QUIZ COMPILATIONS- december,PART ONE, 2020

GOALTIDE IAS ACADEMY 1

QUIZ COMPILATIONS- DECEMBER,PART ONE, 2020



Q1. In the context of recent Motor Vehicle Aggregator Guidelines-2020, consider the following statements.

1. The guidelines are applicable to motor vehicles including e-rikshaws.

2. Only Central Government will issue license to aggregators which is valid for five

years.

3. Car Pooling services are also included under new guidelines aimed at reducing traffic congestion and pollution.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

a. 1 and 2 only

b. 2 and 3 only

c. 1 and 3 only d. 1, 2 and 3

Solution: c

Explanation:

In 2019, the Ministry of Road Transport and Highways enacted the Motor Vehicle

(Amendment) Act which provides for hefty fines and stringent measures to reduce road

accidents and also boost road safety. The amendments also define ‘aggregator’.

In these amendments, an ‘aggregator’ is defined a digital intermediary or marketplace for a

rider to connect with a driver for the purpose of transportation. Ola Cabs, Meru and Uber are some of the popular cab aggregators in India.

Section 36 of the Act states that State Governments must follow guidelines issued by the

Central Government for issuing license to aggregators. These aggregator guidelines were released by Ministry of Road Transport and Highways on 27 November 2020.

First statement is correct.



Second statement is incorrect.

State government to issue license to aggregators which is valid for five years

Any person can apply for aggregator’s license by submitting the prescribed form and proof

of payment of fee and security deposit. The prescribed form (Form-I) asks for details of the

company (or co-operative society/association/ Limited Liability Partnership) such as

contact details, registered office details, details of vehicles to be operated, GPS/GPRS facility, etc. The license issued by the State Government has a validity of 5 years.

Third statement is correct.

As stated earlier, the guidelines allow for pooling vehicles. Only those riders whose

details and KYC are available will be offered pooling. Aggregators have been allowed to

offer pooling services in private vehicles. However, only four intra-city rides per day and two inter-city rides per week are allowed.



Q2. In the context of Hornbill species in India, consider the following statements.

1. Hornbills species are found only in north eastern part of India.

2. Hornbill feed on fruits and disperse seeds far, helping in trees spread.

3. Great Indian Hornbill listed as Endangered by the International Union for Conservation of Nature (IUCN).

Which of the above statement is/are correct?

a. 1 and 2 only

b. 2 only

c. 3 only d. 1, 2 and 3

Solution: b

Explanation:

Hornbills are large and wide-ranging birds, and most species are dependent on tropical

forest habitats that contain large and tall trees. As they mostly eat fruits, a diversity of

native forest tree and liana species are needed to provide their year-round requirements.

India has nine hornbill species, of which four are found in the Western Ghats: Indian

Grey Hornbill (endemic to India), the Malabar Grey Hornbill (endemic to the Western

Ghats), Malabar Pied Hornbill (endemic to India and Sri Lanka) and the widely distributed

but endangered Great Hornbill. India also has one species that has one of the smallest

ranges of any hornbill: the Narcondam Hornbill, found only on the island of Narcondam.

Second statement is correct. Third statement is incorrect.

Great Indian Hornbill has been listed as “Near Threatened” by the International

Union for Conservation of Nature (IUCN).



Q3. Five Eyes (FVEY) Alliance was recently seen in news. Which of the following is/are

members of this Alliance?

1. Australia

2. Canada

3. Japan

4. India

5. United States

Select the correct code.

a. 1, 2 and 5 only

b. 2, 3 and 5 only

c. 1 and 5 only

d. 1 and 2 only

Solution: a

Explanation:

The Five Eyes (FVEY) is an intelligence alliance comprising Australia, Canada, New

Zealand, the United Kingdom and the United States. These countries are parties to the multilateral UKUSA Agreement, a treaty for joint cooperation in signals intelligence.



Q4. Consider the following.

1. Krishna River

2. Kolleru Lake

3. Pulicat Lake

4. Godavari River

Arrange the above from North to South

a. 4-2-3-1

b. 2-4-3-1



c. 4-2-1-3

d. 1-2-4-3

Solution: c

The correct sequence is:

Godavari River- Kolleru- Krishna River-Pulicat Lake

Q5. Consider the following statements.

1. No person shall be eligible for inclusion in the electoral roll for any constituency

only on the grounds of religion, race, caste, sex.

2. The Election Commission consists of Chief Election Commissioner and such number

of Election Commissioners as Parliament fix from time to time.

Which of the above provisions are part of the Indian Constitution?

a. 1 only

b. 2 only

c. Both 1 and 2

d. Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: a



Explanation:

The first statement is mentioned in Article 325 of the Constitution. The second

statement is wrong because, president may decide numbers of Election

Commissioners from time to time, not Parliament.

Q6. Consider the following pairs.

Buddha’s Pitakas Related to

Vinaya Pitaka

Buddha’s sermons and doctrines.

Sutta Pitaka Rules of orders for Buddhists.

Abhidhamma Pitaka Buddhist Philosophy.

Which of the above pairs is/are correct?

a. 1 and 2 only

b. 3 only

c. 2 and 3 only

d. 1 and 3 only

Solution: b

Explanation:

Buddha’s Pitakas Related to



Vinaya Pitaka

Rules of orders for Buddhists

Sutta Pitaka Buddha’s sermons and doctrines.

Abhidhamma Pitaka Buddhist Philosophy.


1. Gandhiji became present of Indian National Congress in Belgaum session.

2. Formation of Swaraj Party

3. Passage of Poorna Swaraj Resolution

4. Nehru Report

Arrange the above events of Indian National movement in sequence.

a. 2-1-4-3

b. 1-2-4-3

c. 2-1-3-4

d. 2-4-1-3

Solution: a

The Swaraj Party was established as the Congress-Khilafat Swaraj Party. It was a political

party formed in India in January 1923 after the Gaya annual conference in December

1922 of the National Congress after Gandhi called off Non-cooperation Movement following

Chauri-Chaura incident.

Mahatma Gandhi became President of Indian National Congress at Belgaum session in

1924.

Nehru Report came in 1928.

The Indian National Congress, on 19 December 1929, passed the historic 'Poorna

Swaraj' (total independence) resolution at its Lahore session.

Q8. Consider the following pairs.

Mountains/Seas location 1. Pyrenees Mountains

France and Spain

2. Kamchatka peninsula

Sea of Okhotsk and Bering Sea

3. Dead Sea Israel and Syria



Which of the above locations is/are correct?

a. 1 only

b. 2 and 3 only

c. 1 and 2 only

d. 2 only Solution: c

Explanation:

Mountains/Seas location Pyrenees Mountains

France and Spain

Kamchatka peninsula

Sea of Okhotsk and Bering Sea

Dead Sea Israel and Jordan



Q9. Dhrupad is one of the oldest and grandest forms of Hindustani classical music. It

reached its zenith in the court of which emperor?

a. Mohammad Shah ‘Rangila’.

b. Akbar.

c. Jahangir.

d. Shah Jahan.

Solution: b

Explanation:

The term Dhrupad (Dhruva = immutable/ fixed + Pada = Hymn/ verse) refers to a genre of

raga-based music which dominated Hindustani music between the 15th and the 18th

centuries.

Its distinguishing features are (a) a deliberate, unhurried style of presentation, (b) an

austere approach to melodic phrasing and raga elaboration, (c) the sanctity attached to the

literary component and the melodic structure of the verses, and (d) a highly structured

method of melodic development.



The Golden Age of Dhrupad commenced when Emperor Akbar (1542-1605), invited

the legendary Miya Tansen to the Imperial Court. From Delhi, its influence spread far

and wide. At its zenith, Dhrupad held sway over the whole of non-peninsular India.

Khayal began to acquire prominence during reign of Muhammad Shah ‘Rangila’ in the

first half of 18th century and nearly completely eclipsed Dhrupad in the course of the next

two hundred years.

Q10. Dalma Wildlife Sanctuary is in:

a. Odisha

b. West Bengal

c. Mizoram

d. None of these

Solution: d

Explanation:

Dalma Wildlife Sanctuary is in Jharkhand.

Q11. In the context of State legislature, consider the following statements.

1. A member disqualified under Tenth Schedule can be a minister of House but not

more than six months.

2. Before a Minister enters upon his office, the President shall administer to him the

oaths of office and of secrecy.

3. The Council of Ministers shall be collectively responsible to the Legislative Assembly

of the State.


a. 2 only

b. 2 and 3 only

c. 3 only

d. 1, 2 and 3

Solution: C

Explanation:

News was:



First Statement is incorrect:

A member who is disqualified under Tenth Schedule, shall also be disqualified to be

appointed as a Minister, till he is further elected. We hope you are aware of Tenth

Schedule.

Second Statement is incorrect. Its GOVERNOR, NOT PRESIDENT. We have asked about State Legislature, not Parliament.

Third statement is correct. Check above image.

Q12. Consider the following Pairs.

Places in news Location 1. Utah Kenya 2. Mount Semeru Indonesia 3. Nasiriya Iraq




a. 1 and 2 only

b. 2 only

c. 3 only

d. 2 and 3 only

Solution: d

Explanation:

Deadly clashes in Iraq, Nasiriya.



Hot ash tumbled as far as 3,000 meters (9,800 feet) down the slopes of Mount Semeru triggering panic.



Q13. ‘Ethereum 2.0’ recently seen in news is:

a. Newly launched SUPER Computer by US

b. Cryptocurrency

c. Asteroid sample-return mission d. A recently approved vaccine for COVID-19

Solution: b

Explanation:

The world’s second largest cryptocurrency, Ether (after Bitcoin) is set for a major

transition, which may overcome some of the challenges that its larger counterpart faces.



Link: https://www.livemint.com/money/personal-finance/world-s-second-largest-

cryptocurrency-to-get-upgrade-today-11606813346981.html


1. Most of the fire prone forest areas in India are found in Himalayas and western part

of India.

2. Forests in Mizoram is more prone to fire than forests in Punjab.


a. 1 only

b. 2 only

c. Both 1 and 2

d. Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: b

Explanation:

https://www.livemint.com/money/personal-finance/world-s-second-largest-cryptocurrency-to-get-upgrade-today-11606813346981.html

https://www.livemint.com/money/personal-finance/world-s-second-largest-cryptocurrency-to-get-upgrade-today-11606813346981.html



First Statement is incorrect. You can see below in map, fire prone areas in India is from North East and Central India.

Second statement is correct. You can also see through map above and also through

data given below.



Q15. 2021-2030, designated by United Nations as a decade of:

a. United Nations Decade of Ocean Science for Sustainable Development

b. United Nations Decade of Action on Nutrition

c. International Decade for Action "Water for Sustainable Development"

d. International Decade of Indigenous Languages

Solution: a

Explanation:



Q16. According to the constitution of India, which of the following authorities is/are barred

from future appointment to any public offices by the central and state government after

retirement?

1. Finance Commission

2. Chairman of Union Public Service Commission

3. Comptroller and Auditor General of India

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

a. 1 and 2 only

b. 2 and 3 only

c. 1 and 3 only

d. 1, 2 and 3

Solution: b

Explanation:



Remember here, “AS PER THE CONSTITUTION OF INDIA. These small things can help

you in exam.

Chairman of UPSC is barred from further appointment by government after his

retirement.

CAG is also not eligible for re appointment.

FINANCE COMMISSION ARE NOT BARRED. THE CAN BE RE-APPOINTED. Read a small

story below:

The Constitution has not mentioned about reappointment of Finance Commission.

Parliament by law, but law enacted by it mentions that Finance Commission can be re-

appointed.



Q17. In the context of India, Consider the following events.

