Q.No Answer Explanation
74
General Questions: Q.No Answer Explanation 1 1 2 4 Inclusive teaching describes the range of approaches to teaching that consider the diverse needs and backgrounds of all students to create a learning environment where all students feel valued and where all students have equal access to learn. 3 4 ● The theory of multiple intelligences was developed in 1983 by Dr. Howard Gardner, professor of education at Harvard University. ● It suggests that the traditional notion of intelligence, based on I.Q. testing, is far too limited. ● Instead, Dr. Gardner proposes eight different intelligences to account for a broader range of human potential in children and adults. 4 2 or/and 3 5 1 or 4 6 7 1 Turnitin is a commercial, Internet-based plagiarism detection service which checks submitted documents against its database and the content of other websites with the aim of identifying plagiarism. 8 9 1
Transcript of Q.No Answer Explanation
General Questions:
Q.No Answer Explanation
1 1
2 4 Inclusive teaching describes the range of approaches to teaching that consider the diverse needs and backgrounds of all students to create a learning environment where all students feel valued and where all students have equal access to learn.
3 4 ● The theory of multiple intelligences was developed in 1983 by Dr. Howard Gardner, professor of education at Harvard University.
● It suggests that the traditional notion of intelligence, based on I.Q. testing, is far too limited.
● Instead, Dr. Gardner proposes eight different intelligences to account for a broader range of human potential in children and adults.
4 2 or/and
3
5 1 or 4
6
7 1 Turnitin is a commercial, Internet-based plagiarism detection service which checks submitted documents against its database and the content of other websites with the aim of identifying plagiarism.
8
9 1
10 3
11 1 Renaissance humanism stressed on a serious rethink on the nature of art that focuses on accurate details.
12 2 Michelangelo persisted in his work until his last days. This theory would emphasize that his artistic subject defied his physical infirmities.
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14 4 In recent times there have been attempts to diagnose famous artists with diseases that were not known during their time.
15 2 A group of surgeons are of the opinion that the great master was "afflicted by an illness involving his joints". Later he complained of his sore and stiff hands which the doctors would find to be natural for someone who was engaged in handmade art.
16 2 ● Group Discussion is essentially an interactive oral process. The group members need to listen to each other and use voice and gesture effectively,use clear language and persuasive style.
● Horizontal communication is the transmission of information between people, divisions, departments or units within the same level of organizational hierarchy
17 3 Let the price of the petrol is 100 It’s prices is increased by 25% then new price is 125. Let Percentage of decrease of consumption =x Then 125*X /100=25===>X=2500/125=20%
18 3
19 3 Interpersonal communication is the process by which people exchange information, feelings, and meaning through verbal and non-verbal message
20 1 Mass media are the means of public communication reaching to the large, scattered, heterogeneous and anonymous audience at the same time
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22 3
23 2
24 1 ● (3)=6+5+4+3+2+1=21
● (2)=4+3+2+1=10 ● (3)x(2)=21*10=210
25 2 Assume the initial sum is x, After six years, the amount becomes double which is 2x After 12 years, again the amount is double(compound interest), which is 4x After 18 years, again the amount is double(compound interest), which is 8x After 24 years,again the amount is double(compound interest), which is 16x
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27 1 Contrary is the relationship between two propositions when they cannot both be true. Thus, we can make an immediate inference that if one is true, the other must be false
28 2 ● A comparison between one thing and another, typically for the purpose of explanation or clarification.
● Teaching aids meants for classroom and ICT meant for production of knowledge
29 2 ● An oar puts a rowboat into motion.
● A foot puts a skateboard into motion. ● The answer is not choice (a), because running is not an object that is
put into motion by a foot. ● Sneaker (choice b) is incorrect because it is something worn on a
foot. ● Jumping (choice d) is incorrect because although you do need feet to
jump, jumping is not an object that is put into motion by means of a foot.
30 4 Given four proportional are 3x,4x,5x,7x. Four proportional are divided into 152. 3x+4x+5x+7x=152
19x=152⇒ x=8
The smallest proportional is 3x=3x8=24
31 1 The total sales of 40’’ inches T.V. in 2013 is 94 lacs The total sales of 40’’ inches T.V. in 2018 is 110 lacs
The difference is 110-94=16,00,000
32 2 The total sales of 40’’ inches T.V. in 2013 is 112lacs
The total sales of 32’’ inches T.V. in 2017 is 175 The percentage of increase in sales =(175-112)/112=56.25(which is equivalent to 56)
33 4 869 Lacs ,49” inches sold during seven years
34 4 ● 40” inches TV has minimum sales
35 3 ● 32’’ inches TV has maximum sales
36 4 An algal bloom or algae bloom is a rapid increase or accumulation in the population of algae in freshwater or marine water systems, and is recognized
by the discoloration in the water from their pigments
37 May be Option
1
● The Sargent Scheme, formally known as the Report of the Sargent Commission on Post-War Education Development in India, was a 1944 memorandum prepared at the behest of the British-run Government of India that outlined the future development of literacy and education in India.
● The commission was mainly constructed with the express motto “to enquire into the condition and prospects of the university of Calcutta and to consider the question of a constructive policy in relation to the question it presents”.
38 3 ● Extremely Severe Cyclonic Storm Hudhud was a strong tropical cyclone that caused extensive damage and loss of life in eastern India and Nepal during October 2014.
● Very Severe Cyclonic Storm Ockhi was a strong tropical cyclone that devastated parts of Sri Lanka and India in 2017, and was the most intense tropical cyclone in the Arabian Sea since Cyclone Megh in 2015
● Severe Cyclonic Storm Gaja was the sixth named cyclone of the 2018 North Indian Ocean cyclone season, after Cyclones Sagar, Mekunu, Daye, Luban, and Titli.
39 3 Read-only memory is a type of non-volatile memory used in computers and other electronic devices.
40 3 The courses hosted on SWAYAM are in 4 quadrants – (1) video lecture, (2) specially prepared reading material that can be downloaded/printed (3) self-assessment tests through tests and quizzes and (4) an online discussion forum for clearing the doubts
41 1 ● Methemoglobinemia is a condition caused by elevated levels of methemoglobin in the blood.
● Methemoglobin is a form of hemoglobin that contains the ferric [Fe3+] form of iron
● Ingestion of compounds containing nitrates (such as the patina chemical bismuth nitrate) can also cause methemoglobinemia.
42 2 ● Association of Indian Universities (AIU) is an organisation and association of major universities in India.
