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GENERAL AND ORAL ANATOMY AND PHYSIOLOGY

1. WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING IS NOT A PNEUMATIC SINUS?

a. Sphenoid sinusb. Sigmoid sinusc. Maxillary sinusd. Frontal sinus

2. AT WHAT STAGE OF TOOTH DEVELOPMENT IS THE FUTURE SHAPE OF THE TOOTH DETERMINED?

a. Histodifferentiationb. Morphodifferentiationc. Initiationd. Proliferation

3. WHICH CELLS IN THE LANGERHANS CELLS SECRETE INSULIN?

a. Alphab. Betac. Gammad. None of these

4. TOTAL NUMBER OF CHROMOSOMES IN A GAMETE?

a. 23b. 22c. 23 pairsd. 22 pairs

5. MAIN FIBRILLAR COMPONENT OF DENTIN AND CEMENTUM INTERCELLULAR SUBSTANCE IS?

a. Reticulinb. Coumadinc. Collagend. Lipids

6. DEPRESSION OF THE MANDIBLE IS ACHIEVED BY CONTRACTION, EXCEPT?

a. Geniohyoid muscleb. Mylohyoid musclec. Digastrics muscled. Genioglossus muscle

7. WHAT STRUCTURE PASSES THE FORAMEN MAGNUM?

a. Cerebellumb. Medullac. Spinal Cordd. Basal Ganglia

8. WHEN THE ANTERIOR FONTANELLE IN ADULT CLOSES IT IS THE?

a. Gammab. Bregmac. Lambdad. Sigma

9. THIS IS THE LINE OF ARTICULATION OF TWO PARIETAL BONES

a. Lambdoidal sutureb. Median palatine raphec. Coronal sutured. Sagittal suture

10. A PATIENT COULD BE ANEMIC IF THE HEMOGLOBIN COUNT IS?

a. 10-12 gms/100cc of bloodb. 14-15 gms/100cc of bloodc. 19-20 gms/100cc of bloodd. 17-18 gms/100cc of blood

11. FORAMEN MAGNUM IS LOCATED IN THE?

a. Frontal boneb. Sphenoid bonec. Occipital boned. Temporal bone

12. WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING IS NOT FOUND IN THE PTERYGOMANDIBULAR SPACE?

a. Inferior alveolar nerveb. Mylohyoid nervec. Lingual nerved. Long buccal nerve

13. WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING IS NOT AN EXTRACELLULAR POLYSACCHARIDE THAT FAVORS THE ATTACHMENT OF PLAQUE TO THE TOOTH SURFACE?

a. Dextranb. Levanc. Glucand. Alcan

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14. THE TMJ CAPSULE IS LINED INTERNALLY BY?

a. Pseudostratified ciliated columnar epithelium

b. Epithelial rests of Malassezc. Synovial membraned. Stratified squamous epithelium

15. THE PTERYGOMANDIBULAR SPACE IS BOUNDED BY THESE STRUCTURES, EXCEPT?

a. Medial pterygoid muscleb. Lateral pterygoid musclec. Medial surface of the ramus of

the mandibled. Masseter muscle

16. THE ANTRUM OF HIGHMORE COMMUNICATES TO THE NASAL CAVITY THROUGH?

a. Inferior turbinateb. Foramen caecumc. Superior meatusd. Ostium maxillary

17. THE 7TH CN EXITS FROM THE SKULL THROUGH?

a. Foramen lacerumb. Mastoid foramenc. Foramen rotundumd. Stylomastoid foramen

18. THE FEMALE GAMETE IS?a. Xb. Yc. X and Xd. X and Y

19. THE FOLLOWING FORAMEN OF THE HEAD IS FOR PASSAGE OF SENSORY NERVES TO THE FACE, EXCEPT?

a. Mental foramenb. Nasopalatinec. Stylomastoid foramend. Infraorbital foramen

20. WHICH NERVE EXITS FROM THE SKULL THROUGH THE FORAMEN OVALE?

a. Maxillary Nerveb. Facial Nervec. Opthalmic Nerve

d. Mandibular nerve21. WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING

STRUCTURES IS FOUND IN THE MEDIAL SURFACE OF THE MANDIBLE?

a. External oblique ridgeb. Mental foramenc. Mental symphysisd. Lingual

22. ACTH IS THE SECRETION OF THE?a. Adrenal Medullab. Adenohypophysisc. Neurohypophysisd. Thyroid

23. THE UNIT STRUCTURE OF BONE IS?

a. Osteoblastb. Chrondrocytec. Osteoblastd. Osteon

24. THE NUMBER OF TEETH IN THE DENTITION IS DETERMINED IN WHAT STAGE OF TOOTH DEVELOPMENT?

a. Initiationb. Morphodifferentiationc. Histodifferentiationd. Apposition

25. WHAT STRUCTURE COULD BE INVOLVED FROM AN INFECTION FROM THE SIDES OF THE NOSE AND RESULT TO A FATAL CONSEQUENCE?

a. Superior vena cavab. Frontal sinusc. Cavernous sinusd. Sphenoid sinus

26. IN THE RIBOSOMES, THE AMINO ACID SEQUENCE OF A PROTEIN IS DETERMINED BY?

a. m-RNAb. Golgi complexc. t-RNAd. Deoxyribonucleic acid

27. THE DEVELOPMENTAL PROCESS FROM WHICH THE PHILTRUM OF THE LIP CAME FROM?

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a. Lateral nasal processb. Maxillary processc. Frontonasal processd. Buccopharyngeal Membrane

28. CONNECTIVE TISSUE OF THE TEETH IS DERIVED FROM

a. Ectodermb. Neural crest cellsc. Mesodermd. Germ

29. THE MOTOR INNERVATION OF THE MUSCLES OF FACIAL EXPRESSION IS?

a. Sixth cranial nerveb. Opthalmic nervec. Seventh cranial nerved. Vagus nerve

30. THE FUNCTION OF THE ORAL MUCOSA ARE THE FOLLOWING, EXCEPT?

a. Protectionb. Endocrinec. Thermal regulationd. Sensation

31. WHICH NERVE COMES OUT OF THE GREATER PALATINE FORAMEN?

a. Middle palatine nerveb. Anterior palatine nervec. Nasopalatine nerved. Posterior palatine nerve

32. WHICH IS THE MOST CARIOGENIC MICROOGRANISMS IN PLAQUE?

a. Streptoccocus mitisb. Streptococcus sanguisc. Streptococcus viridiansd. Streptoccocus mutans

33. THE OCCIPITAL CONDYLE ARTICULATES WITH THE?

a. 1st thoracic vertebraeb. 1st sacral vertebraec. 1st cervical vertebraed. 1st lumbar vertebrae

34. THE FORAMEN OVALE IS IN THE?a. Temporal boneb. Occipital bonec. Sphenoid bone

d. Frontal bone35. WHICH MAXILLARY TOOTH HAS

A LINGUAL FISSURE OR GROOVE FROM THE CINGULUM TO THE ROOT THAT CAN SERVE AS A PATHWAY OF INFECTION TO THE PERIODONTAL TISSUES?

a. Lateral incisorsb. Cuspidc. Central Incisorsd. Bicuspid

36. AT WHAT STAGE OF MITOSIS DOES CYTOKINES OCCUR?

a. Metaphase b. Anaphasec. Prophased. Telophase

37. THE ABILITY OF THE RBC TO CARRY OXYGEN TO AND CARBON DIOXIDE FROM CELLS IS THE FUNCTION OF THE?

a. Histamineb. Haemoglobinc. Heparind. Thrombin

38. THE CAPSULE OF THE TMJ IS INNERVATED BY THE?

a. Inferior alveolar nerveb. Buccal nervec. Auriculotemporal nerved. Facial nerve

39. THE GENETIC MATERIAL IN CHROMOSOMES NECESSARY FOR THE PERPETUATION OF THE SPECIES IS?

a. Triple Helixb. Deoxyribonucleic acidc. m-RNAd. t-RNA

40. THE PTERYGOPALATINE FOSSA IS BOUNDED BY THE?

a. Sphenoid bone and the maxillab. Maxilla and palatine bonec. Temporal bone and sphenoid

boned. Temporal and sphenoid bone

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41. THE SUBSTANCE INVOLVED IN THE TRANSMISSION OF NERVE IMPULSES ARE?

a. Calcium and fluorideb. Iron and potassiumc. Sodium and potassiumd. Calcium and phosphorus

42. THE CRIBRIFORM PLATE IN THE ANTERIOR CRANIAL FOSSA IS THE PASSAGEWAY FOR THE?

a. Maxillary nerveb. First cervical nervec. Optic nerved. First cranial nerve

43. THE RECEPTOR FOR STRETCH REFLEX CONTAINED IN THE MASTICATORY MUSCLE FIBER IS?

a. Gamma efferent endingb. Golgi tendon organc. Pacinian corpusclesd. Spinal ending

44. WHICH CELL IS RESPONSIBLE FOR CELL – MEDIATED IMMUNE RESPONSE?

a. Polymorphonuclear leukocytesb. Plasma cellsc. T lymphocytesd. B lymphocytes

45. THE MOTOR INNERVATIONS OF THE BUCCINATOR MUSCLE IS

a. Infraorbital nerveb. Long buccal nervec. Buccal branch of the facial

nerved. Mental nerve

46. AN AGRANULAR LEUCOCYTES IN THE BLOOD IS EXEMPLIFIED BY?

a. Lymphocytesb. Eosinophilc. Basophild. Neutrophil

47. THE INTERNAL OBLIQUE RIDGE FOR THE MANDIBLE IS THE ATTACHMENT FOR?

a. Masseter muscleb. Mylohyoid musclec. Hyoglossus muscle

d. Buccinators muscle48. LONG BONES OF THE SKELETON

INCREASE IN LENGTH BY?a. Mitosis of osteocytesb. Interstitial growth in

cartilaginous epiphyseal platec. Apposition growth of cartilage

on articular centersd. Apposition growth of bone on

articular surfaces49. WHICH STRUCTURE OF TEETH IS

OF EPITHELIAL ORIGIN?a. Enamelb. Dentinc. Pulpd. Cementum

50. THE ACQUIRED INTEGUMENT ON TOOTH SURFACE IS COMPOSED OF

a. Anaerobic microorganismsb. Aerobic microorganismsc. Salivary glycoproteinsd. Mineralization of calcium and

phosphorus51. CRISTA GALLI IS FOUND IN THE?