1. Nationalization of Reserve Bank of India.

2. Fourth Five Year Plan

3. Establishment of State Bank of India

Arrange the following events in the order of their occurrence in India:

a. 1-2-3

b. 1-3-2

c. 2-1-3

d. 3-1-2

Solution: b

Explanation:

The Reserve Bank of India was nationalized with effect from 1st January 1949 on the

basis of the Reserve Bank of India (Transfer to Public Ownership) Act, 1948.

SBI was formed in 1955 under State Bank of India Act of 1955.

Fourth Five Year Pan (1969-74).

Q18. Consider the following statements regarding Treasury Bills.

1. They are the short- term debt instruments issued by the Government of India.

2. Interest rate is decided by the government only.




a. 1 only

b. 2 only

c. Both 1 and 2

d. Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: a

Explanation:

Treasury bills or T-bills, which are money market instruments, are short term debt

instruments issued by the Government of India and are presently issued in three tenors,

namely, 91-day, 182 day and 364 day.

Treasury bills are zero coupon securities and pay no interest. Instead, they are issued at

a discount and redeemed at the face value at maturity. For example, a 91-day Treasury bill

of ₹100/- (face value) may be issued at say ₹ 98.20, that is, at a discount of say, ₹1.80 and

would be redeemed at the face value of ₹100/-. Interest rates are not used here.

Therefore, second statement is wrong.

Q19. Consider the followings.

1. The increasing rate of interest on borrowings for commercial banks.

2. Central Bank selling government Securities under Open Market Operations.

3. Increasing indirect tax.

Which of the following steps can be taken to check inflation in economy?

1. 1 only

2. 1 and 2 only

3. 1 and 3 only

4. 2 and 3 only

Solution: b

Explanation:

Increasing rate of interest on borrowing for commercial banks will decrease the lending

capacity of banks. Hence, will help in controlling inflation.

Open Market Operations refer to sale and purchase of government securities and bonds by

the central bank. To control inflation, central bank sells the government securities to the

public through banks. This results in transfer of a part of bank deposit to central bank

account and reduces credit creation capacity of commercial banks.

Increase in indirect tax will increase the prices of goods and services and therefore, will

increase inflation. Third option is incorrect.



Q20. Which of the following ruler in Indian history has been shown on his coins sitting

cross-legged on a couch and playing a veena?

a. Samudragupta

b. Chandragupta I

c. Harshvardhan

d. Krishnadevaraya

Solution: a

Explanations:

Samudragupta is the only royal figure in Indian history who has the unique distinction of

being shown on his coins sitting cross-legged on a couch and playing a veena (a lyre or a

lute).


1. Indi is the largest exporter of Basmati Rice in world.

2. More than 50 percent of the total basmati rice is exported to Middle east. 3. India’s export of Basmati rice is greater than non-basmati rice.


a. 1 and 2 only

b. 2 only


Solution: a

Explanation:



News was:

Recently, the European Commission published India’s Protected Geographical Indication

application in the European Union for ‘Basmati’, the rice which is popularly used for

making Biriyanis and Pulao. Pakistan, which is the only other country in the world to

produce Basmati rice besides India, has opposed India’s claim and has planned to challenge the application.


India already accounts for a lion’s share of Basmati rice exports. More than 85% of the

global Basmati exports (by quantity and by value) are from India.

Second statement is correct.

Major importers of Basmati from India are the Middle Eastern countries. In 2018-19,

around 76% of the Basmati exports from India were to Iran, Saudi Arabia, Iraq, Kuwait,

Yemen, and UAE.

Third statement is incorrect.



Every information below is taken from Government record. So, just learn without

thinking too much. No one will do so much effort to bring authentic information.

They all will copy from here and there. Follow us regularly. You will learn lot of

things.

Q22. Recently, the traces of phosphine (PH3) gas has been found in our solar system. In this

context, consider the following statements:

1. The traces of phosphine (PH3) gas has been found in the atmosphere of Venus. 2. It is a colourless, flammable, very toxic gas made up of phosphorous and hydrogen.

Which of the Statements given above is/are correct?

a. 1 only

b. 2 only

c. Both 1 and 2 d. Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: c

Explanation:

The discovery of phosphine, some 31 miles (50 km) from the planet’s surface, has

indicated that life could prosper in a less hostile environment.



Second statement is also correct:

Phosphine is a compound with the chemical formula PH3. It is a colourless, flammable, very toxic gas made up of phosphorous and hydrogen.

It is slightly soluble in water. Phosphine is used in semiconductor and plastics industries, in

the production of a flame retardant, and as a pesticide in stored grain.

Phosphine is used as an insecticide for the fumigation of grains, animal feed, and leaf-

stored tobacco.

Q23. The ‘Kafala System’, sometimes seen in the news, emerged in the region of West Asia, is associated with

a. Refugees

b. Women

c. Economic reforms

d. Migrant workers

Solution: d

Explanation:

The Kafala (Sponsorship) System emerged in the 1950’s to regulate the relationship

between employers and migrant workers in many countries in West Asia. It remains the

routine practice in the Gulf Cooperation Council (GCC) countries of Bahrain, Kuwait, Oman,



Qatar, Saudi Arabia and the United Arab Emirates (UAE), and also in the Arab states of

Jordan and Lebanon.

Under the Kafala system a migrant worker’s immigration status is legally bound to an

individual employer or sponsor (kafeel) for their contract period. The migrant worker

cannot enter the country, transfer employment nor leave the country for any reason without first obtaining explicit written permission from the kafeel.

Q24. With reference to the Prime Minister’s Employment Generation Programme (PMEGP),

consider the following statements:

1. The objective of the scheme is to generate employment opportunities in rural as

well as urban areas through setting up of self-employment ventures.

2. The Ministry of MSME administers the Prime Minister’s Employment Generation

Programme (PMEGP).

3. Under this scheme, 100 percent of project cost is contributed by the Indian

Government.

Which of the Statements given above is/are correct?

a. 1 and 2 only

b. 2 and 3 only

c. 2 only

d. 1 only

Solution: a

Explanation:

First and second statement is correct.

Prime Minister’s Employment Generation Programme (PMEGP) is a credit-linked subsidy

programme introduced by the government of India in 2008. PMEGP is a merger of two

schemes, namely, Prime Minister’s Rojgar Yojna and Rural Employment Generation

Programme. This program focuses on generating self-employment opportunities through

micro-enterprise establishments in the non-farm sector by helping unemployed youth and

traditional artisans.

The Ministry of MSME administers the Prime Minister’s Employment Generation

Programme (PMEGP). The PMEGP Scheme is being implemented by Khadi and Village Industries Commission (KVIC) at the national level.




10 percent contribution is made by beneficiaries.

Q25. Consider the following:

1. Baghdad (Iraq)

2. Tehran (Iran)

3. Ankara (Turkey)

Arrange the above from South to North

a. 3-1-2

b. 1-3-2

c. 3-2-1

d. 1-2-3

Solution: d

Explanation:



The correct sequence is Baghdad-Tehran-Ankara (South to North)

Q26. Famous terracotta and stone sculptures such as the Yakshini from Didarganj and

Yaksha from Parkham belong to:

a. Pre-Mauryan period

b. Mauryan period

c. Gupta period

d. Kushana period

Solution: b

Explanation:

During the Mauryan period, apart from the court art or royal patronage, cave-architecture,

sculpture, and pottery took the expressions of art by individual effort.

Two of the most famous sculptures of the Mauryan period are those of Yaksha and Yakshi.

They were objects of worship related to all three religions – Jainism, Hinduism, and

Buddhism. The earliest mention of Yakshi can be found in Silappadikaram, a Tamil text. The

torso of the nude male figure found at Lohanipur at Patna. Didargunj Yakshi was found at

Didargunj village at Patna.



Q27. Which of the following aspects can lead to appreciation in the exchange rate of the

Rupee?

1. Increase in foreign tourists coming to India.

2. Indian citizens investing abroad.

3. A decrease in crude oil prices.

4. Increase in exports by Indian pharmaceutical companies.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

a. 1 and 2 only

b. 1, 3 and 4 only

c. 2 and 4 only

d. 1 and 3 only

Solution: b

Explanation:

SUCH QUESTIONS SHOULD NOT BE WRONG NOW.

Increase in foreign tourists coming to India would increase the demand for Rupee. This

would lead to an appreciation in the rupee value. So, Statement (1) is correct.



Indian citizens investing abroad would demand foreign currency in exchange for Rupee.

This would lead to the price of the foreign currency increasing relative to the rupee,

leading to a depreciation in the value of the rupee. So, Statement (2) is not correct.

A decrease in crude oil prices would reduce the import bill of India as India imports about

70 per cent of its crude requirements. This would reduce the demand for foreign

currency, which in turn would lead to an increase in the value of the rupee. So,

Statement (3) is correct.

Increase in exports by Indian pharmaceutical companies would bring foreign exchange

in India. The price of foreign currency would reduce in terms of the rupee. This would lead

to a depreciation in the value of the foreign currency and an appreciation in the value of

the rupee. So, Statement (4) is correct.

Therefore, the correct answer is (b).

Q28. Consider the following statements with reference to Office of Profit:

1. It is neither defined in the Constitution of India nor Representation of the People

Act, 1951.

2. The power of disqualification for holding it is conferred upon the Election

Commission of India.

Which of the statements given above is/are not correct?

a. 1 only

b. 2 only

c. Both 1 and 2

d. Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: b

Explanation:

The word ‘office’ has not been defined in the Constitution or the Representation of

the People Act of 1951.

The President, in consultation with the Election Commission, disqualifies a member who is

holding an office of profit. Second statement is incorrect.



And What is written in Article 102:

Q29. The Representation of the People Act, 1950 contains provisions related to:

1. Allocation of seats in the Lok Sabha and the Legislatures of the States

2. Preparation of the electoral rolls for elections to the Parliament and the State

Legislatures

3. Local Authorities for elections to the State Legislative Councils

4. Qualifications and disqualifications for the membership of the State Legislatures

Which of the provisions given above are correct?

a. 1 and 2 only

b. 1 and 3 only

c. 2, 3 and 4 only

d. 1, 2 and 3 only

Solution: d

Explanation:

The Representation of the People Act 1950 (RPA 1950) provides for the following:

• Qualification of voters.



• Preparation of electoral rolls for the Parliamentary, Legislative Assembly and

Legislative Council constituencies.

• Delimitation of constituencies.

• Allocation of seats in the Parliament and the State Legislatures

• Local authorities for purpose of elections to the State Legislative Councils (Schedule

4).

So, statements (1), (2) and (3) are correct.

Provisions with respect to qualification and disqualification are mentioned in the

Representation of People’s Act 1951. The Act is of special significance to the smooth

functioning of Indian democracy, as it checks the entry of persons with criminal

background into the representative bodies. So, statement (4) is not correct.

Q30. The Arabian Sea is comparatively less prone to a tropical cyclonic storm than the Bay

of Bengal because of which of the following reasons?

1. Weaker Coriolis Force over the Arabian Sea than the Bay of Bengal.

2. Lesser water surface temperature in the Arabian Sea than the Bay of Bengal.

3. Role of tropical easterly to influence the track of tropical cyclone.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

a. 2 only

b. 1 and 3 only

c. 2 and 3 only

d. 1, 2 and 3

Solution: c

Explanation:

Typically, the Arabian Sea experiences a lesser number of cyclones than the Bay of Bengal.

Still, in 2019 it saw a more significant number of tropical cyclones than the Bay of Bengal.

Five of the eight cyclones - 60 per cent of the total - that affected India in 2019 were in the

Arabian Sea.

