Question Bank IX Biology - Claret School - Biology... · Answer the following: 1m ... 2. Which of...

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Question Bank

STD – IX Biology

L – 1 - Natural resources

I. Choose the correct answer:

1. A byproduct of coal among the following is

a) Nitrogen b) coke c) graphite d) Diamond.

2. An extinct animal among the following is

a) Tiger b) bison c) woolly mammoth d) mongoose

3. In contour farming the field is ploughed _______________ to the slop0e of the field.

a) Parallel b) right angle c) Diagnol d) None of the above

4. Chipko movement was started by _______________

a) Salumaradathimmakka c) SunderlalBahuguna

b) Medhapatkar d) Suresh Heblikar

5. The second largest producer of manganese ore in India is _____________

a) Kerala b) Karnataka c) Orissa d) Rajasthan.

6. Bauxite is the main source of ________________

a) Aluminium b) Iron c) carbon d) copper

7. A method of growing a new forest is known as ________________

a) Deforestation b) Desertification c) Reforestation d) Afforestation.

8. WWF is an organisation involved in the conservation of _________________

a) Soil b) Water c) Wild life d) fossil fuel

9. Bandipur National Park is in________________

a) Orissa b) Jharkhand c) West Bengal d) Karnataka

10. The first highest producer of Chromite in India.

a) Orissa b) Karnataka c) Kerala d) U.P

II. Fill in the blanks:

1. Soil looses its fertility mainly due to _______________

2. An organic material consisting of decayed vegetable or animal matter which provide nutrients to

plants is called ____________

3. Expansion of WWF is ___________

4. Biodiversity is essential for the maintenance of ________________

5. Rain water harvesting helps in the conservation of ________________

6. Solar panels help in the conservation of _______________

7. Contour ploughing prevents _____________

8. The social activist who started the NarmdaBachaoAndolan to save forest & wild life is

_____________

9. The second deepest gold mine in the world is _______________

10. The second largest producer of silver in India is ______________

11. The third leading producer of magnasite in India is _____________

12. World water day is celebrated on ______________

13. The conservation of plant and animals outside their natural habitat is called ____________

14. Kaziranga National park is in ____________

15. A byproduct of coal used in insecticides is _______________

16. A Nation’s _______________ often determine its wealth & status in the world economic system.

III. Answer the following: 1m

1. What is a resource?

2. What are natural resources?

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3. Why has government made it compulsory to install rain water harvesting system in every house?

4. What is Vanamahotsava?

5. Mention the initiative taken up by SalumaradaThimmakka to conserve trees.

6. The surface area on earth for water percolation is drastically reduced why?

IV. Answer the following: 2m

1. Mention the uses of carbolic acid?

2. What is the meaning of conservation of natural resources?

3. What are the constituents of soil?

4. What is humus?

5. Whatis soil considered as a renewable as well as a non – renewable resource?

6. What are the causes for deforestation?

7. What are the effects of deforestation?

8. What are endangered species? Give 2 examples?

9. What is In – Situ conservation?

10. What is Ex – situ conservation?

11. How do we conserve soil?

12. How are wild animals protected?

13. Give suggestions to conserve fossil fuels.

14. Differentiate between afforestation & reforestation.

15. What will happen if we of on cutting trees?

16. What will happen if a) the habitat of an animal is disturbed. b) the top layer of soil is exposed

17. Mention the uses of water.

V. Answer the following: 3m

1. List out any 3 byproducts of coal and mention their uses.

2. What is the need to conserve natural resources?

3. Mention any 3 methods of conservation of water.

4. Mention the importance of forest.

VI. Answer the following: 4m

1. What measures can be adopted to conserve forests?

Food


1. The sunshine vitamin is ____________.

(a) Vitamin A (b) Vitamin B (c) Vitamin C (d) Vitamin D

2. The internal factor that spoils food among the following is _____________.

(a) Defective storage structure (b) Enzymatic activity (c) Micro-organisms

(d) Humidity

3. Destroying the microbes by heat treatment is __________.

(a) Pasteurization (b) Radiation (c) Dehydration (d) Freezing

4. Deficiency of carbohydrates and proteins causes

(a) Nutritional Marasmus (b) Goiter (c) Night Blindness (d) Phrynoderma

5. Storing food in the range of 6oC to 8

oC is called _____________.

(a) Freezing (b) Cold Storage (c) Canning (d) Dehydration

II. Fill in the blanks

1. The expansion of AGMARK is ______________.

2. The adulterant present in honey is ______________.

3. The major vitamin in citrus fruit is _____________.

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4. The adulterant responsible for dropsy is _________________.