a. Ethmoid boneb. Sphenoid bonec. Lingulad. Occipital bone

52. THE FIRST CRANIAL NERVE IS RESPONSIBLE FOR THE SENSE OF?

a. Touchb. Tastec. Smelld. Sight

53. THE BIGGEST PNEUMATIC SINUS IN THE HEAD IS?

a. Sigmoid sinusb. Transverse Sinusc. Maxillary Sinusd. Ethmoidal Sinus

54. CORONOID PROCESS OF THE MANDIBLE SERVE AS ATTACHMENT FOR?

a. Buccinators muscleb. Masseter musclec. Temporal muscle

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d. External pterygoid muscle55. FORAMEN CAECUM IS LOCATED

AT?a. Large intestineb. Tonguec. Maxillad. Temporal bone

56. THE DEVELOPMENT OF THE MAXILLA IS BY?

a. Endochondral developmentb. Appositional developmentc. Intramembranous developmentd. Thru Meckel’s cartilage

57. HAMULAR PROCESS IS THE EXTENSION OF

a. Medial pterygoid plateb. Horizontal process of the

palatine bonec. Lateral pterygoidd. Palate

58. THE FIRST COLLAGENOUS MATRIX IN DENTINOGENESIS?

a. Oxytalan fibersb. Sharpey’s fibersc. Von Korff’s fibersd. Tome’s process

59. OPTHALMIC DIVISION OF THE TRIGEMINAL NERVE ENTERS THE ORBIT THROUGH?

a. Foramen ovaleb. Inferior orbital fissurec. Superior orbital fissured. Posterior infraorbital foramen

60. ZYGOMATIC ARCH IS FORMED BY?

a. Maxilla and temporal bonesb. Temporal and zygomatic bonesc. Temporal bone and frontal boned. Maxilla and zygomatic bone

61. THE ANTRUM OF HIGHMORE IS FOUND IN?

a. Maxillab. Temporal bonec. Nasal boned. Sphenoid bone

62. THE FORMED ELEMENTS OF BLOOS ESSENTIAL TO

HEMOSTASIS AND BLOOD CLOTTING IS

a. Thrombinb. Erythrocytesc. Leucocytesd. Thrombocytes

63. WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING IS AN UNPAIRED BONE?

a. Palatineb. Ethmoidc. Maxillad. Nasal

64. DIGESTIVE ENZYME PRESENT IN SALIVA?

a. Proteinaseb. Lactasec. Amylased. Lipase

65. AT WHAT pH DOES ENAMEL DECALCIFY?

a. 5.5b. 7.2c. 6.0d. 7.4

66. SYMPATHETIC STIMULATION OF THE SALIVARY GLANDS PRODUCES

a. Xerostomiab. Thick viscous salivac. Copious salivad. None of these

67. WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING EMBRYONIC STRCUTURES GIVE RISE TO ADULT STRUCTURES NOT INNERVATED BY THE TRIGEMINAL NERVE?

a. Median nasal processb. First branchial archc. Maxillary processd. Second branchial arch

68. THE PULP CAN PERCEIVE THESE SENSATIONS

a. Heatb. Coldc. Pressured. Pain

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69. WHICH PART OF THE ENAMEL ORGAN GIVES RISE TO AMELOBLAST?

a. Stellate reticulumb. Outer enamel epitheliumc. Stratum intermediumd. Inner enamel epithelium

70. THE MANDIBLE DEVELOPED FROM?

a. First branchial archb. Second branchial archc. Third branchial archd. Fourth branchial arch

71. WHICH BONE COMPRISES THE ROOF OF THE ORAL CAVITY?

a. Palatine and vomerb. Palatine process of the maxilla

and horizontal process of the palatine bone

c. Pyramidal process of the palatine bone to the pterygoid process

d. Hyoid bone72. THE LINE JUNCTION OF THE

PARIETAL BONES AND OCCIPITAL BONE IS?

a. Superior nuchal lineb. Sphenoidal suturec. Bregma sutured. Lambdoidal suture

73. THE SIGMOID PATTERN OF pH DROP IN DENTAL PLAQUE AFTER SUCROSE RINSE IS THE?

a. Kawamura’s Curveb. Bennett’s Curvec. Stephan’s Curved. Cushing’s Curve

74. WHICH ENDOCRINE GLANDS ARE INVOLVED IN THE MAINTENANCE OF BLOOD CALCIUM LEVEL

a. Adrenal onlyb. Thyroid and parathyroidc. Hypophysisd. Thymus

75. THE FOLLOWING ARE ESSENTIAL PLASMA COMPONENTS

INVOLVED IN BLOOD COAGULATION, EXCEPT?

a. Thrombinb. Prothrombinc. Heparind. Fibrinogen

76. THE MALLEUS, INCUS AND STAPES BONES ARE FOUND IN?

a. Zygomaticotemporal boneb. Petrous temporal bonec. Occipitotemporal boned. Ethmoid bone

77. THE FORAMATIVE AND DEGENERATIVE CELLS OF COLLAGEN IS?

a. Fibroblastb. Osteoclastc. Macrophaged. Osteoblast

78. THE MOTOR INNERVATIONS OF ALL MUSCLES OF THE TONGUE EXCEPT THE PALATOGLOSSUS IS?

a. Glossopharyngeal nerveb. Hypoglossal nervec. Inferior alveolar nerved. Lingual nerve

79. THE FIBRILLAR COMPONENT OF CONNECTIVE TISSUE INTERCELLULAR SUBSTANCE ARE, EXCEPT?

a. Elastinb. Chondroitin sulfatec. Collagend. Raticulin

80. THE ORGANIC STUCTURE FOUND ON THE SURFACES OF CROWNS OF NEWLY ERUPTED TEETH IS

a. Nasmyth membraneb. Pelliclec. Hertwig’s Epithelial Root

Sheathd. Basement membrane

81. THE BASAL CELLS OF THE ORAL EPITHELIUM ARE ATTACHED TO THE BASAL LAMINA BY?

a. Desmosomesb. Cuticle

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c. Hemidesmosomesd. Hyaluronic acid

82. THE SELLA TURSICA IS OCCUPIED BY?

a. Crista gallib. 5th CNc. Adrenal glandd. Pituitary gland

83. SPHENOPALATINE GANGLION IS A BRANCH FROM THE

a. Facial nerveb. Mandibular nervec. Opthalmic nerved. Maxillary nerve

84. WHICH CELLS IS RESPONSIBLE FOR ANTIBODY-MEDIATED IMMUNE RESPONSE

a. Polymorphonuclear leukocytesb. T-lymphocytesc. Erythrocytesd. B-lymphocytes

85. THE MAIN MINERAL COMPONENT OF BONE IS?

a. Calcium carbonateb. Calcium hydroxyapatitec. Calcium phosphated. Calcium nuroapatite

86. AN UNPAIRED BONE NOT PART OF THE SKULL NOR ARTICULATES WITH ANY BONE BUT ATTACHED TO IT BY MUSCLES AND LIGAMENTS IS?

a. Mandibleb. Hyoid bonec. Palatine boned. Ethmoid bone

87. THE TRIGEMINAL GANGLION IS LOCATED IN?

a. Body of the sphenoid boneb. Petrous portion of temporal

bonec. Maxillary tuberosityd. Infratemporal fossa

88. THE STRUCTURE THAT DIVIDES THE TEMPOROMANDIBULAR CAPSULE INTO AN UPPER AND LOWER COMPARTMENT IS?

a. Patellab. Temporomandibular ligamentc. Articular diskd. Temporomandibular capsule

89. THE INFERIOR ALVEOLAR NERVE IS A BRANCH OF?

a. Sphenopalatine nerveb. Anterior division of the

mandibular nervec. Posterior division of the

mandibular nerved. Infraorbital nerve

90. WHICH PLASMA PROTEINS IS INVOLVED IN THE IMMUNE MECHANISM

a. Heparinb. Albuminc. Globulind. Fibrinogen

91. THE PYRAMIDAL SHAPED BONES BETWEEN THE MAXILLARY TUBEROSITY AND THE PTERYGOID PROCESS OF THE SPHENOID BONE IS

a. Vomerb. Palatine bonec. Lacrimal boned. Coronoid process

92. THE MANDIBULAR CONDYLE ARTICULATES WITH?

a. Zygomatic boneb. Glenoid fossa of the temporal

bonec. Squamous temporal boned. Lesser wing of sphenoid bone

93. VITAMIN K IS SYNTHESIZED BY THE?

a. Intestinal bacteriab. Bone marrowc. Liverd. Spleen

94. THE MUSCLE INVOLVED IN THE PROTRUSION OF THE JAW IS?

a. Temporalis muscleb. Lateral pterygoidc. Masseterd. Medial pterygoid

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95. THE BUFFER SYSTEM OF THE BONDY ARE, EXCEPT?

a. Carbohydrate buffer systemb. Phosphate buffer systemc. Bicarbonate buffer systemd. Protein buffer system

96. THE NERVE SUPPLY OF THE PERIODONTAL LIGAMENTS OF THE MAXILLARY CENTRAL INCISORS?

a. Infraorbital nerveb. Anterior superior alveolar nervec. Nasopalatine nerved. Middle superior alveolar nerve

97. THE LINGUAL ARTERY IS A BRANCH OF?

a. Maxillary arteryb. Laryngeal arteryc. External carotid arteryd. Facial artery

98. ENAMEL AND DENTIN FORMATION STARTS AT?

a. Sheath of Hertwigb. Crownc. Cementoenamel junctiond. Dentinoenamel junction

99. THE GENIAL TUBERCLE IS THE ATTACHMENT OF?

a. Mylohyoid muscleb. Genioglossus musclec. Geniohyoid muscled. Styloglossus muscle

100. CONNECTIVE TISSUE OF THE TEETH IS DERIVED FROM

a. Mesodermb. Ectodermc. Neural crest cellsd. Endoderm

GENERAL AND ORAL PATHOLOGY, MICROSCOPIC ANATOMY AND

MICROBIOLOGY

1. MYXOMAS ARE MANIFESTED CLINICALLY BY?

a. Tumor presents a painless swelling

b. Palpable swelling

c. Lymphadenopathyd. Locules vary in size and

separated by a bony septa2. WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING

