Plcament Papers of Miltiple Companies Like TCS, Infyosys,CTS

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Question 1 Unit "Cognizant Sample Test" Please find the figure continuing the series

( )A. 1( )B. 2( )C. 3(ans)( )D. 4

Explanation:

All four segments use the same figures: two squares, one circle, and one triangle. In the first segment, the squares are on the outside of the circle and triangle. In the second segment, the squares are below the other two. In the third segment, the squares on are the inside. In the fourth segment, the squares are above the triangle and circle.

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Question 2 Unit "Cognizant Sample Test" Please find the figure continuing the series:

( )A. 1( )B. 2(x)C. 3 ← Correct answer( )D. 4

Explanation:

In this series, the shaded part inside the circle gets larger and then smaller.

http://placement.freshersworld.com/www/content_report.php?ctg=tests&edit_question=9010&question_type=multiple_one&lessons_Id=19


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( )A. a( )B. b(ans)( )C. c( )D. d

Explanation: The small figures are shifted upwards or downwards.

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( )A. a( )B. b( )C. c(ans)( )D. d

Explanation: In each row the signs point to a different direction. In addition, in each row one circle appears solid, one circle appears half solid, and one circle appears hollow.



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Question 5 Unit "Cognizant Sample Test" Please find the odd one:

( )A. a( )B. b( )C. c(ans)( )D. d

Explanation: All figures are rectangular, c is a triangle; e is also correct as it is the only figure that is not symmetrical

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Question 6 Unit "Cognizant Sample Test" Read the following information carefully and answer the questions given below :

(1)A, B, C, D and E are five friends.(2)B is elder to E, but not as tall as C.(3)C is younger to A, and is taller to D and E. (4)A is taller to D, But younger to E.(5)D is elder to A but is shorter in the group.

Who among the following is the eldest?

( ) A. A ( )B. B( )C.Either B or D is the eldest(ans)( )D.None of these

Explanation: in terms of age we have:E < B, C < A, A < E, A < D So, we have C < A< E < B, A < D. In terms of height we have B < C, D < C, E < C, D < A. Either B or D is the eldest

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Question 7 Unit "Cognizant Sample Test"

Which of the following pairs of students is elder to D?

( )A. BA( )B. BC ( )C. BE( )D. None of these

Explanation: It cannot be determined for sure

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Question 8 Unit "Cognizant Sample Test" Which of the following statements is correct about B?

(1)B is not the tallest (2) B is shorter to E(3)When they are asked to stand in ascending order with respect to their heights,B is in the middle.

( )A. Only (1) is correct (ans)

( )B. Only (1) and (3) are correct( )C. All are correct ( )D. All are incorrect

Explanation: B is shorter than C, so B is not the tallest.Thus (1) is correct. B and E are shorter than C. So, it cannot be concluded that B is shorter to E. Thus (2) is incorrect. A single definite order of heights cannot be obtained from the given information. So (3) is incorrect.

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Question 9 Unit "Cognizant Sample Test" If F, another friend is taller than C, how many of them will be between F and E according to their height?

( )A. None( )B. One( )C. Two( )D. None of these (ans)

Explanation: Since no definite order of height can be obtained.So it cannot be determined for sure how many persons lie between F and E.




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Question 10 Unit "Cognizant Sample Test" If a selection is to be made among them who would be relatively older and also taller, who among them should be chosen?

( )A. A( )B. B (ans)( )C. C ( )D. D

Explanation: A and C are youngest so they cannot be selected. D is shorter than two persons A and C. B is shorter than C only and is only relatively order. So, B will be selected. E is younger than B.

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Question 11 Unit "Cognizant Sample Test" Based on the given Statements, You are required to evaluate which conclusion follows.(A). If the 1st statement follows(B). If the 2nd statement follows(ans)(C). If both follows(D). I f none follows

Statement: All Doctors are engineers. All Engineers are Advocates Conclusion:1. All Advocates are Doctors 2. All Doctors are Advocates

( )A. If the 1st statement follows( )B. If the 2nd statement follows( )C. If both follows( )D. I f none follows

Explanation: Both are SAP type premises, hence, the conclusion may be SAP type. Incase of first conclusion the term 'Advocate' which is distributed is not distributed in question

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Question 12 Unit "Cognizant Sample Test" Statement: Some Chairs are Furniture. Some Furniture is Tables Conclusion: 1. Some Tables are Chairs 2. Some furniture is chairs

( )A. If the 1st statement follows( )B. If the 2nd statement follows ( )C. If both follows( )D. I f none follows(ans)

Explanation: Both Statements are SIP type or particular. Hence, No conclusion is possible.

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Statement: All flowers are buds. No bud is bush

Conclusion:

1. No bush is flower

2. All flowers is flower

( )A. If the 1st statement follows(ans)( )B. If the 2nd statement follows( )C. If both follows( )D. I f none follows

Explanation: First statement is SAP and second statement is SEP, ie, Universal negative, from which we will get only SEP.

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Question 14 Unit "Cognizant Sample Test" Statement: No cat is elephant. No elephant is animal

Conclusion:




1. No cat is animal

2. Some elephant is cat

( )A. If the 1st statement follows( )B. If the 2nd statement follows( )C. If both follows( )D. I f none follows(ans)

Explanation: Combination Universal negative premises will produce no conclusion

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Question 15 Unit "Cognizant Sample Test" Statement: All monkeys are animals. Anil is an animal

Conclusion:

1. Anil is a monkey

2. All monkey are animals

( )A. If the 1st statement follows( )B. If the 2nd statement follows( )C. If both follows( )D. I f none follows(ans)

Explanation: The middle term 'animal' has not been distributed at least once in the premises.

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Question 16 Unit "Cognizant Sample Test" Four defensive football players are chasing the opposing wide receiver, who has the ball. Calvin is directly behind the ball carrier. Jenkins and Burton are side by side behind Calvin. Zeller is behind Jenkins and Burton. Calvin tries for the tackle but misses and falls. Burton trips. Which defensive player tackles the receiver?

( )A. Burton( )B. Zeller( )C. Jenkins(ans)( )D. Calvin

Explanation:



After all the switching was done, Jenkins was directly behind the receiver. Calvin and Burton had fallen. Zeller remained in the rear.

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Question 17 Unit "Cognizant Sample Test" A four-person crew from Classic Colors is painting Mr. Field's house. Michael is painting the front of the house. Ross is in the alley behind the house painting the back. Jed is painting the window frames on the north side, Shawn is on the south. If Michael switches places with Jed, and Jed then switches places with Shawn, where is Shawn?

( )A. in the alley behind the house( )B. on the north side of the house( )C. in front of the house(ans)( )D. on the south side of the house

Explanation: After all the switches were made, Shawn is in front of the house. Ross is in the alley behind the house,Michael is on the north side, and Jed is on the south.

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Question 18 Unit "Cognizant Sample Test" In a four-day period Monday through Thursday each of the following temporary office workers worked only one day, each a different day. Ms. Johnson was scheduled to work on Monday, but she traded with Mr. Carter, who was originally scheduled to work on Wednesday. Ms. Falk traded with Mr. Kirk, who was originally scheduled to work on Thursday. After all the switching was done, who worked on Tuesday?

( )A. Mr. Carter( )B. Ms. Falk( )C. Ms. Johnson( )D. Mr. Kirk(ans)

Explanation: After all the switches were made, Mr. Kirk worked on Tuesday. Mr. Carter worked on Monday,Ms. Johnson on Wednesday, and Ms. Falk on Thursday.

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Four people witnessed a mugging. Each gave a different description of the mugger. Which description is probably right?

( )A. He was average height, thin, and middle-aged.( )B. He was tall, thin, and middle-aged. (ans)( )C. He was tall, thin, and young.( )D. He was tall, of average weight, and middle-aged.

Explanation: Tall, thin, and middle-aged are the elements of the description repeated most often and are therefore the most likely to be accurate.

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Question 20 Unit "Cognizant Sample Test" Ms. Forest likes to let her students choose who their partners will be; however, no pair of students may work together more than seven class periods in a row. Adam and Baxter have studied together seven class periods in a row. Carter and Dennis have worked together three class periods in a row. Carter does not want to work with Adam. Who should be assigned to work with Baxter?

( )A. Carter(ans)

( )B. Adam( )C. Dennis( )D. Forest

Explanation: Baxter should be assigned to study with Carter. Baxter cannot be assigned with Adam, because they have already been together for seven class periods. If Baxter is assigned to work with Dennis, that would leave Adam with Carter, but Carter does not want to work with Adam.

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Question 21 Unit "Cognizant Sample Test" Brian is dividing 50 marbles into 3 groups. How many marbles are in the largest of the three groups?