5. The deficiency of iodine in food leads to a disorder called ___________.

6. The adulterant present in mustard is ___________.

7. Deficiency of Vitamin D causes ___________ in adults.

8. Food substances having a brief shelf life are called ____________.

9. Storing food below 0oC is called ______________.

10. Jams and Jelly can be preserved by ____________ method.


1. Define food?

2. What is malnutrition?

3. What is food adulteration?

4. What is an adulterant?

5. What is dehydration?

6. What is pasteurization?


1. An apple kept in a moist place spoiled in a few days. Why?

2. How are nutrients classified based on their chemical composition?

3. Name the disease that occurs due to the deficiency of

(a) Fat (b) Vitamin A (c) Vitamin C (d) Iodine

4. Mention the external factors that spoil food.

5. Explain the role of salt & vinegar in preserving food.

6. Mention the symptoms of Kwashiorkor.

7. Mention the symptoms of Rickets.

8. Explain a simple test to identify adulteration in turmeric powder.

9. Mention a test to identify adulterant in coffee powder.

10. Mention a test to identify adulterants in ghee.

11. What is dropsy? What are its symptoms?

12. What is the cut put forth by the government to prevent food adulteration?

V. Answer the following: 3M

1. What measures can be taken to control food adulteration?

2. Give scientific reasons

(a) Turmeric adulterated with metanil yellow should be consumed.

(b) Fruits & vegetables should be stored between 6oC to 8

oC.

(c) Pulses are called non perishable food.

3. Name the 3 methods of dehydration give examples of food substances preserved by this method.

VI. Answer the following: 4M

1. Name any 2 quantity controlling agencies. Explain their role in preventing food adulteration.

Classification Of Living Organisms (UptoMycota)

I. Choose the correct answer: 1M

1. Bacteria belongs to ___________.

(a) Metaphyta (b) Protista (c) Mycota (d) Monera

2. Which of the following kingdom exclusively included animals

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(a) Metaphyta (b) Protista (c) Metazoa (d) Mycota

3. Xanthomonascitricauses

(a) Citrus Canker (b) Citrus reticulate (c) Potato rot (d) Pineapple rot

4. The cell wall of diatom is made up of _________.

(a) Cellulose (b) Silica (c) Pectin (d) Ligin

5. A collection of hyphae is called ____________.

(a) Mycelium (b) Thallus (c) Plasmid (d) Nucleoid

II. Fill in the blanks: 1M

1. Mushrooms belong to the kingdom ___________.

2. The nucleus is not bound by a membrane in the members of the kingdom ___________.

3. Bacteria remove the harmful waste from the earth & thus function as natures __________.

4. Yeast cells are rich source of Vitamin __________.

5. The circular DNA molecule in Bacterial cell is called __________.

III. Answer the following: 1M

1. Of the 5 kingdoms which is the most primitive one.

2. What is frustule?

3. Name the bacteria that causes plague

IV. Answer the following: 2M

1. Name the bacteria that causes the following diseases

a. Typhoid b. Tetanus c. Cholera d. Tuberculosis

2. Mention any 2 harmful effects of bacteria.

3. Mention any 2 economic importance of diatoms?

4. Write the economic importance of yeast.

5. What is endospore?

6. Howdoes bacteria reproduce by budding?

7. What is fragmentation?

V. Answer the following: 3M

1. Explain the structure of yeast cell with a neat labeled diagram.

2. Explain the structure of diatom with a neat labeled diagram.

3. Mention any 3 economic importance of bacteria.

VI. Answer the following: 4M

1. Explain the structure of bacteria with a neat labeled diagram.

Classification of living organisms

(from kingdom animalia)


1. Name the animal phylum whose members are exclusively marine.

a. Arthropoda b. Echinodermata c. coelenterate d. Porifera

2. Chitinous cuticle is an exoskeleton in

a. Arthropoda b. annelids c. Molluses d. echinoderms

3. Which of the following worms does not live as a parasite

a. Earth worm b. round worm c. tape worm d. Hook worm


1. The body cavity in round worms is ______________

2. Only group of invertebrates which can fly ____________

3. The exoskeleton in members of phylum mollusca is ____________

4. ______________ are called farmers friend because they turn the deep soil & bring it to the surface.

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5. The protozoan parasite ______________ causes malaria

6. The body wall of sponges contain needle like calcareous exoskeleton called ___________

7. The body cavity of arthropods is filled with blood is known as ______________

8. Planaria belongs to the phylum _______________

9. Moss belongs to the kingdom ____________

10. Hydra belongs to the phylum _______________


1. Name the 3 primary germ layers of a triploblastic animals.

2. Name the kingdom whose members cannot manufacture food by photosynthesis.

3. Name 2 animals phylum which possess open type of circulatory system.

4. Name 2 animals phyla which exhibit radial symmetry.

5. What is radial symmetry?

6. What is bilateral symmetry?

7. What are gemmules?

8. What are coral animals?

9. What is pseudocoelom?

10. What is moulting?

11. What is sexual dimorphism?


1. Mention 2 insects which are useful to us by their products.

2. Name the locomotory organs of the follows organisms

a. Euglena b. Neries c. amoeba d. starfish.

3. Define a. ostia b. osculum

4. Mention 2 economic importance of sponges.

5. What are nematocyst? Mentioin its function.

6. Mention any 2 economic importance of coelenterates.

7. Mention any 2 characteristics of flat worms

8. How does transverse fission occurs in flat worms?

9. Why earth worms are called farmers friend?


1. Mention any 3 characteristics of Phylum Aschelminthes.

2. Mention any 3 characteristics of phylum Annetida

3. Mention the 3 important characteristics of echinodermata

4. Mention 3 important characteristics of arthropada.


1. A) Write 2 important characteristics of mollusca.

B) Mention any 2 economic importance of mulluscs.