CONSTITUTE AN INFLAMMATORY INFILTRATE

a. Multinucleated giant cellsb. Fluidsc. Neutrophilsd. Macrophagee. Emboli

i. A and Bii. D and E

iii. A and Civ. B C and E

3. AN ACUTE INFECTION OF THE BONE MARRIW BY PUS PRODUCING MICROORGANISM SPREAD INTO THE PERIOSTEUM, SO THAT THERE IS AN INADEQUATE BLOOD SUPPLY TO THE CANCELLOUS BONE WHICH LEAD TO NECROSIS. THE LESION IS DIAGNOSED AS?

a. Osteomyelitisb. Osteitisc. Osteomad. Myeloma

4. OF THE MALIGNANT BONE TUMOR WHICH ARE MORE LIKELY TO BE ENCOUNTERED IM CHILDREN AND YOUNG ADULTS?

i. Myelomaii. Ewing’s sarcoma

iii. Liposarcomaiv. Osteogenic sarcoma

a. ii and ivb. i and iic. iii and iid. iii and iv

5. WHICH OF THESE ARE ASSOCIATED WITH PATIENT WHO HAS AIDS

a. Loss of cellular immunityb. Increased susceptibility to

infections

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c. Decreased immunoglobulin in the peripheral circulation

d. Hepavax vaccinationA. A and BB. A and CC. B and CD. A and D

6. STREPTOCCOCI PRESENT IN THE ORAL FLORA ARE NOT RELATED TO?

a. Hyaluronidaseb. Cellulitis with lymphangitisc. Fibrinolysind. Necrosis

7. PATHOGNOMONIC SYMPTOM OF ACUTE APICAL PERIODONTITIS?

a. Hypersensitivity to heatb. Intermittent and throbbing painc. Tenderness to percussiond. Extraoral swelling

8. THE BASIS OF GRAM STAININGa. Zinc deoxyribonucleic acidb. Magnesium deoxyribonucleatec. Ribonucleic acidd. Magnesium ribonucleate

9. FACTORS THAT ARE ASSESSED IN THE GRADING OF MALIGNANT TUMOR INCLUDE?

a. Number of mitoses in the primary tumor

b. Degree of local invasion of the primary tumor

c. Number of lymph nodes containing metastasis

10. AN EPITHELIAL CHANGE WHICH IS MOST LIKELY TO BE PRECANCEROUS IS?

a. Hyperkeratosisb. Parakeratosisc. Dystkeratosisd. Acanthosis

11. ACCEPTABLE CONDITION FOR COMPLETE STERILIZATION BY AUTOCLAVING IS?

a. 20 minutes at 121 C with 15lb pressure

b. 5 minutes at 135 C with 15lb pressure

c. 20 minutes at 121 C with 10lb pressure

d. 15 minutes at 135 C with 10lb pressure

12. WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING IS ACIDOGENIC FORMED IN DEEP-SEATED CARIES THAT INCREASES IN SALIVA DURING PERIOD OD ACTIVE CARIES

a. Actinomycetesb. Lactobacillusc. Bacteroidesd. Streptococcus pyogenes

13. TWO OF THE FOLLOWING DISEASES IS CAUSED BY A POST STREPTOCOCCAL DISEASE

a. Impetigo and osteomyelitisb. Pharyngitis and common coldsc. Rheumatic fever and

glomerulonephritisd. Scarlet fever and erysipelas

14. ALL EXCEPT ONE IS NOT A LESION OF THE PULP

a. Polypb. Ulcerative pulpitisc. Hyperaemia of the pulpd. Concrescence

15. CHANGES IN CELL-TYPE FROM A MORE SPECIALIZED TO A LESS SPECIALIZED CELL TYPE?

a. Metaplasiab. Hypoplasiac. Neoplasiad. Dysplasia

16. WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING TUMORS WOULD BE CLASSIFIED AS BEING A CONNECTIVE TISSUE ORIGIN?

a. Carcinomab. Lipomac. Melanomad. Papilloma

17. WHICH OF THESE MICROORGANISM PRODUCE PROTEOLYTIC ENZYME TO

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PENETRATE THE ORGANIC MATRIX OF ENAMEL GIVING RISE TO DENTAL CARIES?

a. Lactobacillib. Streptococcic. Bacillid. Diptheroids

18. BACTERIAL SPORES ARE A PROBLEM IN STERILIZING INSTRUMENTS EQUIPMENT BECAUSE

a. Few pathogenic bacteria are spore former

b. They are resistant to antibioticc. They are resistant to physical

and chemical agentsd. They are easy to destroy but are

usually protected by a calcific membrane

19. PERNICIOUS ANEMIA MAY BE ASSOCIATED WITH WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING CONDITIONS

a. Microcytic anemiab. Glossitisc. Iron deficiencyd. Gastric hyperacidity

20. GRANULOMATOUS INFLAMMATION MUST HAVE THE FOLLOWING

a. Fibrous tissueb. Macrophagec. Plasma cellsd. Capillaries

21. ORAL FINDINGS IN PORPHYRIAa. Turner’s teethb. Mottled enamelc. Dentinogenesis imperfectd. Red teeth

22. THE EFFECT OF DILANTIN Na ON THE GINGIVA IS INCREASED SIZE OF COLLAGEN FIBERS. SUCH REACTION IS CALLED?

a. Fibromatosisb. Hypertrophied gingivac. Gingivosisd. Hyperplastic gingiva

23. EXCESS FLUORIDE INTAKE CAN RESULT IN

a. Atrophy of the ameloblastb. Defect in calcification of

enamelc. Degeneration of cementoblastd. Dysfunction of ondontoblast

24. CAUSES OF ATROPHYa. Overstimulationb. Chemical stimulationc. Malnutritiond. Disusee. Pressuref. Loss of innervations

i. A,D,E,Fii. C,D,E,F

iii. B,D,E,Fiv. A,B,C,D

25. MOST PREDOMINANT ORGANISM FOUND IN DENTAL PLAQUE IS?

a. Staphylococcib. Lactobacillic. Diplococcicd. Streptococci

26. THE MOST COMMON TYPE OF NEVI IS?

a. Blue nevib. Intradermalc. Compoundd. Junctional

27. MODE OF GROWTH OF BENIGN TUMORS

a. Aggressiveb. Destructivec. Expansived. Infiltrative

28. WHICH MICROORGANISM CAN BE CULTURED FROM A CHRONIC BILATERAL ULCERATIONS AT THE CORNER OF THE MOUTH?

a. Brucellab. Candida albicansc. Borella vincentiid. Treponema

29. THE DIFFERENCE IN THE REACTION BETWEEN GRAM

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POSSITIVE AND GRAM NEGATIVE BACTERIA IS THE PRESENCE OF?

a. Magnesium ribonucleateb. Potassium ribonucleatec. Zinc ribonucleate d. Sodium ribonucleate

30. WHITE LACE LIKE LINE IN THE ORAL MUCOSA PARTICULARLY THE CHEEK?

a. Leukoplakiab. Monilia albicansc. Thrushd. Lichen planus

31. EXOTOXINS ARE PRODUCED BY STRAINS OF?

a. Streptococcus fecalisb. Salmonella typhic. Clostridium tetanid. Hemophillus influenza

32. BONE IS RESORBED BY?a. chrondrocyteb. osteoblastc. osteoclastd. osteocyte

33. OSTEOPOROSIS, METASTASIS CALCIFICATION, RENAL STONES, INCREASED CALCIUM LEVELS ARE MANIFESTATIONS OF?

a. Hypoparathyroidismb. Hyperthyroidismc. Hypotensiond. Hyperparathyroidism

34. THE MOST COMMON LOCATION OF TRANSITIONAL CELL CA IS IN THE?

a. Anterior 2/3 of the tongueb. Pharynxc. Gingivald. Hard palate

35. WHICH IS LEAST LIKELY TO PRODUCE INTRAVASCULAR THROMBOSIS

a. Warfarin therapyb. Hypercoagulable statec. Stasis of bloodd. Hyperviscosity syndrome

36. CAUSES PHARYNGEAL CARCINOMA

a. Alcohol abuseb. Cigarette smokingc. Both alcohol abuse and cigarette

smokingd. Neither A nor B

37. ATTENUATED MICROORGANISMS ARE USED IN THE MANUFACTURE OF THE FOLLOWING

a. Dentovaxb. Salk vaccinec. Tetanus, toxoidd. All of the above

38. WHICH STATEMENT IS CORRECTa. Gram positive and gram

negative bacteria show no difference in their susceptibility to ionizing radiation

b. Gram positive bacteria is less susceptible to ionizing radiation

c. Gram positive bacteria are more susceptible to ionizing radiation than gram negative bacteria

d. Only negative forms of gram negative are more susceptible to ionizing radiation than gram positive bacteria

39. WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING END-PRODUCTS IS CHARACTERISTIC OF AEROBIC MICROORGANISM METABOLITES?

a. Carbon dioxide and waterb. Lactic acidc. Protein enzymesd. Fatty acids

40. BACTERIA ISOLATED IN PERIODONTAL POCKETS ARE?

a. Borella vincentii and fusiform bacilli

b. Gram negative microorganismc. Anaerobic microorganismsd. Gram negative microorganism

and anaerobic microorganism41. SUBMERGING DENTAL

INSTRUMENTS FOR 15 MINUTES IN COLD DISINFECTING

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SOLUTION IS UNACCEPTABLE AS A STERILIZING METHOD BECAUSE THE INTERVAL CLD DISINFECTANTS:

a. Do not kill gram positive organism

b. Do not have effect upon gram positive organisms

c. Are not sporadicald. Have a limited antimicrobial

spectrum42. PROLONGED ANTIBACTERIAL

ANTIBIOTIC THERAPY MAY PREDISPOSE INFECTIOUS DISEASE CAUSED BY INDIGENOUS ORAL MICROORGANISM SUCH AS?