The Arabian Sea is comparatively less prone to cyclonic storms than the Bay of Bengal

because:

• The Arabian Sea has less sea surface temperature than the Bay of Bengal. This cold

sea surface temperature is not favourable for the development and sustenance of

cyclonic storms. So, statement (2) is correct.



• Coriolis Force is directly proportional to the latitude, as both the water bodies are on

similar latitude Coriolis Force is almost the same. So, statement (1) is not correct.

• Track of Tropical cyclone is determined by tropical easterly wind; thus, cyclones

move from east to west direction; therefore cyclones originating in the Bay of Bengal

hit the eastern coast of India while cyclones of the Arabian Sea move away from the

west coast of India. Generally, 25% of the cyclones that develop over the Arabian Sea

approach the west coast. So, statement (3) is correct.

Therefore, the correct answer is (c).

Q31. Consider the following statements regarding Banks Board Bureau.

1. The BBB was created after the recommendations of PJ Nayak Committee.

2. Main objective of the creation of BBB was to empower the boards of the Private and

Public Sector Banks.

3. It provides credit facilities to bank to deal with Non-Performing Assets (NPA).


a. 1 only

b. 3 only

c. 2 and 3 only

d. 1 and 2 only

Solution: a

Explanation:

It all started with Indradhanush Plan where Government pan or reforms in Public Sector

banks.

Under the Indradhanush Plan, action related to (i) Appointment (ii) Bank Board Bureau

(iii) Capitalization (iv) De-stressing PSBs (v) Empowerment (vi) Framework of Accountability (vii) Governance Reforms has been initiated by the Government.

All the below information id from original website of Bank Board Bureau (BBB).


The BBB was created after the recommendations of the Committee to Review Governance of Boards of Banks in India (Chairman -PJ Nayak Committee – 2014).

Central Government notified the amendment to the Nationalised Banks (Management

and Miscellaneous Provisions) Scheme, 1980 providing the legal framework for

composition and functions of the Banks Board Bureau on March 23, 2016. The Bureau

accordingly started functioning from April 01, 2016 as an autonomous recommendatory body.




Banks Board Bureau (BBB) is an autonomous advisory body created by the

government to enhance the governance of the Public Sector Banks and state-owned financial institutions. NO PRIVATE BANKS.

The functions of the Bureau outlined in the Section 7(C) of the Scheme and in subsequent

amendments as per orders of Appointment Committee of the Cabinet are: -

a. To recommend the selection and appointment of Board of Directors in

Nationalised Banks, Financial Institutions and Public Sector Insurance Companies

(Whole Time Directors and Chairman)

b. To advise the Central Government on matters relating to appointments,

confirmation or extension of tenure and termination of services of the Directors

of nationalised banks

c. To advise the Central Government on the desired management structure of

nationalised banks, at the level of Board of Directors and senior management

d. To advise the Central Government on a suitable performance appraisal system for

nationalised banks

e. To build a data bank containing data relating to the performance of

nationalised banks and its officers

f. To advise the Central Government on the formulation and enforcement of a code

of conduct and ethics for managerial personnel in nationalised banks

g. To advise the Central Government on evolving suitable training and development

programs for managerial personnel in nationalised banks.

h. To help the banks in terms of developing business strategies and capital raising plan

and the like; and any other works assigned by Central Government.

Third statement is also incorrect. There is no such function of BBB.

Link: https://banksboardbureau.org.in/bureau-profile/

Q32. Confederation of Indian Industry (CII), in partnership with the Department of

Commerce, Ministry of Commerce and Industry is organizing the 6th India-CLMV Business

Conclave 2020. Which of the following is/are members of CLMV?

1. Thailand

2. China

3. Vietnam

4. Luxembourg

5. Malaysia


a. 1 and 3 only

https://banksboardbureau.org.in/bureau-profile/



b. 2 and 3 only

c. 3, 4 and 5 only d. 3 only

Solution: d

Explanation:

Confederation of Indian Industry (CII), in partnership with the Department of Commerce,

Ministry of Commerce and Industry, Government of India, is organizing the 6th India CLMV

(Cambodia, Lao PDR, Myanmar and Vietnam) Business Conclave: Building Bridges for

Constructive Development from 3 - 4 December 2020 over CII HIVE, the virtual platform of

CII.

See map also.



Q33. Consider the following statements regarding Emergency Credit Line Guarantee

Scheme 2.0 (ECLGS).

1. Under this scheme, collateral free automatic loans were extended to

Businesses/MSMEs from Banks & NBFCs.

2. There is no annual turnover ceiling for businesses to avail the loan facility. 3. The scheme is only restricted to Manufacturing sector.


a. 1 and 2 only

b. 2 and 3 only

c. 1 only d. 1, 2 and 3

Solution: a

Explanation:

Initially, this scheme has following provisions.



On 12 November 2020, Union Minister for Finance and Corporate Affairs made an

announcement listing a series of measures under Aatmanirbhar Bharat 3.0. One of the

announcements was regarding the Emergency Credit Line Guarantee Scheme (ECLGS),

which has been extended until 31 March 2021.

Apart from extending the timeline, the scheme was also extended under this ECLGS 2.0 to

include 26 stressed sectors impacted by COVID-19 including the Healthcare sector.


Q34. Consider the following statements regarding ‘Harmonized System Nomenclature’

(HSN) Code.

1. It is a code developed by World Trade Organization to facilitate the classification of

goods all over the World in a systematic manner.

2. In India, HSN number must be clearly mentioned on GST Invoices when preparing Tax Invoices for GST.


a. 1 only

b. 2 only

c. Both 1 and 2



d. Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: b

Explanation:

Recently, The government has made it mandatory to mention 8-digit HSN or tariff code for

49 chemical based products while issuing Goods and Services Tax (GST) invoice, a move

experts feel is aimed at curbing tax evasion.

HSN stands for ‘Harmonized System Nomenclature.’ The WCO (World Customs

Organization) developed it as a multipurpose international product nomenclature that

first came into effect in 1988 with the vision of facilitating the classification of goods all over the World in a systematic manner.

HSN classification is widely used for taxation purposes by helping to identify the rate of tax

applicable to a specific product in a country that is under review. It can also be used in

calculations that involve claiming benefits.

The Importance of the HSN Code

While the primary purpose of the HSN code is the systematic classification of goods, it can

also be used to gather data and solve problems that would otherwise be difficult to obtain.

The result is a more efficient international trade system.

HSN is in use worldwide, with 200+ countries participating. This impressive adoption rate

can be chalked up to the benefits of HSN, which include:

a. Collection of international trade statistics

b. Provision of a rational basis for Customs tariffs

c. Uniform classification

HSN in India

India has been a member of the WCO (World Customs Organization) since 1971. It

initially employed six-digit HSN codes to classify merchandise for Customs as well as

Central Excise duties. To make the codes more precise, the Customs and Central Excise

authorities went on to add two more digits. This resulted in an eight-digit HSN classification.

Almost all goods in India are classified using the HSN classification code, which facilitates

the use of HSN numbers for calculations of the Goods and Service Tax (GST).

It’s important to remember that the HSN number must be clearly mentioned on GST

Invoices when preparing Tax Invoices for GST.

Link: https://m.economictimes.com/news/economy/policy/government-makes-it-

mandatory-to-mention-8-digit-hsn-code-in-tax-invoice-for-49-chemical-based-

https://m.economictimes.com/news/economy/policy/government-makes-it-mandatory-to-mention-8-digit-hsn-code-in-tax-invoice-for-49-chemical-based-products/articleshow/79530402.cms#:~:text=New%20Delhi%3A%20The%20government%20has,aimed%20at%20curbing%20tax%20evasion




products/articleshow/79530402.cms#:~:text=New%20Delhi%3A%20The%20gove

rnment%20has,aimed%20at%20curbing%20tax%20evasion.

Q35. Consider the following

1. Dandakaranya region includes southern Uttar Pradesh and some northern part of Madhya

Pradesh.

2. The Narmada River runs between Aravalli and Vindhyan Ranges.

3. The Coromandel Coast region is present in the southwestern coast of the Indian

subcontinent.


a. 1 and 2 only

b. 2 and 3 only

c. 3 only

d. None

Solution: d

Explanation:

Dandakaranya, physiographic region in east-central India. The Dandakaranya includes parts of

Chhattisgarh, Odisha, Telangana, and Andhra Pradesh states.

The Narmada River runs between Satpura and Vindhyan Ranges.

The Coromandel Coast region is present in the southeastern coast of the Indian subcontinent






1. The procedure for the impeachment of President is mentioned in the Constitution.

2. The proposal to impeach the President shall be preferred in House only after it is

signed by not less than one-fourth of total member of the House.


a. 1 only

b. 2 only

c. Both 1 and 2

d. Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: c

Explanation:

Do remember, for SC judge, it is not mentioned in the Constitution.



We will refer here article number 61. Read the articles below before proceeding to next

question. Both the statements are correct.

Q37. Consider the following Harrapan sites.

1. Mehrgarh

2. Kot Diji

3. Chanhudaro

4. Dholavira

5. Surkotada

6. Alamgirpur

Which of the above sites are located in today’s India?

a. 4, 5 and 6 only

b. 1, 2 and 4 only

c. 1, 3, 4 and 6 only

d. 3, 4, 5 and 6 only

Solution: a

Explanation:

Vey important topic for UPSC. At least remember sites. Today, you will learn that.



Below is the list of all sites. Please look at all sites at once carefully. Just have a look.

You will remember in exam.

From the below given image, we can say only Dholavira, Alamgirpur and Surkotada are

located in India.

Q38. The provision coverage ratio (PCR) of all Banks increased sharply from 50 per cent in

September 2019 to 60 per cent in 2020. What does it mean?

1. It will increase the availability of money to the banks to give loans.

2. It means there was good recovery of bad loans in banks.


a. 1 only

b. 2 only

c. Both 1 and 2

d. Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: d



Explanation:

Read the image given below.


1. The Constitution mandates the Election Commission to fill the casual vacancies in

the Houses of Parliament.

2. To fill the vacancy, it is mandatory that the remainder of the term of a member

should be one or more than one year.


a. 1 only

b. 2 only

c. Both 1 and 2

d. Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: b

Explanations:



Section 151A of the Representation of the People Act, 1951, NOT CONSTITUTION

mandates the Election Commission to fill the casual vacancies in the Houses of Parliament

and State Legislatures through bye elections within six months from the date of occurrence

of the vacancy, provided that the remainder of the term of a member in relation to a

vacancy is one year or more.

Q40. Consider the following Bhakti Saints.

1. Tyagaraja

2. Guru Nanak

3. Saint Ravidas

Who among the above was/were preaching when the Lodi dynasty fell, and Babur took

over?

a. 1 and 2 only

b. 2 and 3 only

c. 2 only

d. 1 and 3 only

Solution: c

Explanation:

Very important for Prelims. When you study Bhaktis and Sufis, whichever saint you

study, keep a rough idea about it. Try to connect things. You can’t prepare everything,

but you can be best than others.

Guru Nanak was born in 1469 and died in 1539

Tyagaraja was born in 1767 and died in 1847

Saint Ravidas was born in 1450 and died in 1520.

Lodi Dynasty fell in 1526 in the Battle of Panipat.



Tyagaraja was not born. Saint Ravidas died before battle of Panipat. Guru Nanak is

the right person here.


1. To allow non-resident Indians (NRIs) to vote through postal ballots in Indian election, Parliament nod is must.

2. Election Commission of India (ECI) is the deciding authority to permit NRIs to cast

their votes from overseas through postal ballots.


a. 1 only b. 2 only c. Both 1 and 2

d. Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: d

Explanation:

First Statement is incorrect.