Lesson – 6

The world of Microbes


1. Which among the following are decomposers

a) Bacteria & fungi b) Bacteria & protozoa c) protozoa & viruses d) viruses

& bacteria

2. One of the statements is false:

a) All microbes are harmful

b) Some microbles are harmful

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c) All microbes are useful

d) All the above.

3. Mangoes as big as pumpkin can be obtained by

a) Genetic engineering

b) Cloning

c) DNA fingerprinting

d) Tissue culture

4. Charcoal is used in purifying water as charcoal is _____________

a) Porous

b) Carbon form

c) Absorbent

d) Black coloured

5. Rearing of earth worm in known as

a) Agriculture

b) Sericulture

c) Horticulture

d) Vermiculture


1. Microbes maintain _____________ of the soil.

2. Bacteria that converts milk in to curd is _________________

3. The cakes that you purchase from the bakery are soft & spongy. The microbe which has made it

happen is _____________

4. The scientist who discovered the antibiotic penicillin is ______________

5. Chlorine is used in water treatment because it is a very good _______________

6. The hereditary units which are responsible for biological character of all organisms is

______________


1. Name the different groups of microorganisms.

2. What is decomposition?


1. Explain the role of microbes in maintaining ecological balance.

2. Microbes are our friends too explain.


1. Explain genetic engineering.


1. Environmentalist argue that genetic engineering is not only a boon but also a bane explain.

Biogeochemical cycles


1. The return of nutrients from exchange pool to the reservoir pool in an ecosystem is called _________

a) Fixation b) Recycling c) production d) decomposition.

2. Fixation of carbon dioxide occurs by

a) Transpiration b) photosynthesis c) evaporation d) respiration

3. The algae bringing about nitrogen fixation

a) Nitrosomonas b) Nostoc c) Pseudomonas d) Chlmydomonas

4. The conversion of ammonic in to nitrates is

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a) Nitification b) ammonification c) Denitrification d) Electrochemical Fixatur


1. Oxygen fixature in an ecosystem occurs by _______________

2. A cyclic movement of nutrients in an ecosystem is ________________

3. A bacterium that converts ammonisum salts in to nitrites in _____________

4. A major component of smoke emitted from vehicles is _____________

5. The insectivorous plants obtain ________________ by trapping insects.


1. What are biogeochemical cycles?

2. Name the 2 types of biogeochemical cycles.

3. Mention the 2 components of a biogeochemical cycle.

4. Name the process involved in the fixation of carbon.

5. Name the processes involved in the recycling of carbon.

6. Name the process involved in the recycling of oxygen.

7. Define nitrogen fixation.


1. Give two examples to show that plants depend on animals.

2. Give 2 examples to show that animals depend on plants.

3. Differentiate between fixation & recycling.

4. Differentiate between nitrification & denitrification.

5. Name the processes involved in the recycling of water.


1. Differentiate between reservoir pool & exchange pool.

2. Differentiate between natural fixation and artificial fixation of nitrogen.

3. Differentiate between biological fixation and electrochemical fixation of nitrogen.

4. Define (a) Ammonification (b) Nutrification (c) denitrification.

5. Draw a schematic representation of carbon cycle.

6. Draw a schematic representation of oxygen cycle.

7. Draw a schematic representation of water cycle.


1. (a) Name the processes involved in recycling of nitrogen.

(b) Draw a schematic representation of nitrogen cycle.

Excretion in Animals


1. Excretion means ________________

a) Taking in oxygen from the air and giving out carbon dioxide

b) Removal of nitrogenous wastes generated in the body.

c) Distribution of digested food to the body tissues through the blood.

d) Disposal of harmful germs & worms from our body.

2. The excretory organs of cockroaches are called _______________

a) Malphighian tubules b) kidneys c) flame cells d) nephridia

3. The structural & functional unit of excretion in human are _______________

a) Maphighian tubules b) nephridia c) liver d) Nephrons

4. The waste substance eliminated through lungs is _____________

a) Urine b) sweat c) undigested food d) carbon dioxide


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1. The excretory products of human being are in the form of ________________

2. _____________ is a nitrogenous waste product which is non toxic and insoluble in water.

3. Excretion amoeba occurs by _______________

4. Patients whose kidneys have become non functional undergo _____________ treatment

5. Skin eliminates waste in the form of _______________

6. Kidneys eliminate wastes in the form of _______________

7. The largest & heaviest organ in the body is _____________

8. Our urinary bladder can hold _____________ ml of urine

III. answer the following: 1m

1. Name the organ in which urine is temporarily stored in humans.

2. Name the duct that transports urine from the kidney to urinary bladder.

3. What is deamination?

4. Define excretion.

5. Name any two disorders of kidney.


1. (a) Name the microscopic units present in the kidneys.

(b) Name the 3 steps of urine formation.

