and actionable

d. actionable, differentiable, and substantial

e. substantial and actionable

37. A marketer wants to market beeping balls to sight-disabled softball players. This

market segment is __________ even if it meets none of the other characteristics

needed for a market segment to be useful.

a. immeasurable

b. substantial

c. accessible

d. differentiable

e. not quantifiable

38. The last step in segmenting a market is __________.

a. concept testing

b. the survey stage

c. segment “acid test”

d. marketing mix strategy

e. segment identification

39. The main two things to consider when selecting a target market are:

a. if the segment has potential and if it fits with the company’s objectives and

resources

b. if the segment is easily communicated with and if it is different enough from other

segments

c. if it is easy to define the needs of the segment and if economies of scale are

possible with the segment

d. if the segment is actionable and if the consumers in it are action-oriented

e. if the firm can provide a flexible market offering to fulfill the segment’s needs and

if the segment is large enough to be viable

40. A marketer who selected a __________ segmentation strategy would find this

segmentation strategy to possess the greatest amount of risk.

a. selective specialization

b. single-segment concentration

c. full market coverage

d. market specialization

e. product specialization

41. Which of the following is NOT part of the strategic brand management process?

a. building and conveying brand history

b. identifying and establishing brand positioning

c. planning and implementing brand marketing

d. measuring and interpreting brand performance

e. growing and sustaining brand value

42. A(n) __________ is a name, term, sign, symbol, or design, or a combination of

them, intended to identify the goods or services of one seller or group of sellers and to

differentiate them from those of competitors.

a. logo

b. brand

c. trademark

d. copyright

e. intellectual property

43. Which is NOT true of brands?

a. Consumers learn of brands through experiences.

b. Good brands simplify consumers’ decision making.

c. Consumers use savings cues more than brand cues.

d. Consumers learn of brands through marketing.

e. Good brands reduce consumer risk.

44. Which of the following is NOT a benefit of brand loyalty?

a. Loyalty provides predictability.

b. Loyalty allows for company security of demand.

c. Loyalty can translate into consumer willingness to pay a higher price.

d. Loyalty is easily matched by competitors.

e. Loyalty can create barriers to entry for other firms.

45. __________ is endowing products and services with the power of a brand.

a. Brand equity

b. Consumer risk reduction

c. Loyalty

d. Marketing infusion

e. Branding

46. All the thoughts, feelings, images, experiences, beliefs, and so on that become

associated with the brand are known as __________.

a. brand knowledge

b. brand equity

c. inelastic consumer response to the brand

d. brand perceptions

e. brand loyalty

47. Which is NOT a marketing advantage of strong brands?

a. improved perception of product performance

b. higher vulnerability to competitive marketing actions

c. greater loyalty

d. larger margins

e. less vulnerability to marketing crises

48. __________ can be defined as the differential effect that brand knowledge has on

customer response to the marketing of that brand.

a. Brand power

b. Brand knowledge

c. Customer-based brand equity

d. Brand freedom

e. Brand differentials

49. Which is NOT a marketing advantage of strong brands?

a. additional brand extension opportunities

b. possible licensing opportunities

c. increased marketing communications effectiveness

d. lower margins

e. improved perceptions of product performance

50. A(n) __________ is the marketer’s vision of what the brand must be and do for

consumers.

a. brand’s equity

b. brand mission

c. guarantee

d. implicit warranty

e. brand promise (moderate)

51. Consumers’ brand knowledge dictates, to some degree, all of the following,

EXCEPT:

a. what they think about the brand

b. how they expect the brand to react to competitor brands

c. what they feel about the brand

d. whether they will “grant” or “deny” permission to a particular marketing action or

program

e. where they believe the brand should go

52. ___________ are trademarkable devices that serve to identify and differentiate the

brand.

a. Brand elements

b. Brand equities

c. Consumer knowledge bases

d. Intellectual properties

e. Brand promises

53. Which is the name of the research procedure associated with the question “What

images come to mind?”?

a. preference tests

b. learning tests

c. association tests

d. memory tests

e. retention tests

54. The name-research procedure associated with the question “How well is the name

remembered?” is __________.

a. preference tests

b. learning test

c. restoration tests

d. memory tests

e. association tests

55. What question is associated with name-research tests of association?

a. What images come to mind?

b. How easily is the name pronounced?

c. How well is the name remembered?

d. Which names are preferred?

e. How much would you pay?