Currently, voters residing abroad can only cast their votes in their respective

constituencies. This regulation is seen as restrictive as only a few thousand Indians

living overseas have registered as voters.

The Election Commission (EC) has approached the government to allow non-resident

Indians (NRIs) to vote through postal ballots, a move that could be approved through a

modification of the Conduct of Election Rules 1961 and would not require parliament’s nod.

Rule 18 of the Conduct of Election Rules, 1961, provides that certain class of voters like

armed force personnel/service voter can cast vote by postal ballot or by proxy and persons

like Government employee employed outside India or on election duty can cast vote by postal ballot.



Second statement is incorrect:

Recently the Election Commission (EC) approached the Law Ministry to permit NRIs to

cast their votes from overseas through postal ballots.

The Election Commission is not the authority.

Q42. Consider the following statement regarding World Malaria Report 2020.

1. India has largest number of cases of Malaria in the world. 2. Due to poor surveillance and management, death cases due to malaria has increased

two-fold in 2020.


a. 1 only b. 2 only c. Both 1 and 2

d. Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: d

Explanation:

Have basic idea of report. What is the status of India, rate has increased or decreased, all such

things are important? Forget Prelims, you should have basic idea about status of Malaria.

Cover our Current Affairs section, we have covered in brief.

Globally, there were an estimated 229 million malaria cases in 2019 in 87 malaria endemic

countries, declining from 238 million in 2000.



Malaria case incidence (i.e., cases per 1000 population at risk) reduced from 80 in 2000 to

58 in 2015 and 57 in 2019 globally.

First statement is incorrect. Nigeria has largest number of cases.

Nigeria (27%), the Democratic Republic of the Congo (12%), Uganda (5%), Mozambique

(4%) and Niger (3%) accounted for about 51% of all cases globally.



In WHO South-East region, India is highest.


Globally, malaria deaths have reduced steadily over the period 2000–2019, from 736 000

in 2000 to 409 000 in 2019.



Q43. Which of the following is the objective of Unnat Bharat Abhiyan Scheme?

a. It aims to enable higher educational institutions to work with the people of rural India in identifying development challenges and evolving appropriate solutions for

accelerating sustainable growth. b. It will fund higher Educational institutions to collaborate with scientist community

both domestic and international. c. It aims to collaborate skill development programmes and trainee thereof with the

industries and academia. d. To promote culture of India in schools and colleges and raise awareness about unity

of India throughout India.

Solution: a

Explanation:

Union Education Minister held a review meeting regarding the progress of Unnat Bharat Abhiyan Scheme (UBA) through video conferencing.



You can use this introduction even for your Mains.

As foreseen by Gandhi Ji in his seminal work, ‘Hind Swaraj’, the western developmental

paradigm, based on centralized technologies and urbanization, has given rise to serious

problems like increasing inequity (leading to crime and violence), and climate change due

to rapid ecological degradation.

To ameliorate these problems, it is necessary to promote development of rural areas in

tune with Gandhian vision of self-sufficient ‘village republics’, based on local resources and

using decentralized, eco-friendly technologies so that the basic needs of food, clothing,

shelter, sanitation, health care, energy, livelihood, transportation, and education are locally met. This should be the vision of holistic development of villages.

Now how Unnat Bharat Abhiyan is associated with his?

Unnat Bharat Abhiyan is inspired by the vision of transformational change in rural

development processes by leveraging knowledge institutions to help build the architecture of an Inclusive India.

The Mission of Unnat Bharat Abhiyan is to enable higher educational institutions to

work with the people of rural India in identifying development challenges and evolving

appropriate solutions for accelerating sustainable growth. It also aims to create a virtuous

cycle between society and an inclusive academic system by providing knowledge and

practices for emerging professions and to upgrade the capabilities of both the public

and the private sectors in responding to the development needs of rural India.

Organizational Structure:

In order to implement such an ambitious programme nationwide, it is essential to set-up an

adequate structural network with a large number of nodal institutions and a proper

mechanism to plan, execute and monitor the activities regularly to be able to create a

tangible positive impact. It is also very important to facilitate synergetic collaboration

between the concerned ministries, local Panchayat Raj Institutes (PRIs), voluntary organizations, and institutions participating in UBA.



Basic funding for setting up the structural network of UBA and for orientation of UBA

teams to enable effective participation i.e. establishing and running the UBA cells of CI, MIs and PIs is to be provided by the Ministry of Education (MOE).

The Indian Institute of Technology Delhi (IIT, Delhi) has been designated as the National

Coordinating Institute (NCI) for the UBA scheme.

Don’t learn more than this about this scheme.

Q44. Which of the following places are part of UNESCO World Heritage List?

1. Sun Temple, Konark

2. Western Ghats 3. Ajanta, Ellora and Elephanta Caves.

4. Keoladeo National Park.




a. 2 and 3 only b. 1 and 3 only c. 1, 2 and 3 only

d. 1, 2, 3 and 4

Solution: d

Explanation:

We will see small basics and all Indian sites which are included in its list.

The IUCN World Heritage Outlook 3 builds on previous reports from 2014 and 2017 to

track whether the conservation of the world’s 252 natural World Heritage sites is sufficient

to protect them in the long term. It finds that climate change has overtaken invasive

species as the top threat to natural World Heritage.

The IUCN Outlook assesses the prospects for World Heritage site values – the unique

features which have earned them their World Heritage status – based on threats, and how

good protection and management is.

a. It assesses 63% of sites as either “good” or “good with some concerns”, while 30% are of “significant concern” and 7% are “critical”.

b. Half of the sites are found to have “effective” or “highly effective” protection and management, with the sustainability of the sites’ funding being the most common issue

rated as a “serious concern”.



Which Heritage sites in India fall under which category? For this first of all, you

should know, which sites in India are listed as World Heritage sites. So, there are

currently 38 such sites:

Now, for the given options, all are correct option.



Now among these sites, 8 Indian sites are listed in Report.

Good: Khangchendzonga National Park

Good with some concerns: Great Himalayan National Park Conservation Area, Kaziranga

National Park, Keoladeo National Park, Nanda Devi and Valley of Flowers National Parks,

Sundarbans National Park

Significant Concern: Manas Wildlife Sanctuary, Western Ghats,



Q45. Which of the following is nearest to the Equator?

a. Manila (Philippines)

b. Kuala Lumpur (Malaysia)

c. Phenom Penh (Cambodia)

d. Bangkok (Thailand)

Solution: b

Explanation:

Kuala Lumpur is located very close to Equator. Have a look at map below. If Singapore is in

option, it will be correct answer.

Q46. With reference to the concept of opportunity cost, consider the following statements.

1. In a free market, the opportunity cost of producing a good will change if other goods are being demanded more with time.

2. The concept of opportunity cost is applicable only to the individual and not the economy as a whole.

Which of the above is/are correct?

a. 1 only b. 2 only

c. Both 1 and 2 d. Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: a



Explanation:

If we want to have more of something, we will have less of the other thing. Say with a fixed

space in your belly, you can only eat 500g of food. You can stuff yourself with either 200g of

Pizza and then a 300g of hotdog, or 100g of cheesecake and 400g of Tofu fried rice, but

there is always a cost involved, where you are trading off more of a good (food here) for

other. So, if you want to eat more cheesecake, it comes at a cost of having to forego eating

Tofu fried rice. This is known as the opportunity cost of an additional unit of the goods.

Statement 1 is correct: Every economy has to choose one of the many possibilities that it

has. In other words, one of the central problems of the economy is to choose from one of

the many production possibilities. If the consumers start demanding more of the other

good, say Pizza, the demand for hotdog and thus its price would go down. The opportunity

cost of eating more Pizza would be lower now because hotdog is valued lesser than previously.

Statement 2 is incorrect: Note that the concept of opportunity cost is applicable to the

individual as well as the society. Wherever there is a choice and cost involved, the concept of opportunity cost would apply.

Q47. Which of the following measure(s) reduces/reduce income inequalities?

1. Increasing the indirect taxes 2. Introduction of Direct Benefit Transfer 3. Decreasing Priority Sector lending

Select the correct answer using the codes given below

a. 1 only b. 2 only c. 2 and 3 only d. 1, 2 and 3

Solution: B

Explanation:

Indirect tax applies to both poor and rich equally. Thus, it will further burden the poor

citizen and increases economic inequality. However, direct tax with increased tax slabs

could be used to tax the richer population and reduces the income inequality.

Direct benefit transfer help to reduce inequality by reducing leakages and empowering the poor.

Priority sector lending is tool to provide formal credit to the weaker section. Decreasing

Priority sector lending further harm the poor and increases inequality.



Q48. Which of the following monuments is not included in the Group of Monuments at

Mahabalipuram?

a. Ratha Temples b. Open Air Rock Reliefs of Arjuna's Penance c. Shore Temple complex d. Kalyan Mandapa

Solution: d

Explanation:

The Group of Monuments at Mamallapuram is a collection of 7th and 8th-century CE

religious monuments in the coastal resort town of Mamallapuram in Tamil Nadu and a

UNESCO World Heritage Site. The site has 40 ancient monuments and Hindu temples

including one of the largest open-air rock relief: The Descent of the Ganges or Arjuna’s

Penance. The group contains several categories of monuments: Ratha temples with

monolithic processional chariots. These monuments were built during the Pallava

dynasty Known as the Seven Pagodas. They are also called the Mamallapuram temples or

Mahabalipuram temples in contemporary literature. The Shore Temple was built during

700- 728 AD. It is one of the oldest stone temples in South India. Once a busy village port,

Mahabalipuram is now a UNESCO World Heritage Site in Tamil Nadu. So, options a, b) and

c are correct.

In Vijaynagar temple architecture, the temples had a Mandapam or open pavilion with a

raised platform, generally meant for seating the deity on special occasions such as wedding

of deities (Kalyana). It also had a Kalyana Mandapam with elaborately carved pillars. So, option d is not correct.



Q49. In the context of Oath and Affirmation mentioned in Indian Constitution, consider

the following statements.

1. Every Governor before entering upon his office, subscribe in the presence of the

President.

2. Every person appointed to be a Judge of a High Court shall, before he enters upon

his office, make and subscribe before the Governor of the State.


a. 1 only

b. 2 only

c. Both 1 and 2

d. Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: b

Explanation:



Q50. Direct Benefit Transfer (DBT) Mission is administered by:

a. Department of Expenditure, Ministry of Finance

b. Department of Economic Affairs, Ministry of Finance

c. NITI Aayog

d. Cabinet Secretariat headed by Cabinet Secretary

Solution: d

Explanation:

DBT Mission was created in the Planning Commission to act as the nodal point for the

implementation of the DBT programmes. The Mission was transferred to the Department

of Expenditure in July 2013 and continued to function till 14.9.2015.

To give more impetus, DBT Mission and matters related thereto has been placed in

Cabinet Secretariat under Secretary w.e.f. 14.9.2015.

Link: https://dbtbharat.gov.in/page/frontcontentview/?id=MTc=


1. Intra-state trade in commodities falls under the State list as well, but inter-state

trade and commerce falls under the Union List.

2. Agricultural Produce Market Committee (APMC) is a statutory market committee

regulated by the State Government.

3. Currently, APMC is implemented in all states and UTs.


https://dbtbharat.gov.in/page/frontcontentview/?id=MTc=



a. 1 only

b. 1 and 2 only

c. 2 and 3 only

d. 2 only

Solution: b

Explanation:


APMCs provide farmers with a platform to market their produce, regulate the sale of

produce and collect market fees for it. Agriculture falls under the purview of the State,

as per the Constitution of India. Intra-state trade in commodities falls under the State

list as well, but inter-state trade and commerce falls under the Union List.