2. How does amoeba excrete nitrogenous waste?

3. Why does cockroach excrete nitrogenous wastes in the form of uric acid?


1. What is nephritis? What are its symptoms?

2. What are kidney stones?

3. What is gout?


1. Explain the excretory system in man with a neat labeled diagram.

2. Explain the structure of nephron with a neat labeled diagram.

Life Processes

I. Choose the correct answer: 1m

1. Chamber of the heart which receives oxygen rich blood is ______________

a) Left auricle b) right auricle c) right ventricle d) left ventricle

2. Blood component that provides immunity is _____________

a) WBC b) Plasma c) RBC d) Platelets

3. Plant tissue that transports water is ______________

a) Parenchyma b) xylem c) phloem d) collenchyma

4. Transport of materials in amoeba is by ____________

a) Tissues b) diffusion c) osmoses d) diffusion & osmoses

II. Fill in the blanks: 1m

1. The transpiration that takes place through bark of plant is called ____________

2. The blood vessel that helps in transporting blood in to and away from the cells is __________

3. Human heart has ____________ chambers.

4. Heart pumps about ______________ litres of blood every minute.

5. Blood pressure of a normal human being is about ________________


1. What is transport system?

2. What is the need for transport system?

3. What is transpiration?

4. What is stomatas transpiration?

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5. What is cuticular transpiration?

6. Name the 3 types of blood vessels in man?

7. Name the parts of the transport system in man.

8. Name the four chambers of the heart.


1. Draw a flow chart to depict blood circulation.

2. What is pulse? Where is it felt.

3. Differentiate between open types close type circulatory system.

4. Differentiate between xylem & phloem.

5. Name the disorders of the heart.


1. Explain transport system of cockroach.

2. Name the constituents of blood mention their function.


1. Explain circulation in human beings.

2. Draw a neat labeled diagram of vertical section of human heart.

Cell Division


1. The preparatory stage of cell division is ________________

a) Prophase b) Anaphase c) interphase d) metaphase

2. The stage of cell division in which centromere divides is _______________

a) Anaphase II b) Anaphase I c) TelophaseI d) Telophase II

3. Meiosis Plays an important role in _____________

a) Growth b) replacement of dead cells c) reproduction d) Healing of

wounds

4. The stage immediately after prophase II is

a) Metaphase I b) Telophase I c) Metaphase II d) Telophase II

5. A cell has 46 chromosome in it, it undergoes meiosis division. The number of chromosome present

in daughter cell is

a) 23 pairs b) 46 c) 46 pairs d) 23


1. The cells which help in growth are the _____________ cells.

2. Mitosis is known as ____________ division.

3. Meiosis is known as ____________ division.

4. At the end mitosis ____________ daughter cells are formed.

5. Mitosis occurs in _____________ cells.

6. At the end of meiosis _____________ daughter cells are formed.

7. The types of cell division that occurs in reproduction cells is _____________


1. What is cell division?

2. Name the two types of cell division.

3. What is karyokinesis?

4. What is cytokineis?

5. What are the four phases of karyokinesis?


1. Differentiate between anaphases I & anaphase II.

2. Describe the structure of a chromosome.

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3. Explain the importance of metaphase in mitosis?

4. Explain interphase with a neat diagram.


1. Explain prophase I of meiosis I.


1. Differentiate between mitosis & meiosis.

Reproduction in animals I. Choose the correct answer: (1m)

1. Reproduction in takes place by

a) Budding b) binary fission c) laying eggs d) giving birth to young ones.

2. The male sexual cell is called

a) Sperm b) egg c) ovum d) embryo

3. The young one of cockroach is called

a) Larva b) caterpillar c) nymph d) tadpole

4. The process of the union of an egg and a sperm is known as

a) Asexual reproduction b) multiple fission c) zygote d) fertilization

5. During the development of the cockroach the young nymph sheds its body skin several times to

grow. This process is known as

a) Metamorphosis b) moulting c) menstruation d) direct development

II. Fill in the blanks: (1m)

1. India’s first test tube baby was created by _______________.

2. If a couple are unable to deliver a baby even one year after normal married life, this condition is

known as _______________.

3. When an egg is fertilized outside the body of a woman, this technique is known as __________.

4. When twins are conjoined at the time of birth, they are called ____________ twins.

5. When an egg is fertilized in a woman, it develops into a child is the __________

6. The hard resistant cover that develops around the body of amoeba during multiple fission is

known as ______________.

7. In cockroach moulting occurs __________ times before the nymph grows into an adult.

8. Uterus is commonly called _______________.

9. The gestation period foetus is about ____________ days.

10. World’s first test tube baby is ______________.

III. Answer the following:

1. Expand IVF.

2. When does amoeba reproduce by multiplefission?

3. What is the function of spermsac in cockroach

4. What is metamorphosis?

5. What is ovulation?

6. On which day of the menstrual cycle is the ovum released?

7. What is gestation?

8. Name the different stages in the life cycle of cockroach.

IV. Answer the following: (2m)

1. What is the function of follicle stimulating hormone?

2. What is IVF?

3. How does amoeba reproduce by binary fission?

4. Name the four important hormones which guide & control the reproductive cycle in

woman.