(1) The sum of the two smaller groups of marbles is equal to the largest group of marbles. (2) The smallest group contains 6 marbles

( )A. Statement (1) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (2) is not sufficient. (ans)

( )B. Statement (2) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (1) is not sufficient.( )C. BOTH statements TOGETHER are sufficient, but NEITHER statement ALONE is sufficient.( )D. EACH statement ALONE is sufficient.



Explanation: The first statement establishes that the larger group constitutes half of the total amount of marbles, which means it must be equal to 25 marbles.

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Question 22 Unit "Cognizant Sample Test" Is b a positive number?

(1) 1,452(b) > 0 (2) –b < 0

( )A. Statement (1) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (2) is not sufficient.( )B. Statement (2) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (1) is not sufficient.( )C. BOTH statements TOGETHER are sufficient, but NEITHER statement ALONE is sufficient.( )D. EACH statement ALONE is sufficient(ans)

Explanation: For (1), the fact that a positive number multiplied by b has a positive product establishes that b is a positive number. For (2), any positive number with a negative sign placed in front of it will become negative, indicating that b is a positive number

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Question 23 Unit "Cognizant Sample Test" Is x greater than y?(1) x > 2y (2) x – y > 0

( )A. Statement (1) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (2) is not sufficient.( )B. Statement (2) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (1) is not sufficient. (ans)

( )C. BOTH statements TOGETHER are sufficient, but NEITHER statement ALONE is sufficient.( )D. EACH statement ALONE is sufficient.

Explanation: It would be possible for x and y to be negative numbers and still satisfy the conditions of (1), but it then would be impossible to satisfy (2).

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What is the average test score of Angela, Barry, Carl, Dennis, and Edward? (1) The average of the test scores of Barry, Carl, and Edward is 87. (2) The average of the test scores of Angela and Dennis is 84.

( )A. Statement (1) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (2) is not sufficient.( )B. Statement (2) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (1) is not sufficient.( )C. BOTH statements TOGETHER are sufficient, but NEITHER statement ALONE is sufficient. (ans)

( )D. EACH statement ALONE is sufficient.

Explanation: As long as the sum of all five test scores can be calculated, it will be possible to calculate the average score

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Question 25 Unit "Cognizant Sample Test" If y is an integer, is it an odd number? (1) y3 ≥ 0 (2) y is either an odd number or a negative number

( )A. Statement (1) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (2) is not sufficient.( )B. Statement (2) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (1) is not sufficient.( )C. BOTH statements TOGETHER are sufficient, but NEITHER statement ALONE is sufficient(ans)

( )D. EACH statement ALONE is sufficient.

Explanation: In order for (1) to be true, y must be either positive or zero. Therefore, According to the terms of (2), y must be odd.

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In a given code SISTER is coded as 535301. UNCLE as 84670 and BOY as 129. How is RUSTIC written in the code ?

( )A. 633185 ( )B. 185336(ans)




( )C. 363815( )D.581363

Explanation: In this code the alphabets are coded as followsS I S T E R U N C L E B O Y5 3 5 3 0 1 8 4 6 7 0 1 2 9If we apply this method, the code comes out to be 185336

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In a certain code REASON is written as 621754 and TRUTH as 86983. Find out the codes for TREASON?

( )A. 7548261( )B. 8621754 ( )C. 7452861( )D. 2865614

Explanation: T = 8; R =6; E =2; A =1; S =7; O =5; N =4

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Question 28 Unit "Cognizant Sample Test" Read the passage and answer the questions given below:

For years now, critics of United States cities have pictured city centers as empty places, avoid of life. Fortunately, a recent trend in urban development is making some cities lively. One example of this trend is Baltimore's Harbor place, a stunning waterfront complex of one hundred shops set in glass pavilions. Not long ago, Baltimore's dockland 5 area, like clock areas in other older cities, was a collection of abandoned warehouses. Now the area is expected to add thirty million dollars to Baltimore's annual tax base and to draw home buyers back to the city and away from the nearby Washington, DC area. Baltimore has long been a pioneer in urban renewal, not only building from scratch, as at Harbor place, but preserving and restoring buildings throughout the town center. Although 10 few cities show this much care for their old residential areas, the officials of many cities are starting to believe that central districts ought to be efficiently attractive to draw permanent residents to them. Several other cities built around water are also exploiting their easily accessible waterfront areas. San Francisco, in its Ghirardelli Square project, converted an old factory at the edge of the bay into a labyrinth of boutiques. St. Louis 15 Savannah, Louisville, and Portland all have "riverside malls" in progress, while Boston's Quincy Market also on the waterfront , is expected to bring in 1.5 million dollars in city taxes annually.



This trend reflects an important change in social attitudes in the United States, brought on by new economic factors. In the 1960's, the availability of low-cost housing beyond20 city limits caused many cities in the east and Midwest to lose residents, thus leaving city centers relatively empty of life. In the southwest a different phenomenon ,the relentless impetus of cities like TU Houston, and Phoenix to extend their orders across the desert, has had much the same effect: centers full of skyscrapers and streets that are empty after five o'clock ,for years it seemed that the "ideal" home was tranquil suburban 25 residence. But recently, the rise in gas prices has made long automobile journeys to work less tolerable. Trips of fifty miles are not uncommon for the suburban commuter. In addition, suburban property taxes have risen sharply as utility lines are stretched ever farther from central sources.30 The rise in house prices has increased the differential between city and suburban property; now it is generally cheaper to buy an old urban house than a newer suburban one. Young working people, usually without children, are the most likely purchasers of urban homes. Following these people are huge projects including apartments, offices, and shops, all embracing the increasingly attractive belief that people should live, work, and shop within 35 as little traveling distance as possible.

According to the passage, the officials of Baltimore expect the Harbor place complex to help solve which of the following problems? I. The lack of creation facilities in Baltimore.

II. Draw homebuyers back to the city.

III. The high rate of unemployment among employees of Baltimore's shipping industries.

( )A) I only ( )B) II only (ans)

( )D) I and III only( )E) I, II and III

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Question 29 Unit "Cognizant Sample Test" According to the passage, Baltimore differs from most other cities in the United States because it

( )A) Shows particular care for its old residential sections. (ans)

( )B) Competes with another major city for the home-buying market.( )C) Concentrates most of its development projects in areas that are located away from its waterfront area( )D) Has failed in its efforts to strengthen its tax base through major urban renewal projects

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According to the author, Ghirardelli Square differs from Harbor place in that the Ghirardelli Square project

( )A) Lacks the accessibility of Harbor place.( )B) Was developed cooperatively with a nearby city.( )C) Has not significantly affected the shopping habits of city residents.( )D) Includes a building that was already standing when the project began. (ans)

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Question 31 Unit "Cognizant Sample Test" The author suggests that, in the United States, southwestern cities can be distinguished from eastern cities by the fact that

( )A) Cities in the southwest have declined at a different rate than have cities in the east.( )B) Officials in southwestern cities have shown less interest in revitalizing their city centers than have officials in eastern cities.( )C) Southwestern cities have had more success than have eastern cities in attracting new home buyers.( )D) The centers of southwestern cities have lost residents for different reasons than have the centers of eastern cities(ans)

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Question 32 Unit "Cognizant Sample Test" The author most likely puts the word “ideal” in quotation marks because he

( )A) Is quoting directly from another published source on a similar subject.( )B) Is quoting directly from a homeowner he interviewed.( )C) Believes that the ideal has changed in response to social aid economic factors. (ans)

( )D) Believes that the ideal is only attainable in the United States.

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Question 33 Unit "Cognizant Sample Test" Read the passage and answer the questions given below:

With the development of modern theoretical astrophysics, astronomers are able to explain data collected by early observers and to amass data about previously unknown phenomena





in extragalactic optical astronomy. Despite our lack of understanding of these new phenomena, the data is being used for a variety of purposes. In certain cases it is possible, by5 application of known physical laws, to make theoretical predictions that are subject to observational tests. The prediction of neutron stars is a classic example of the use of this type of theory for purposes of prediction. Anotheris to be found in the field of cosmology. Much of the current activity in extragalactic astronomy is directed towards deciding which if any, of the theoretical models of the universe is the most accurate .Starting from Einstein's 10 MISS, that 15 proposed a radically different approach - the steady-state theory of the universe. Cosmology dispensed with the idea of a primordial singularity demanded by Hubble's theory and substituted the concept of continuous creation of matter, which would maintain approximately constant mean density. It is largely within the context of these two theory models that observational work has found both its inspiration and its justification. Theoretical 20 predictions of the type outlined above are of particular importance to astronomy, which is an observational rather than an experimental science. Predictive theory that is concerned with the consequences of physical laws is thus immensely productive in an astronomical context and can lead to lively interaction with the observational aspects of the subject. It would, however, be unfair to suggest that theory usually plays such a guiding role 25 in astronomical endeavor. Indeed, more often, theories are motivated by discoveries. As a result the second major role of theory in astronomy is that of interpretation. In the field of stellar evolution, for example, the general features of the Hertz rung-Russell diagram (essentially a plot of luminosity versus temperature) had been known for many years before a theoretical interpretation in terms of nuclear processing in unmixed stars could be given.30 This quantitative explanation opened the way to the development of a method for using the results ion stellar-evolution calculations to provide us with quantitative information about stars. In principle, this method can be used to determine the approximate stellar abundances of the chemical elements, stellar masses, and hence stellar ages. Indeed, stellar-evolution theory provides us with the only widely applicable method of dating stellar systems

The primary purpose of the passage is to

( )A) Elucidate ways in which astronomy differs from other sciences.( )B) Discuss the roles of observation and theory in astronomy. (ans)

( )C) Present two conflicting views of the origin of the universe.( )D) Demonstrate how the laws of physics apply to astronomy.