That is, intra-state trade in agricultural commodities is regulated by the state whereas the

same between states is regulated by the Central Government. Thus, different states have

different APMC Acts, and the marketing committees are set up as per the law

prevalent there.


In 2003, to bring about a much-needed reform in the agriculture market, the then

government released the 2003 Model APMC Act that brought about new market

channels such as private wholesale markets, direct purchase, and contract farming based

on the recommendations by an Inter-Ministerial Task Force.

Agricultural Produce Market Committee (APMC) is a statutory market committee

constituted and regulated by a State Government in respect of trade in certain notified



agricultural or horticultural or livestock products, under the Agricultural Produce Market

Committee Act issued by that state government.

APMCs are intended to be responsible for:

a. ensuring transparency in pricing system and transactions taking place in market area

b. providing market-led extension services to farmers

c. ensuring payment for agricultural produce sold by farmers on the same day

d. promoting agricultural processing including activities for value addition in agricultural

produce

e. Publicizing data on arrivals and rates of agricultural produce brought into the market

area for sale; and

f. Setup and promote public private partnership in the management of agricultural

markets


As per government website, 18 states, 3 UTs have implemented APMC Act.

Q52. Which of the following are the potential application of Quantum dots (QDs)?

1. Detection of Cancer



2. Photovoltaic cells

3. TVs and displays

4. Medicines


a. 1, 2 and 3 only

b. 2, 3 and 4 only

c. 1, 3 and 4 only

d. 1, 2, 3 and 4

Solution: d

Explanation:

You don’t know what Quantum Dots are, but you know answer to this question. Such

questions almost end with option d (All of these).

Whenever, there is a question, “potential application”, always mark all the above.

Or else, think once about that question before answering. If you see this year paper,

answer was not d.

Ok, we will learn about basics of Quantum Dots.

Quantum dots (QDs) are man-made nanoscale crystals that that can transport electrons.

When UV light hits these semiconducting nanoparticles, they can emit light of various

colors.



What makes quantum dots unique?

In regular semiconductors like silicon (also known as bulk matter), the bands are formed

by the merger of adjacent energy levels of a very large number of atoms and molecules.

However, as the particle size reaches the nanoscale and the quantity of atoms and

molecules decreases substantially, the number of overlapping energy levels decreases,

causing the width of the band to increase. As QDs are so tiny, they have a higher energy gap

between the valence and conduction bands, compared to the bulk matter.



Potential applications of quantum dots include single-electron transistors, solar cells, LEDs,

lasers, single-photon sources, second-harmonic generation, quantum computing, cell

biology research, and medical imaging.

Q53. Consider the following statements regarding Adaptation Fund.

1. The Adaptation Fund was established under the Kyoto Protocol of the UN

Framework Convention on Climate Change.

2. NABARD has been accredited by the Adaptation Fund Board of UNFCCC as National

Implementing Entity (NIE) in India.


a. 1 only

b. 2 only

c. Both 1 and 2

d. Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: c

Explanation:



The Adaptation Fund was established under the Kyoto Protocol of the UN Framework

Convention on Climate Change.

Second statement is also correct.

As per the ‘Operational policies and guidelines for parties to access resources from the

Adaptation Fund’, projects can be prepared and submitted by National Implementing

Entities (NIEs) to the designated authority of the national government.

NABARD has been accredited by the Adaptation Fund Board of UNFCCC as National

Implementing Entity (NIE) in India. The NIE bears full responsibility for the overall

management of the projects and programmes financed by the Adaptation Fund and will

bear all financial, monitoring, and reporting responsibilities.

One more thing, The board of Adaptation Fund:

Q54. Climate Change Performance Index (CCPI) 2021 recently published by:



a. United Nation Environment Programme

b. Germanwatch

c. UNFCCC Secretariat

d. World Economic Forum

Solution: b

Explanation:

The Climate Change Performance Index (CCPI) was developed by Germanwatch as a

tool for increasing transparency in international climate change policy. It aims to enable

transparency in international climate politics and comparability of individual countries’

climate protection efforts and progress.

The CCPI was first presented at the 11th Meeting of the Conference of the Parties (COP 11)

climate change conference in Montreal in 2005.

Details of this Index we will cover in our Current Affairs section.

Q55. Which of the following States share least number of boundaries with other States?

a. Manipur

b. Goa

c. Meghalaya

d. Tripura

Solution: c

Explanation:

Manipur shares boundary with – Assam, Mizoram and Nagaland.



Goa shares boundary with- Maharashtra and Karnataka.

Tripura shares boundary with – Mizoram and Assam

Meghalaya shares boundary with only Assam. It is the right option.

Along with Meghalaya, Sikkim is the other states which shares its boundary with only one

state- West Bengal.


1. The Constitution fixed the maximum and minimum number of members in

Legislative Councils.

2. One-third of members in Legislative Councils are nominated by Governor.

3. There are total 6 states with Legislative Councils.


a. 1 and 2 only

b. 1 and 3 only

c. 1 only

d. 2 and 3 only

Solution: b

Explanation:


We will refer here article number 171:




Six States having a Legislative Council: Andhra Pradesh, Telangana, Uttar Pradesh,

Bihar, Maharashtra, Karnataka. Third statement is correct.

Q57. With respect to provisions mentioned in Indian Constitution, consider the

following statements.

1. If there is no quorum in the Lok Sabha, it is mandatory that the Speaker has to

adjourn or suspend the house until quorum is held.

2. A person can be the speaker of the House for 6 months without being a member of

the House.


a. 1 only



b. 2 only

c. Both 1 and 2

d. Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: a

Explanation:

Without Article, if you are reading Polity, change this now. Kuch ni ho pyga aage.

We will refer here two article of the Constitution- Article 94 and Article 100.

From article 94, it is clear that it is compulsory that Speaker should be a member of

House of People. He/She shall vacate office as soon as. Ceases to be a member of House.

Therefore, statement 2 is incorrect.

From article 100 (4), it is clear that, Speaker is bound to either adjourn or to suspend

the meeting until there is a quorum. Therefore, statement 1 is correct.

Q58. If a horizontal straight line is passed through Aral Sea (any part of it), which of the following will never be crossed by horizontal line?

1. Black Sea

2. Tajikistan

3. Persian Gulf

4. Caspian Sea Select the correct code.

a. 1 and 4 only

b. 2 and 3 only

c. 2, 3 and 4 only



d. 1, 2 and 3 only

Solution: b

Explanation:

Took Image from map book, not very clear but you can understand. See the image given below.

Q59. Consider the following statements:

1. A high foreign exchange rate may decrease the export of a country.

2. A Trade surplus in an economy may help to appreciate its currency.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

a. 1 only

b. 2 only

c. Both 1 and 2

d. Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: b

Expalantion:

Simple concepts.

Statement 1 is incorrect.



A rise in price of foreign exchange will reduce the foreigner’s cost (in terms of USD) while

purchasing products from a country. This increases the export of country.

Suppose exchange rate is 1 dollar = 60 Rs and now it increased to 1 dollar= 70 Rs. For

foreigners, Indian goods will become cheaper and export of Indian goods will increase.

Statement 2 is correct.

A Trade surplus means that the export of a country is greater than its imports. The export

of a country helps in bringing foreign currency. So surplus trade will bring more foreign

currency. As a result of which the domestic currency will appreciate.

Q60. The word “Vish” used in Rigveda, referred to: a. People who performed various rituals b. The trading community of Vaishyas c. People or community as a whole d. People who did not perform sacrifices Answer: c Explanation: Option (a) is incorrect: People who performed rituals were priests, sometimes called as Brahmins. Option (b) is incorrect: The trading community Vaishyas was derived from the word Vish in the Later Vedic period but in Rigvedic period the term ‘Vish’ was not used for Vaishyas. Option (c) is correct: Two words were used to describe the people or the community as a whole. One was the word jana, which we still use in Hindi and other languages. the other was vish. Option (d) is incorrect: The people who did not perform sacrifices, and probably spoke different languages were referred to as Dasas or Dasyus.

Q61. Consider the following statements regarding Desert Dusts created by Sand and Dust

Storms (SDS).

1. Around 90 percent of the Desert Dusts are emitted from mid and High Altitudes.

2. Desert Dusts are important as it contains specific nutrients to ocean which support

different life forms.

3. We can observe a contraction in size of almost all deserts due to naturally and human-caused climate change.


a. 2 only

b. 2 and 3 only




Solution: a

Explanation:

First statement is incorrect. 90 percent of Desert Dusts are emitted form low and mid

latitudes. Just think of map once and try to locate deserts in mind, most of them are located in mid latitudes, big example is Sahara Desert. Not difficult.



Second statement is correct: Covered from recently released report on Sand and

Dust storms by UNEP. Check our Current Affairs section of December 1. Click here to read.

How do they affect ocean ecosystems?

a. Dust carries nutrients such as phosphorus, and trace metals—including iron,

manganese, titanium, Aluminium—to oceanic ecosystems, elements that are

essential for all life forms. In this way, desert dust is a principal driver of oceanic

primary productivity, which forms the base of the marine food web.

b. Marine primary production also fuels the global carbon cycle via the exchange of CO2

between ocean and atmosphere, so desert dust has impacts on our climate system.

c. Dust also provides some of the building blocks for coral reefs: dust particles are

incorporated into coral skeletons as they grow.

What are some of the negative effects of sand and dust storms?

a. The fertilizing effect of desert dust is thought to have an impact on algal blooms,

some of which can be harmful, and may contribute to Sargassum seaweed

mats. Unusually large blooms of floating Sargassum seaweed have been noted since

2011 in parts of the Caribbean Sea. The brown part you see in below image is mats.

https://www.goaltideias.com/index.php/dailycurrentaffair-detail/165



b. These drifting seaweed mats provide important habitat for many species in the open

ocean, but close to shore, they can disrupt shipping, fishing and tourism.

c. Potential links have also been identified between microorganisms, trace metals and

organic contaminants carried in desert dust and some of the complex changes on

coral reefs observed in numerous parts of the world.

d. Disease has undoubtedly been an important factor in recent coral reef declines

worldwide and several of the diseases that affect corals are associated with

microorganisms carried in desert dust.

e. A wide variety of microorganisms—including fungi, bacteria and viruses—has been

found in desert dust. Most of these pathogens come from dryland soils and are

highly resistant to desiccation, temperature extremes, conditions of high salinity



and exposure to ultraviolet radiation. They are therefore typically able to survive in

the atmosphere for many days.


Now you can use common sense. Climate change has been drastic in past few years.

Deserts area will only increase not decrease.

Deserts are typically defined by low average annual rainfall -- usually 100 millimeters (less

than 4 inches) of rain per year or less. The researchers analyzed rainfall data recorded

throughout Africa from 1920 to 2013 and found that the Sahara, which occupies much of

the northern part of the continent, expanded by 10 percent during this period when

looking at annual trends.

Now, you can’t say this statement is from 2018 news. Such questions will be common. They

are easy but in pressure in exam, you do mistakes in such question. Be careful now!!

Q62. Consider the following Pairs.

Tribals in news Belongs to 1. Tharus Tribes Western Ghats Region 2. Kadars Tribes Terai Region 3. Apatani Tribes North eastern Region

Which of the above pairs is/are correct?

a. 1 and 2 only

b. 3 only

c. 2 and 3 only

d. 1 only

Solution: b

Explanation:



Tribals in news Belongs to Tharu Tribes Terai Region Kadars Tribes Southern part of India Apatani Tribes North eastern Region

The Tharus live in both India and Nepal. In the Indian terai, they live mostly in

Uttarakhand, Uttar Pradesh, and Bihar. The Uttar Pradesh government has recently

embarked upon a scheme to take the unique culture of its ethnic Tharu tribe across the

world.