a. Actinomycosisb. Fusobacterium fusoformec. Candida Albicansd. Treponema

43. VIRUS CAUSING RECURRENT HERPETIC LESION IS NEVER COMPLETELY ELIMINATED BUT ASSUMES A STATE OF?

a. Potencyb. Mutualismc. Symbiosisd. Commensalism

44. THE MOST COMMON MICROORGANISM FOUND IN PERIPHERAL INFECTION ARE

a. Streptococci and staphylococci variety

b. Bacilli and staphylococci variety

c. Streptococci and bacilli varietyd. Streptococci and pneumococci

variety45. FUNDAMENTAL TYPES OF

TISSUE?a. Collagen tissueb. Muscular tissuec. Mesenchymal tissued. Fluid tissue

46. ORAL FIBROMA IS

a. Histologically cannot be differentiated from a giant cell reparative granulome

b. Generally a pedunculated lesionc. Most common oral neoplasm

that is benignd. Usually an exophytic lesion

47. A CONGENITAL MALFORMATION COMPOSED OF LARGE LYMPH CONTAINS CYSTIC SPACES THAT DEVELOP IN THE NECK OCCURING IN INFANCY AND CHILDHOOD

a. Leiomyomab. Lipomac. Lymphangiomad. Cystic hygroma

48. A CHEEK LESION WHICH CANNOT BE RUBBED OFF, THE PROBABLE DIAGNOSIS IS?

a. Candidiasisb. Lichen planusc. Benign keratosisd. Carcinoma in situ

49. SYMPTOM FOR ACUTE PERIAPICAL ABSCESS OBSERVED RADIOGRAPHICALLY IS?

a. Diffuse rarefractionb. Periapical radiolucencyc. Lymphadenopathyd. Thickening of the periodontal

ligament50. VASODILATION, EDEMA AND

PAVEMENTING OF POLYMORPHONUCLEAR LEUKOCYTES ARE FEATURES OF?

a. Chronic inflammationb. Acute inflammationc. Subacute inflammationd. Chronic granulomatous

inflammation51. ADAMANTINOMA OF LONG

BONES HISTOLOGICALLY RESEMBLES?

a. Melanotic hemangiomab. Craniopharyngiomac. Ameloblastoma

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d. Hemangioameloblastoma52. PRIMARY STAIN IN GRAM

STAINING?a. Saffraninb. Crystal violetc. Hematoxylind. Eosin

53. THE CELL SURFACE ANTIGEN DETECTED BY MONOCLONAL ANTIBODIES ARE KNOWN AS CD5 IS A MARKER FOR?

a. B cellsb. NK cellsc. T cellsd. Monocytes and granulocytes

54. WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING VIRUSES CAN EASILY SPREAD IN THE DENTAL OFFICE DUE TO POOR STERILIZATION OF INSTRUMENTS?

a. Herpes simplex virusb. Adenovirusc. Hepatitis Bd. All of the above

55. WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING BACTERIA HAVE LIMITED RANGE OF HABITATS IN THE ORAL CAVITY?

a. Treponemab. Actinomycesc. Bacteroidesd. Staphylococci

i. A and Bii. A and C

iii. C and Div. D only

56. PENICILLIN IS THE ANTIOBIOTIC OF CHOICE IN TREATING INFECTION BECAUSE OF ITS BACTERICIDAL PROPERTIES, WHICH OF THESE ORGANISMS IS SENSITIVE TO PENICILLIN?

a. Sporulatingb. Growing gram (-) bacteriac. Growing gram (+) bacteriad. Non growing gram (+) bacteria

57. ETIOLOGY OF RUBELLA

a. Adenovirusb. Myxovirusc. Coxsackie virusd. Streptococci B

58. CELLULAR WALL OF BACTERIA IS MADE UP OF?

a. Glycoproteinsb. Cellulosec. Mucopolysaccharidesd. Complex waxy compounds

59. STREPTOCOCCAL INFECTION OF THE UTERUS FOLLOWING DELIVERY IS KNOWN AS

a. Yawsb. Puerperal feverc. Relapsing feverd. Dengue

60. WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING MICROORGANISMS GIVE RISE TO INFECTIONS WITH ABSCESS FORMATION?

a. Staphylococcib. Streptococcic. Bacillid. Viruses

61. WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING IS NOT A GRAM NEGATIVE MICROORGANISM AND THEREFORE CAN IMITATE REGENERATION AND REPAIR PF TISSUE?

a. Tubercle bacillib. Staphylococcic. Streptococcid. N. gonococci

62. WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING DO NOT DESCRIBE AMOEBIC DYSENTERY?

a. Intervening mucosa – normalb. Edge of the ulcer underminedc. Cytology of the stool –

polymorphonuclear leukocytesd. Type of lesion – necrotic ulcer

63. WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING ARE GRAM (+) ORGANISMS

a. Anaerobic microorganismsb. Staphylococci

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c. N. gonococcid. Meningococci

64. USE OF PHENOL AS A DISINFECTANT IS DUE TO

a. Zinc deoxyribonucleate acidb. Denaturation of bacterial proteinc. Poisoning of bacterial enzymed. Increase in permeability of

bacterial cell wall65. DRY HEAT DESTROYS

MICROORGANISMS PRIMARILY BY

a. Lysisb. Precipitation of saltsc. Oxidationd. Coagulation of proteins

66. ETHYLENE OXIDE IS AN AGENT THAT

a. Sterilizesb. Inhibits growth reversiblyc. Cleansesd. Disinfects

67. PROTECTION AGAINST ENCAPSULATED BACTERIA PATHOGENS IS MEDIATED MAINLY BY?

a. Non-specific anatomic barrierb. Humoral immunityc. Cellular immunityd. Specific anatomic barrier

68. WHAT IS THE CHARACTERISTIC OF OSMOTIC BARRIER IN THE BACTERIAL CELL WALL

a. Aqueous and hydrophilicb. Waxy and impermeablec. Non-aqueous and water repelantd. Gelatinous and dialyzable

69. IN DEMONSTRATING ACID-FAST ORGANISMS, WHAT COUNTERSTAIN IS USED?

a. Carbol fuschinb. Lugols iodine solutionc. Methylene blued. Saffranin

70. THE MAIN CAUSATIVE AGENT OF VIRAL SORE THROAT IS?

a. Rhinovirus

b. Rotavirusc. Adenovirusd. Echovirus

71. THE MOST COMMONLY USED METHOD OF PREPARING SOFT TISSUES FOR MICROSCOPIC EXAMINATION

a. Specimens of calcified tissues are grounded into sections

b. Specimens of soft tissues are frozen and sectioned

c. Specimens are embedded in paraffin and sectioned

d. Specimens are embedded in parlodoin and sectioned

72. THE SO-CALLED ONE STEP GROWTH CYCLE STUDY WHICH PAVED THE WAY FOR EXTRAORDINARY EXPERIMENTATION IN MICROBIOLOGY INVOLVED THE?

a. Vaccinia virusb. Poliomyelitis virusc. Bacteriophaged. Tobacco mosaic virus

73. ZIEHL-NEELSON METHOD OF STERILIZING USES THE FOLLOWING PRIMARY STAIN

a. Carbol fuschinb. Lugol’s iodinec. Methylene blued. Crystal violet

74. A CHEMICAL IDENTIFIED AS A CONSTITUTING THE CELL WALL OF A TRUE BACTERIA IS?

a. Hyaluronic acidb. Glucopolypeptidec. Peptidoglycand. Micropeptidoglycan

75. ALL SPIRAL ORGANISMS ARE a. Gram (–)b. PAS (–)c. Gram (+)d. Acid Fast

76. THE DIFFERENCES THAT EXIST BETWEEN THE EUBACTERIA AND ARCHAEBACTERIA ARE DUE TO

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THE GREAT DIFFERENCE IN THEIR?

a. Ribosomal DNAb. Ribosomal RNAc. Colonization in axenic cultured. All of the above

77. BACTERIOPHAGE AREa. Non-pathogenic bacteriab. Antibodiesc. Elements of the immune systemd. Viruses

78. THE MORPHOLOGIC CHARACTERISTICS OF BACTERIA THAT RELATES TO THEIR VIRULENCE IS THE?

a. Corkscrew formb. Nucleusc. Ciliad. Capsule

79. BACTERIAL SPECIES ARE DEFINED BY?

a. DNA base compositionb. Structural traits of size, mode of

movementc. Both A and Bd. Neither A nor B

80. PENICILLIN DESTROYS BACTERIA BY AFFECTING THEIR

a. Sysnthesis of endoplasmic reticulum

b. Purine metabolismc. Cell wall formationd. Transport of oxygen

81. WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING IS CORRECT

a. Viruses are able to multiply in laboratory in blood agar

b. Viruses can only multiply in anaerobic media

c. Viruses cannot multiply outside living tissues

d. Viruses can multiply inside and outside living tissues

82. GROWTH OF THE FOLLOWING COLONIES IS FAVORED BY EXPOSURE TO PENICILLIN

a. M

b. Sc. Rd. L

83. IN STAINING CHARACTERISTICS YEAST CELLS ARE

a. Gram (–)b. PAS (–)c. Gram (+)d. Acid Fast

84. CAUSATIVE ORGANISM OF SYPHILIS IS EFFECTIVELY DEMONSTRATED BY

a. Phase contrastb. Darkfieldc. Interferenced. Brightfield

85. REAGENT USED TO DECOLORIZE THE PRIMARY STAIN IN GRAM STAINING IS?

a. Benzeneb. Acetonec. Alcohold. Acid alcohol

86. BACTERIA CONTAIN ___________ RIBOSOMES

a. 70Sb. 80Sc. 90Sd. 120S

87. THE PERIOD OF LOGARITHMIC PHASE OR EXPONENTIAL MULTIPLICATION IN BACTERIAL GROWTH LASTS FROM

a. 1-2 hoursb. 3-4 hoursc. 3-24 hoursd. 6-12 hours

88. FLAGELLA MAY BE DETECTED BYa. Electronb. Darkfieldc. Phase contrastd. All of the above

89. THE TERM “H ANTIGEN” AROSE FROM THE PHENOMENON OF THE _____ TYPE OF GROWTH ON AGAR

a. Spreadingb. Non-spreading

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c. Slimyd. Rough

90. BACTERIA WITH TUFTS OF SEVERAL POLAR FLAGELLAE

a. Peritrichousb. Lopotrichousc. Amphitrichousd. Monotrichous

91. HOW LONG DOES IN TAKE BACTERIAL PLAQUE TO FORM ACID FROM FERMENTABLE CARBOHYDRATES?

a. 1-2 hoursb. 2-5 minutesc. 10-15 minutesd. 30-45 minutes

92. THE ONLY RELIABLE CLINICAL EVIDENCE THAT SECONDARY DENTIN HAS FORMED IS?

a. Discoloration of the clinical crown

b. Increased reaction to coldc. Decreased tooth sensitivityd. Presence of osteodentin