56. All of the following are criteria for choosing brand elements, EXCEPT:

a. noncontroversial

b. memorable

c. meaningful

d. adaptable

e. transferable

57. __________ is about making sure that the brand and its marketing are as relevant

as possible to as many customers as possible.

a. Target marketing

b. Personalizing marketing

c. Permission marketing

d. Integrating marketing

e. Internal branding

58. __________ is about mixing and matching marketing activities to maximize their

individual and collective effects.

a. Eclectic marketing

b. “Salad tossing”

c. Integrating marketing

d. Personalizing marketing

e. Synergy marketing

59. A __________ is any information-bearing experience a customer or prospect has

with the brand, the product category, or the market that relates to the marketer’s

product or service.

a. brand brush-up

b. loyalty builder

c. loyalty inducer

d. brand contact

e. “hook” or “handle”

60. Which of the following is a key theme in designing brand-building marketing

programs?

a. depersonalization

b. integration

c. externalization

d. all of the above

e. none of the above

61. Informing and inspiring employees about the brand through various activities and

processes is called __________.

a. internal branding

b. employee coaching

c. motivational training

d. indoctrination

e. none of the above

62. __________ occurs when customers experience the company as delivering on its

brand promise.

a. Internal branding

b. Brand bonding

c. Personalization branding

d. Brand image

e. Brand building

63. Which of the following is NOT one of the ways Jones Soda created a successful

“cult” brand?

a. recruited people on the street and provided samples

b. invited customers to submit photos of unusual product uses

c. agreed to large slotting fees to get good shelf placement

d. made the soda in unusual and bright colors

e. initially, sold the product through nontraditional outlets, like surf shops

64. Which is NOT a secondary source of brand knowledge for consumers?

a. country of origin information

b. other brands

c. third-party endorsements

d. things

e. library research

65. The indirect approach to measuring brand equity __________.

a. assesses the actual impact of brand knowledge on consumer response to different

aspects of the marketing

b. is the same as measuring sales outcomes related to marketing communications

c. is preferred by CEOs

d. assesses potential sources of brand equity by identifying and tracking consumer

brand knowledge structures

e. all of the above are correct answers

66. A(n) __________ is a consumer-focused exercise that involves a series of

procedures to assess the health of the brand, uncover its sources of brand equity, and

suggest ways to improve and leverage its equity.

a. brand audit

b. portfolio analysis

c. brand inventory

d. association test

e. equity examination

67. Which of the following is NOT part one of the functions of the brand audit?

a. assess the health of the brand

b. inventory public awareness of brand equity

c. uncover sources of brand equity

d. suggest ways to improve the brand’s equity

e. suggest ways to leverage the brand’s equity

68. With well-known companies, brand value is typically over __________of the total

market capitalization.

a. one-tenth

b. one-fourth

c. one-half

d. three quarters

e. there is no numerical average available to answer this question

69. The brand audit can be used to set the strategic direction for the brand. Questions

that are answered include all of the following EXCEPT:

a. Are the current sources of brand equity satisfactory?

b. Do certain brand associations need to be strengthened?

c. Does the brand lack uniqueness?

d. What kinds of advertising would highlight the brand?

e. What brand opportunities exist?

70. In which country do companies NOT list brand equity on their balance sheets?

a. The United Kingdom

b. Hong Kong

c. The United States

d. Australia.

e. businesses in all these countries list brand equity on their balance sheets

71. Brand equity is reinforced by marketing actions that consistently convey the

meaning of the brand to consumers in terms of all of the following EXCEPT:

a. what products the brand represents

b. what core benefits the brand supplies

c. what needs the brand satisfies

d. which strong, favorable, and unique brand associations exist in the consumers’

minds

e. how brand fans accept less-than-perfect performances

72. Unless there is some environmental change, there is little reason to deviate from

__________.

a. vigorous preservation of brand “status quo”

b. successful brand positioning

c. last year’s brand advertising

d. the practices that produce dwindling brand leadership

e. all of the above answer the question correctly

73. Reversing a fading brand’s fortunes may require __________.

a. relinquishing lost sources of brand equity

b. establishing new sources of brand equity

c. a “return to its roots”

d. only two of the above

e. a, b, and c

74. Which of the following is NOT on the list of corporate resources that would help a

firm weather a brand crisis?

a. strong brand equity

b. strong corporate image

c. strong credibility

d. good lawyers

e. high trustworthiness

75. What two words best describe how to execute successful brand crisis

management?

a. fast and furious

b. in and out

c. credibility and trustworthiness

d. fess up and settle

e. swift and sincere

76. Which of the following is NOT one of the approaches for improving or

“refreshing” a brand’s equity?