The proposed small-hydel project at Anakkayam has the potential to negatively impact the

livelihood potential of one of the most particularly vulnerable tribal groups (PVTGs) in

Kerala—the Kadars.

The Apatani are a tribal group of people living in the Ziro valley in the Lower Subansiri

district of Arunachal Pradesh in India. This group has demonstrated a unique way to

defeat COVID-19.

Q63. Global Biodiversity Outlook report is published by:

a. World Economic Forum

b. Food and Agricultural Organization

c. UN Convention of Biological Diversity (CBD)

d. UN Environment Programme (UNEP)

Solution: c

Explanation:

The fifth edition of the UN’s Global Biodiversity Outlook report, published recently

by the UN Convention of Biological Diversity (CBD), provides an overview of the state of

nature worldwide. The report notes the importance of biodiversity in addressing climate

change and long-term food security, and that action to protect biodiversity is essential to

prevent future pandemics.

Link: https://www.wbcsd.org/Programs/Food-and-Nature/Resources/Fifth-Global-

Biodiversity-Outlook-report-by-the-United-Nations-Convention-on-Biological-Diversity-

CBD-Business-

Summary#:~:text=Global%20Biodiversity%20Outlook%20report%20%2D%20Business

%20Summary&text=The%20fifth%20Global%20Biodiversity%20Outlook,wildlife%20and%20life%2Dsustaining%20ecosystems.

Q64. Consider the following statements regarding Organic Farming in India.

1. Cultivable land area under organic farming has decreased in past three years. 2. After Sikkim, Lakshadweep became 100% organic.

https://www.wbcsd.org/Programs/Food-and-Nature/Resources/Fifth-Global-Biodiversity-Outlook-report-by-the-United-Nations-Convention-on-Biological-Diversity-CBD-Business-Summary#:~:text=Global%20Biodiversity%20Outlook%20report%20%2D%20Business%20Summary&text=The%20fifth%20Global%20Biodiversity%20Outlook,wildlife%20and%20life%2Dsustaining%20ecosystems









a. 1 only

b. 2 only

c. Both 1 and 2

d. Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: b

Explanation:

First statement is incorrect.

Cultivable land area under organic farming has more than doubled from 11.83 lakh ha in

2014 to 29.17 lakh ha in 2020 due to the focused efforts of the Government.


After Sikkim, Lakshadweep is the first Union Territory to become 100 per cent organic as

all farming is carried out without the use of synthetic fertilisers and pesticides, providing

access to safer food choices and making agriculture a more environment-friendly activity.

The ministry of agriculture has declared the island as organic.



Link: https://www.dailypioneer.com/2020/india/lakshadweep-first-ut-to-become-100--organic.html

Q65. Kerch strait connects which of the following?

a. Caspian Sea and Sea of Azov

b. Black Sea and Sea of Azov

c. Caspian Sea and Black Sea

d. Black Sea and Kara Sea

Solution: b

Explanations:

The Kerch Strait is a strait connecting the Black Sea and the Sea of Azov.

Kara Sea map:

https://www.dailypioneer.com/2020/india/lakshadweep-first-ut-to-become-100--organic.html

https://www.dailypioneer.com/2020/india/lakshadweep-first-ut-to-become-100--organic.html




1. Around 50 percent of Asian Elephants are found in India.

2. As per the latest census, Karnataka has the highest number of Elephants.

3. Asian Elephants are categorized as Vulnerable under IUCN Red List.


a. 1 only

b. 1 and 2 only

c. 3 only

d. 1, 2 and 3

Solution: B

Explanation:

As per the 2017census, there are no elephants in Madhya Pradesh. For the first time,

Bandhavgarh reserve forest in Madhya Pradesh has a colony of elephants.

India is home to around 50 percent of Asian Elephants. Even if you are confused with

first statement, and you know rest two, you can solve this question. If you know, 2 and 3

are correct statements, you are then left with just option 3.



As per the latest 2017 census, among the states, the highest population was recorded in

Karnataka (6,049), followed by Assam (5,719) and Kerala (3,054). As far as regions are

concerned, the highest population was in southern region (11,960) followed by the

northeast region (10,139), east-central region (3,128) and northern region (2,085).

Q67. In ancient India, the term ‘Gaulmika’ was used to refer to the

a. provincial governor

b. scribe attached to the royal court

c. head of the rural area administration

d. specialist in Vedic rituals

Solution: c

Explanation:



There were certain military and feudal elements in the administration of the Satavahana.

It is significant that the Senapati was appointed the provincial governor. Since the tribal

people in the Deccan were not thoroughly Hinduized and reconciled to the new rule, it was

necessary to keep them under strong military control.

The administration in the rural areas was placed in the hands of the Gaulmika, who

was the head of a military regiment, consisting of chariots, elephants, horses and foot

soldiers.


1. The powers, privileges and immunities of Parliament and MP's are defined in the

Constitution.

2. President of India also enjoys parliamentary privileges.

Which of the above statements is/are not correct?

a. 1 only

b. 2 only

c. Both 1 and 2

d. Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: c

Explanation:

They asked incorrect statements. Be careful.

The Constitution has given power to the Parliament to codify laws on Privileges. It needs

to be noted that the Parliament, till now, has not made any special law to

exhaustively codify all the privileges.



The parliamentary privileges do not extend to the President who is also an integral

part of the Parliament.


1. The Constitution provides for the term of Rajya Sabha Member is 6 years.

2. It is mandatory to nominate 12 persons in Rajya Sabha having special knowledge or

practical experience in Literature, science, art and social service.


a. 1 only

b. 2 only

c. Both1 and 2

d. Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: b

Explanation:

The constitution has not fixed the term of Rajya Sabha members and left it to the

Parliament. Therefore, Parliament enacted Representation of the people Act (1951). So,



according to Representation of the people Act (1951), term of office of a member

shall be six years. It is not mentioned in the Constitution.

Second statement is correct. As per the Article 80, it is mandatory to nominate 12

persons in Rajya Sabha having special knowledge or practical experience in Literature,

science, art and social service.

And clause (3) says that the members to be nominated by the President under sub-clause

(a) of clause (1) shall consist of persons having special knowledge or practical experience

in respect of such matters as the following, namely: —

Literature, science, art and social service.


1. Lord Macaulay’s Minute on Education, 1835 was seen as a victory against

Orientalists.

2. English Medium was made compulsory at all levels in Wood’s Despatch of 1854.


a. 1 only

b. 2 only

c. Both 1 and 2

d. Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: b

Explanation:

We have asked not correct. So, be careful.

We will try to connect things. When you connect, it becomes easy to revise and learn.



From 1820 to his retirement in 1833, it was English Orientalist Horace Hayman Wilson

who made key educational decisions on behalf of the Company. Wilson is credited with a

much-referenced, translation of Kalidas’s Sanskrit poem, Meghaduta, and with the first

glossary of words in Sanskrit and other Indian languages used in revenue and the

judicial services.

The Anglicists, Macaulay, while vociferous in their advocacy of English, stood for what

they described as the “filtration” of education. This meant that only the upper class of

society would be provided instruction in English, and they, in turn, were expected to

educate the natives down the order.

Macaulay’s Minute clearly stated these intentions: education was to “form a class who

may be interpreters between us and the millions whom we govern; a class of persons, Indian

in blood and colour, but English in taste, in opinions, in morals, and in intellect”.

On February 2, 1835, circulated Minute on Education -- a treatise that offered definitive

reasons for why the East India Company and the British government should spend money

on the provision of English language education, as well as the promotion of European

learning, especially the sciences, in India. Just about a month after the circulation, the

Minute became policy, when William Bentinck (Governor General of India) got convinced

enough to sign the resolution.

So, this was the victory against his detractors, especially the Orientalists (East India

Company officials, scholars, translators and collectors) who supported study and

instruction in India in traditional languages. Therefore, statement one is correct.

In 1854, Charles Wood prepared a Despatch on an educational system for India. This

document is considered as the "Magna Carta of English Education in India". It’s main

aim was to:

a. To impart Western knowledge, information about the western culture to the

Indians.

b. To educate the natives of India so that a class of public servants could be created.

c. To promote intellectual development and also raise the moral character of the

young generation.

d. To develop practical and vocational skills of the Indians people so that more and

more articles could be produced and also to create a good market for consumption

of those goods.

Other important contents of Wood’s Despatch: It is important. Do read.



a. The Wood's Despatch of 1854, for the first time, recommended the creation of a

Department of Public Instruction in each of the five provinces of Bengal, Bombay,

Madras, the Punjab and the North Western provinces.

b. Elementary education was considered to be the foundation of the education

system.

c. The Wood's Despatch of 1854 recommended the establishment of universities at

Calcutta, Bombay and Madras.

d. The Wood's Despatch of 1854 recommended the sanction of a grant-in-aid system

in the Indian educational system. To educate the large number of people of India

was a difficult task and so the grant-in-aid system was adopted by the government.

e. The Wood's Despatch of 1854 gave importance to teaching of English, but at the

same time, it also stressed on the teaching of Indian languages.

f. The Despatch clearly stated that Indian languages as well as English should be

used as media of instruction. Therefore, statement 2 is wrong.

g. The Wood's Despatch of 1854 stressed on female education. The Wood s Despatch

stated, the importance of female education in India cannot be over- rated.

If you remember in Prelims 2018, a question on Woods’s Despatch: See if you can attempt

that now.



Q71. Which of the following Paintings has received GI Tag?

1. Kangra Paintings, Himachal Pradesh

2. Sohrai Khovar painting, Jharkhand

3. Thanjavur Paintings, Tamil Nadu

4. Cheriyal Scroll Paintings, Telangana


a. 1, 2 and 3 only

b. 2, 3 and 4 only

c. 1, 3 and 4 only

d. 1, 2, 3 and 4

Solution: d

Explanation:

Sohrai Khovar painting is new to you. Rest paintings, most of you already know.

Apart from this, Madhubani Paintings of Bihar and Mysore Paintings also have

received GI Tag.


1. Due to various steps in renewable sector, import of coal has consistently decreased

in India in last three years (2016-17 to 2019-20).

2. Maximum reserves of coal is found in eastern part of India.



3. More than 90 percent of coal resources of India are available in older Gondwana

Formations of peninsular India compared to tertiary formation.


a. 1 and 2 only

b. 3 only

c. 2 and 3 only d. 2 only

Solution: c

Explanation:


Top 5 coal reserves states in India:

First statement is incorrect. Import has increased, NOT DECREASED.

Import of Coal into India.




Gondwana coal: Around 98 per cent of India's total coal reserves are from Gondwana times.

This coal was formed about 250 million years ago.

Tertiary coal is of younger age. It was formed from 15 to 60 million years ago. Around 95 per cent of India's total coal reserves are from Gondwana times.

The Coal resources of India are available in older Gondwana Formations of peninsular India and younger Tertiary formations of north-eastern region.

Q73. Consider the following statements regarding One Nation, One ration Card Scheme.

1. The scheme is administered by Minister for Consumer Affairs, Food and Public

Distribution.

2. Under the scheme, the beneficiaries could buy subsidised food grains across the country with the same ration card.


a. 1 only

b. 2 only

c. Both 1 and 2

d. Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: c

Explanation:

News:

As many as nine states have completed One Nation One Ration Card reform following

which the central government has allowed them to raise an additional Rs 23,523 crore, said

an official release on Wednesday. The states which have successfully completed the Public

Distribution System (PDS) reforms are Andhra Pradesh, Goa, Gujarat, Haryana, Karnataka,

Kerala, Telangana, Tripura and Uttar Pradesh. Uttar Pradesh is the biggest beneficiary

with an additional borrowing window of Rs 4,851 crore, followed by Karnataka Rs 4,509

crore and Gujarat Rs 4,352 crore.