93. THE GUMMY SUBSTANCE THAT FACILITATES PLAQUE ADHERENCE TO THE TOOTH SURFACE IS PRODUCED BY BACTERIAL CONVERSION OF CARBOHYDRATE TO

a. Dextranaseb. Dextranc. Sucrosed. Levan

94. THE EARLIEST COMMON SYMPTOM OF ACUTE PULPITIS SECONDARY TO A CARIOUS LESION IS

a. Pain on percussionb. Aerodontalgiac. Continous paind. Thermal sensitivity

95. THE MOST TYPICAL INDICATION OF AN ACUTE PERIAPICAL ABSCESS IS

a. Lymphadenopathyb. Periapical radiolucency

c. Mobility d. Pain

96. CHRONIC HYPERPLASTIC PULPITIS IS USUALLY SEEN

a. In young teeth with large apical foramina

b. In permanent dentitionc. Only in primary dentitiond. In teeth with small carious

lesion97. GIANT CELL GRANULOMA IS

MOST ASSOCIATED WITHa. Hypothyroidismb. Hyperparathyroidismc. Hyperthyroidismd. Hypoparathyroidism

98. GIANT CELL GRANULOMA IS CHARACTERIZED BY ALL OF THE FOLLOWING HISTOPATHOLOGIC FEATURES, EXCEPT?

a. Scattered eosinophilsb. Many multinucleated giant cellsc. Foci of hemorrhaged. Deposits of hemosiderin

99. MACROGNATHIA IS A NORMAL FEATURE IN PATIENTS WITH WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING DISORDERS

a. Paget’s disease of the boneb. Craniofacial dysostosisc. Fibrous dysplasiad. Ectodermal dysplasia

i. A or Bii. A or C

iii. B or Civ. B or D

100. WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING IS MOST SIMILAR TO LATERAL PERIODONTAL CYST?

a. Traumatic bone cystb. Residual cystc. Median mandibular cystd. Primordial cyst

101. THE FIRST INDICATION OF THE PRESENCE OF JUVENILE PERIODONTITIS IS MOST OFTEN

a. Sudden drifting of teeth

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b. Painful and burning gingivalc. Toothached. Marginal gingivitis

102. WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING CYST HAS THE GREATEST POTENTIAL FOR NEOPLASTIC TRANSFORMATION?

a. Lateral periodontalb. Epidermoidc. Dentigerousd. Lymphoepithelial

103. WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING DISEASES IS CHARACTERIZED BY PALMAR AND PLANTAR PITS, KERATINIZING JAW CYSTS AND MULTIPLE SKIN CANCERS

a. Ameloblastomab. Multiple basal cell nevus

syndromec. Odontodysplasiad. Gaucher’s disease

104. IN CERTAIN BONE DISEASES, LOCALIZED OR GENERALIZED RADIOPACITIES MAY BE NOTED RADIOGRAPHICALLY REFLECTING AN INCREASE OF BONE MINERALIZATION OR A DECREASE IN BONE RESORPTION. WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING DISEASES PRODUCE LOCALIZED OR GENERALIZED RADIOPACITIES

a. Condensing Osteitisb. Cherubismc. Albers-Schonberg Diseased. Menopausal osteoporosise. Chronic sclerosing

osteomyelitisi. A,B,C

ii. A,C,Eiii. A,D,Eiv. B,C,D

105. WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING GROUPS OF AGENTS IS SPECIFICALLY

CONTRAINDICATED FOR USE IN PATIENTS WITH HERPES SIMPLEX INFECTIONS

a. Corticosteroidsb. Analgesicsc. Antihistamined. Antibiotics

106. THE FEATURE THAT FREQUENTLY DISTINGUISHES HERPES ZOSTER FROM OTHER VESICULOBULLOUS ERUPTIONS IS

a. Prominent crusting lesionsb. Unilateral occurrencec. Severe burning paind. Seasonal pattern of development

107. OF THE FOLLOWING CONDITIONS, GINGIVAL INVOLVEMENTS WOULD BE UNUSUAL IN

a. Primary herpesb. Recurrent apthaec. Pemphigoidd. Pyogenic granuloma

108. THE SUDDEN DEVELOPMENT OF INTENSELY RED, WHEAL LIKE LESIONS ON THE ORAL MUCOSA WHICH RAPIDLY PROGRESS TO THIN WALLED VESICLES THAT RUPTURE TO LEAVE SUPERFICIAL ULCERATION COVERED BY ADHERENT, YELLOWISH-WHITE MEMBRANE SUGGESTS A DIAGNOSIS OF?

a. Pemphigus vulgarisb. Behcet’s diseasec. Erythema multiformed. None of these

109. WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING GROUPS OF CONDITIONS HAS LESIONS OF THE ORAL MUCOSA WHICH MAY PASS THROUGH A STAGE IN WHICH THEY APPEAR AS VESICLES

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a. Pemphigus, erythema multiforme and angioneurotic edema

b. Hyperkeratosis, mucous patches and Fordyce granules

c. Herpes simplex, pemphigus and varicella

d. Verruca vulgaris, herpes simplex and tuberculosis ulcer

110. WHICH SITES ARE CHARACTERISTICALLY AFFECTED IN SJS

a. Liver, spleen, pancreasb. Conjunctiva, genitalia, oral

mucosac. Oral mucosa, lacrimal

apparatus, earsd. Parotid gland, palate,

submaxillary gland111. THE CHARACTERISTIC

ORAL CLINICAL FEATURE OF PEUTZ-JEGHERS SYNDROME IS

a. Macrognathiab. Yellowish spots on the palatec. Melanin pigmentation of the

lipsd. Small papillary lesion on the

palate112. OF THE FOLLOWING

WHICH TYPE OF NEVUS IS MOST LIKELY TO BECOME MALIGNANT?

a. Vascularb. Bluec. Junctional d. Intradermal

113. HHT SHOWS CHARACTERISTIC VASCULAR LESION WHICH OCCUR MOST OFTEN ON THE

a. Gingivab. Buccal mucosac. Lipd. Tongue

114. MULTIPLE MUCOSAL NEUROMAS ARE ASSOCIATED WITH AN INCREASED RISK OF

PHEOCHROMOCYTOMA AND CANCER OF THE

a. Rectumb. Colonc. Thyroidd. Stomach

115. A 0.7cm PEDUNCULATED, WHITE, ROUGH-SURFACED GROWTH OCCURING ON THE HARD PALATE IS MOST LIKELLY

a. Pleomorphic adenomab. Keratoacanthomac. Papillomad. Adenoid cystic carcinoma

OPERATIVE DENTISTRY

1. CAVITY PREPARATION FOR CLASS 1 AMALGAM RESTORATION SHOULD HAVE THIS FINAL OCCLUSAL OUTLINE

a. Multicurved with no sharp angles

b. Multicurved with rounded point angles

c. Multicurved with groovesd. Multicurved with grooves

2. WHAT TYPE OF FILLING MATERIALS IS CONDENSED AND PRODUCES ADAPTATION TO THE WALLS OF THE CAVITY

a. Amalgamb. Cementc. Zinc oxided. Silicate

3. ___________ STEPS IN BLACK’s CAVITY PREPARATION CONSISTS OF FREEING ALL ANGLES AND SURFACES FOR DEBRIS AND OFTEN INCLUDES MEDICATION AND INSULATION PROCEDURES

a. Debridement of the cavityb. Cooling of the cavityc. Finishing the cavity wallsd. Polishing the cavity walls

4. FILLED TEETH IS INDICATED IN DMF INDEX AS:

a. Useless preventive program

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b. Effective preventive dental program

c. Questionable preventive program

d. Not effective dental program5. WHAT IS USED FOR CLEAVING

ENAMEL IN A VERTICAL DIRECTION AND ARE HELPFUL FOR PROXIMAL POSTERIOR PREPARATION

a. Trimmersb. Spoonsc. Hatchetsd. Chisels

6. ENAMELOPLASTY IS DONE TO REGULATE THE EXTENSIONS OF CAVITY PREPARATION IN ORDER TO DEVELOP A

a. Desirable outline formb. Desirable finishing of the wallsc. Desirable resistance formd. Desirable retention form

7. PURCHASING FACTORS OF BURS ARE THE FOLLOWING, EXCEPT

a. Cooling abilityb. Uniformity in sizec. Availabilityd. Metallic content

8. ORGANIZED EFFORT IS SAID TO BE A PROMOTER OF DENTAL HEALTH PROGRAM IN

a. National healthb. Rural healthc. Public healthd. Private health

9. THE LAST DIGIT IN OPERATIVE INSTRUMENTS REPRESENTS THE

a. Neckb. Working pointc. Handled. Angle

10. FOR ESTHETIC PURPOSES CARIOUS AND ANTERUIRS ARE FILLED WITH

a. Gold inlayb. Resinsc. Gold foil

d. Amalgam11. WHAT IS THE USE OF PINS

INEXTENSIVE CERVICAL LESIONS OF MOLARS?

a. Auxiliary retention formb. Principal resistance formc. Auxiliary resistance formd. Principal retention form

12. LINGUAL LOOK IS PREPARED FOR THIS CAVITY WHEN ACCESS IS A PROBLEM

a. Class VIb. Class IVc. Class Vd. Class III

13. ORTHODONTIC PROCEDURE ARE RECOMMENDED FOR CORRECTING WHAT ANOMALIES

a. Supravertedb. Infravertedc. Tiltedd. Impacted

14. WHAT BUR IS USED FOR INITIAL OUTLINE FORM OF CLASS V PORCELAIN PREPARATION

a. #557 regular fissure burb. #69 to 71 tapered fissurec. 33 1/3 or 35 inverted cone burd. #1 or 2 round bur

15. GLASS IONOMERS FOR NON CARIOUS GINGIVAL LESIONS REQUIRE

a. Definite line angles in the cavityb. Slight cavity preparationc. Definite line angles in the cavityd. Precise cavity preparation

16. FRACTURED INCISORS AND LARGE CLASS IV CAVITIES ARE RESTORED USING THIS TYPE OF MATRIX

a. Celluloid stripb. Banding stripc. Clear plastic crown formsd. Copper bands

17. WHAT ARE THE USES OF HANDPIECE WHILE HOLDING

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MANDRELS STONES, DISK, STONES OR CUPS?