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V. Answer the following: (3m)

1. How are monozygotic twins produced?

2. How are dizygotic twins produced?

3. Mention the benefits of internal fertilization.

4. Mention the functions of a) Estrogen b) Lutunissing hormone c) Progesterone

VI. Answer the following: (4m)

1. Explain multiple fission in amoeba with a neat labeled diagram?

EVOLUTION OF LIFE

I. Choose the correct answer: (1m)

1. Organs which are structurally different but perform similar functions ___________

a) Homologous organs b) Vestigial organs c) Analogous organs d) None of them

2. The remains of the hard parts of organisms found buried in the earths crust __________

a) Fossils b) Vestigial organs c) Homologous organs d) Analogous organs

3. A living fossil among the following

a) Wolly mammoth b) Dinosaur c) Archaeopteryx d) Peripatus

4. A transitional fossil connecting reptiles & birds is _________.

a) Lizard b) Dodo c) Archaeopteryx d) Lung fish

5. An egg laying mammal among the following

a) Platypus b) Hen c) Kangaroo d) Peripatus

6. The era in which man originated ___________

a) Proterozic era b) Paleozoic era c) Mesozoic era d) Coenozic era

II. Fill in the blanks: (1m)

1. Organs with common origin but performing different functions are called ___________.

2. The absolute time of the fossil can be accurately determined by ___________.

3. The process by which fossils turn into stone is ________.

4. A fully mummifies woolly mammoth was found in __________.

5. A species of well established organisms which disappeared are known as ____________.

6. Era known as the golden age of reptiles is _______________.

7. The connecting link between fishes and amphibians is ______________.

III. Answer the following: (1m)

1. Define organic evolution?

2. Define Embryology.

3. What are fossils?

4. Give 2 examples for living fossils.

5. Name the animal that is the connecting link between annelids and arthropods.

6. Define pallontology?

IV. Answer the following: (2m)

1. What are vestigial organs? Name any 2 vestigial organs in man.

2. How are fossils formed?

3. Mention the importance of geological time scale.

4. What is a living fossil?

5. Why do scientists refer birds as glorified reptiles?

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V. Answer the following: (3m)

1. What is dating of fossils? What are the 2 methods of dating of fossil?

2. Describe the structure of archaeopteryx.

3. Mention the 3 basic types of fossils.

VI. Answer the following: (4m)

1. Name the four eras in the Geological time scale and list few plant and animal species that existed

in that era.

2. Write the difference between homologous and analogous organs with 2 examples for each.

CHEMISTRY

Synthetic Materials

(up to Cement)

I. Choose the correct answer: 1. Which among the following is a natural material?

a) Glass b) wood c) Plastic d) cement

2. Which among the following is a synthetic material?

a) Wood b) rice c) glass d) stone

3. Thermo setting plastic among the following in

a) PVC b) Polythene c) polystyrene d) melamine

4. Thermoplastic among the following is

a) Bakelite b) Melamine c) Polythene

5. Cement is a mixture of _______________

a) Calcium silicate and calcium aluminate

b) Calcium silicate and calcium hydroxide

c) Calcium hydroxide and calcium aluminate

d) Calcium silicate and sodium aluminate

Fill in the blanks:

1. Artificial materials are also called _________________

2. Plastics that can be moulded are called _______________

3. The handle of a cooker is made up a plastic called _______________

4. Plastic used in the manufacture of fabrics which resist fire is _________________

5. A type of plastic used as a coating material in non-stick cook ware is _____________

6. Collection of unwanted plastic materials increases the growth of ______________

7. The apparatus used in the manufacture of cement is _________________


1. Define plastic.

2. Define thermoplastic

3. Define thermosetting plastic

4. Name the 2 types of plastics.

5. Write the used of thermoplastics.

6. Mention the uses of Bakelite.

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7. Mention the 4R principle that can be practiced to minimize plastic pollution.

8. Mention the uses of melanine.

9. What is cement?

10. What are the raw materials required in the manufacture of cement?

11. Why is gypsum added during the manufacture of cement?

12. What are clinkers?

13. What is curing?

IV. Answer the following 2m

1. Differentiate between biodegradable and non biodegradable substances.

2. Why is cement used as a binding material?

3. What is concrete?

4. Curing requires continuous treatment why?


1. Differentiate between thermoplastics thermosetting plastic.

2. List out the advantages of plastics.

3. Mention the disadvantages using of plastic

4. List out the measures that you would like to take to avoid plastic pollution.

5. Why is cement used as a building material?


1. With a neat labeled diagram explain the process of manufacturing of cement.

Lesson – 1 – Synthetic materials (continuation)


1. The chemical name of Na2CO3 10H2O is ____________

a) Sodium bicarbonate

b) Sodium hydroxide

c) Sodium carbonate decahydrate

d) Sodium hydrate.

2. Fire proof Jackets are made up of _______________

a) Nylon b) Silk c) plaster of paris d) cotton

3. Caustic Soda is the common name of ________________

a) Sodium carbonate b) sodium bicarbonate c) sodium chloride d) sodium

hydroxide

4. Washing soda is a _______________ salt.

a) Acidic b) basic c) neutral d) organic

5. The chemical used to remove the permanent hardness of water is _______________

a) Sodium bicarbonate b) sodium carbonate c) plaster of paris d) sodium hydroxide.