Link: https://www.deccanherald.com/business/business-news/9-states-have-implemented-one-nation-one-ration-card-scheme-says-finance-ministry-925347.html

Q74. Consider the following states.

1. Mizoram

2. Meghalaya

3. Arunachal Pradesh

Find the number of states they share boundaries with and then arrange them in ascending

order (number of states they share border).

a. 1-2-3

b. 2-3-1

c. 3-2-1

d. 1-3-2

Solution: b

Explanation:

These questions will finally make you expert in maps. Please try to create map in mind

before looking solutions. Do follow what we say. Almost 50 students are writing mains

exam this year those who joined our Test Series last year. Just follow us regularly.

Things will change.

Meghalaya shares boundary with Assam.

Arunachal Pradesh shares boundary with Assam and Nagaland.

Mizoram shares boundary with Assam, Tripura and Manipur.

https://www.deccanherald.com/business/business-news/9-states-have-implemented-one-nation-one-ration-card-scheme-says-finance-ministry-925347.html

https://www.deccanherald.com/business/business-news/9-states-have-implemented-one-nation-one-ration-card-scheme-says-finance-ministry-925347.html



Q75. Consider the following statements regarding Wi-Fi Access Network Interface (PM-WANI) Scheme.

1. It aims to accelerate proliferation of Broadband Internet services through Public Wi-

Fi network in the country.

2. There shall be no license fee for providing Broadband Internet through these public

Wi-Fi networks.


a. 1 only

b. 2 only

c. Both 1 and 2

d. Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: c

Explanation:

News from PIB.

The Union Cabinet chaired by the Prime Minister has given its approval for the proposal

of DoT for setting up of Public Wi-Fi Networks by Public Data Office Aggregators

(PDOAs) to provide public Wi-Fi service through Public Data Offices (PDOs) spread across

length and breadth of the country to accelerate proliferation of Broadband Internet

services through Public Wi-Fi network in the country.

There shall be no license fee for providing Broadband Internet through these public

Wi-Fi networks.



The proposal will promote the growth of Public Wi-Fi Networks in the country and, in turn,

will help in proliferation of Broadband Internet, enhancement of income and

employment and empowerment of people.

Salient Features:

This Public Wi-Fi Access Network Interface will be known as PM-WANI.PM-WANI eco-

system will be operated by different players as described herein under:

Public Data Office (PDO): It will establish, maintain, and operate only WANI compliant

Wi-Fi Access Points and deliver broadband services to subscribers.

Public Data Office Aggregator (PDOA): It will be an aggregator of PDOs and perform the

functions relating to Authorization and Accounting.

App Provider: It will develop an App to register users and discover WANI compliant Wi-Fi

hotspots in the nearby area and display the same within the App for accessing the internet

service.

Central Registry: It will maintain the details of App Providers, PDOAs, and PDOs. To begin

with, the Central Registry will be maintained by C-DoT.

Objectives

a. While no registration would be required for PDOs, PDOAs and App Providers will get

themselves registered with DoT through online registration without paying any

registration fee. Registration shall be granted within 7 days of the application.

b. This is expected to be more business friendly and in line with efforts for ease of doing

business.

c. COVID-19 pandemic has necessitated delivery of stable and high-speed

Broadband Internet (data) services to an increasingly large number of

subscribers in the country including areas which do not have 4G mobile coverage.

This can be achieved by deployment of Public Wi-Fi.

d. Further, the proliferation of public Wi-Fi will not only create employment but also

enhance disposable incomes in the hands of small and medium entrepreneurs

and boost the GDP of the country.

e. Proliferation of Broadband Services through public Wi-Fi is a step towards digital

India and consequential benefit thereon.

f. No License Fee for providing broadband internet services using public Wi-Fi Hotspots

will massively encourage its proliferation and penetration across the length and

breadth of the country.

Link: https://pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=1679342

https://pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=1679342



Q76. Consider the following statements regarding “National Commission of Minorities

(NCM)”.

1. With the enactment of the National Commission for Minorities Act, 1992, the

Minorities Commission became a statutory body.

2. Under Section of the NCM Act, it can declare new minority communities.


a. 1 only

b. 2 only

c. Both 1 and 2

d. Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: a

Explanation:



The role of the NCM was not to declare new minority communities. The power to declare a

community as minority lies with the Central government. Section 2(c) of the NCM Act

itself clearly states that a community is notified as “minority” only by the

government.

It consists of a Chairperson, a Vice Chairperson and five Members to be nominated by the

Central Government from amongst persons of eminence, ability and integrity.

Q77. Vaibhashika and Sautrantika belongs to which sect?

a. Jainism

b. Buddhism

c. Vaishnavism

d. Shaivism

Solution: b

Explanation:

Hinayana was later divided into two sects i.e., Vaibhashika and Sautrantika.



Q78. Which is/are the constitutionally mandated bodies under the 74th Constitutional

Amendment Act, 1992?

1. State Finance Commission.

2. State Election Commission.

3. District Planning Committee.

4. Metropolitan Planning Committee

Choose the correct code from the below.

a. 2 and 4 only

b. 1, 2 and 3 only

c. 2, 3 and 4 only

d. 1, 2 , 3 and 4

Solution: d

Explanation:



Q79. Which among are the reasons for biodiversity loss?

1. Environmental pollution

2. introduction of exotic species

3. over-exploitation of resources

4. Fragmentation of habitat

Select the correct answers using the codes given below

(a) 1 and 4 only

(b) 1, 2 and 3 only

(c) 3 and 4 only

(d) All of the above

Answer: d

Explanation:

Habitat fragmentation will lead to the habitat destruction. For example, construction of

roads, railway line will fragment the habitat. This will reduce food availability and reduced



reproduction. This will ultimately reduce the biodiversity.

All other options can be understood easily.

Q80. Palamau Tiger Reserve is in:

a. Odisha

b. Jharkhand

c. Uttar Pradesh

d. Bihar

Solution: b

Explanation:

The Palamau Tiger Reserve is in Jharkhand and the only one in this state. It forms part

of Betla National Park.



Q81. Consider the following statements regarding Asian Development Bank.

1. ADB was created as a result of oil crisis in 1973.

2. Asian Development Outlook is a publication of Asian Development Bank. 3. More than 50 percent of the members of ADB are from Asia.


a. 1 and 2 only

b. 2 and 3 only

c. 3 only

d. 2 only

Solution: b

Explanation:

First statement is incorrect. Read the origin and history below. Give some to question. If you run now, big problem later.

From 31 members at its establishment in 1966, ADB has grown to encompass 68

members—of which 49 are from within Asia and the Pacific and 19 outside. Third

statement is correct.

The Asian Development Outlook analyzes economic and development issues in developing

countries in Asia. This includes forecasting the inflation and gross domestic product growth

rates of countries throughout the region, including the People’s Republic of China and

India. It is a publication of Asian Development Bank. Second statement is correct.

Q82. In the context of Total Fertility Rate (TFR) in India, consider the following

statements.



1. Total Fertility Rate of rural areas is more than urban areas.

2. Bihar has highest Total Fertility Rate in India among all Indian states.

3. Total Fertility rate of India has declined in past one decade.


a. 1and 2 only

b. 2 and 3 only

c. 1 and 3 only

d. 1, 2 and 3

Solution: D

Explanation:

Latest findings about Total Fertility Rate were released on December 13, 2020 by the

Union Ministry of Health and Family Welfare.

The total fertility rate is defined as the average number of children that would be born to a

woman by the time, she ends childbearing.


Urban women recorded a lower fertility rate than women residing in rural areas

across almost all states across time, but this gap has been shrinking, according to the first

phase of NFHS-5, 2019-20.




Sikkim recorded the lowest TFR, with one woman bearing 1.1 children on average; Bihar

recorded the highest TFR of three children per woman.


Total Fertility Rate has declined in decade.

It was 3.2 in 2000, 2.4 in 2011 and close to 2.

https://niti.gov.in/content/total-fertility-rate-tfr-birth-woman



Link: https://www.downtoearth.org.in/news/health/fertility-rate-down-in-most-

states-nfhs-5-finds-74624

Q83. In context of India, consider the following statements regarding Snow Leopard.

1. India has a greater number of Snow Leopards than Tigers.

2. India has ratified the Global Snow Leopard and Ecosystem Protection Program

(GSLEP).

3. Snow Leopard is a Vulnerable species in IUCN Red List.


a. 1 and 2 only

b. 2 and 3 only

c. 3 only

d. 1, 2 and 3

Solution: b

Explanation:


The Snow Leopard is fighting a battle of survival with only 7,500 of them estimated to

have been left in the mountain ranges of Central Asia and South Asia, where they are

facing rising pressure due to habitat loss. Known to be among the top predators in the

Himalayan ecosystem, the animal is listed among the ‘vulnerable species’ in the IUCN

Red List of threatened species.


As per the Snow Leopard Programme of Ministry of Environment, Forests and Climate

Change, India is perhaps home to at least 700 snow leopards in the Himalayan region of

https://www.downtoearth.org.in/news/health/fertility-rate-down-in-most-states-nfhs-5-finds-74624

https://www.downtoearth.org.in/news/health/fertility-rate-down-in-most-states-nfhs-5-finds-74624



Himachal Pradesh, Uttarakhand, Sikkim, Arunachal Pradesh, Jammu and Kashmir and

Ladakh. India is believed to have the third highest population of snow leopards, after

China and Mongolia, however, an exact count is not yet available.

If we refer to recently conducted tiger survey, Tiger population has touched 2,967

tigers, which is 75% of the world tiger population.

Second Statement is correct.

India has ratified and played an important role in the Global Snow Leopard and

Ecosystem Protection Program (GSLEP), a high level inter-governmental alliance of

all the 12 snow leopard range countries.

Besides India, Snow Leopard is found in 12 countries including Nepal, Bhutan, China,

Mongolia, Russia, Pakistan, Afghanistan, Kyrgyzstan, Kazakhstan, Tajikistan and

Uzbekistan.


1. When a vacancy is created in the office of the Vice President, then the functions of

the Vice President are performed by such person as designated by the President of

India.

2. The Procedure for the removal of the Vice President cannot be initiated in the Lok

Sabha.


a. 1 only

b. 2 only

c. Both 1 and 2

d. Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: b

Explanation:



The Constitution is silent on who performs the duties of the Vice-President when a

vacancy occurs in the office of the Vice President of India. See below in the image, what

Constitution talks about vacancy.

It is true that the procedure for the removal of the Vice-President cannot be initiated in the

Lok Sabha. A Vice President may be removed from his office by a resolution of the

council of States passed by a majority of all the then members of the council and agreed to

by the House of the People. Read article 67:

Q85. Which of the following is geographically closest to Great Nicobar?

a. Sumatra

b. Borneo

c. Java

d. Lakshadweep

Solution: a

Expalantion:

Very easy, if you have printed the map in your mind.



Q86. Consider the following statements Central Waqf Council.

1. Central Waqf Council is a statutory body under the administrative control of the

Ministry of Home Affairs.

2. Union Minister is the chairman of the Council.

3. The person nominated by the Waakif to manage the affairs of the Wakf property is

known as Mutawalli.


a. 1 and 2 only

b. 2 and 3 only

c. 3 only

d. 1 and 3 only

Solution: b

Explanation:

Central Waqf Council is a statutory body under the administrative control of the

Ministry of Minority Affairs was set up in 1964 as per the provision given in the Waqf

Act, 1954 as Advisory Body to the Central Government on matters concerning the working

of the Waqf Boards.