● It evaluates the courses, syllabi, standards, and credits of foreign Universities pursued abroad and equates them in relation to various courses offered by Indian Universities.
43 3 An operating system (OS) is system software that manages computer hardware and software resources and provides common services for
computer programs.
44 4 ● In the stratosphere, ozone molecules play an important role - absorbing ultraviolet radiation from the Sun and shielding Earth from dangerous rays.
● But in the troposphere, near ground-level, ozone molecules are both air pollutants, threatening the health of living things, and greenhouse gases, trapping heat and contributing to climate change.
● A small amount of ozone does occur naturally at ground level
45 1 A massive open online course (MOOC) is an online course aimed at unlimited participation and open access via the web
46 3 The National Education Commission (1964-1966), popularly known as Kothari Commission, was an ad hoc commission set up by the Government of India to examine all aspects of the educational sector in India, to evolve a
general pattern of education and to advise guidelines and policies for the development of education in India
47 1 Bluetooth is a wireless technology standard for exchanging data between fixed and mobile devices over short distances using short-wavelength UHF radio waves in the industrial, scientific and medical radio bands, from 2.400
to 2.485 GHz, and building personal area networks (PANs).
48 4 A logic bomb is a piece of code intentionally inserted into a software system that will set off a malicious function when specified conditions are met.
49 1
50 4
Computer Science Questions:
Q1: How many are there to place 8 indistinguishable balls into four distinguishable bins?
1) 70 2) 165 3) 8C4 4) 8P4T
Solution:2
Explanation:
This is precisely the problem we saw to solve the r-combination with repetition:
= C(8+4-1,8)
= 11C8
= 11! / (8!(11-8)!)
= 165
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Q2:
Solution:4
Explanation:
Waterfall model→ Automate the manual system for student record maintenance in a school
Incremental development→ e-business that starts with only the basic functionality and then
moves on to more advanced features.
Prototyping→ A virtual reality system for simulating vehicle navigation in a highway.
RAD→ An inventory control system for a supermarket to be developed in a highway
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Q3. A computer has six tapes drives with n processes competing for them. Each process may need two drives. What is the maximum value of n for the system to be deadlock free?
A) 5 B) 4 C) 3 D) 6
Solution:A
Explanation:
Each process needs 2 drives. So for deadlock just give each process one drive. So total 6 process can be given 1 drive each and can cause deadlock. So to break deadlock just reduce 1 process.
So maximum no. of process for the system to be deadlock free is 5.
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Q4: In the context of 3D computer graphics, which of the following statements is/are TRUE?
P: Orthographics transformations keep parallel lines parallel
Q: Orthographic transformations are affine transformations
Select the correct answer from the options given below:
1) Both P and Q
2) Neither P and Q
3) Only P
4) Only Q
Solution: 1
Explanation:
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Q5:Which of the following statements are DMl statements?
(a) Update [tablename]
Set [ columnname] = VALUE
(b) Delete [tablename]
(c) Select * from [tablename]
1) (a) and (b) 2) (a) and (d) 3) (a), (b) and (c) 4) (b) and (c)
Solution:3
Explanation:
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Q6: What percentage(%) of the IPv4, IP address space do all class C addresses consume?
1) 12.5% 2) 25% 3) 37.5% 4) 50%
Solution:1
Explanation:
Total possible IP numbers numbers of all classes 0 to 255.
Class-A: 0 to 127. It means 50%
Class-B: 128 to 191. It means 25%
Class-C: 192 to 223. It means 12.5 %
Class-D: 224 to 239. It means 6.25%
Class-E: 240 to 255. It means 6.25%
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Q7: Which of the following key constraints is required for functioning of foreign key in the context of relational database?
1) Unique key 2) Primary key 3) candidate key 4) Check key
Solution: 2
Explanations: Foreign key is a key whose values depends on the primary key of a relation. So for the functioning of a foreign key in the context of relational database we need a primary key.
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Q8: Software Reuse is
1) The process of analysing software with the objective of recovering its design and specification
2) The process of existing software artifacts and knowledge to build new software
3) Concerned with reimplementing legacy system to make them more maintainable
4) The process of analysing software to create a representation of a higher level of abstraction and breaking software down into its parts to see how it works
Solution: 2
Explanation: Software Reuse is the process of existing software artifacts and knowledge to build new software.
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Q9. Which of the following is principal conjunctive normal form for [(pVq) ∧ ~p → ~q]?
1) pV~q 2) pVq 3) ~p Vq 4) ~p V ~q
Solution: 1
Explanation:
P Q ~P ~Q P V Q (P V Q) ⋀ ~P
(P V Q) ⋀ ~P → ~Q
P V ~ Q (Option-A)
T T F F T F T T
T F F T T F T T
F T T F T T F F
F F T T F F T T ____________________________________________________________________________
Q10.
Solution:4
Explanation:
p q ~p ~q p→ q ~pvq pVq ~p → q
T T F F T T T T
T F F T F F T T
F T T F T T T T
F F T T T T F F ____________________________________________________________________________
Q11. Consider the following methods:
M1 : mean of maximum
M2: Centre of area
M3 : Height method
Which of the following is/are defuzzification method(s)?
1) Only M1 2) Only M1 and M2 3) Only M2 and M3 4) M1, M2 and M3
Solution: 4
Explanation:
Defuzzification Methods:
Following defuzzification methods are known to calculate crisp output
→ Maxima Methods
1. Height method 2. First of maxima (FoM) 3. Last of maxima (LoM) 4. Mean of maxima(MoM)
→ Centroid methods:
1. Center of gravity method (CoG) 2. Center of sum method (CoS) 3. Center of area method (CoA)
→ Weighted average method
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Q12: Replacing the expression 4*2.14 by 8.56 is known as
1) Constant folding 2) Induction variable 3) Strength reduction 4) Code reduction
Solution: 1
Explanation:
Take variable i=4*2.14
We are simply folding the value into 8.56 because to avoid multiplication costly operation. ___________________________________________________________________________
Q13: A fuzzy conjunction operator denoted as t(x,y) and fuzzy disjunction operator denoted as s(x,Y) form dual pair if they satisfy the condition:
1) t(x,y)= 1-s(x,y) 2) t(x,y)=s(1-x,1-y) 3) t(x,y)=1-s(1-x,1-y) 4) t(x,y)=s(1+x,1+y)
Solutions: 3
Explanation:
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Q14: Which data structure is used by the compiler for managing variables and their attributes?