1. Sodium carbonate is prepared by _____________ process.

2. The molecular formula of ammonice is _________________

3. The molecular formula of washing soda is _____________

4. The molecular formula of baking soda is _____________

5. The molecular formula of plaster of paris is _______________

6. Sodium bicarbonate is used in the preparation of ________________

7. The molecular formula of gypsum is ________________

8. The chemical used by the doctors to support fractured bones is __________________

III. Answer the following:

1. What is baking powder?

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2. Why is sodium bicarbonate used as an antacid?

3. Write the balanced chemical equation for the reaction of sodium bicarbonate with die hydrochloric

acid.

4. Name two compounds of sodium prepared by using washing soda.


1. How is plaster of paris prepared?

2. List the properties of palster of paris.

3. Mention any four uses of plaster of paris.

4. Mention the uses of baking soda.

V. Answer the following 3.

1. Mention the uses of washing soda .

2. List any three properties of washing soda.

3. List any three properties of baking soda


1. How is washing soda prepared?

Chemicals in our daily life

I. Fill in the blanks:-

1. Ammonia is highly _____________ in water.

2. In the manufacture of superphosphate , bone ash is mixed with ___________.

3. N2 + 3H2 ↔ 2NH3 is an example for _____________ reaction.

4. The decrease of the ___________ content of water leading to the death of aquatic life.

5. Plants suffer from disorders if they do not get __________ food.

6. The main raw material used in making nitrogeneous fertilizers is _____________.

7. A field with leguminous plants need not be given _______________ fertilizers.

8. Fertilizers containing phosphorous are called _____________ fertilizers.

9. Molecular formula for urea is ___________________.

10. Molecular formula of Ammonium Sulphate ______________

11. Molecular formula of Ammonium nitrate ______________.

12. Molecular formula of sodium nitrate ________________.

13. Molecular formula of Diammonium Phosphate is ___________ .

14. Molecular formula of potassium nitrate ___________.

15. Molecular formula of potassium chloride _____________.

16. Molecular formula of potassium sulphate ______________.

17. A good fertilizer should not alter the acidity or _______________ of soil.

18. Organic matter present in the manures increases the ______________ capacity in the sandy soil.

19. The most important commercial process of ammonia synthesis is the __________ process.

II. Choose the correct answer:-

1. The symbol of most essential elements required for development of all the plants ____________.

a)N, P, K b)S, Pb, K c)K, Cu, F d) P, Ca, Pt

2. The leaves die out early is because of the deficiency of

a) Nitrogen b) Phosphorous c) Potassium d) Iron

3. The traces of these element is required for the plants

a) Iron and Silver b) Calcium and Plutonium

c) Nitrogen and Nickel d) Iron and Manganese

4. An example for nitrogenous fertilizer is

a) Super Phosphate b) Urea

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c) Potassium Sulphate d) Potassium Chloride

5. Characteristics of good fertilizer is ___________

a) Non-toxic b) Deliquescent

c) insoluble in water d) Non-toxic and water soluble

6. Stunted growth in plants and graying of leaves is due to the deficiency of ________________.

a) Nitrogen b) Phosphorous c) Potassium d) Iron

7. The nitrogen content in urea is ___________

a) 36% b) 40% c) 46% d) 50%

8. Nitrogen promotes __________.

a) Protein synthesis b) Root growth

c) Carbohydrate synthesis d) Flowering

9. Phosphorous promotes _____________.



10. Potassium promotes ______________.



11. An example for phosphate fertilizer is ____________.

a) Urea b) Ammophos

c) Ammonium sulphate d) Potassium nitrate

12. The chemical formula of ammophos is ______________.

a) (NH4)2HPO4 b) (NH4)3PO4 c) (NH4)H2 PO4 d)Ca(H2PO4)2

13. The molecular formula of ammonium phosphate is ___________.

a) (NH4)3PO4 b) (NH4)2HPO4 c) (NH4)H2 PO4 d) NH4(PO4)2

14. In Haber- Bosch process, Nitrogen and Hydrogen is mixed in the ratio of __________

a) 3:1 b)1:3 c)2:3 d)3:2

III. Answer the following:- (1m)

1. What is fertilizer?

2. Name the most important elements required for a plant growth.

3. Name two potassium fertilizers required for the growth of plants.

4. Mention the two types of fertilizers

5. What are natural fertilizers?

6. What are artificial fertilizers?

7. What are phosphate fertilizers?

8. Organic manures are needed to be applied in large quantities. Why?

IV. Answer the following:- (2m)

1. What are the disadvantages of fertilizers?

2. Mention the advantages of organic manure

3. What is super phosphate?

4. What is the importance of soil testing for a farmer?

5. “We have to use fertilizers judiciously”. Discuss the validity of this statement

6. Excessive use of nitrogenous fertilizers leads to the death of aquatic life. Justify

7. Mention the characteristics of ammonia

8. How is urea manufactured?

9. Name four elements which are needed in traces for the plants.

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V. Answer the following:- (3m)