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Question 34 Unit "Cognizant Sample Test" Which of the following represents a methodological handicap in the field of astronomy?

( )A) The difficulty of formulating predictive theories.( )B) The impossibility of evaluating data collected by early observers.( )C) The difficulty of correlating observed data with theoretical predictions.( )D) The difficulty of testing hypotheses through experimentation. (ans)

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It can be inferred that the author considers predictive theory to be important in astronomy because it

( )A) Can be easily verified on the basis of objective data.( )B) May provide a framework for further astronomical observation. (ans)

( )C) May result in confirmation of known physical laws.( )D) Confirms the validity of data on the origins of the universe.

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Question 36 Unit "Cognizant Sample Test" The passage would be most likely to appear in which of the following.

( )A) A specialized monograph on astrophysics and its methods. (ans)

( )B) A newspaper article discussing cosmology.( )C) A popular discussion of basic physical laws.( )D) A theoretical essay on chemical elements in the universe.

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Question 37 Unit "Cognizant Sample Test" With which of the following statements concerning both the predictive and the interpretive roles of astronomical theory would the author be most likely to agree?

( )A) Both stimulate new research and provide a background against which astrophysical phenomena can be understood. (ans)

( )B) Both focus on discovering which model of the universe is correct.( )C) Both are useful for validating information collected by observation as well as for testing the application of known physical laws.( )D) Both have contributed about equally to every advance in astronomy and physics.

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Question 38 Unit "Cognizant Sample Test" The tea-estate administration is in such mess there is no leader to set the things right

( )A. in such a mess here( )B. in a such mess that here( )C. in such a mess that there(ans)





( )D. with such a mess that there

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Question 39 Unit "Cognizant Sample Test" They examined both the samples very carefully but failed to detect any difference in them

( )A. some difference in( )B. some difference between( )C. any difference between(ans)

( )D. any difference among

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Question 40 Unit "Cognizant Sample Test" Friends and comrades, the light has gone away from our lives and there is darkness everywhere

( )A. off( )B. out of(ans)

( )C. out from( )D. out off

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Question 41 Unit "Cognizant Sample Test" Because of his ill health, the doctor has advised him not to refrain from smoking.

( )A. to not refrain from( )B. to resort to( )C. to refrain from(ans)

( )D. to be refrained from

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Question 42 Unit "Cognizant Sample Test" They have a scheme of rewarding the best of the performers every year.

( )A. a best performer( )B. the best among the performer





( )C. a best among performer( )D. No correction required(ans)

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Question 43 Unit "Cognizant Sample Test" What happens to all those travelers on the ship was not known?

( )A. What happened of( )B. What happened in( )C. What is that happens to( )D. What happened to(ans)

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Question 44 Unit "Cognizant Sample Test" The moment they saw me, they were delight

( )A. had delighted( )B. were delighted(ans)

( )C. are delighted( )D. have been delighted

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Question 45 Unit "Cognizant Sample Test" He should not had done it

( )A. had not(ans)

( )B. should had not( )C. should not have( )D. should have

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Question 46 Unit "Cognizant Sample Test" No sooner do the bells ring than the curtain rose.





( )A. did the bell ring( )B. did the bells ring(ans)

( )C. had the bell rang( )D. had the bell rung

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Question 47 Unit "Cognizant Sample Test" Read the following sentence and make it to order: S1: In India marriages are usually arranged by parents

P : Sometimes boys and girls do not like th idea of arranged marriages.

Q : Most young people accepts the state of affairs.

R : Shanta was like that.

S : They assume their parents can make good choices.

S6: She felt she was a modern girl and not subject for bargaining.

The Proper sequence should be:

( )A. SPRQ( )B. PSRQ( )C. QSPR(ans)

( )D. RQPS

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Question 48 Unit "Cognizant Sample Test" S1:

She said on the phone



that she would report for duty next day.

P : We waited for few days then we decided to go to her place.

Q : But she did not.

R : we found it locked.

S : Even after that we waited for her quite a few days.

S6: Eventually we reported to the police.

( )A. PRSQ( )B. QPSR( )C. QPRS(ans)

( )D. SQPR

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Several sub-cities have


been planned around capital.

P : Dwarga is the first among them.

Q : They are expected to alleviate the problem of housing.

R : It is coming up in the south west of capital.

S : It will cater to over one million people when completed.

S6: Hopefully the housing problem will not be as acute at present after these sub-cities are built.


( )A. QPRS(ans)

( )B. PRSQ( )C. PQRS( )D. QRSP

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Forecasting the weather has alwa


ys been a difficult business.

P : During a period of drought, streams and rivers dried up, the cattle died from thirst and were ruined.

Q : Many different things affect the weather and we have to study them carefully to make accurate forecast.

R : Ancient Egyptians had no need of weather in the Nile Valley hardly ever changes.

S : In early times, when there were no instruments, such as thermometer or the barometer, man looked for tell-tale signs in the sky.

S6: He made his forecasts by watching flights of the birds or the way smoke rose from fire.


( )A. PRQS( )B. QPRS(ans)

( )C. QRPS( )D. SPQR

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As he passed beneath her he hea


rd the swish of her wings.

P : He was not falling head long now.

Q : The monstrous terror seized him.

R : But it only lasted a minute.

S : He could hear nothing.

S6: The next moment he felt his wings spread outwards.


( )A. PSQR( )B. QSPR( )C. QSRP(ans)

( )D. PRQS

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Question 52 Unit "Cognizant Sample Test" Which should be the seventh letter to the right of 18th letter from the right if second half of the alphabet is reversed. A B C D E F G H I J K L M N O P Q R S T U V W X Y Z

( )A) X (ans)

( )B) W( )C) L ( )D) Y

Explanation:


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Question 53 Unit "Cognizant Sample Test" In a certain language 'rpq' means 'Mintu is boy'; 'srq' means 'Mintu is want'; 'tqo' means 'Bholi is girl'; 'soq' means 'Bholi is want'. then what should be the indication for 'bholi' and 'mintu'.

( )A)o ,p ( )B)r, p ( )C)t, q ( )D)o, r (ans)

Explanation:

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In A Certain Code language "APPROACH" is written as "YQNSMBAI" then "VERBAL" will be written as

( )A. TFPCYN( )B. TFPCYM(ans)

( )C.TFPYCM( )D. TFPCNY



Explanation:

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Question 55 Unit "Cognizant Sample Test" If T A P is coded as S Z O Then code: F R E E Z E

( )A. D R B B Y Z (x)B. E Q D D Y D ← Correct answer( )C. E Z E E R Z ( )D. O Q E B B S

Explanation: Letters may be moved alternately one step forward & one step backward or vice - versa.

Order of letters may be reversed


TCS

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Question 1 The IT giant Tirnop has recently crossed a head count of 150000 and earnings of $7 billion. As one of the forerunners in the technology front, Tirnop continues to lead the way in products and services in India. At Tirnop, all programmers are equal in every respect. They receive identical salaries ans also write code at the same rate.Suppose 12 such programmers take 12 minutes to write 12 lines of code in total. How long will it take 72 programmers to write 72 lines of code in total?

( )6( )72( )18( )12

Explanation:

No of people time work 12 12 1272 x 72Work = No of people * time i.e. ( P1 * T1 ) / W1 = ( P2 * T2 ) / W2(12 * 12 ) / 12 = ( 72 * x ) / 72X = 12.

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Question 2 A hollow cube of size 5 cm is taken, with a thickness of 1 cm. It is made of smaller cubes of size 1 cm. If 4 faces of the outer surface of the cube are painted, totally how many faces of the smaller cubes remain unpainted?

( )800( )500( )900 ( )488



Explanation: The outside of the large cube = 5cm The inside space = 3cmTotal number of small cubes = (5*5*5) - (3*3*3) = 125 - 27 = 98 Total number of faces = 98 * 6 = 588 now surface area of 4 faces = 4 * 5*5 = 100 cm^2so subtract 100 cubes as they have surface area 1cm^2 eachso unpainted faces of cubes = 588 - 100 = 488

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Question 3 10 suspects are rounded by the police and questioned about a bank robbery. Only one of them is guilty. The suspects are made to stand in a line and each person declares that the person next to him on his right is guilty. The rightmost person is not questioned. Which of the following possibilities are true? A. All suspects are lying or the leftmost suspect is innocent.B. All suspects are lying and the leftmost suspect is innocent .