1) Binary tree 2) link list 3) Symbol table 4) Parse table
Solution: 3
Explanation:
Symbol tables are data structures that are used by compilers to hold information about source-program constructs. The information is collected incrementally by the analysis phases of a compiler and used by the synthesis phases to generate the target code. Entries in the symbol table contains information about an identifier such as its character string (or lexeme) , its type, its position in storage, and any other relevant information. ______________________________________________________
Q15. Which type of addressing mode, less number of memory references are required?
1) Immediate 2) Implied
3) register 4) indexed
Solution: Option(1)
Explanation: Since in Immediate addressing mode data is given in the instruction itself so we don’t need to access any memory location to get the data. Hence in Immediate addressing mode we need less number of memory reference.
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Q16. How many different Boolean functions of degree n are there?
1) 22^n 2) (22)2 3) 22^n -1 4) 2n
Solution:1
Explanation:
There are 2n different n-tuples of 0s and 1s.
A Boolean function is an assignment of 0 or 1 to each of these 2n different n-tuples.
Therefore, there are 22^n different Boolean functions.
Example: How many different Boolean functions of degree 4 are there?
Solution: 16
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Q17: Consider the equation (146)b + (313)b-2 = (246)8. Which of the following is the value of b?
1) 8 2) 7 3) 10 4) 16
Solution: B
Explanation:
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Q18:
1) (a)-(i); (b)-(ii); (c)-(iii); (d)-(iv)
2) (a)-(iii); (b)-(i); (c)-(iv); (d)-(ii)
3) (a)-(ii); (b)-(i); (c)-(iv); (d)-(iii)
4) (a)-(ii); (b)-(iv); (c)-(iii);(d)-(i)
Solution:2
Explanation:
Disk--> File system
CPU → Thread
memory → Virtual address space
Interrupt → Signal
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Q19: The value of the derivative of the sigmoid function given by
f(x)= 1 / (1+e(-2x))
at x=0 is
A) 0 B) ½ C) ¼ D) ∞
Solution:
Explanation:
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Q20: In the TCP/IP model, encryption and decryption are functions of ____ layer
1) data link 2) network 3) Transport 4) Application
Solution:4
Explanation:
encryption and decryption are functions of presentation layer in the OSI reference model.
Here, they were given TCP/IP model. It combines Session, presentation and Application layers into Application layer.
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Q21: Suppose that a connected planar graph has six vertices, each of degrees four. Into how many regions is the plane divided by a planar representation of this graph?
1) 6 2) 8 3) 12 4) 20
Solution: 2
Explanation:
We apply Euler’s formula where r = e−v + 2.
Since each vertex has degree 4, the sum of the degrees is 24.
By the handshaking theorem, 2e = 24 .
so, e = 12.
r = 12−6 + 2
r = 8
Thus we have 8 regions in this planar graph.
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Q22: Consider a disk system with 100 cylinders. The requests to access the cylinders occur in the following sequence:
4,34,10,7,19,73,2,15,6,20
Assuming that the head is current at cylinder 50, what is the time taken to satisfy all requests if it takes 1ms to move from the cylinder to adjacent one and the shortest seek time first policy is used?
1) 357 ms 2) 238 ms 3) 276 ms 4) 119 ms
Solution: D
Explanation:
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Q23: Which of the following problems is/are decidable problem(s) (recursively enumerable) on a Turing machine M?
(a) G is a CFG with L(G)=∅
(b) There exist two TMs M1 and M2 such that L(M) ⊆{L(M1)U L(M2)}= language of all TMs
(c) M is a TM that accepts w using a most 2|w| cells of tape
1) (a) and (b) only 2) (a) only 3) (a), (b) and (c) 4) (c) only
Solution: Option(2)
Explanation:
(a): L(G)=∅ is a emptiness problem and emptiness problem for context free languages is
decidable.
(b): equality and subset problem for recursively enumerable language is undecidable. Language L is recursively enumerable because we are having a Turing machine for L but we don’t know whether it will halt on all inputs or not.
(c): Acceptance problem of Turing machine is undecidable.
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Q24:
1) 3 2) 12 3) 6 4) 24
Solution:
Explanation:
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Q25: Consider double hashing of the form
h(k,i)=(h1(k)+ih2(k)) mod m
Where h1(k)=k mod m
h2(k)=1+(k mod n)
Where n=m-1and m=701
for k=123456, what is the difference between first and second probes in terms of slots?
1) 255
2) 256 3) 257 4) 258
Solution: 3
Explanation:
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Q26: At a particular time of computation, the value of a counting semaphore is 7. Then 20 P(wait) operations and 15 V(signal) operations are completed on this semaphore. What is the resulting value of the semaphore?
A) 28 B) 12 C) 2 D) 42
Solution: C
Explanation:
In counting semaphore, Wait operations will decrease the value and signal operations will increase the value.
Initially counting semaphore value is 7.
20 P(wait) operations= -20
15 V(Signal) operation= +15
= 7-20+15
= 2
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Q27. Software validation mainly checks for inconsistencies between
1) Use cases and user requirements 2) Implementation and system design blueprints 3) Detailed specifications and user requirements 4) Function specifications and use cases
Solution:C
Explanation:
Software validation checks that the software product satisfies or fits the intended use (high-level checking), i.e., the software meets the user requirements, not as specification artifacts or as needs of those who will operate the software only; but, as the needs of all stakeholders (such as users, operators, administrators, managers, investors, etc.). There are two ways to perform software validation: internal and external. During internal software validation, it is assumed that the goals of the stakeholders were correctly understood and that they were expressed in the requirement artifacts precisely and comprehensively. If the software meets the requirement specification, it has been internally validated. External validation happens when it is performed by asking the stakeholders if the software meets their needs. Different software development
methodologies call for different levels of user and stakeholder involvement and feedback; so, external validation can be a discrete or a continuous event.
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Q28: Consider the poset ({3,5,9,15,24,45},|).
Which of the following is correct for the given poset?
Solution:4
Explanation:
Hasse diagram:
There is no greatest element because this element would have to be a number that all other elements divide. Since our maximal elements are 24 and 45, and they do not divide each other, we do not have a greatest element.
There is no least element because this element would be a number that can divide all other elements. Since our minimal elements are 3 and 5, and they do not divide each other, we do not have a least element.
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Q29. Shift-reduce parser consists of
(a) input buffer
(b) stack
(c) parse table
choose the correct option from those given below:
1) (a) and (b) only
2) (a) and (c) only 3) (c) only 4) (a), (b) and (c)
Solution:4
Explanation:
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Q30. For a statement
A language L ⊆ Σ* is recursive if there exists some Turing machine M
Which of the following conditions is satisfied for any string w?