a. expand the breadth of brand awareness

b. expand the depth of brand understanding

c. improve consumer recall of the brand

d. improve the uniqueness of brand associations that make up brand image

e. improve consumer recognition of the brand

77. Which is NOT part of devising a branding strategy?

a. discovering brand elements

b. deciding the nature of new brand elements

c. deciding the nature of existing brand elements

d. applying brand elements to new products

e. applying brand elements to existing products

78. Using a parent brand to enter a different product category from that currently

served by the parent is a __________.

a. brand extension

b. sub-brand

c. category extension

d. parent brand

e. line extension

79. An existing brand that “gives birth” to a brand extension is a __________.

a. family brand

b. brand line

c. brand mix

d. parent brand

e. branded variant

80. The definition of a sub-brand is __________.

a. using an established brand to launch a new product

b. all products sold under a particular brand

c. the set of all brand lines that a firm offers to buyers

d. the company’s brand assortment

e. combining a new brand with an existing brand

81. A good brand positioning helps the firm and consumer by doing all of the

following EXCEPT:

a. helps competitors understand where NOT to compete

b. helps clarify the brand’s essence

c. helps consumers understand what the brand will help them achieve

d. helps consumers maximize the benefits of the brand

e. helps guide marketing strategy

82. A __________ is a cogent (logical or sound) reason why the target market should

buy the product.

a. market niche service agreement

b. customer-focused value proposition

c. price/benefit analysis

d. marketing campaign

e. differentiation plan

83. __________ includes the products or sets of products with which a brand

competes and which function as close substitutes.

a. The evoked set

b. Brand choice

c. Category membership

d. The inept set

e. The competition set

84. What acronym is associated with the following definition—“attributes or benefits

consumers strongly associate with a brand, positively evaluate, and believe that they

could NOT find to the same extent with a competitor brand”?

a. WOM

b. WOW

c. POD

d. POP

e. POS

85. What type of points-of-parity is related to association’s consumer view as

necessary to be a legitimate offering within a certain category?

a. head-to-head

b. competitive

c. word-of-mouth

d. membership

e. category

86. The typical positioning approach is to inform consumers of a brand’s __________

before stating its __________.

a. POPs; PODs

b. membership; point-of-difference

c. category benefits; comparisons to exemplars

d. membership; value proposition

e. point-of-difference; positioning

87. Which of the following is NOT a major way of conveying a brand’s category

membership?

a. relying on word of mouth among zealous consumers

b. announcing category benefits

c. using the brand name of the product to explain the offering’s benefits

d. comparing to exemplars

e. relying on a product descriptor

88. XM Satellite Radio, the brand name, is a perfect example of using which strategy

to convey the brand’s category membership?

a. relying on word of mouth among zealous consumers

b. comparing to exemplars

c. relying on the product descriptor

d. announcing category benefits

e. explaining the value proposition

89. One criterion for points-of-difference (POD) is the feasibility criterion, which

means __________.

a. the positioning must be preemptive, defensible, and difficult to attack

b. the POD must be personally relevant and important to target consumers

c. target customers must find the POD believable

d. the product design and marketing offering must support the desired association

e. the brand must substantiate that it can deliver the desired benefit

90. One criterion for points-of-difference (POD) is the communicability criterion,

which means __________.

a. the positioning must be preemptive, defensible, and difficult to attack

b. the POD must be personally relevant and important to target consumers

c. target customers must find the POD believable

d. the firm must be able to actually create the POD

e. consumers must be given a compelling reason and understandable rationale as to

why the brand can deliver the desired benefit

91. Which of the following brand position sets would NOT be difficult to pull off in

the same campaign?

a. classy; tasteful.

b. good tasting; low calorie

c. inexpensive; high quality

d. sophisticated; discount retailer

e. positive; negative

92. __________ refer(s) to the product’s size, shape, or physical structure.

a. Form

b. Features

c. Performance quality

d. Conformance quality

e. Durability

93. __________ is(are) the level(s) at which the product’s primary characteristics

operate.

a. Form

b. Features

c. Performance quality

d. Conformance quality

e. Durability

94. __________ is(are) the degree9S0 to which all of the produced units are identical

and meet promised specifications.

a. Form

b. Features

c. Performance quality

d. Conformance quality

e. Durability

95. Which of the following is NOT a way of differentiating the product offering?

a. form

b. features

c. conformance

d. style

e. expertise

96. Which of the following is a way of differentiating services?

a. reliability

b. installation

c. design

d. quality

e. expertise

97. A product’s __________ is a measure of the probability that a product will NOT

malfunction or fail within a specified period.