( )A only( )Both A and B( )Neither A nor B( )B only

Explanation: considering All suspects are lying........S1the leftmost suspect is innocent......S2Both S1 and S2 cannot be true so it is S1 OR S2.

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Question 4 Alok is attending a workshop "How to do more with less" and today's theme is Working with fewer digits . The speakers discuss how a lot of miraculous mathematics can be achieved if mankind (as well as womankind) had only worked with fewer digits. The problem posed at the end of the workshop is How many 5 digit numbers can be formed using the digits 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 (but with repetition) that are divisible by 4? Can you help Alok find the answer?

( )3125( )625( )375( )500

Explanation: Since each desired number is divisible by 4, So we must have 12,24,42,44,52 at the last two digits. 1st place can be filled by any of the remaining 5 numbers.So, there are 5 ways of filling the 1st digits place.Similar 2nd digits and 3rd each digit place can be filled in 5 ways.



Therefore Required number of numbers = 5*5*5*5=625.

5

Question 5 The citizens of planet nigiet are 8 fingered and have thus developed their decimal system in base 8. A certain street in nigiet contains 1000 (in base 8) buildings numbered 1 to 1000. How many 3s are used in numbering these buildings?

( )256( )54( )192( )300

Explanation: Number of THREES between 1-100 ... 16 Number of THREES between 101-200...16Number of THREES between 201-300....17Numbers of THREES between 301-400... 16+63Similarly number of THREES from 401 - 1000 ... 16* 4Therefore Total numbers of THREES = 192

6

Question 6 Alok and Bhanu play the following min-max game. Given the expression N = 9 + X + Y - Z where X, Y and Z are variables representing single digits (0 to 9), Alok would like to maximize N while Bhanu would like to minimize it. Towards this end, Alok chooses a single digit number and Bhanu substitutes this for a variable of her choice (X, Y or Z). Alok then chooses the next value and Bhanu, the variable to substitute the value. Finally Alok proposes the value for the remaining variable. Assuming both play to their optimal strategies, the value of N at the end of the game would be

( )9( )18( )20( )27

Explanation: Considering equation: N = 9+X+Y-Z.Minimum value of N: 9+ X+Y-Z = 18[considering X = Y = Z = 9]Maximum value of N: 9+X+Y-Z = 27 [considering Y = X=9, Z=0]As Alok and Bhanu tries to max and min the number N value and its value lies between 18 and 27.So, Answer is 20.

7

Question 7




A sheet of paper has statements numbered from 1 to 40. For all values of n from 1 to 40, statement n says: 'Exactly n of the statements on this sheet are false.' Which statements are true and which are false?

( )All the statements are false.( )The 39th statement is true and the rest are false( )The odd numbered statements are true and the even numbered statements are false.( )The even numbered statements are true and the odd numbered statements are false.

Explanation: 3rd and 4th option does not satisfies the given condition and all the statement cannot be false. So, option The 39th statement is true and the rest are false is answer

8

Question 8 A circular dartboard of radius 1 foot is at a distance of 20 feet from you. You throw a dart at it and it hits the dartboard at some point Q in the circle. What is the probability that Q is closer to the center of the circle than the periphery?

( )0.75( )0.5( )0.25( )1

Explanation: Let the sample space area be pi* r^2 => pi , considering r = 1m and Event space area = pi/4, considering r= 1/2 mSo, the probability = (pi/4)/pi = 0.25

9

Question 9 On planet zorba, a solar blast has melted the ice caps on its equator. 8 years after the ice melts, tiny plantoids called echina start growing on the rocks. echina grows in the form of a circle and the relationship between the diameter of this circle and the age of echina is given by the formula d = 4 * √ (t - 8) for t ≥ 8where d represents the diameter in mm and t the number of years since the solar blast. Jagan recorded the radius of some echina at a particular spot as 8mm. How many years back did the solar blast occur?

( )8( )16( )12( )24

Explanation: d = 4 * sqrt(t-8) d = 16 as r= 8given thus 16 = 4 * sqrt(t-8)4 = sqrt (t-8)



t-8 = 16t = 24

10

Question 10 After the typist writes 12 letters and addresses 12 envelopes, she inserts the letters randomly into the envelopes (1 letter per envelope). What is the probability that exactly 1 letter is inserted in an improper envelope?

( )12/(12^12)( )0( )11/12( )1/12

Explanation: It cannot be exactly 1 as we need a minimum of two letters to be in improper envelope.

11

Question 11 The IT giant Tirnop has recently crossed a head count of 150000 and earnings of $7 billion. As one of the forerunners in the technology front, Tirnop continues to lead the way in products and services in India. At Tirnop, all programmers are equal in every respect. They receive identical salaries ans also write code at the same rate.Suppose 12 such programmers take 12 minutes to write 12 lines of code in total. How many programmers required to write 72 lines of code in total in 72 minutes?

( )18( )12( )72( )6

Explanation:

No of people time work 12 12 12X 72 72Work = No of people * timei.e. ( P1 * T1 ) / W1 = ( P2 * T2 ) / W2 (12 * 12)/12 = ( X * 72 )/ 72X = 12

12

Question 12 A sheet of paper has statements numbered from 1 to 40. For each value of n from 1 to 40,




statement n says "At least n of the statements on this sheet are true." Which statements are true and which are false?

( )The odd numbered statements are true and the even numbered are false( )The even numbered statements are true and the odd numbered are false. ( )The first 13 statements are true and the rest are false. (ans)( )The first 26 statements are false and the rest are true.

13

Question 13 There are two boxes, one containing 10 red balls and the other containing 10 green balls. You are allowed to move the balls between the boxes so that when you choose a box at random and a ball at random from the chosen box, the probability of getting a red ball is maximized. This maximum probability is

( )14/19( )37/38( )1/2( )3/4

Explanation: Considering 10 red in 1st box and 10 green in 2nd box probability of picking red = 1/2 * 1 + 1/2 * 0 = 1/2Now consider the other case, 9 red balls are transferred to green ball box.Now total balls in 2nd box will be 19.Total probability = probability to select 1st box + probability to select 2nd box= (1/2)*(1C1/1C1)+(1/2)*(9C1/19C1)= (1/2)*(1+9/19)= (1/2)*(28/19)= 14/19

14

Question 14 Alok and Bhanu play the following min-max game. Given the expression N = 12 + X*(Y - Z) where X, Y and Z are variables representing single digits (0 to 9), Alok would like to maximize N while Bhanu would like to minimize it. Towards this end, Alok chooses a single digit number and Bhanu substitutes this for a variable of her choice (X, Y or Z). Alok then chooses the next value and Bhanu, the variable to substitute the value. Finally Alok proposes the value for the remaining variable. Assuming both play to their optimal strategies, the value of N at the end of the game would be

( )12( )-69( )93( )30(ans)

Explanation: As Alok tries to maximize the number it can not be negative value, So option B is false.



Minimum value: 12+ X(Y-Z) = 12 [considering Y = Z = 9]Maximum value: 12+X(Y-Z) = 93 [considering Y = X=9, Z=0]As Alok and Bhanu tries to max and min the number N value must lies between 12 and 93.

15

Question 15 Planet fourfi resides in 4-dimensional space and thus the currency used by its residents are 3-dimensional objects. The rupee notes are cubical in shape while their coins are spherical. However the coin minting machinery lays out some stipulations on the size of the coins. • The diameter of the coins should be at least 64mm and not exceed 512mm.• Given a coin, the diameter of the next larger coin is at least 50% greater.• The diameter of the coin must always be an integer.You are asked to design a set of coins of different diameters with these requirements and your goal is to design as many coins as possible. How many coins can you design?

( )8( )9( )5( )6

Explanation: 1st coin is of 64mm diameter 2nd coin is of 64+32 = 96mm3rd coin is of 96 + 48 = 144mm4th coin is of 144+ 72 = 216mm5th coin is of 216+108 = 324mm6th coin is of 324+ 162= 4867th coin no wards diameter > 512mm So, ans is 6

16

Question 16 Anoop managed to draw 7 circles of equal radii with their centres on the diagonal of a square such that the two extreme circles touch two sides of the square and each middle circle touches two circles on either side. Find the ratio of the radius of the circles to the side of the square.