1) If w ϵ L, then m accepts w and M will not that 2) If w ∉ L, then M accepts w and M will halt by reaching at final state
3) If w ∉ L, then M halts without reaching to acceptable state 4) If w ϵ L, then M halts without reaching to an acceptable state
Solution:
Explanation:
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Q31: K-mean clustering algorithm has clustered the given 8 observations into 3 clusters after 1st iteration as follows:
C1 : {(3,3), (5,5), (7,7)}
C2 : {(0,6), (6,0), (3,0)}
C3 : {(8,8),(4,4)}
What will be the Manhattan distance for observation (4,4) from cluster centroid C1 in second iteration?
1) 2 2) √2 3) 0 4) 18
Solution:
Explanation:
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Q32: What is the output of the following JAVA program?
public class Good{
Private int m;
Public Good(int m){this.m=m;}
public Boolean equals(Good n){return n.m=m;}
public static void main(String args [ ]){
Good m1=new Good(22);
Good m2=new Good(22);
Object S1=new Good(22);
Object S2=new good(22);
System.out.println(m1.equals(m2));
System.out.println(m1.equals(s2));
System.out.println(m1.equals(s2));
System.out.println(s1.equals(m2));
}
}
1) True, True, False, False 2) True, false, True, false 3) True, True, False, True 4) true, False, False, False
Solution: 4
Explanation:
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Q33: In relational database, if a relation R is in BCNF, then which of the following is true about relation R?
1) R is in 4NF 2) R is not in 1NF 3) R is in 2Nf and not in 3NF 4) R is in 2NF and 3NF
Solution:4
Explanation: If a relation R is in BCNF then R will be in 1NF, 2NF and 3NF. Since the requirement of a BCNF relation is that the left hand side of each functional dependency should be a super key because of this, neither there will be a partial dependency in relation R nor there will be transitive dependency.
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Q34.
1) 1 2) 2 3) 3 4) 4
Solution:
Explanation:
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Q35: In relational database management, which of the following is/are property/properties of candidate key?
P:Uniqueness
Q: Irreducibility
1) P only 2) Q only 3) Both P and Q 4) Neither P nor Q
Solution:3
Explanation:
Definition: Let K be a subset of the heading of relvar R. Then K is a candidate key (or just key for short) for R if and only if it possesses both of the following properties:
Uniqueness: No valid value for R contains two distinct tuples with the same value for K.
Irreducibility: No proper subset of K has the uniqueness property.
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Q36: Consider three intensive processes, which requires 10,20 and 30 units of time and arrive at times 0,2 and 6 respectively. how many context switches are needed if the operating system implements a shortest remaining time first scheduling algorithm? Do not count the context switches at time zero ad at the end
1) 4 2) 2 3) 3 4) 1
Solution:2
Explanation:
Total no.of context switches is 2.
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Q37: Reinforcement learning can be formalized terms of ___ in which the agent initially only knows the set of possible ___ and the set of possible actions
1) Markov decision processes, objects 2) Hidden states, objects 3) Markov decision processes, states 4) Objects, states
Solution:3
Explanation:
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Q38. Which of the following statements is/are true?
P: In a scripting language like javaScript, types are typically associated with values, not variables.
Q: It is not possible to show images on a web page without the <img> tag of HTML
Select the correct answer from the given below:
1) P only 2) Q only 3) Both P and Q 4) neither P nor Q
Solution: 3)
Explanation:
P : True. Variables are typically not declared in scripting language is, so there is no opportunity to assign them a type.
Q: For inserting an image in to a web page <img> is necessary.
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Q39.
1) (a)-(ii); (b)-(iv); (c)-(i); (d)-(iii) 2) (a)-(iii); (b)-(iv); (c)-(i); (d)-(ii) 3) (a)-(ii); (b)-(i); (c)-(iv); (d)-(iii) 4) (a)-(iii); (b)-(i) (c)-(iv); (d)-(ii)
Solution:B
Explanation:
Prim’s algorithm→ O(ElgV)
Dijsktra’s algorithm → O(v2)
Faster all-pair shortest path→ O(V3logV)
Edmonds-karp algorithm → O(VE2)
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Q40: How many address lines and data lines are required to provide a memory capacity of 16K x 16?
1) 10,4 2) 16,16 3) 14,16 4) 4,16
Solution: Option (3)
Explanation: 16K x 16 means we have 214 address lines and 16 data lines.
In order to provide 214 address lines we need 14 address lines and in order to provide 16 data lines we need 16 data lines.
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Q41: Consider the following steps:
S1: Characterize the structure of an optimal solution
S2 : Computer the value of an optimal solution in bottom-up fashion
Which of the step(s) is/are common to both dynamic programming and greedy algorithms?
1) Only S1 2) Only S2 3) both S1 and S2 4) neither S1 nor S2
Solution:2
Explanation:
Dynamic Programming will satisfy both properties but greedy is not following both properties.
Greedy algorithm Dynamic Programming
1) It will always run polynomial time 1) It will run either polynomial or exponential time
2) It is not optimal 2) It will always gives optimal result
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Q42: Hadoop(a big data tool) works with number of related tools. Choose from the following, the common tools included into Hadoop:
1) MySQl, Google API and Map reduce 2) Map reduce, Scala and hummer 3) Map reduce, H base and Hive 4) Map reduce, hummer and Heron
Solution:
Explanation:
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Q43:
1) (a)-(ii); (b)-(i); (c)-(iii) 2) (a)-(ii); (b)-(iii); (c)-(i) 3) (a)-(iii); (b)-(i); (c)-(ii) 4) (a)-(i); (b)-(ii); (c)-(iii)
Solution: 2
Explanation:
(a): L3 is a recursive language and we know that recursive languages are closed under complement operation. And union of recursive language and recursively enumerable language is recursively enumerable.
Hence (a) matches with (ii).
(b): Context free language are not closed under complement operation. So consider L2 as recursive language because context free languages are also recursive language so we can say that L2 is recursive language and we know that recursive languages are closed under complement operation.
Now union of ~L2 and L3 will result in recursive language because both ~L2 and L3 are recursive language and recursive languages are closed under union operation.
Hence (b) matches with (iii)
(c): L1 is regular language and regular languages are closed under kleene closure operation. Hence L1* is a regular language. And intersection of L1and L2 results into a regular language.