a. repairability

b. style

c. reliability

d. design

e. durability

98. A product’s __________ refers to the work done to make a product operational in

its planned location.

a. ordering ease

b. design

c. maintenance and repair

d. installation

e. reliability

99. __________ describes the product’s look and feel to the buyer.

a. Positioning

b. Design

c. Distinctiveness

d. Uniqueness

e. Style

100. Which of the following is NOT a main service differentiator?

a. ethical personnel

b. ordering ease

c. delivery

d. installation

e. customer consulting

101. When a(n) __________ cannot be differentiated easily, the key to competitive

success may lie in adding valued __________ and improving their quality.

a. idea; creativity

b. product; services

c. service; products

d. value proposition; creative responses

e. idea; styling

102. Which of the following is a way of differentiating a marketing offering via

personnel?

a. training

b. ordering ease

c. coverage

d. events

e. conformance

103. Which is NOT a way of differentiating an offering via the channel of

distribution?

a. wider coverage

b. expertise

c. communication

d. more exclusive coverage

e. performance

104. Which does NOT add to a segment’s unattractiveness, according to Porter’s five

forces model?

a. numerous competitors

b. growing plant capacity

c. high exit barriers

d. the segment is growing

e. high fixed costs

105. Which of the following is a likely outcome during tough economic time if there

are low barriers to entry and high exit barriers?

a. stable returns

b. more firms coming online

c. high profits

d. firms easily dropping out of that business

e. chronic overcapacity

106. Which is NOT one of Porter’s five forces that determine market attractiveness?

a. internal resources

b. potential entrants

c. buyer power

d. supplier power

e. threat of substitutes

107. Which of Porter’s five forces depends heavily on industry entrance and exit

barriers?

a. segment rivalry

b. potential entrants

c. buyer power

d. supplier power

e. threat of substitutes

108. Which is NOT a reason that buyers’ power might grow or concentrate?

a. undifferentiated product

b. price sensitivity

c. product represents an insignificant portion of buyers’ costs

d. low switching costs

e. upstream integration possibilities

109. Which is NOT a reason that suppliers’ bargaining power might grow?

a. when there are few substitutes

b. when the supplied product is an important input

c. when downstream integration possibilities exist

d. when sellers are price sensitive

e. when they are well organized

110. Formulation principles of Blue Ocean Strategy include all of the following

EXCEPT:

a. reconstruct market boundaries

b. focus on the big picture

c. reach beyond existing demand

d. get the strategic sequence right

e. build execution strategy

111. Execution principles of Blue Ocean Strategy include:

a. overcome key organizational hurdles

b. reconstruct market boundaries

c. reach beyond existing demand

e. get the strategic sequence right

112. Which of the following is NOT a way in which industries are classified?

a. degree of product differentiation

b. publicly versus privately held

c. number of sellers

d. cost structure

e. degree of globalization

113. Which is NOT an example of reconstructing market boundaries?

a. look across alternative industries

b. look across strategic groups within industries

c. look across buyer utility

d. look across functional or emotional appeal to buyers

e. look across time

114. Which is NOT an example of overcoming key organizational hurdles?

a. cognitive hurdle

b. resource hurdle

c. motivational hurdle

d. target hurdle

e. political hurdle

115. Which is NOT a question of getting the sequence right?

a. Is there buyer utility?

b. Is the price acceptable?

c. Can we attain target cost?

d. What are the adoption challenges?

e. Are the alternatives understood?

116. A group of firms following the same strategy in a given target market is known

as a __________.

a. strategic group

b. target group

c. macro market group

d. micro market group

e. mass market

117. The competitor’s share of the target market is known as __________.

a. share of mind

b. share of market

c. share of heart

d. share of segment

e. share of category

118. Which measure is the percentage of consumers saying a particular brand when

asked, “Name the company from which you would prefer to buy (such-and-such)

product”?

a. share of mind

b. share of pocketbook

c. share of heart

d. share of market

e. share of wrap-up

119. Which of the following represents the idea of share of mind?

a. the percentage of the target market the brand has

b. the percentage that says the brand is the one they think of first

c. the percentage that refuses to answer the survey

d. the percentage that says the brand is their preference

e. the percentage that says the competition’s brand first

120. Which is a characteristic of a good competitor?

a. They try to buy share. 

b. They take large risks.

c. They invest in overcapacity.

d. They upset the industry’s equilibrium.

e. They limit themselves to a segment of the industry.