1. What are the special properties of manures over artificial fertilizers?

2. How are artificial fertilizers classified? Give an example for each.

VI. Answer the following:- (4m)

1. What are the characteristics of good fertilizers?

2. List out the uses of fertilizers

3. How is super phosphate manufactured?

4. Explain the Haber’s process of manufacturing ammonia with a neat diagram.

Electronic Configuration


1. Which of the following shell has the highest energy.

a) L b) M c) K d) N

2. Which of the following shell has the lowest energy.

a) L b) M c) K d) N

3. Among the following, the orbital having the least energy is

a) 4s b) 4d c) 4p d) 3d

4. Among the following the orbital having more energy is

a) 4s b) 4d c) 4p d) 3d

5. The sub shell present in L shell are

a) s and d b) s and p c) s, p and d d) s, p, d and f

6. The sub shell present in M shell are

a) s b) s and p c) s, p, d and f d) s, p and d

7. The maximum number of electrons in M shell is

a) 2 b) 32 c) 18 d) 8

8. The maximum number of electrons in L shell is

a) 2 b) 18 c) 8 d) 32

9. The number of valence electrons of Al27

is ______________

a) 13 b) 3 c) 8 d) 27

10. The element which has completed the octet structure is _______

a) K b) 20Ca c) 11Na d) 18Ar

11. The atomic number of element having the electronic configuration 1S2 2S

2 2P

1 is __________

a) 3 b) 4 c) 5 d) 10

12. N shell has _________ subshells

a) 1 b) 3 c) 2 d) 4


1. The shape of S - orbital is ________________

2. The shape of P – orbital is _________________

3. The shape of d – orbital is __________

4. The number of electrons present in an atom of atomic number 17 is ________

5. The number of protons present in an atom of atomic number 12 is _________

6. The electronic configuration of nitrogen is ___________

7. The electronic configuration of the noble gas nearest to the element scandium (21) is _______

8. The complete electronic configuration of iron (21Fe) is _____________

9. The direction of spin of two electrons present in a single orbital are __________

10. The maximum number of electrons in a shell is ____________

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11. The outer most shell can accommodate a maximum of _____________ electrons.

12. M shell has ___________ subshells.

13. The ____________ electrons play an important role in the formation of chemical bonds.

14. To describe the state of electrons completely _____________ are used.

15. L shell has ____________ subshell.


1. Name the four types of atomic orbitals

2. How many electrons can be accommodated by a) S b) d orbitals?

3. How many electrons a) p b) f orbitals can accommodate?

4. What is state of the electron?

5. Write the electronic configuration of Helium.

6. Write the electronic configuration of 11Na23

7. What is the atomic number of element having the electronic configuration [Ne] 3S23p

2

8. Write the complete electronic configuration of [Ar] 4 s1

9. How many valence electrons are there in 19K39

?

10. Write the number of protons, electrons and neutrons present in 29Cu64

?

11. What is Octet rule?


1. Draw the shapes of s and p orbitals.

2. Draw the shapes of d orbitals.

3. Name the four quantum numbers.

4. State Pauli’s exclusion principle.

5. State Hund’s rule.

6. State Aufbau Principle.

7. Write the maximum number of electrons that can occupy a) 3d shells b) 2s orbitals.

8. Write the maximum number of electrons that can occupy a) shell with n = 4 b) shell with n = 2

9. Write the electronic configuration if nitrogen and atom of nearest noble gas.

10. Write the electronic configuration of potassium (z=19) and the nearest noble gas.


1. What is meant by electronic configuration explain with an example.

2. Write the subshells of an atom which is being influenced by magnetic field.

3. Which quantum number helps us to calculate the maximum number of electron population in Bohr’s

energy levels K, L, M, N. Write the formula used with examples.

VI. Answer the following : 4m

1. Write the differences between orbits and orbitals.

2. Explain atomic orbitals with the necessary diagrams.

3. Write the electronic configuration of the following atoms.

a) Oxygen (z = 8)

b) Chlorine (z = 17)

c) Calcium (z = 20)

d) Iron (z = 26)

4. Draw the atomic model of 13Al27

. Write its electronic configuration and the number of valence

electrons.

Chemical Bond

I Choose the correct answer: 1m

1. A covalent bond is formed when

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a) Transfer of electrons take place b) Sharing of electrons take place c) Both sharing and transfer of

electrons takes place. d) Neither sharing nor transfer of electrons takes place.

2. Ionic bond is formed when

a) Transfer of electrons take place b) Sharing of electrons take place c) Both sharing and transfer of

electrons take place d) Neither Sharing nor transfer of electrons takes place

3. Which of the following compounds does not contain covalent bond?

a) CH4 b) MgCl2 c) SiCl4 d) NH3

4. Which of the following compounds does not contain covalent bond?

a) HCl b) CH4 c) NaCl d) H2O

5. Which of the following compounds contain covalent bond?

a) NaCl b) HCl c) MgCl2 d) CaCl2

6. In double covalent bond there is sharing of

a) One pair of electrons b) Two pair of electrons. c) 3 pair of electrons d) 4 pair of electrons

7. In triple covalent bond, there is sharing of

a) Two electrons b) Three electrons c) Four electrons d) Six electrons

8. In case of sodium chloride, the chemical bond is formed by

a) The transfer of valence electrons b) The sharing of electrons c) Exchange of electrons

d) both a and b

9. Which among the following is the electronegative atom?

a) H b) F c) Na d) Ca

10. In a nitrogen molecule, two nitrogen atoms combine by sharing

a) Two electrons b) Two pair of electrons c) Three electrons d) Three pair of electrons.