But, since all regular languages are context free language then we can say that intersection of L1and L2 results into a context free language.
Hence (c) matches with (i).
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Q43: A fully connected network topology is a topology in which there is a direct link between all pairs of nodes. Given a fully connected network with n nodes, the number of direct links as a function of n can be expressed as
1) n(n+1)/2 2) (n+1)/2 3) n/2 4) n(n-1)/2
Solution:4
Explanation: In a fully connected network, if there are n nodes in network then each node will be connected with remaining (n-1) nodes. So this way the total number of links will be n(n-1). And since for communication between any two nodes we don’t need two links, they can
communicate using a single link between them so the same way we need [n(n-1)]/2 links in a fully connected network.
Ex: Take n=5
Method-1: n(n-1)/2
= 5(5-1)/2
= 20/2
= 10
Method-2: below we are having a fully connected network of 5 nodes. And in this network number of links is 10 and [n(n-1)]/2 is the only equation calculating correctly the number of links in a fully connected network.
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Q45: Suppose that the register A and register K have the bit configuration. Only the three leftmost bits of A are compared with memory words because K has 1's in these positions. Because of its organization, this type of memory is uniquely suited to parallel seches by data association. This type of memory is known as
A) RAM B) ROM C) Content addressable memory D) Secondary memory
Solution:C
Explanation:
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Q46: What will be the number of states when a MOD-2 counter is followed by a MOD-5 counter?
1) 5 2) 10 3) 15 4) 20
Solution:2
Explanation:
Here, we are multiplying the mod values.
Given mod values are 2 and 5
= 2*5
= 10
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Q47:
1) 1 2) 2 3) 3 4) 4
Solution:
Explanation:
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Q48: In the context of software testing, which of the following statements is/are NOT correct?
P: A minimal test set that achieves 100% path coverage will also achieve 100% statement coverage.
Q: A minimal test set that achieves 100% path coverage will generally detect more faults than one that achieves 100% statement coverage
R: A minimal test set that achieves 100% statement coverage will generally detect more faults than one that achieves 100% branch coverage
1) R only 2) Q only 3) P and Q only 4) Q and R only
Solution:1
Explanation:
A minimal test set that achieves 100% statement coverage will generally detect more faults than one that achieves 100% branch coverage
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Q49:
1) 1 2) 2
3) 3 4) 4
Solution: 2
Explanation:
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Q50: Consider the following:
(a) Evolution
(b) Selection
(c) reproduction
(d) Mutation
Which of the following are found in genetic algorithms?
1) (b),(c) and (d) only 2) (b) and (d) only 3) (a),(b),(c) and (d) 4) (a),(b) and (d) only
Solution: 2
Explanation:
Five phases are considered in a genetic algorithm.
1. Initial population 2. Fitness function 3. Selection 4. Crossover 5. Mutation
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Q51: Which of the following statements is/are true with regard to various layers in the Internet stack?
P: At the link layer, a packet of transmitted information is called a frame
Q: At the network layer, a packet of transmitted information is called a segment
1) P only 2) Q only 3) P and Q 4) Neither P nor Q
Solution:1
Explanation:
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Q52:
1) (1,1) 2) (3,2) 3) (1,2) 4) (4,4)
Solution:
Explanation:
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Q53:
1) 1 2) 2 3) 3 4) 4
Solution:
Explanation:
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Q54: A web application and its support environment has not been fully fortified against attack. Web engineers estimate that the likelihood of repelihood an attack is only 30 percent. The application does not contain sensitive or controversial information, so the threat probability is 25 percent. What is the integrity of the web application?
1) 0.625 2) 0.725 3) 0.775 4) 0.825
Solution: 4
Explanation:
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Q55: Which of the following terms best describes Git?
1) Issue Tracking System 2) Integrated Development Environment 3) Distributed Version Control System 4) Web-Based Repository Hosting Service
Solution:3
Explanation:
Git is a distributed version control system for tracking changes in source code during software development.[8] It is designed for coordinating work among programmers, but it can be used to track changes in any set of files. Its goals include speed, data integrity, and support for distributed, non-linear workflows.
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Q56: how can the decision algorithm be constructed for deciding whether context-free language L is finite?
(a) By Constructing redundant CFG in CNF generating language L
(b) By constructing non-redundant CFG G in CNF generating language L
(c) By constructing non-redundant CFG in CNF generating language L-{∧} (∧ stands for null}
Which of the following is correct?
1) (a) only 2) (b) only 3) (c) only 4) None of(a),(b) and (c)
Solution:
Explanation:
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Q57: For which values of m and n does the complete bipartite graph km,n have a Hamilton circuit?
1) m≠n, m, n≥2
2) m≠n, m, n≥3
3) m=n, m, n≥2
4) m=2, m, n≥3
Solution:C
Explanation:
let G=(A|B,E) be a bipartite graph. Let G be Hamiltanion.
Then |A|=|B|
That is, there is the same number of vertices in A as there are in B.
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Q58: What is the name of the protocol that allows a client to send a broadcast message with its MAC address and receive an IP address in reply?
1) ARP 2) DNS 3) RARP 4) ICMP
Solution:3
Explanation:
ARP maps 32-bit logical (IP) address to 48-bit physical address.
RARP maps 48-bit physical address to 32-bit logical (IP) address.
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Q59: The RSA encryption algorithm also works in reverse, that is, you can encrypt a message with the private key and decrypt it using the public key. This property is used in
1) Intrusion detection systems 2) Digital signatures 3) Data Compression 4) Certification
Solution:2
Explanation:In digital signature the message is encrypted using the sender's private key and decrypted by the receiver using the sender's public key.
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Q60: Which of the following features is supported in the relational database model?
1) Complex data-types 2) Multivalued attributes 3) Association with multiplicities 4) Generalization relationship
Solution: 2
Explanation:
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Q61: Which of the following statements is/are TRUE?
P: In software engineering, defects that are discovered earlier are more expensive to fix
Q: A software design is said to be a good design, if the components are strongly cohesive and weakly coupled
Select the correct answer from the options given below:
1) P only 2) Q only 3) P and Q 4) Neither P nor Q
Solution:2
Explanation:
Statement-1: Earlier the defect is found lesser is the cost of defect. For example if error is found in the requirement specifications during requirements gathering and analysis, then it is somewhat cheap to fix it. The correction to the requirement specification can be done and then it can be re-issued.