( )1:(2+ 6√2) (ans)( )1:(4+ 7√3)( )(2+ 7√2):1( )1:(2+ 7√2)

Explanation: The extreme circles will have radius perpendicular to sides of square so the part of diagonal till the centre of circle will be sqrt(2) * r and remaining portion is r , 5 more circles will contribute 10r and last circle will contribute r + sqrt(2) * r . Length of diagonal = 12r + 2sqrt (2) r = sqrt (2) * s where s -> side of square.So, ratio of r:s = 1/( 2 + 6 * sqrt(2)) = 1: [ 2+ 6 sqrt(2)]



17

Question 17 The teacher is testing a student's proficiency in arithmetic and poses the following question. 1/3 of a number is 3 more than 1/6 of the same number. What is the number? Can you help the student find the answer?

( )18( )21( )12( )6

Explanation: Let the number be X (1/3)X = 3+ (1/6)X(1/6) X = 3X = 18

18

Question 18 The IT giant Tirnop has recently crossed a head count of 150000 and earnings of $7 billion. As one of the forerunners in the technology front, Tirnop continues to lead the way in products and services in India. At Tirnop, all programmers are equal in every respect. They receive identical salaries ans also write code at the same rate.Suppose 12 such programmers take 12 minutes to write 12 lines of code in total. How many lines of code can be written by 72 programmers in 72 minutes?

( )12( )72( )432( )6

Explanation:

No of people time work 12 12 1272 72 xWork = No of people * time(12 * 12) /12 = ( 72 * 72 ) / xi.e. ( P1 * T1 ) / W1 = ( P2 * T2 ) / W2 X = 72 * 72 / 12 = 432.

19

Question 19 On the planet Oz, there are 8 days in a week- Sunday to Saturday and another day called Oz day. There are 36 hours in a day and each hour has 90 min while each minute has 60 sec. As on earth,




the hour hand covers the dial twice every day. Find the approximate angle between the hands of a clock on Oz when the time is 12:40 am.

( )111( )89( )251( )71

Explanation: Angle traced by hour hand in 12.40 hrs = (360/18) * ( 112/9) = 2240/9. Angle traced by minute hand in 40 min = (360/90) * 40 = 160.Angle between hour hand and minute hand = (2240/9) - 160 = 88.88.Approximately 89 degrees.

20

Question 20 The pacelength P is the distance between the rear of two consecutive footprints. For men, the formula, n/P = 144 gives an approximate relationship between n and P where, n = number of steps per minute and P = pacelength in meters. Bernard knows his pacelength is 164cm. The formula applies to Bernard's walking. Calculate Bernard's walking speed in kmph.

( )8.78( )236.16( )23.24( )14.16

Explanation: n/P = 144 gives an approximate relationship between n and P where, n = number of steps per minute and P = pacelength in meters. Bernard knows his pacelength is 164cm.Number of steps in one minute = 144*1.64Distance travelled in 1 minute = 144*1.64*1.64 mtrsDistance travelled in one hr = 144*1.64*1.64*60/1000 km = 23.24 km

21

Question 21 Alice and Bob play the following coins-on-a-stack game. 20 coins are stacked one above the other. One of them is a special (gold) coin and the rest are ordinary coins. The goal is to bring the gold coin to the top by repeatedly moving the topmost coin to another position in the stack. Alice starts and the players take turns. A turn consists of moving the coin on the top to a position i below the top coin (0 ≤ i ≤ 20). We will call this an i-move (thus a 0-move implies doing nothing). The proviso is that an i-move cannot be repeated; for example once a player makes a 2-move, on subsequent turns neither player can make a 2-move. If the gold coin happens to be on top when it's a player's turn then the player wins the game. Initially, the gold coinis the third coin from the top. Then

( )In order to win, Alice's first move can be a 0-move or a 1-move. ( )In order to win, Alice's first move should be a 1-move. ( )Alice has no winning strategy. (ans)



( )In order to win, Alice's first move should be a 0-move.

Explanation: Number of coins on top of the Gold coin remains same with the Alice's first move i.e 0-move or 1-move. Hence Options [1],[2] and [3] cannot be true.So, answer [3]

22

Question 22 36 people {a1, a2, ..., a36} meet and shake hands in a circular fashion. In other words, there are totally 36 handshakes involving the pairs, {a1, a2}, {a2, a3}, ..., {a35, a36}, {a36, a1}. Then size of the smallest set of people such that the rest have shaken hands with at least one person in the set is

( )18( )13( )12( )11

Explanation: Take a2 in the set now a1 and a3 have shaken hands with him. a4 has not so we take a5 in the set thus a4 and a6 have shaken hands with the setbut a7 has not so we take a8...thus we leave a gap of two people and select the third person in the set.So answer is 36/3 = 12

23

Question 23 Ferrari S.p.A. is an Italian sports car manufacturer based in Maranello, Italy. Founded by Enzo Ferrari in 1928 as Scuderia Ferrari, the company sponsored drivers and manufactured race cars before moving into production of street-legal vehicles in 1947 as Ferrari S.p.A.. Throughout its history, the company has been noted for its continued participation in racing, especially in Formula One, where it has enjoyed great success. Rohit once bought a Ferrari. It could go 2 times as fast as Mohit's old Mercedes. If the speed of Mohit's Mercedes is 32 km/hr and the distance travelled by the Ferrari is 952 km, find the total time taken in hours for Rohit to drive that distance.

( )14.88( )15.88( )476( )29.75

Explanation: Time = (Distance/Speed) = (952/32) Therefore the total time = time = (952/32)/2 = 14.88

24



Question 24

Given 3 lines in the plane such that the points of intersection form a triangle with sides of length 20, 20 and 30, the number of points equidistant from all the 3 lines is

( )1 (ans)( )4( )3( )0

Explanation: Only incenter point is equidistant from all sides

25

Question 25 A box contains 2 white balls, 3 black balls and 4 red balls. In how many ways can 3 balls be drawn from the box, if at least one black ball is to be included in the draw?

( )32( )64( )48( )96

Explanation:

26

Question 26 Two bowls are taken, one contains water and another contains tea. One spoon of water is added to second bowl and mixed well, and a spoon of mixture is taken from second bowl and added to the first bowl. Which statement will hold good for the above?

( )Second liquid in first bowl is less than the first mixture in second bowl( )Second liquid in first bowl is more than the first mixture in second bowl( )Second liquid in first bowl is equal to the first mixture in second bowl (ans)( )none of these




27

Question 27 A die is rolled and a coin is tossed. Find the probability that the die shows an odd number and the coin shows a head.

( )¼( )1/2( )3/4( )2/3

Explanation: The sample space S of the experiment described in question 5 is as follows S = { (1,H),(2,H),(3,H),(4,H),(5,H),(6,H) (1,T),(2,T),(3,T),(4,T),(5,T),(6,T)} Let E be the event "the die shows an odd number and the coin shows a head". Event E may be described as follows E={(1,H),(3,H),(5,H)} The probability P(E) is given by P(E) = n(E) / n(S) = 3 / 12 = 1 / 4

28

Question 28 Rearrange and categorize the word 'RAPETEKA'?

( )vehicle ( )bird( )person( )city

Explanation: parakeet -bird

29

Question 29 A hare and a tortoise have a race along a circle of 100 yards diameter. The tortoise goes in one direction and the hare in the other. The hare starts after the tortoise has covered 1/5 of its distance and that too leisurely. The hare and tortoise meet when the hare has covered only 1/8 of the distance. By what factor should the hare increase its speed so as to tie the race?

( )40( )5( )8( )37.80




Explanation: After tortoise covers 1/5th distance hare starts the raceWhen hare covers 1/8th of distance tortoise meets hareSo distance covered by tortoise = 1-(1/5 + 1/8) = 27/40Time taken by both is same time = dist/speed So (dist/ speed) of tortoise = (dist / speed) of hare let speed of tortoise be t and of hare be h 27/40t = 1/8hh = (40/(8*27) )* t = 5/27 * t Now for the next part hare has to cover 7/8 th distance when tortoise covers 1/8 th distanceso we get 1/8t = 7/8h h = 7tso the factor by which h's speed increases = 7t/ (5/27 * t) which we get as 37.8

30

Question 30 There are two water tanks A and B, A is much smaller than B. While water fills at the rate of one litre every hour in A, it gets filled up like 10, 20, 40, 80, 160 .. in tank B. (At the end of first hour, B has 10 litres, second hour it has 20, and so on). If 1/32 of B's volume is filled after 3 hours, what is the total duration required to fill it completely?

( )7 hours( )10 hours( )9 hours( )8 hours

Explanation: B’s volume after 4 hours 1/16 B’s volume after 5 hours 1/8B’s volume after 6 hours ¼B’s volume after 7 hours ½So, tank will be filled in 8 hour

31

Question 31 A sheet of paper has statements numbered from 1 to 30. For all values of n from 1 to 30, statement n says "At most n of the statements on this sheet are false". Which statements are true and which are false?

( )All statements are true.( )The odd numbered statements are true and the even numbered are false.( )All statements are false. (ans)( )The even numbered statements are true and the odd numbered are false.