a. Polishing or fillingb. Smoothingc. Grindingd. All of the above

18. FOR EASE IN THE MANIPULATION AND SIPLICATION OF THE RUBBER DAM APPLICATION THIS SUBSTANCE IS USED

a. Varnishb. Vaselinec. Linerd. Lubricant

19. LARGE CLASS II CAVITIES WITH CUSPS INVOLVEMENT ARE BEST RESTORED WITH?

a. Gold fillingsb. Amalgam with pinsc. Gold foild. Gold castings

20. INCREASED CARIOUS LESIONS OCCUR IN THE ORAL CAVITY WHEN RADIATION IS APPLIED BECAUSE OF

a. Decreased salivary flowb. Acidic and watery salivac. Thick and ropy salivad. Shallow caries

21. ___________ARE OBSERVED UNDER FAULTY RESTORATION AND ITS SURFACE

a. Recurrent cariesb. Deepen primary cariesc. Secondary cariesd. Shallow carie

22. PROXIMAL CARIES CAN BE BEST DETECTED THROUGH

a. Periapical radiographb. Cephalometricsc. Bite-wing radiograph

23. HOW WOULD YOU CLASSIFIY RESINS AND SILICATES AS FILLING MATERIALS

a. Temporaryb. Secondaryc. Auxiliary

d. Permanent24. WHAT SUBSTANCE IN DENTAL

CEMENTS ACTS AS ANTICARIOGENIC AGENTS?

a. Fluoridesb. Iodidesc. Chloridesd. Phosphoric acids

25. FOR BULK REDUCTION DURING CAVITY PREPARATION THE CHIP SPACE IS FOR WHAT PURPOSE?

a. Coolingb. Decreasing the speedc. Increasing the speedd. Heating

26. RESISTANCE FORMS IS THE ABILITY TO WITHSTAND MASTICATORY STRESS AND THIS IS ESTABLISHED BY?

a. Bulk of the restorative materialb. Strength of the restorative

materialsc. Compressivenessd. Compactness

27. THERMOPLASTICS AND THERMOSETS ARE CLASSIFICATION OF RESINS ACCORDING TO

a. Chemical behaviour b. Chemical componentsc. Heat expansionsd. Thermal behaviour

28. CONVENIENCE POINTS ARE PLACED IN POINT ANGLES OF CAVITY PREPARATION FOR

a. Porcelain onlayb. Amalgamc. Porcelain inlayd. Cohesive gold

29. REPARATIVE DENTIN IS PRODUCED IN

a. Cavity preparationb. Pulpotomyc. Pulpectomyd. Pulp capping

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30. ____________ MIX OF ZINC PHOSPHATE CEMENT IS USED FOR LUTING GOLD CASTINGS

a. Creamyb. Stickyc. Powderyd. Watery

31. WHEN DOES COMPLETE POLYMERIZATION OF RESINS OCCUR?

a. Drying cavities with cool airb. Drying cavities with acetonec. Drying cavities with alcohold. Drying cavities with warm air

32. HOW DOES A PREPARED CAVITY FOR AMALGAM FILLED UP?

a. They are done on a weekly appointment

b. They are performed on a monthly appointment

c. The above procedures are done on a daily appointment

d. Lining, condensation, carving are done continuously in one appointment

33. ____________ ARE USED TO REMOVE SOFT DECAYED DENTAL TISSUES IN DEEP CAVITIES

a. Spoon excavatorb. Hatchetsc. Explorerd. Condenser

34. WHAT IS THE SUITABLE MATRIX USED IN BUILDING ENTIRE CROWN FOR EXTENSIVE AMALGAM RESTORATION?

a. Celluloid stripsb. Bonding stripsc. Copper bandsd. Preformed bands

35. CORRECT TOOTH BRUSHING TECHNIQUE SHOULD BE ADAPTED THE HEALTH OF WHAT TISSUES?

a. Periodontiumb. Perioral musculatorc. Mucus membrane

d. Periosseus structures36. ELASTIC IMPRESSION MATERIALS

USED FOR TAKING IMPRESSION OF CLASS IV FOR

a. Porcelain onlayb. Porcelain inlayc. Gold onlayd. Gold inlay

37. WHAT IS THE USE OF ARTICULATING RIBBONS IN RESTORATIVE DENTISTRY?

a. Determination of smooth margins

b. Locating prematurities of restorations

c. Determination of irregular fillings

d. Locating rough surface38. BURNISHING IS THE LAST STEP IN

THE MANIPULATION OF THIS FILLINF IN A PREPARED CAVITY

a. Silicateb. Resinsc. Glass ionomerd. Amalgam

39. WHAT IS THE MEASUREMENT USED IN PERIODONTAL HEALTH AND TREATMENT REQUIREMENTS IN A COMMUNITY

a. CPTINb. OHISc. PMId. OHI

40. HOW DOES ABRASIVE CUTTING POINTS REDUCES AND SMOOTHEN TOOTH SURFACE

a. Grindingb. Sandingc. Abradingd. Chipping

41. __________ ARE USED FOR FRACTURING AND REMOVING FRAIL ENAMEL AND SMOTHERING CAVITY WALLS

a. Spoonb. Hatchets

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c. Trimmersd. Chisels

42. ______________ IS A PROCEDURE WHICH INVOLVES EXCISION OF PITS AND FISSURES ON OCCLUSAL SURFACES OF POSTERIOR TEETH

a. Dentinoplastyb. Enameloplastyc. Prophylactic odontotomyd. Preventive odontectomy

43. WHAT LETTERS IN DMFS INDEZ REVEALS POOR DENTAL PICTURE OF A COMMUNITY?

a. Fb. D onlyc. Md. D and M

44. ___________ “M” COMPONENT IN DMF INDEX REPRESENTS

a. Molarb. Misplacedc. Missingd. Malposed

45. WHAT PART OF THE HAND INSTRUMENT IS USED TO PREVALENCE AND SMOOTHEN THE ENAMEL AND DENTIN

a. Handleb. Bladec. Working pointd. Shank

46. _____________ARE THE MAJOR MEASURES IN PREVALENCE AND DMF INDEX

a. Pocket formationb. Gingival diseasec. Carious lesiond. Periodontal disease

47. WHERE ARE UNDERCUTS PLACED IN CAVITY PREPARATION?

a. Convenience areasb. Line anglesc. Point anglesd. Retention areas

48. WHAT DO YOU CALL WHEN THE DESIGN OF THE BURS HAVE THE

FACE IN FROM OF THE RADIAL LINES WHICH IS ASSOCIATED WITH ITS STRENGTH?

a. Positive rake anglesb. Negative rake anglesc. Few rake anglesd. Many rake angles

49. IMPACTED TEETH IN DMFS INDEX IS REPRESENTED BY?

a. Db. Sc. Not at alld. F

50. AFTER OPENING A DEEPER CAVITY, WHICH INSTRUMENT IS USED TO REMOVE CARIES?

a. Hatchetsb. GMTc. Spoon excavator

51. WHAT IS THE ANTIBACTERIAL OF THE CaOH CAVITY LINER

a. Sodium ascorbateb. Glycol salicylatesc. Muriatic acidd. Magnesium ribonucleate

52. WHAT MAKES CALCIUM HYDROXIDE RADIOPAQUE?

a. Silver halide crystalsb. Titanium dioxidec. Potassium aldehyde

53. WHERE DO WE PLACE CALCIUM HYDROXIDE?

a. Enamelb. Dentinc. Pulpd. All of the above

54. WHICH PART OF THE AMALGAM RESTORATION IS MORE PRONE TO FRACTURE?

a. Dove tailb. Fish tailc. Isthmusd. Carved grooves

55. IN A CLASS II AMALGAM PREPARATION WHICH IS BEING FILLED FIRST?

a. Occlusal areas

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b. Retentive areas firstc. Retention areasd. Proximal areas

56. WHAT IS THE SIGN OF INITIAL SETTING OF AMALGAM?

a. Expansionb. Loss of plasticityc. Hardinessd. When tofflemire is removed

then proximal box collapses57. SETTING OF AMALGAM IS

REFERRED AS?a. Amalgamedb. Condensationc. Polymerizationd. Crystallization

58. THE LIQUID OF ZINC PHOSPHATE CEMENT IS MADE UP OF

a. 23% phosphoric acidb. 19% boric acidc. 1.27% APFd. 37% phosphoric acid

59. WHICH CLASS CAN BE FOUND IN ALL TEETH?

a. Class IV and Class IIb. Class V and IVc. Class I and III and IVd. Class I and IV

60. THIS IS THE LARGEST AREA OF TOTAL DEMINERALIZATION?

a. Translucent zoneb. Body of the lesionc. Surface zoned. Incipient caries zone

61. WHAT IS THE SUPERFICIAL ZONE?a. Translucent zoneb. Body of the lesionc. Surface zoned. Incipient caries zone

62. WHAT IS THE DEEPEST ZONE?a. Translucent zoneb. Body of the lesionc. Surface zoned. Incipient caries zone

63. WHAT IS THE ZONE NEAR THE DENTIN?

a. Translucent zone

b. Body of the lesionc. Surface zoned. Incipient caries zone

64. TOPICAL FLUORIDE CAN STILL BE EFFECTIVE AT THIS ZONE?

a. Translucent zoneb. Body of the lesionc. Surface zoned. Incipient caries zone

65. WHAT IS THE AREA OF DEMINERALIZATION AND REMINERALIZATION?

a. Translucent zoneb. Body of the lesionc. Dark zoned. Incipient caries zone

ORTHODONTICS PEDODONTICS

1. CROWDED PERMANENT CAN BE PREDICTED BY THE ABSENCE OF WHAT SPACES DURING THE LATE PRIMARY PERIOD?

a. Physiologic spacing.b. Interocclusal spacesc. Donder’s zoned. Leeway

2. IF PINPOINT EXPOSURE OF THE PULPAL HORNS ARE ACCIDENTALLY DONE DURING CAVITY PREPARATION, TREATMENT IS?

a. Root resectionb. Pulpectomyc. Pulpotomyd. Pulp capping.

3. EXTRAORALLY, THE PRESENCE OF NORMAL OVERBITE AND OVERJET CAN BE MANIFESTED BY?

a. Hypertonic lipsb. Hypotonic lipsc. Normal color size and shape

of the lips.