However, the role of the Council was expanded significantly under the provisions of the

Waqf (Amendment) Act, 2013. The Council has been empowered to advise the Central

Government, State Governments and State Waqf Boards. It will now issue directives to the

boards/ State Government to furnish information to the Council on the performance of the



board particularly on their financial performance, survey, revenue records, encroachment

of Waqf properties, Annual and Audit report etc.

The Council consists of Chairperson, who is the Union Minister In charge of Waqf and

such other members, not exceeding 20 in number, as may be appointed by the Government

of India. Presently Shri Mukhtar Abbas Naqvi, Union Minister of Minority Affairs is the

ex-officio Chairperson of the Central Waqf Council.

The person nominated by the Waakif to manage the affairs of the Wakf property is

known as Mutawalli.

Q87. Which of the following temples is dedicated to Lord Shiva?

1. Venkateshwara Temple, Tirupati

2. Mahakaleshwar Temple, Ujjain

3. Jagannath Temple, Puri

4. Ekambareswarar Temple, Tamil Nadu


a. 1, 2 and 3 only

b. 1 and 4 only

c. 2 and 4 only

d. 2, 3 and 4 only

Solution: c

Explanation:

Venkateswara Temple is an important Vaishnavite temple situated in the hill town of

Tirumala in Chittoor district of Andhra Pradesh, India. The Temple is dedicated to Lord Venkateswara, an incarnation of Vishnu.

Ekambareswarar Temple is a Hindu temple dedicated to the deity Shiva, located in the

town of Kanchipuram in Tamil Nadu, India.

About Mahakaleshwar Temple: Situated on the banks of the holy river Shipra in Ujjain,

the Mahakaleshwar Temple dedicated to Lord Shiva is one of the most famous shrines in the country.




1. Virupaksha Temple

2. Badava Linga Temple

3. Narasimhan (half-man half-lion) sitting on the coil of a giant seven-headed snake

Which of the above sites is/are can be found at Hampi, a UNESCO World Heritage Site?

a. 1 and 2 only

b. 1 only

c. 2 and 3 only

d. 1, 2 and 3

Solution: d

Explanation:

All the above architecture/sites can be seen at Hampi.

Virupaksha Temple

This is the oldest temple in Hampi. Virupaksha means the one with oblique eye. This refers

to Lord Shiva as he has three eyes. Lord Shiva is the principle deity of this temple.



Narasimhan Statute:

This is the largest statue in Hampi. Narasimha is sitting on the coil of a giant seven-

headed snake called Sesha. The heads of the snake acts as the hood above his head. The



god sits in a cross-legged Yoga position with a belt supporting the knees. Sometimes this is

referred as Ugra Narasimha (i.e. Narasimha in its terrifying form). The protruding eyes and

the facial expression are the basis for this name.

Narasimha (means half-man half-lion in local the languages) is one of the ten incarnations

(avatar) of Lord Vishnu.

Badava Linga:

This linga is again the largest monolithic linga in Hampi. Located next to the Narasimha

statue. The sanctum in which the linga is installed is always filled with water and water

channel is made to run through it.

Q89. Consider the following statements regarding Mediterranean Climate.

1. Hot, dry summers and cool, wet winters are the features of this climate,

2. It is found only in areas surrounding Mediterranean Sea only.


a. 1 only

b. 2 only

c. Both 1 and 2

d. Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: a

Explanation:



Entirely confined to the western portion of continental masses, between 30° and 45° north

and south of the equator. The basic cause of this type of climate is the shifting of the wind

belts.

Mediterranean Sea has the greatest extent of this type of ‘winter rain climate’ and gives

rise to the name Mediterranean Climate.

Clear skies and high temperatures; hot, dry summers and cool, wet winters are the

features of the Climate.

You can see from the above graph; it is not only limited to Mediterranean seas. The best

developed form of this climatic type is found in central Chile. Other Mediterranean regions

include California (around San Francisco), the south-western tip of Africa (around

Cape Town), southern Australia, and south-west Australia.

Q90.. Consider the following Bodies.

1. Gram Sabha

2. Ward Committees

3. District Planning Committee

Which of the above is/are Constitutional Bodies?

a. 1 only

b. 1 and 3 only

c. 1 and 2 only

d. 1, 2 and 3



Solution: d

Explanation:

All bodies are Constitutional Bodies. Now see below Article of these Constitutional Bodies.


1. Currently, total installed renewable energy capacity in India is less than 50GW.

2. 90 Percent of the installed renewable energy comes from solar in India.

3. One of the India’s INDC says to increase the share of non-fossil fuel-based energy

resources to 40% of installed electric power capacity by 2030.


a. 1 and 2 only

b. 3 only

c. 1 and 3 only

d. 1 only

Solution: b

Explanation:



You should have rough idea about what is happening in India. Not exact numbers,

but close to. How much is renewable, how much is coal, what are INDCs, all such information are important.

All information below is from Ministry website. Just follow it.

First and second statements are incorrect

As of August 31, 2020, installed renewable energy capacity stood at 88.79 GW, of

which solar and wind comprised 35.73 GW and 37.99 GW, respectively. Biomass and

small hydro power constituted 10.14 GW and 4.73 GW, respectively.

If we look into more latest data, of December 2020, it is 89 GW something. See below.


In in 2015 the GoI submitted Intended Nationally Determined Contribution (INDC), which

became India’s first NDC after the GoI ratified the Paris Agreement in 2016. India’s NDC

includes the following new energy sector-related targets:




1. India’s per capita GHG emission is highest in the world.

2. One of the India’s INDC states to reduce the emissions intensity of its GDP by 33-

35% from 2005 levels by 2022.


a. 1 only

b. 2 only

c. Both 1 and 2

d. Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: d

Explanation:


If we go by the latest report, Climate Change Performance Index 2021, that also says:

Although India has one of the largest growth trends, per capita emissions stay at a comparatively low level, rated very high for their well-below 2°C compatibility.




We have changed the year just make you learn today. Please REMEMBER THIS.

Again, if we see INDCs:

Emission intensity is the volume of emissions per unit of GDP. Reducing emission intensity means that less pollution is being created per unit of GDP.

If you practice such questions on daily basis and revise them regularly, thing will become too

easy for Prelims. You will encounter many such good question in Test Series too. You must enroll, rest take your decision.

Q93. Consider the following statements regarding PM-KISAN (Pradhan Mantri Kisan Samman Nidhi).

1. Currently, to only those farmer families who had a combined farm holding of two

Hectares or less.

2. While it is a Central Sector Scheme, the responsibility to identifying and validating

the beneficiaries is left to the respective states.


a. 1 only

b. 2 only

c. Both 1 and 2

d. Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: b

Explanation:

There was a report recently that there is a mismatch between total farmers and

beneficiaries of PM-KISAN (Pradhan Mantri Kisan Samman Nidhi).



The Government of India launched PM-KISAN (Pradhan Mantri Kisan Samman Nidhi) to

provide income support to the landholding farmers in the country. This is to supplement

their financial needs to procure various inputs related to agriculture & allied activities along with domestic needs.

Under this scheme, the eligible beneficiaries would receive Rs. 6000 per year in three

equal instalments. The first instalment was paid on 01 December 2018. Initially, the

scheme was extended to only those farmer families who had a combined farm holding of

two Hectares or less i.e., Small & Marginal farmers. However, since 01 June 2020, the

scheme was revised to include all the farmers irrespective of the size of their holding.



While it is a Central Sector Scheme, the responsibility to identifying and validating the

beneficiaries is left to the respective states. As on date, all the States & UTs with the exception of West Bengal have joined this Central Sector Scheme.

Q94. Emissions Gap Report 2020, recently seen in news is released by

a. United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP)

b. World Economic Forum

c. Germanwatch d. UNFCCC Secretariat

Solution: a

Explanation:

The United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP) released its annual Emissions Gap Report 2020.

The annual report from UNEP measures “the gap between anticipated emissions and levels

consistent with the Paris Agreement goals of limiting global warming this century to well

below 2°C and pursuing 1.5°C”.

Q95. Consider the following South East Asian Countries Capitals.

1. Bangkok (Thailand)

2. Naypyidaw (Myanmar)

3. Hanoi (Vietnam)

4. Kuala Lumpur (Malaysia)

Arrange the above places from North to South.

a. 2-1-3-4

b. 2-3-1-4

c. 3-2-1-4



d. 3-4-1-2

Solution: c

Explanation:

Today’s map now. See if you know this. If not, then learn.

See, if you have not solved such maps before, definitely you will do wrong. These daily

quizzes is preparing you for June exam. So, you have enough time to learn.


1. Appointment and Promotion of district judge in any state is made by Governor in

consultation with High Court of that State.

2. Parliament has been authorized to extend and exclude the jurisdiction of a High Court

from any Union Territory.


a. 1 only

b. 2 only



c. Both 1 and 2

d. Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: c

Explanation:

We will see here two articles: 230 and 233.

Q97. In the context of Indian Constitution, consider the following statements.

1. The maximum number of representatives of the States in the Rajya Sabha has been

fixed at 250.

2. The allocation of seats in the Rajya Sabha is done in accordance with a Statutory law

enacted by the Parliament of India.


a. 1 only

b. 2 only

c. Both 1 and 2

d. Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: c

Explanation:

Read with full concentration. Abhi se adat ni daaloge (if you don’t do this now), you will

suffer in end. No worries. Learn today.

The maximum strength of the Rajya Sabha is fixed at 250, out of which, only 238 are to be

the representatives of the States and Union Territories (elected indirectly) and 12 are

nominated by the President. Question asked is about representatives of States and UTs. So,

read carefully.



The fourth schedule of the Constitution deals with allocation of seats in the Rajya

Sabha to the States and Union Territories. It is not in the accordance with the law

made by the Parliament.

So, both are incorrect. Option c is right answer.

Q98. Bhagat Singh, Sukhdev and Rajguru were sentenced to death in which of the following

trials?

a. The Kanpur Conspiracy Case

b. The Meerut Conspiracy Case

c. The Lahore Conspiracy Case

d. The Alipore Bomb Case

Solution: c

Explanation:

Just when the Hindustan Socialist Republican Association (HSRA) revolutionaries had

begun to move away from individual heroic action, the death of Sher-i-Punjab, Lala Lajpat

Rai, due to lathi blows received during a lathi- charge on an anti-Simon Commission

procession (October 1928) led them once again to take to individual assassination.

Bhagat Singh, Azad and Rajguru shot dead Saunders, the police official responsible for the

lathi charge in Lahore. Bhagat Singh, Sukhdev and Rajguru were tried in the Lahore

Conspiracy Case.

Q99. Population momentum relates to which of the following?

a. It is the increase in the population, due to the increase in the birth rates.

b. It is the increase in the population, due to the decline in the death rates.

c. It is the increase in the population, due to access to better health services.



d. It is the increase in the population even after there is a decline in the birth rates, due

to large existing youthful population.

Solution: d

Explanation:

Population Momentum:

The phenomenon whereby population continues to increase even after a fall in the

birth rates, because the large existing youthful population expands the population’s

base of potential parents.

Population momentum relates to the age structure of many developing countries’

populations. As share of population, young people greatly outnumber their parents.

When their generation reaches adulthood, the number of potential parents will inevitably

be much larger than at present. It follows that even if these new parents have only enough

children to replace themselves (two per couple, as compared with their parents, who may

have had four or more children), the fact that the total number of couples having two

children is much greater than the number of couples who previously had more children

means that the total population will still increase substantially before levelling off.

Q100. Mollem National Park is in:

a. Goa

b. Odisha

c. Andaman and Nicobar

d. Karnataka

Solution: a

Explanation:

It’s in Goa. No more explanation needed.

QUIZ COMPILATIONS- december,PART ONE, 2020

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