II. Fill in the blanks: 1m

1. Sodium atom has ______ valence electron.

2. Valency of Magnesium is __________.

3. Iron has valency _______ and _______.

4. Chemical bond is the equilibrium between attraction and __________.

5. Sodium atom has the tendency to ________ electron to get stable electronic configuration.

6. There are ______ electrons in the valence shell of chlorine atom.

7. Ionic compounds have ______ melting point and boiling point.

8. Ionic compounds are non-conductors of electricity in ________ state.

9. Covalent compounds are soluble in _______.

10. The molecular formula of methane is __________.

11. The two oxygen atoms in O2 are bonded through a ________.

12. The force of attraction present between two water molecules is called _________.

13. In metals, electrons of same energy level form number of ________.

14. Atoms other than _______ have less than 8 electrons in their valence shell.

III. Answer the following: 1Mark

1. Atoms are always electrically neutral. Why?

2. What are valence electrons?

3. What is Chemical bond?

4. What is octet configuration?

5. What is ionization?

6. What is an ion?

7. What is valency?

8. What is variable valency?

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9. What is covalent bond?

10. What is single covalent bond?

11. What is double covalent bond?

12. What is triple covalent bond?

13. What is homonuclearcovalent bond?

14. What is heteronucleus covalent bond?

15. What is oxidation?

16. What is reduction?

17. How is an anion formed?


1. Write Lewis’s electron dot formula of water.

2. What is hydrogen bond?

3. What is electron sea model?

4. What is the difference between cation and anion? Give example.

5. Ionic compounds have high melting point and boiling point. Give reason.

6. What is ionic bond?

7. How is ionic bond formed?

8. List the properties of ionic compounds.

9. Ionic compounds are good conductors of electricity in aquous solution state but non-conductors in

solid state. Give reason.

10. List the properties of covalent compounds.

11. What is redox reaction?


1. Explain how Zn + 2AgNO3 2Ag + Zn(NO3)2 Redox reaction.

2. Explain how Fe + CuSO4 FeSO4 + Cu redox reaction.

3. Explain the term metallic bonding.

4. Explain the formation of oxygen molecule O2.

5. Explain the formation of nitrogen molecule.


1. Write the differences between ionic compounds and covalent compounds.

2. Explain the bond formation in sodium chloride.

3. Describe hydrogen bonding in water.

RADIOTCTIVITY I. Choose the correct answer:

1. Who discovered radioactivity?

a) Rutherford b) Neil’s Bohr c) Einstein d) Henry

Becquorel

2. particle is nothing, but –

a) He+ ion b) He

- atom c) electron d) H

+Ion

3. -1e is nothing but

a) particle b) particle c) neutron d) positron

4. Smoke detectors require essentially

a) Aluminium – 27 b) actinium – 227 c) carbon – 14 d) amercicem -241

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5. An isotope with least half life period is

a) Thorium – 232 b) radium – 236 c) uranium – 238 d) polonium – 213

6. During decay there is

a) Change in atomic number of element

b) No change in atomic mass of the element

c) Both atomic number and atomic mass do not change

d) Both atomic number and mass number change

7. 200gms of a sample of Radioisotope has undergone decay process. The amount of sample left over

after III half life period is

a) 25 g b) 12-5g c)100g d) 50g

8. The equation 88Ra-226

86Rn222

+ 2He4 represent

a) decay b) - decay c) decay d) none of the

above

9. The equation 88Ra228

89Ac228

+ -1e represent

a) decay b) - decay c) decay d) none of the

above.

10. The radio isotope used in the treatment of cancer is

a) Sodium b) iridium c) cobalt d) uranium


1. The particle of the nucleus that undergoes change during beta decay is ______________

2. The lightest isotope is ___________

3. When 6C14

isotope undergoes - decay the resulting new element is ______________

4. One of the best radio isotopes used in the food irradiation is _________

5. Elements with atomic number greater than __________ are naturally radio active.

6. Half life of carbon – 14 is __________

7. The radio isotope used to study action of medicine is ____________

8. Radio phosphorous is used to estimate ____________

9. Uranium -235 is used to produce __________

10. Radio activity is also known as ____________


1. What is radio activity?

2. What are radioactive substance?

3. Name the three types of radiations emitted from radioactive substances.

4. What are gamma rays?

5. What is the half-life period of Radium?


1. What is half life period?

2. Radio activity is also known as radioactive decay give reason.

3. Name four natural radioactive elements.

4. What are radio isotopes?

5. How many grams of Bismuth – 210 will be left out when 100g of Bismuth undergoes decay for 20

days.

6. What is Radiation hazard?

7. Some dools, stickers etc glow indark after they are exposed to light. Why?

8. Arrange the following elements in increasing order of their half life – period uranium polonium,

Radon, Strontium-


1. Write the differences between the properties of , and radiations.

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2. Explain briefly the process of archeological dating.

3. What in -decay? Mention the change takes place during decay with an example.

4. What is - decay? Mention the change take place during beta decay with an example


1. Mention the special features of radioactivity.

2. Describe Ruther fords experiment to study radioactive radiations with neat labeled diagram.

Question Bank IX Biology - Claret School - Biology... · Answer the following: 1m ... 2. Which of...

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