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Q62: For a magnetic disk with concentric circular tracks, the seek latency is not linearly proportional to the seek distance due to
1) Non-Uniform distribution of requests 2) arm starting or stopping inertia 3) higher capacity of tracks on the periphery of the plate 4) use of unfair arm scheduling policies
Solution: Option(2)
Explanation: For a magnetic disk with concentric circular tracks, the seek latency is not linearly proportional to the seek distance due to arm starting or stopping inertia.
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Q63: How many states are there in a minimum state automata equivalent to regular expression given below?
regular expression is a*b(a+b)
1) 1 2) 2 3) 3 4) 4
Solution: 4
Explanation:
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Q64: How many bit strings of length ten either start with a 1 bit or end with two bits 00?
1) 320 2) 480 3) 640 4) 768
Solution:3
Explanation:
→ Number of bit strings of length 10 that start with 1: 29 = 512.
→ Number of bit strings of length 10 that end with 00: 28 = 256
→ Number of bit strings of length 10 that start with 1 and end with 00: 27 = 128
→ Applying the subtraction rule, the number is 512+256-128 = 640
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Q65: Consider that a process has been allocated 3 frames and has a sequence of page referencing 1,2,1,3,7,4,5,6,3,1
What shall be the difference i page faults for the above string using the algorithm of LRU and Optimal page replacement for referencing the string?
1) 2 2) 0 3) 1 4) 3
Solution:3
Explanation:
LRU:
1,2,1,3,7,4,5,6,3,1
1 1 1 7 7 7 6 6 6
2 2 2 4 4 4 3 3
3 3 3 5 5 5 1
Optimal:
1 1 1 7 7 5 5 1
2 2 2 4 4 6 6
3 3 3 3 3 3
LRU=9 page faults and
Optimal = 8 page faults
Difference =1
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Q66: Software products need are adaptive maintenance for which of the following reasons?
1) To rectify bugs observed while the system is in use. 2) When the customers need the product to run on new platforms 3) To support the new features that users want it to support 4) To overcome wear and tear caused by the repeated use of the software.
Solution:C
Explanation:
Maintenance: Maintenance can be referred as a process of enhancement in the software product according to the changing requirements of users.
4 types of maintenance:
1. Adaptive – modifying the system to cope with changes in the software environment (DBMS, OS).
2. Perfective – implementing new or changed user requirements which concern functional enhancements to the software
3. Corrective – diagnosing and fixing errors, possibly ones found by users.
4. Preventive – increasing software maintainability or reliability to prevent problems in the future.
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Q67.
1) 1 2) 2 3) 3 4) 4
Solution:4
Explanation:
& operator does the binary and operation of both value and 1
when b += n & 1 is given
n and 1, both will be converted to binary and binary & operation is calculated
any number & 000000001
it will only compare the last bit of both numbers, if both right most bit is 1 then the value is incremented by
1 and the number n is right shifted that means it loses the value of right most bit and again new right most bit is binary anded with 1.
So the value is nothing but the number of 1's of the binary format of number.
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Q68: The fault can be easily diagnosed in the microprogram control unit using diagnostic tools by maintaining the contents of
1) Flags and Counters 2) Registers and counters 3) Flags and registers 4) Flags, registers and counters
Solution:4
Explanation:
The fault can be easily diagnosed in the microprogram control unit using diagnostics tools by maintaining the contents of flags, registers and counters.
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Q69. The minimum number of page frames that must be allocated to a running process in a virtual memory environment is determined by
1) Page size
2) Physical size of memory 3) The instruction set architecture 4) Number of processes in memory
Solution:3
Explanation:
→ Based on Instruction Set Architecture each process can be need minimum no. of pages.
→ An ISA permits multiple implementations that may vary in performance, physical size and
monetary cost.
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Q70. A processor can support a maximum memory of 4 GB where memory is word addressable and a word is 2 bytes. What will be the size of the address bus of the processor?
1) At least 28 bits 2) At least 2 bytes 3) At least 31 bits 4) Minimum 4 bytes
Solution:3
Explanation:
Maximum Memory = 4GB = 232 bytes
Size of a word = 2 bytes
Therefore, Number of words = 232 / 2 = 231
So, we require 31 bits for the address bus of the processor.
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Q71.
1) 1 2) 2 3) 3 4) 4
Solution: 4
Explanation:
A* is an informed search algorithm, or a best-first search, it aims to find a path to the given goal node having the smallest cost. A* selects the path that minimizes
f(n)=g(n)+h(n)
where n is the next node on the path, g(n) is the cost of the path from the start node to n, and h(n) is a heuristic function that estimates the cost of the cheapest path from n to the goal.
Greedy Best First Search tries to expand the node that is closest to the goal, on the grounds that this is likely to lead to a solution quickly. Thus, it evaluates nodes by using just the heuristic function
f(n) = h(n).
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Q72: Which of the following are the primary objectives of risk monitoring in software project tracking?
P: To assess whether predicted risks do, in fact, occur
Q: To ensure that risk aversion steps defined for the risk are being properly applied
R: To collect information that can be used for future risk analysis
1) Only P and Q 2) Only P and R 3) Only Q and R 4) All the P,Q,R
Solution:4
Explanation:
Risk monitoring is a project tracking activity with three primary objectives:
(1) to assess whether predicted risks occur.
(2) to ensure that risk aversion steps defined for the risk are being properly applied; and
(3) to collect information that can be used for future risk analysis.
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Q73:
1) Only S1 2) Only S2 3) Both S1 and S2 4) neither S1 nor S2
Solution:
Explanation:
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Q74: On translating the expression given below into quadruple representation, how many operations are required?
(i*j)+(e+f)*(a*b+c)
1) 5 2) 6 3) 3 4) 7
Solution: 2
Explanation:
T1 = (i*j)
T2=(e+f)
T3=(a*b)
T4= (T3+c)
T5=T2 * T4
T6=T1 + T5
Hence 6 operations are required.
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Q75:
1) Both S1 and S2 are true 2) Only S1 is true 3) Only S2 is true 4) Both S1 and S2 are false
Solution:
Explanation:
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Q76. Which of the following UNIX/Linux pipes will count the number of lines in all the files having .c and .h as their extension in the current working directory?
1) cat *.ch | wc -l 2) cat *.[c-h] | wc -l 3) cat *.[ch] | ls -l 4) cat *.[ch]|wc -l
Solution:
Explanation:
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Q77: The parallel bus arbitration technique uses an external priority encoder and a decoder. Suppose, a parallel arbiter has 5 bus arbiters. What will be the size of priority encoder and decoder respectively?