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d. Abnormal size and shape of the lips

4. SHELL TEETH IS ASSOCIATED WITH DEVELOPMENTAL DISTURBANCE DURING WHAT PROCESS?

a. Eruptionb. Functionc. Exfoliationd. Structural formation.

5. FOR PULP CAPPING OF A NEARLY EXPOSED PULP, WHAT AGENT IS USED?

a. Glass ionomerb. CaOH.c. Compositesd. ZOE

6. THE PRESENCE OF ABNORMAL SPACE BETWEEN THE MAXILLARY CENTRALS IN AN ADOLESCENT IS ______ IRREGULARITY?

a. Permanent.b. Dentalc. Temporaryd. Systemic

7. PRIMARY ROOTS OF MOLARS ARE USUALLY

a. Fused togetherb. Flared distally.c. Ankylosed

8. WHAT PRIMARY TEETH ARE EXTRACTED FIRST IN SERIAL EXTRACTION?

a. Central incisorsb. Caninesc. First molars.d. Lateral incisors

9. WHAT MALOCCLUSION PRESENT THE SAME MOLAR RELATIONSHIP IN NORMAL INDIVIDUAL’S OCCLUSION?

a. CL I (Angle System)b. CL II (Angle’s System)c. CL II (Osseus type)d. CL II (Dental type)

10. A CHILD, 9 YEARS OLD, RECEIVED A TRAUMATIC FRACTURE WITHOUT EXPOSURE TO HIS CENTRAL INCISOR. PULP TEST REVEALS A NEGATIVE RESULT AFTER 2 DAYS. THE DENTIST SHOULD CONSIDER THE PULP AS?

a. Partially necroticb. Requiring retesting in 2

weeksc. Non-vital.d. Hyperaemia

11. IN FESTOONING AND TRIMMING A STAINLESS STEEL CROWN, SPECIAL ATTENTION MUST BE PAID TO THE GREATER LENGTH NECESSARY IN THE REGION OF THE MESIOBUCCAL BULGE IN THE

a. D.b. Ec. Cd. B

12. FOLLOWING EXTRACTION OF THE MANDIBULAR PRIMARY SECOND MOLAR IN A 3 ½ YEAR OLD CHILD, THE TREATMENT OF CHOICE IS TO:

a. Place a removable appliance to replace the extracted teeth

b. Allow the permanent first molar to erupt and then maintain space for the premolar

c. Place a fixed appliance to guide the eruption of the permanent first molar.

d. Place a removable appliance to replace the extracted tooth and prevent elongation of the opposing primary molar

e. None of the above

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13. EDGEWISE APPLIANCES ARE MULTIBANDED APPLIANCES

a. Used on incisal edges of the anterior teeth

b. Used to obtain edge-to-edge occlusion

c. Employing a particular bracket for insertion of rectangular arch wire.

d. Employing a particular bracket for insertion of two labial arch wires at the incisal and gingival edge of the bracket

e. None of the above14. THE PURPOSE OF EMPLOYING

LOOPS AND HELICES IN WIRES IN TOOTH-MOVING APPLIANCES IS TO

a. Provide lighter forceb. Provide a longer lever arm.c. Lengthen the period

between adjustmentd. All of the abovee. None of the above

15. AN EIGHT YEAR OLD PATIENT HAS AN END-ON MOLAR RELATION AND NORMAL VERTICAL AND HORIZONTAL OVERLAP. THE MANDIBULAR LATERAL INCISORS AND ERUPTING SLIGHTLY LINGUALLY. THE DENTIST SHOULD:

a. Insert a lingual archb. Refer him to an orthodontistc. Continue routine dental care

and developmental supervision.

d. Institute orthodontic therapy to reposition the lateral incisors and to connect the Class II molar relation

e. All of the above16. IN A CHILD PATIENT WITH

SUSPECTED CASE OF LEUKEMIA AND WITH A

BADLY INFECTED PRIMARY TOOTH, THE PROCEDURE OF CHOICE WOULD BE TO:

a. Administer antibiotics and refer the patient to a physician

b. Obtain consultation before determining the course of action.

c. Obtain a bleeding count, admit the child to a hospital for extraction.

d. Provide palliative treatment only

e. Extract the tooth under anesthetic and refer the patient to a physician

17. THE GREATEST PERIOD OF CRANIAL GROWTH OCCURS BETWEEN

a. Birth and 5 years of age.b. 6 and 8 years of agec. 10 and 12 years of aged. 14 and 16 years of agee. 19 and 20 years of age

18. A PATIENT EIGHT YEARS OF AGE HAS A MAXILLARY PERMANENT CENTRAL INCISORS ERUPTED TO THE EXTENT THAT TWO-THIRDS OF THE ANATOMIC CROWN MAY BE SEEN CLINICALLY. A 3mm DIASTEMA IS USUALLY RESULT OF

a. A failure of fusion of the premaxilla

b. An abnormal labial frenumc. A supernumerary teeth in

the midlined. The normal eruption pattern

of these teeth.e. A thick midline septum of

bone19. IN ORDER TO REDUCE

SALIVATION PRIOR TO CEMENTING ORTHODONTIC BANDS, WHICH OF THE

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FOLLOWING DRUGS MIGHT BE USED?

a. Atropine.b. Meprobamatec. Pilocarpined. Gentian violete. Chloral hydrate

20. A 2 ½ YEAR-OLD CHILD HAS AN ACUTE ORAL INFECTION CHARACTERIZED BY SMALL REDDISH-YELLOW VESICLES IN THE BUCCAL MUCOSA AND ON THE HARD PALATE. THE TEMPERATURE IS 102o F. THE MOUTH IS SORE AND THE CHILD WILL NOT EAT NOR DRINK. THE CONDITIONS DESCRIBED IS:

a. Moniliasisb. Infantile impetigoc. Acute herpetic stomatitisd. Acute streptococcal

infectione. Acute necrotizing ulcerative

gingivitis21. THE MOST IMPORTANT

CRITERION OF SUCCESS IN A PULPOTOMY OF A YOUNG PERMANENT CENTRAL INCISOR WOULD BE WHETHER:

a. They completed root and would complete its development.

b. A bridge of secondary dentin has been developed and radiographically visible

c. Root end remained open if not fully developed when treatment was started

d. Resorbed apex of the root22. TERMINAL PLANE

a. Refers to the relationships of the mesial surfaces of primary second molars

b. Refers to the relationship of the distal surfaces of primary first molars

c. Determines the possible first permanent molar relation.

d. Refers to the relationship of the distal surfaces of the upper and lower first permanent molars

23. THE MAXILLARY INCISORS USUALLY DEVELOP IN WHAT PATTERN?

a. Erupt in labioversion if the deciduous roots do not resorb at all

b. Labial to the roots ef the primary central incisors

c. Erupts in linguoversiond. Lingual to the roots of the

primary central incisors.24. MIDLINE DIASTEMA IS

CAUSED BY THE FOLLOWING EXCEPT?

a. Presence of mesiodens between the maxillary centrals

b. Excessive mesial and distance widths of the maxillary centrals.

c. Missing lateral incisorsd. Abnormal size of labial and

its attachment25. CALCIFICATION OF PRIMARY

BEGINS WHEN?a. The first trimester of

pregnancyb. The second trimester of

pregnancyc. Between the first and third

months in utero.d. Between the fourth and

sixth months in utero26. THE OBJECTIVE OF EARLY

ORTHODONTIC TREATMENT DURING THE MIXED DENTITION IS

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a. To establish an unbalanced muscular pressure

b. To restrain the abnormal pattern of the dentinocraniofacial structures.

c. To create an abnormal pattern fitted for the person’s dentinocraniofacial structures

d. To establish a straight facial profile

27. PASSIVE APPLIANCES IS THE CLASSIFICATION FOR

a. Hawley’s retainers.b. Fixed straight wire

techniquesc. Fixed removable appliancesd. Bugg technique

28. WHAT MINERALIZED PLAQUE CAUSES SEVERE PERIODONTAL DISEASE AMONG CHILDREN AND ARE OFTEN NOTED ON THE POSTERIORS

a. Material albab. Denticlesc. Calculi.d. Pulp stone

29. BEFORE THE EXTRACTION OF PERMANENT TEETH IN ORDER TO AVOID UNWANTED COMPLICATIONS LIKE EXCESSIVE SPACINGS, THE FOLLOWING RULES MUST BE CONSIDERED

a. Balance facial skeleton A-P vertically and M-D laterally

b. Presence of Class I molar relationships

c. All of these given choices.d. Harmonius dental mid-lines

30. A VICTIM OF ECTODERMAL DYSPLASIA, HAS NO PERMANENT OR PRIMARY TEETH SHOULD HAVE HIS DENTURE CONSTRUCTED

a. Immediately but worn his dentures for eating so growth is not constricted

b. Immediately worn regularly for reasons of growth.

c. At age 1331. FRANKFORT-HORIZONTAL IS

A REFEERENCE PLANE CONSTRUCTED BY THE JOINING OF THE FOLLOWING LANDMARKS

a. Porion and sellab. Porion and nasionc. Porion orbitaled. Nasion and sellae. Porion orbitale and sella

32. THE RELATIONSHIP BETWEEN ADEQUACY OF DENTITION AND SPEECH PROFICIENCY IS SUCH THAT:

a. If there are problems in dentition, there are likely to be problems in speech

b. Speech models may assume relative importance in certain cases, but normally of structure will dictate whether there will be normal speech patterns

c. Studies of normal youngsters indicate relatively great variance in the development of speech skills

d. All of the abovee. None of the above

33. TO REGAIN ARCH LENGTH IN THE ANTERIOR SEGMENT BY MOVING THE INCISORS LABIALLY, ONE SHOULD

a. Use a tongue bladeb. Use an inclined planec. Use a split saddle acrylic

space regainerd. Evaluate the position of the

teeth cephalometrically before beginning.