32

Question 32




A hunter leaves his cabin early in the morning and walks one mile due south. Here he sees a bear and starts chasing it for one mile due east before he is able to shoot the bear. After shooting the bear, he drags it one mile due north back to his cabin where he started that morning. What color is the bear?

( )Brown( )Black( )Grey( )White

Explanation: Only white bears leaves in south and north pole

33

Question 33 One day Rapunzel meets Dwarf and Byte in the Forest of forgetfulness. She knows that Dwarf lies on Mondays, Tuesdays and Wednesdays, and tells the truth on the other days of the week. Byte, on the other hand, lies on Thursdays, Fridays and Saturdays, but tells the truth on the other days of the week. Now they make the following statements to Rapunzel – Dwarf: Yesterday was one of those days when I lie. Byte: Yesterday was one of those days when I lie too. What day is it?

( )Thursday (ans)( )Tuesday( )Sunday( )Monday

34

Question 34 10 people meet and shake hands. The maximum number of handshakes possible if there is to be no "cycle" of handshakes is (A cycle of handshakes is a sequence of k people a1, a2, ......, ak (k > 2) such that the pairs {a1, a2}, {a2, a3}, ......, {ak-1, ak}, {ak, a1} shake hands).

( )6( )7( )8( )9

Explanation: The maximum possible non cyclic handshakes are (a1,a2),(a2,a3),(a3,a4),(a4,a5),(a5,a6),(a6,a7),(a7,a8),(a8,a10),(a10,a9) i.e 9

35

Question 35 For the FIFA world cup, Paul the octopus has been predicting the winner of each match with amazing success. It is rumored that in a match between 2 teams A and B, Paul picks A with the same probability as A's chances of winning. Let's assume such rumors to be true and that in a




match between Ghana and Bolivia, Ghana the stronger team has a probability of 2/3 of winning the game. What is the probability that Paul will correctly pick the winner of the Ghana-Bolivia game?

( )5/9( )4/9( )1/9( )2/3

Explanation: Paul picks A with the same probability as A’schances of winning So probability of picking a winner = prob picking of ghana * ghana winning + prob picking of bolivia * bollivia winning= 2/3 * 2/3 + 1/3 * 1/3= 5/9

Infi

1

Question 1 Unit "Infosys Sample Test" A fisherman's day is rated as good if he catches 9 fishes, fair if 7 fishes and bad if 5 fishes. He catches 53 fishes in a week and had all good, fair n bad days in the week. So how many good, fair n bad days did the fisher man had in the week?

( )3,1,1( )4,1,2 (ans)( )2,3,2( )5,1,1

Explanation: From the given information:Go to river catch fish4*9=367*1=72*5=1036+7+10=53...take what is given 53

2

Question 2 Unit "Infosys Sample Test" A plane moves from 9°N40°E to 9°N40°W. If the plane starts at 10 am and takes 8 hours to reach the destination, find the local arrival time ?



( )12.30(ans)( )6.00( )5.30( )2.00

Explanation: Since it is moving from east to west longitide we need to add bothie,40+40=80multiply the ans by 4=>80*4=320minconvert this min to hours ie, 5hrs 33minIt takes 8hrs totally . So 8-5hr 30 min=2hr 30minSo the ans is 10am+2hr 30 min=>ans is 12:30 it will reach

3

Question 3 Unit "Infosys Sample Test" The size of the bucket is N kb. The bucket fills at the rate of 0.1 kb per millisecond. A programmer sends a program to receiver. There it waits for 10 milliseconds. And response will be back to programmer in 20 milliseconds. How much time the program takes to get a response back to the programmer, after it is sent?

( )1ms( )20.5ms( )40ms( )30ms (ans)

Explanation: doesn't matter that wat the time is being taken to fill the bucket.after reaching program it waits there for 10ms and back to the programmer in 20 ms.then total time to get the response is 20ms +10 ms=30 ms

4

Question 4 Unit "Infosys Sample Test" what is a percent of b divided by b percent of a?

( )a ( )b( )1( )10( )100

Explanation:

a percent of bLa/100)*b



b percent of a : (b/100) * a a percent of b divided by b percent of a : ((a / 100 )*b) / (b/100) * a )) = 1

5

Question 5 Unit "Infosys Sample Test" A face of the clock is divided into three parts. First part hours total is equal to the sum of the second and third part. What is the total of hours in the bigger part?

( )4( )9( )6( )10

Explanation: the clock normally has 12 hrthree parts x,y,zx+y+z=12x=y+z2x=12x=6so the largest part is 6 hrs

6

Question 6 Unit "Infosys Sample Test" Five boys were climbing a hill. J was following H. R was just ahead of G. K was between G & H. They were climbing up in a column. Who was the second?

( )K( )H( )G (ans)

( )J

Explanation: The order in which they are climbing is R-G-K-H-J.

7

Question 7 Unit "Infosys Sample Test" It was calculated that 75 men could complete a piece of work in 20 days. When work was scheduled to commence, it was found necessary to send 25 men to another project. How much longer will it take to complete the work?

( )25( )30




( )40( )20

Explanation:

Before: One day work = 1 / 20 One man's one day work = 1 / ( 20 * 75) Now: No. Of workers = 50 One day work = 50 * 1 / ( 20 * 75)

The total no. of days required to complete the work = (75 * 20) / 50 = 30 days

8

Question 8 Unit "Infosys Sample Test" 3 blocks are chosen randomly on a chessboard. What is the probability that they are in the same diagonal?

( )0.002688 ( )0.011 ( )0.002888 ( )0.0048

Explanation: There are total of 64 blocks on a chessboard. So 3 blocks can be chosen outof 64 in 64C3 ways.So the sample space is = 41664There are 2 diagonal on chessboard each one having 8 blocks. Consider oneof them.3 blocks out of 8 blocks in diagonal can be chosen in 8C3 ways.But there are 2 such diagonals, hence favourables = 2 * 8C3 = 2 * 56 = 112The require probability is= 112 / 41664= 1 / 372= 0.002688

9

Question 9 Unit "Infosys Sample Test" Predict the output or error(s) for the following:void main(){int const * p=5;printf("%d",++(*p));



}

( )compiler error( )6( )5( )7

Explanation:

Compiler error: Cannot modify a constant value.

Explanation: a pointer to a "constant integer". But we tried to change the value of the " constant integer".

10

Question 10 Unit "Infosys Sample Test" p is main(){int i=10;i=!i>14;Printf ("i=%d",i);}

( )10( )0( )14( )13

Explanation: In the expression !i>14 , NOT (!) operator has more precedence than ' >' symbol. ! is a unary logical operator. !i (!10) is 0 (not of true is false). 0>14 is false (zero).

11

Question 11 Unit "Infosys Sample Test" enum colors {BLACK,BLUE,GREEN}main(){

printf("%d..%d..%d",BLACK,BLUE,GREEN);

return(1);}

( )BLACK,BLUE,GREEN( )0( )0,1,2( )BLUE,GREEN



12

Question 12 Unit "Infosys Sample Test" If EASE is coded as HDVH, then SEE will be coded as:

( )DHH( )VHV( )VHH( )VVH

Explanation: For EASE we are taking next to the two letters from each one.so we get HDVH.Like the same we should take for SEE .so we get the answer as VHH

13

Question 13 Unit "Infosys Sample Test" void main() { int i; for(i=1;i<4,i++) switch(i) case 1: printf("%d",i);break; { case 2:printf("%d",i);break; case 3:printf("%d",i);break; } switch(i) case 4:printf("%d",i); }

( )1,2,3,4( )4( )3,4( )1

Explanation: In break statement its already given i<4.so it will execute 1,2,3,4

14

Question 14 Unit "Infosys Sample Test" void main()

{ int i=7; printf("%d",i++*i++); }




( )8( )49( )56( )none of this

Explanation: i++=7 and *i++=8 .therefore i++*i++=7*8=56

15

Question 15 Unit "Infosys Sample Test" A rich merchant had collected many gold coins. He did not want anybody to know about them. One day, his wife asked, "How many gold coins do we have?" After pausing a moment, he replied, "Well! If I divide the coins into two unequal numbers, then 37 times the difference between the two numbers equals the difference between the squares of the two numbers." The wife looked puzzled. Can you help the merchant's wife by finding out how many gold R

( )37( )35( )27

Explanation: 37(x-y)=x^2-y^2. u no tht x^2-y^2=(x-y)(x+y).so (x-y) cancels on both sides to give x+y=37.so sum of unequal halves=37 which is the req answer.

16

Question 16 Unit "Infosys Sample Test" Suppose 8 monkeys take 8 minutes to eat 8 bananas. (a) How many minutes would it take 3 monkeys to eat 3 bananas?(b) How many monkeys would it take to eat 48 bananas in 48 minutes

( )3,4( )8,6( )8,4

Explanation:

a).each monkey takes 8 min to eat a banana

b).ans:8m=48 m=6

17

Question 17 Unit "Infosys Sample Test" When I add 4 times my age 4 years from now to 5 times my age 5 years from now, I get 10 times my current age. How old will I be 3 years from now?