1) 4x2, 2x4 2) 2x4, 4x2 3) 3x8, 8x3 4) 8x3, 3x8
Solution:4
Explanation: Since, a parallel arbiter has 5 bus arbiters so number of bits required to provide 5 bus arbiters are 3-bits(because 23 = 8).
As we know that encoder is a combinational circuit containing 2n input lines and output lines i.e. 2n x n encoder. And here n= 3 bits. So size of encoder is 8x3.
Similarly decoder is a combinational circuit containing n - input lines and 2n output lines i.e. n x 2n decoder. So size of decoder is 3x8.
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Q78: Which of the following is best running time to sort n integers in the range 0 to n2-1?
1) O(log n) 2) O(n) 3) O(n log n) 4) O(n2)
Solution: 2
Explanation:
Using merge, heap sort will get O(nlogn)
But using radix sort will get in linear time only. O(n)
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Q79:
1) (30,35) only 2) (30,35) and (35,20) only 3) (35,20) only 4) (40,45) and (25,40) only
Solution: 2
Explanation: If (20, 40) is deleted then the entry in manager_id containing 20 value will violate the referential integrity constraint so entry (35,20) is deleted because of deletion of (20,40).
Similarly entry (30,35) is deleted because of the deletion of entry (35,20).
After deletion of entry (30,35) referential integrity is maintained in given relation so no further deletion are made.
Hence correct option is option(2).
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Q80: Which of the following is an application of depth-first search?
1) Only topological sort 2) Only strongly connected components 3) Both topological sort and strongly connected components 4) Neither topological sort not strongly connected components
Solution: 3
Explanation:
Both topological sort and strongly connected components are applications of DFS.
Topological sort time complexity is O(V+E)
Strongly connected components time complexity is O(V+E)
DFS time complexity is O(V+E)
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Q81: Consider the following grammar:
S→ XY
X→ YaY | a and y → bbX
Which of the following statements is/are true about the above grammar?
(a) Strings produced by the grammar can have consecutive three a's
(b) Every string produced by the grammar have alternate a and b
(c) Every string produced by the grammar have at least two a's
(d) Every string produced by the grammar have b's in multiple of 2.
1) (a) only 2) (b) and (c) only 3) (d) only 4) (c) and (d) only
Solution: Option(4)
Explanation: L= { abba, bbaabbabba,.........................}
Statement (a) is not correct because the grammar can generate two consecutive a’s but not three consecutive a’s.
Statement (b) is not correct because the grammar can generate two b’s together it means that there is no alteration of “a” and “b”.
Statement (c) is correct because every string produced by the grammar have at least two a's.
Statement (d) is correct because every string produced by the grammar have b's in multiple of 2.
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Q82: Consider a raster system with resolution 640 by 480. What size is frame buffer (in bytes) for this system to store 12 bits per pixel?
1) 450 kilobytes 2) 500 Kilobytes 3) 350 kilobytes 4) 400 kilobytes
Solution: 1
Explanation:
8 bits = 1 byte.
A frame-buffer size of the systems are as follows:
= (640 x 480 x 12) bits / 8
= 450KB
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Q83: Using the phong reflectance model, the strength of the specular highlight is determined by the angle between
1) The view vector and the normal vector 2) The light vector and the normal vector 3) The light vector and the reflected vector 4) the reflected vector and the view vector
Solution:4
Explanation:
Specular highlights on objects appear, because the light reflected from the object hits viewer. Sometimes, we are hit directly by the light and the highlight appears to be very intense, and sometimes we are hit so slightly, that we basically don't see the specular highlight. The strength of this highlight depends on the cosine of the angle between the reflected vector and vector taken from the point at object to the viewer's position:
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Q84: With respect to relational algebra, which of the following operations are included from mathematical set theory
(a) join
(b) Intersection
(c) Cartisian product
(d) Project
1) (a) and (b) 2) (b) and (c) 3) (c) and (d) 4) (b) and (d)
Solution: (2)
Explanation: Only Intersection and cartesian product operations are included from mathematical set theory. The Join and Project operations are not there in mathematical set theory.
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Q85: How many cards must be selected from a standard deck of 52 cards to guarantee that at least three hearts are present among them?
1) 9 2) 13 3) 17 4) 42
Solution:1
Explanation:
In a 52 card deck, we have 13 possible kinds × 4 possible suits.
To ensure three of a suit, draw 9. (We have eight holes filled. At the least, there are two of each suit. The ninth ensures that at least one suit will have three cards.)
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Q86: Which of the following is an example of unsupervised neural network?
1) Back propagation network 2) Hebb network 3) Associative memory network 4) Self-organizing feature map
Solution:4
Explanation:
A self-organizing map (SOM) or self-organizing feature map (SOFM) is a type of artificial neural network (ANN) that is trained using unsupervised learning to produce a low-dimensional (typically two-dimensional), discretized representation of the input space of the training samples, called a map, and is therefore a method to do dimensionality reduction. Self-organizing maps differ from other artificial neural networks as they apply competitive learning as opposed to error-correction learning (such as backpropagation with gradient descent), and in the sense that they use a neighborhood function to preserve the topological properties of the input space.
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Q87: There are many sorting algorithms based on comparison. The running time of heap sort algorithm is O(nlogn). Let P, but unlike Q, heapsort sorts in place where (p,Q) is equal to
1) Merge sort, Quick sort 2) Quick sort, Insertion sort 3) Insertion sort, Quick sort 4) insertion sort, Merge sort
Solution:1
Explanation:
Mergesort is having best,average and worst case time complexity is O(nlogn) as like hep sort.
Quick sort is also same like heap and merge except worst case time complexity is O(n2).
According to question, p is merge sort and Q is quick sort.
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Q88: You are designed a link layer protocol for a link with bandwidth of 1 Gbps (109 bits/second) over a fiber link with length of 800 km. Assume the speed of light in this medium is 200000 km/second. What is the propagation delay in this link?
1) 1 millisecond 2) 2 millisecond 3) 3 millisecond 4) 4 millisecond
Solution: 4
Explanation:
Tp=Distance/Time
=800/200000
=4*10-3 sec
= 4 milliseconds
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Q89: Consider the following two statements with respect to IPv4 in computer networking:
P: The loopback(IP) address is a member of class B network
Q: The loopback(IP) address is used to send a packet from host to itself
What can you say about the statements P and Q?