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34. A FOUR YEAR OLD CHILD HAS SEVERE, ACUTE DENTAL PAIN. SO MANY TEETH ARE CARIOUS THAT THE DETERMINATION OF THE OFFENDING TOOTH IS DIFFICULT. THE BEST DIAGNOSTIC TOOL TO BE USED IS

a. Percussion.b. Radiographsc. Electric pulp testingd. To have the patient identify

the offending tooth.e. Impression

35. AN EIGHT YEAR OLD PATIENT HAS AN END ON MOLAR RELATION AND NORMAL VERTICAL AND HORIZONTAL OVERLAP. THE MANDIBULAR LATERAL INCISORS ARE ERUPTING SLIHTLY LINGUALLY. THE DENTIST SHOULD

a. Insert a lingual archb. Refer him to an orthodontistc. Continue routine dental care

and developmental supervision.

d. Institute orthodontic therapy to re-position the lateral incisors and to correct the Class II molar relation

e. All of the above36. ROUTINE RADIOGRAPHIC

EXAMINATION OF A SIX-YEAR OLD PATIENT DISCLOSES A SUPERNUMERARY TOOTH BETWEEN THE MAXILLARY CENTRAL INCISORS. THE DENTIST SHOULD

a. Delay removal until its complete eruption

b. Wait until twelve years of age for removal

c. Remove it only if it develops cystic tendencies

d. Remove it as soon as possible without injury to the central incisors.

e. Wait until seven years of age for removal

37. A CHILD FOUR YEARS OF AGE HAS FREQUENT BROKEN BONES AND EXHIBITS A BLUE SCLERA. WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING DENTAL CONDITIONS IS SUGGESTED?

a. Oligodontiab. Turner’s hypoplasiac. Amelogenesis imperfectad. Dentinogenesis imperfectae. Enamel hypoplasia caused

by rickets38. WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING IS

THE BEST EXPLANATION OF ANXIETY IN DENTAL PATIENTS?

a. Realistic fears of being injured

b. Fear of inability to meet the cost of the procedures

c. Fear that the dental work will interfere with other appointments

d. Distortions and exaggerations of the situation due to unresolved childhood attitudes

39. A REMOVABLE ACRYLIC-TYPE SPACE MAINTAINER MIGHT WELL BE THE APPLIANCE OF CHOICE FOA A SIX-YEAR OLD PATIENT IN WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING

a. Bilateral loss of the mandibular deciduous first and second molar

b. Premature loss of the right deciduous second molar with a 2mm mesial drift of the permanent first molar

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c. Bilateral loss of the mandibular deciduous first molar

d. Premature loss of mandibular right deciduous first and second molar

40. A DENTAL PATIENT WITH CEREBRAL PALSY PRESENTS SPECIAL TREATMENT PROBLEMS IN THE AREA OF

a. Behaviour managementb. Drug reactionc. Caries controld. Control of bleeding

i. A and Bii. A and C

iii. A and Div. B and Cv. B and D

vi. All of the above41. PROTRACTED TONGUE

POSTURE CAUSES WHAT ANOMALY

a. Posterior crossbiteb. Class II Division Ic. Anterior Crossbited. Anterior openbite

42. USED FOR RESTRAINING THE EXCESSIVE GROWTH OF MAXILLARY BONE IN EARLY TREATMENT OF CLASS II IS WHAT APPLIANCE

a. Hawley’s retainerb. Inclined planec. Headcap and facebowd. Chincap and headgear

43. THE DOVETAIL ON A MODIFIED CLASS II CAVITY PREPARATION IN A PRIMARY DENTITION SHOULD BE ACCENTUATED TOWARD WHERE?

a. Gingivalb. Crest of the contour of the

toothc. Middle thirdd. Incisor

44. SERIAL EXTRACTION IS A HELPFUL PROCEDURE IN TREATING CROWDING OF ANTERIORS WHEN THE MOLAR RELATIONSHIP IS IN

a. Class IVb. Class IIIc. Class I with an acceptable

facial profiled. Class II

45. THERE IS A NORMAL MOLAR RELATION AND A WELL-ALIGNED ARCH BUT A SINGLE LOSS OF A MOLAR IN THE MANDIBULAR ARCH, THIS FALLS UNDER THE CLASSIFICATION OF ANGLE AS

a. Class I type 5b. Class I type 3c. Class I type 4d. Class I type 2

46. A THIRTEEN YEAR OLD CHILD HAS A 3mm MAXILLARY MIDLINE DIASTEMA AND A HEAVY FIBROUS MIDLINE FRENUM. THE CHILD EXHIBITS AND OTHERWISE NORMAL OCCLUSION. WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING IS THE BEST APPROACH TO MANAGE THIS PROBLEM

a. Band the central incisors and use a space closing device

b. Band the central incisors and close the space with extraoral force

c. Excise the frenum between the central incisors and close the diastema orthodontically

d. Excise the tissue between the central incisors and permit the diastema to close on its own

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e. Band the central incisors and allow the space to close on its own

47. A SIX YEAR OLD WHO HAS BEEN DIAGNOSES AS HYPERKINETIC APPEARS AT YOUR OFFICE IN AN OBVIOUS STATE OF ANXIETY AT THE IMPENDING TREATMENT. UPON INTERVIEW, HIS MOTHER RELATES THAT HE IS TAKING 30mg OF METHYPHENIDATE (RITALIN) DAILY. WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING SHOULD YOU DO IN PLANNING TO MAKE THE CHILD MORE MANAGEABLE?

a. Double the daily dose of Ritalin prior to the dental appointments

b. Ask the mother to discontinue medication on the day of the dental visit

c. Balance the medication with 65mg Phenobarbital

d. Call the child’s physician and discuss with him the child’s drug regimen

e. Use behaviour modification technique as you would with any other patient

48. UNUSUAL INTRINSIC PIGMENTATION OF THE PRIMARY TEETH MAY BE RELATED TO

a. Erythroblastosis fetalisb. Idiopathic fibromatosisc. Tetracyline therapyd. Ingestion of iron

supplement in vitamin tablets

e. Both a and c above49. A DISTAL SHOE SPACE

MAINTAINER IS INDICATED WHEN A PRIMARY

a. Canine is in crossbite

b. First molar is prematurely lost

c. Second molar is lost prior to the eruption of a permanent first molar

d. Second molar is lost after the eruption of a permanent first molad

e. None of the above50. OF THE FOLLOWING, THE

PERMANENT TOOTH MOST FREQUENTLY IMPACTED IS THE?

a. Mandibular 2nd premolarb. Maxillary lateral incisorsc. Mandibular caninesd. Maxillary caninese. Mandibular lateral incisor

51. CROWDING OF THE MANDIBULAR ARCH IS PRESENTED IN NORMAL RELATIONS OF THE PERMANENT 1ST MOLARS, IT IS CLASSIFIED AS

a. Class I type 3b. Class I type 4c. Class I type 2d. Class I type 1

52. LATE MESIAL SHIFTING AND LINGUAL INCLINATION OF PERMANENT 1ST MOLAR LEADS TO WHAT AN ABNORMAL CONDITION DURING THE TRANSITIONAL PERIOD?

a. Decreased mandibular arch and circumference

b. Reduced angulation of permanent anteriors

c. Marked angulation of permanent anterios

d. Increased mandibular arch circumference

53. EARLY TREATMENT OF A DEVELOPING CLASS III BY A GP IS BY?

a. Hawley’s plate

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b. Chincap with headcapc. Multibanded techniqued. Begg’s technique

54. WHAT WILL BE THE MOST SERIOUS RESULT OF POOR ORAL HYGIENE IN CHILDREN

a. Foul breathb. Extensive caries.c. Loss of arch lengthd. Poor periodontal support

55. CLASSIFIY THIS INJURY WHICH CAUSES NON-VITAL ANTERIOR WITH OR WITHOUT LOSS OF TOOTH STRUCTURE

a. Class. IVb. Class IIIc. Class IId. Class V

56. THE FACTOR WHICH PERMITS AN END-TO-END RELATIONSHIPS OF THE PERMANENT FIRST MOLAR IN THE MIXED DENTITION TO BECOME A CLASS I (ANGLE) MOLAR RELATIONSHIP IN THE PERMANENT DENTITION IS THE

a. Sum of the widths of the mandibular premolar is greater than the sum of the widths of the mandibular deciduous molars

b. Sum of the widths of the mandibular premolar is less than the sum of the widths of the mandibular deciduous molars

c. Maxillary permanent first molar is driven distally by the eruption of the maxillary second premolar

d. Mandibular permanent first molar is driven distally by the eruption of the mandibular second premolar

e. None of the above

57. A CHILD PATIENT HAS BEEN GIVEN A SEDATIVE DOSE OF A SHORT-ACTING BARBITURATE AND IS HIGHLY ACTIVE AND EXCITED IN THE DENTAL OFFICE. THIS INDICATES?

a. The minimal brain dysfunction syndrome

b. Failure to give enough medication

c. A paradoxical response to the medication.

d. A synergistic response to other drugs the child is taking

e. Normal response to this medication

58. A SEVEN YEAR OLD CHILD HAS A LINGUALLY LOCKED MAXILLARY PERMANENT CENTRAL INCISORS. THERE IS SUFFICIENT ROOM FOR THE TOOTH. IN ORDER TO TREAT THIS CONDITION PROPERLY A DENTIST SHOULD

a. Wait until all permanent teeth are erupted

b. Refer the patient to an orthodontist for observation

c. Correct the condition immediately with a simple appliance

d. Surgically reposition the central incisor

e. None of the above59. A RADIOGRAPH OF A CHILD

FOUR YEARS OLD REVEALS THAT THE MANDIBULAR SECOND PREMOLAR ARE NOT PRESENT. THIS MEANS THAT

a. Maxillary lateral incisors will also be missing

b. The child will not develop second premolars

c. This child’s chronologic age and physiologic age may not be to closely

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related and these teeth may develop later

d. Extraction of deciduous second premolars should be performed to allow the permanent first molars to drift forward with less tilting

e. The child will develop second premolars but later than normal

60. FOLLOWING AMPUTATION OF THE CORONAL PORTION OF THE PULP OF AN IMMATURE PERMANENT FIRST MOLAR, THE STUMP SHOULD BE CAPPED WITH

a. Formocresolb. Calcium chloridec. Thymol zinc oxided. Calcium hydroxidee. Zinc oxide eugenol

61. “UGLY DUCKLING STAGE” IS A TRANSIENT MALOCCLUSION APPEARING THE

a. Primary periodb. Predentitional periodc. Permanent periodd. Middle mixed period

62. THIS PROBLEM IS ESTABLISHED UPON THE DRIFTING OF THE FIRST MOLAR DUE TO THE PREMATURE LOSS OF THE PRIMARY MOLARS

a. Space supervisionb. Space regaining.c. Space maintenanced. Oral equilibrium