( )35( )41( )44( )38

Explanation:

Let x= current age 4(x+4)+5(x+5)=10x ;so x=R 41 years

After 3 years age will be=41+3=44

18

Question 18 Unit "Infosys Sample Test" A box of 150 packets consists of 1kg packets and 2kg packets. Total weight of box is 264kg. How many 2kg packets are there ?

( )112( )120( )114( )140

Explanation:

Let x be the total no. of 2 kg packets and y be the total no of 1 kg packets

x= 2 kg Packs

y= 1 kg packsx + y = 150 .......... Eqn 12x + y = 264 .......... Eqn 2 Solve the Simultaneous equation; x = 114so, y = 36ANS : Number of 2 kg Packs = 114.

19

Question 19 Unit "Infosys Sample Test" Find the sum of all terms in the series 1, 1/2,1/4 .....

( )3( ) 2( )5( )4

Explanation: This is a GP with a = 1, and r = 1/2.



Since r < 1 this is an infinite geometric series. Hence sum of all terms = a/(1 - r) = 1/(1 - 1/2) = 2

20

Question 20 Unit "Infosys Sample Test" A student divided a number by 2/3 when he required to multiply by 3/2.

Calculate the percentage of error in his result.

( )1( )0( )1/2( )none

Explanation: Since 3x / 2 = x / (2 / 3)

21

Question 21 Unit "Infosys Sample Test" A man was engaged on a job for 30 days on the condition that he would get a wage of Rs. 10 for the day he works, but he have to pay a fine of Rs. 2 for each day of his absence. If he gets Rs. 216 at the end, he was absent for work for ... days

( )20( )8( )7( )10

Explanation:

The equation portraying the given problem is:

10 * x - 2 * (30 - x) = 216 where x is the number of working days.

Solving this we get x = 23

Number of days he was absent was 7 ie,(30-23) days

22

Question 22 Unit "Infosys Sample Test" A contractor agreeing to finish a work in 150 days, employed 75 men each




working 8 hours daily. After 90 days, only 2/7 of the work was completed.

Increasing the number of men by ________ each working now for 10 hours

daily, the work can be completed in time.

( )140( )150( )59( )100

Explanation:

One day's work = 2 / (7 * 90)

One hour's work = 2 / (7 * 90 * 8)

One man's work = 2 / (7 * 90 * 8 * 75)

The remaining work (5/7) has to be completed within 60 days, because

the total number of days allotted for the project is 150 days.

So we get the equation

(2 * 10 * x * 60) / (7 * 90 * 8 * 75) = 5/7 where x is the number of

men working after the 90th day.

We get x = 225

Since we have 75 men already, it is enough to add only 150 men

23

Question 23 Unit "Infosys Sample Test" A man walks at 4 km/hr on plain, then at 3 km/hr uphill and then returns through the same road at 6 km/hr downhill and at 4 km/hr on the plain. It takes altogether 6 hours. So what distance he covered in one way?

( )24( )18( )12( )10

Explanation: Let plain road = x km


And hill road = y kmx/4 + y/3 + y/6 + x/4 = 6x/2 + y/2 = 6x + y =12

24

Question 24 Unit "Infosys Sample Test" Excluding stoppages, the speed of a bus is 54 kmph and including stoppages, it is 45 kmph. For how many minutes does the bus stop per hour?

( )9( )10( )12( )20

Explanation: Due to stoppages, it covers 9 km less. Time taken to cover 9 km = (9 /54x 60) min = 10 min

25

Question 25 Unit "Infosys Sample Test" The distance between Station Atena and Station Barcena is 90 miles. A train starts from Atena towards Barcena. A bird starts at the same time from Barcena straight towards the moving train. On reaching the train, it instantaneously turns back and returns to Barcena. The bird makes these journeys from Barcena to the train and back to Barcena continuously till the train reaches Barcena. The bird finally returns to Barcena and rests. Calculate the total distance in miles the bird travels in the following two cases: (a) The bird flies at 90 miles per hour and the speed of the train is 60 miles per hour. (b) the bird flies at 60 miles per hour and the speed of the train is 90 miles per hour .

( )135,60( )140,55( )135,50( )140,70

Explanation:

a)There is no need to consider their meeting pt at all.the train has been running for 90miles/(60miles/hr)=1.5hrs.bird flies till train reaches destination frm strting pt.so bird flies for1.5hrs at the vel given(90).so dist=1.5*90=135miles

b) time of train=1hr.so dist of bird=60*1=60miles



26

Question 26 Unit "Infosys Sample Test" Susan can type 10 pages in 5 minutes. Mary can type 5 pages in 10 minutes. Working together, how many pages can they type in 30 minutes?

( )15( )20( )25( )65( )75

Explanation: E (30/5=6; 6*10=60); Susan will type 60 pages in 30 min. (30/10=3); (5*3=15); Mary will type 15 pages in 30 min. (60+15=75)

27

Question 27 Unit "Infosys Sample Test" Consider the following series:

3, 4, 6, 9, 13, ____ What comes next?

( )15( )16( )17( )18( )19

Explanation: D (3+1=4; 4+2=6; 6+3=9; 9+4=13; 13+5=18)

28

Question 28 Unit "Infosys Sample Test" Directions for questions below: Select the alternative that logically follows form the two given statements.

All scientists are fools. All fools are literates.

( )All literates are scientists( )All scientists are literates( )No scientists are literates( )Both (a) and (b) are correct

29




Question 29 Unit "Infosys Sample Test" No apple is an orange. All bananas are oranges

( )All apples are oranges( )Some apples are oranges( )No apple is a banana( )None of the above

30

Question 30 Unit "Infosys Sample Test" All pens are elephants. Some elephants are cats.

( )Some pens are cats( )No pens are cats( )All pens are cats( )None of the above

31

Question 31 Unit "Infosys Sample Test" All shares are debentures.No debentures are deposits.

( )All shares are deposits( )Some shares are deposits( )No shares are deposits( )None of the above

32

Question 32 Unit "Infosys Sample Test" Many fathers are brothers. All brothers are priests.

( )No father is a priest( )Many fathers are not priests( )Many fathers are priests( )Both (b) and (c)

33

Question 33 Unit "Infosys Sample Test" Verbal ability test:-






SACROSANCT

( )too important( )worship( )sacrifice( )best.

34

Question 34 Unit "Infosys Sample Test" WHIMSICAL

( )victorious( )swift( )fanciful( )momentary

35

Question 35 Unit "Infosys Sample Test" Direction for questions below:Read the passage and answer that follow on the basis of instruction provided in the passage

Passage 1

In country X, democratic, conservative and justiceparties havefought three civil wars in twenty years. TO restorestability anagreement is reached to rotate the top officesPresident, PrimeMinister and Army Chief among the parties so that eachparty controlsone and only one office at all times. The three topoffice holdersmust each have two deputies, one from each of theother parties. Eachdeputy must choose a staff composed of equally membersof his or herchiefs party and member of the third party.

When Justice party holds one of the top offices,which of the



following cannot be true.

( )Some of the staff members within that office are( )Some of the staff members within that office are( )Two of the deputies within the other offices are( )Two of the deputies within the other offices are( )Some of the staff members within the other offices

36

Question 36 Unit "Infosys Sample Test" When the democratic party holds presidency, thestaff of the primeminister's deputies are composedI. One-fourth of democratic party membersII. One-half of justice party members and one-fourthof conservativeparty membersIII. One-half of conservative party members andone-fourth of justiceparty members.

( )I only( )I and II only( )II or III but not both( )I and II or I and III( )None of these

37

Question 37 Unit "Infosys Sample Test" Which of the following is allowable under the rulesas stated:

( )More than half of the staff within a given office( )Half of the staff within a given office belonging( )Any person having a member of the same party as( )Half the total number of staff members in all( )Half the staff members in a given office belonging

38

Question 38 Unit "Infosys Sample Test"




The office of the Army Chief passes fromConservative to Justiceparty. Which of the following must be fired.

( )The democratic deputy and all staff members( )Justice party deputy and all his or hers staff( )Justice party deputy and half of his Conservative( )The Conservative deputy and all of his or her staff members( )No deputies and all staff members belonging to

39

Question 39 Unit "Infosys Sample Test" Passage 2

There was a marked difference of quality between the personages who haunted near bridge of brick and the personages who haunted the far one of stone. Those of lowest character preferred the former, adjoining the town; they did not mind the glare of the public eye. they had been of no account during their successes; and though they might feel dispirited, they had no sense of shame in their ruin. Instead of sighing at their adversaries they spat, and instead of saying the iron had entered into their souls they said they were down in their luck.The miserable's who would pause on the remoter bridge of a politer stamppersons who did not know how to get rid of the weary time. The eyes of his species were mostly directed over the parapet upon the running water below. While one on the town ward bridge did not mind who saw him so, and kept his back to parapet to survey the passer-by, one on this never faced the road, never turned his head at coming foot-steps, but, sensitive on his own condition, watched the current whenever a stranger approached, as if some strange fish interested him, though every finned thing had been poached out of the rivers years before.