1) P-True: Q-False 2) P-False; Q-True 3) P-True; Q-True 4) P-False; Q-false
Solution: 2
Explanation: The loopback(IP) address is a member of class A network. Any address between the range 127 . 0. 0. 0 to 127.255.255.255 can be used a loopback address but we can’t use 127 . 0. 0. 0 and 127.255.255.255 as loopback addresses.
The loopback(IP) address is used to send a packet from host to itself
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Q90: The STRIPS representation is
1) a feature-centric representation 2) an action-centric representation 3) a combination of feature-centric and action-centric representation 4) a hierarchical feature-centric representation
Solution: B
Explanation:
The STRIPS representation for an action consists of ● The precondition, which is a set of assignments of values to features that must be true
for the action to occur, and ● The effect, which is a set of resulting assignments of values to those primitive features
that change as the result of the action. _____________________________________________________
Question 91: Which of the following has the same expressive power with regard to relational query language?
(a) Relational algebra and Domain relational calculus
(b) Relational algebra and Tuple relational calculus
(c) Relational algebra and Domain relational calculus restricted to safe expression
(d) Relational algebra and Tuple relational calculus restricted to safe expression
1) (a) and (b) only 2) (c) and (d) only 3) (a) and (c) only 4) (b) and (d) only
Solution:2
Explanation:
Relational algebra, Domain relational calculus restricted to safe expression and Tuple relational calculus restricted to safe expression have the same expressive power.
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Question 92: Which of the following statements is/are true
P: An XML document with correct as specified by W3C is called “well formed”.
Q: An XML documented validated against a DTD is both “Well-Formed” and “valid”.
R: <xml version = “1.0” encoding=”UTF-8”> is syntactically correct declaration for the version of an XML document.
Select the correct answer from the options given below:
1. P and Q only 2. P and R only 3. Q and R only 4. All of p,Q and R
Solution: 1
Explanation:
→ A XML document is said to be well- formed if it has correct syntax like tags are case sensitive,
elements must have closing tags, elements must be properly nested etc.
→ But when we associate a well formed XML document with a DTD( in which we define the
structure of a document) and if that XML document validates all the definitions defined in DTD
then that XML document is called as “valid” XML document.
→ Always remember that a “valid” XML document is also a “well-formed” XML document but a
“well-formed” XML document is not necessarily a “valid” XML document
→ <?xml version="1.0" encoding="UTF-8"?> is syntactically correct declaration for the version of an XML document.
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Question 93:
Solution:
Explanation:
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Question 94: The component in MVC is responsible for:
1. User interface 2. Security of the system 3. Business logic and domain objects 4. Translating between user interface actions/events and operation on the domain objects
Solution:4
Explanation:
● "MVC" stands for "Model-View-Controller" and refers to three different realms of responsibility in the design of a graphical user interface.
● When the MVC pattern is applied to a component, the model consists of the data that represents the current state of the component.
● The view is simply the visual presentation of the component on the screen. ● And the controller is the aspect of the component that carries out actions in response to
events generated by the user (or by other sources such as timers).
● The idea is to assign responsibility for the model, the view, and the controller to different objects.
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Question 95: Consider the game tree given below:
1. 4 2. 7 3. 11 4. 12
Solution: 2
Explanation:
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Question 96: Suppose that a computer program takes 100 seconds of execution time on a computer with multiplication operation responsible for 80 seconds of this time. How much do you have to improve the speed of multiplication operation if you are asked to execute this program four times faster.
1. 14 times faster 2. 15 times faster 3. 16 times faster 4. 17 times faster
Solution: 3
Explanation:
Total execution time of a program = time to execute multiplication operation + time to perform some other operations
100 = 80 +time to perform some other operations
time to perform some other operations = 20
Now they are saying that improve the speed of multiplication operation if you are asked to execute this program four times faster i.e.
New Total execution time of a program = 100/4
= 25
And according to question we have to keep the time to perform some other operations as it is i.e.20.
Hence time to perform multiplication operation after modification =
(New Total execution time of a program - time to perform some other operations)
= 25-20
= 5
So the speed of multiplication operation is improved by 80/5 time
= 16 times.
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Question 97: Which of the following are not shared by the threads of the same process?
a) Stack b) Registers c) Address Space d) Message Queue
1) (a) and (d)
2) (b) and (c)
3) (a) and (b)
4) (a), (b) and (c)
Solution: 3
Explanation: To maintain status of each thread, they do not share the stack and address but they share the code, data, address space and message queue.
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Question 98: Consider the following statements:
S1 : For any integer n>1, aΦ(n) = 1(mod n) for all a ∊ Z*n , where Φ(n) is euler’s phi function.
S2 : If p is prime, then ap = 1(mod p) for all a ∊ Z*p
Which one of the following is are correct:
1. Only S1 2. Only S2 3. Both S1 and S2 4. Neither S1 nor S2
Solution:4
Explanation:
● Euler's theorem (also known as the Fermat–Euler theorem or Euler's totient theorem) states that if ‘n’ and ‘a’ are coprime positive integers, then aΦ(n) = 1(mod n)
● But the question states that for any given integer “n”, So the S1 is false.
● According to Fermat's Little Theorem,
● Let ‘p’ be a prime and ‘a’ any integer, then ap = a (mod p). So S2 is false.
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Question 99: You need 500 subnets, each with about 100 usable host addresses per subnet. What network mass will you assign using a class B network address?
1) 255.255.255.252 2) 255.255.255.128 3) 255.255.255.0 4) 255.255.254.0
Solution: 2
Explanation: We know that in class B addressing we have 16-bit network ID and !6-bits for host ID.
Since in question 500 subnets are required. Since 29 = 512, So we need to take 9 bits from host id part of class B addressing in order to provide 500 subnets and with remaining 7 bits of host id we can easily 100 usable hosts per subnet because 27 = 128.
Subnet-id (25 bits) Host-id(7-bits) Since we know that Subnet mask contains 1’s in subnet id part and the 0's in host ID part. Hence subnet mask is:
11111111 . 11111111 . 11111111 . 10000000
In decimal form it can be represented as:
255 . 255 . 255 . 128
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Question 100: The ability to inject packets into the internet with false source address is known as :
1. Man-in-the-Middle attack 2. IP phishing 3. IP sniffing 4. IP Spoofing
Solution: 4
Explanation:
Man-in-the-Middle Attack: It is an attack where the attacker secretly relays and possibly alters the communications between two parties who believe they are directly communicating with each other.
IP Spoofing: is the creation of Internet Protocol (IP) packets with a false source IP address, for the purpose of impersonating another computing system.
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