In this passage the author is trying to( )explain the difference between the construction of the two bridges( )describe the way different sections of people like to dress( )explain the variety of ways in which strangers can be treated( )describe how people of different classes behaved when unhappy (ans)

40

Question 40 Unit "Infosys Sample Test" People belonging to lower strata in their moments of distress

( )remembered the days of glory( )dressed shabbily to earn sympathy



( ) visited the brick made bridge (ans)( )felt ashamed of their failures

41

Question 41 Unit "Infosys Sample Test" The attitude of lowly and genteel towards strangers was

( )virtually the same( )entirely different (ans)

( )completely indifferent( )virulently hostile

42

Question 42 Unit "Infosys Sample Test" The bridge of stone was frequented by

( )all the sections of society( )those fond of fishing( )the sophisticated but luckless (ans)( )none of the above

43

Question 43 Unit "Infosys Sample Test" The two bridges were known

( )for their similar design( )for being equidistant from town( )for being haunted places( )for attracting dejected people to them(ans)

44

Question 44 Unit "Infosys Sample Test" In each question below, there is a sentence of which some parts have been jumbled up. Rearranage these parts which are labelled P, Q, R and S to produce the correct sentence. Choose the proper





sequence.

When he

P : did not knowQ : he was nervous andR : heard the hue and cry at midnightS : what to doThe Proper sequence should be:

( )RQPS(ans)( )QSPR( )SQPR( )PQRS

45

Question 45 Unit "Infosys Sample Test" It has been established that

P : Einstein wasQ : although a great scientistR : weak in arithmeticS : right from his school daysThe Proper sequence should be:

( )SRPQ( )QPRS(ans)

( )QPSR( )RQPS

46

Question 46 Unit "Infosys Sample Test" The small child does whatever his father was done

( )has done( )did( )does(ans)

( )had done



( )no correction required

47

Question 47 Unit "Infosys Sample Test" You need not come unless you want to

( )You don't need to come unless you want to(ans)

( )You come only when you want to( )You come unless you don't want to( )You needn't come until you don't want to( )No correction required

48

Question 48 Unit "Infosys Sample Test" Read the each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The error, if any will be in one part of the sentence. The letter of that part is the answer. If there is no error, the answer is 'D'. (Ignore the errors of punctuation, if any).

( )We discussed about the problem so thoroughly (ans)

( )on the eve of the examination( )that I found it very easy to work it out.( )No error.

49

Question 49 Unit "Infosys Sample Test" Spot the errors in this

( )An Indian ship( )laden with merchandise( )got drowned in the Pacific Ocean(ans)

( )No error.

50

Question 50 Unit "Infosys Sample Test" In each question below a sentence broken into five or six parts. Join these parts to make a meaningful





sentence. The correct order of parts is the answer.

1. I 2. immediately 3. salary4. my 5. want ( )43152( )15432(ans)

( )25143( )42351( )45132

51

Question 51 Unit "Infosys Sample Test" 1. do

2. today 3. you

4. must 5. it ( )34152(ans)

( )25413( )12543( )51324( )45213

52

Question 52 Unit "Infosys Sample Test" 1. left

2. the 3. house

4. he 5. suddenly ( )12435( )21354( )45123(ans)

( )52341( )24135



53

Question 53 Unit "Infosys Sample Test" 1. medicine

2. a3. Neeta

4. given 5. was ( )51423( )25431( )15423( )42531( )35421(ans)

54

Question 54 Unit "Infosys Sample Test" 1. of

2. we3. heard

4. him 5. had ( )42351( )52341( )25341( )25431( )25314(ans)

55

Question 55 Unit "Infosys Sample Test" In questions below, each passage consist of six sentences. The first and sixth sentence are given in the begining. The middle four sentences in each have been removed and jumbled up. These are labelled as P, Q, R and S. Find out the proper order for the four sentences.

57).S1:In the middle of one side of the square sits the Chairman of the committee, the most important person in the room.

P : For a committee is not just a mere collection of individuals.Q : On him rests much of the responsibility for the success or failure of the committee.R : While this is happening we have an opportunity to get the 'feel' of this committee.




S : As the meeting opens, he runs briskly through a number of formalities.S6: From the moment its members meet, it begins to have a sort nebulous life of its own.The Proper sequence should be:( )RSQP( )PQRS( )SQPR( )QSRP(ans)

56

Question 56 Unit "Infosys Sample Test" S1:

A force of exists between everybody in the universe.

P :Normally it is very small but when the one of the bodies is a planet, like earth, the force is considerable.

Q : It has been investigated by many scientists including Galileo and Newton.R : Everything on or near the surface of the earth is attracted by the mass of earth.S : This gravitational force depends on the mass of the bodies involved.

S6:The greater the mass, the greater is the earth's force of attraction on it. We can call this force of attraction gravity.


( )PRQS( )PRSQ( )QSRP( )QSPR(ans)


57


Calcutta unlike other cities kepts its trams.P : As a result there horrendous congestion.Q : It was going to be the first in South Asia.R : They run down the centre of the roadS : To ease in the city decided to build an underground railway line.S6: The foundation stone was laid in 1972.The Proper sequence should be:

( )PRSQ( )PSQR( )SQRP( )RPSQ(ans)

58


For some time



in his youth Abraham Lincoln was manager for a shop.P : Then a chance Customer would come.Q : Young Lincoln way of keeping shop was entirely unlike anyone else'sR : Lincoln would jump up and attend to his needs and then revert to his reading.S : He used to lie full length on the counter of the shop eagerly reading a book.S6: Never before had Lincoln had so much time for reading as had then.The Proper sequence should be:

( )SRQP( )QSPR(ans)

( )SQRP( )QPSR

59


Smoke oozed up betwe


en the planks.P : Passengers were told to be ready to quit the ship.Q : The rising gale fanned the smouldering fire.R : Everyone now knew there was fire on board.S : Flames broke out here and there.S6: Most people bore the shock bravely.The Proper sequence should be:

( )SRQP(ans)( )QPSR( )RSPQ( )QSRP

60

Question 60 Unit "Infosys Sample Test" Rearrange the following five sentences in proper sequence so as to for a meaningful paragraph, then answer the questions given below them.

1.After Examining him, the doctor smiled at him mischievously and took out a syringe.

2.Thinking that he was really sick, his father summoned the family doctor.

3.That day, Mintu wanted to take a day off from school

4.Immediately, Mintu jumped up from his bed and swore the he was fine

5.Therefor; he pretended to be sick and remained in bed.

Which sentence should come third in the paragraph?( )1( )2(ans)( )3( )4( )5

61

Question 61 Unit "Infosys Sample Test" Pick out the most effective word(s) from the given words to fill in the blank to make the sentence



meaningfully complete.

.

Fate smiles ...... those who untiringly grapple with stark realities of life.( )with( )over( )on(ans)( )round

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Question 62 Unit "Infosys Sample Test" The miser gazed ...... at the pile of gold coins in front of him.

( )avidly(ans( )admiringly( )thoughtfully( )earnestly

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Question 63 Unit "Infosys Sample Test" Catching the earlier train will give us the ...... to do some shopping.

( )chance(ans)( )luck( )possibility( )occasion

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Question 64 Unit "Infosys Sample Test" I saw a ...... of cows in the field.

( )group( )herd(ans)( )swarm( )flock

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Question 65 Unit "Infosys Sample Test" The grapes are now ...... enough to be picked.

( )ready( )mature( )ripe(ans)( )advanced

66

Question 66 Unit "Infosys Sample Test" Success in this examination depends ...... hard work alone.

( )at( )over( )for( )on(ans)

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Question 67 Unit "Infosys Sample Test" In questions given below out of four alternatives, choose the one which can be substituted for the given word/sentence.

Extreme old age when a man behaves like a fool( )imbecility( )sensility( )dotage(ans)( )supernnnuation

68

Question 68 Unit "Infosys Sample Test" That which cannot be corrected

( )unintelligle( )indelible( )illegible( )incorrigible(ans)

69





Question 69 Unit "Infosys Sample Test"

Catching the earlier train will give us the ...... to do some shopping.

( )chance(ans)( )luck( )possibility( )occasion

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Question 70 Unit "Infosys Sample Test" Statements: Some envelops are gums. Some gums are seals. Some seals are adhesives.

Conclusions:

1. Some envelopes are seals. 2. Some gums are adhesives.

3. Some adhesives are seals.

4.Some adhesives are gums.

( )a) Only (3) (ans)( )b) Only (1)( )c) Only (2)( )d) Only (4)



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