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(NTSE – STAGE - 1) MAT

Time for marking all 90 Questions : 1:30 Hours Maximum Marks : 90

NOTE

1. This question booklet contains 90 questions numbered from 1 to 90 and each question carries 1 mark.

All questions are compulsory. There is no-negative marking.

2. Tally the number of pages along with no. of questions printed on cover page of the booklet. Also check that

question booklet contains the questions of all relevant subjects/topics, as required and stated above and no

repetition or omission of questions is evident.

3. If any discrepancy is found in the Question Booklet, the same can be replaced with another correct Question

Booklet within first 15 minutes.

4. Before answering the questions please read carefully the instructions printed on the back cover page of the

question booklet and strictly follow them. Indicate your answers by blacking bubbles carefully only on the

O.M.R. Answer Sheet provided.

5. Use of any type of calculator, mobile phone or any other electronic equipment and log table etc. is strictly

prohibited.

NTSE Stage-{1} Sample Paper-{3}

MAT

Answer questions (1-5) based on number series:

1. 7, 176, 297, 378, _________

(A) 387 (B) 403 (C) 427 (D) 459

2. 3, 10, 101, _________

(A) 1011 (B) 10101 (C) 10201 (D) 10202

3. 5760, 960, _________, 48, 16, 8

(A) 120 (B) 160 (C) 192 (D) 240

4. 625, 5, 125, 25, 25, _________, 5

(A) 625 (B) 125 (C) 25 (D) 5

5. 20, 2

163

, 2

147

, 1

122

, __________

(A) 1

119

(B) 2

117

(C) 2

113

(D) 2

103

In each of the questions (6-10), find the missing number from the given alternatives:

6.

(A) 9 (B) 25 (C) 49 (D) 64

7. 54

?

18

12

9

102

(A) 24 (B) 30 (C) 40 (D) 48

8.

(A) 10 (B) 15 (C) 20 (D) 25

9. ?

4

3

25

9

2

9

5

(A) 81 (B) 64 (C) 32 (D) 20

10.

(A) 29 (B) 49 (C) 69 (D) 89

In each of the questions (11-14), there is some relationship between the two terms on the left side of the sign (::). The same

relationship exists between the two terms on the right side of the sign (::) of which one is missing. Find the missing one from the

given four alternatives.


11. MUMBAI:LATLAZH::DELHI: ____________

(A) CDKGJ (B) IHLED (C) CDKGH (D) BCKGH

12. corden : zrogbq :: ________ : pxivro

(A) srspql (B) munmun (C) mulmul (D) sulsul

13. RATIONAL:RATNIOLA:: _________ :TRILBA

(A) TIRLAB (B) TRIBAL (C) TRIALB (D) TIRBAL

14. HI : 36 :: DE : _________

(A) 10 (B) 15 (C) 20 (D) 25

In each of the questions (15-18), choose that set of numbers from the four alternative sets, which is similar to the given set.

15. Given set (17, 15, 8)

(A) (15, 12 10) (B) (13, 12, 5) (C) (10, 8, 7) (D) (7, 5, 3)

16. Given set (8, 3, 2)

(A) (10, 6, 5) (B) (95, 24, 5) (C) (63, 8, 3) (D) (168, 15, 4)

17. Given set (9, 15, 21)

(A) (7, 21, 8) (B) (5, 10, 25) (C) (10, 14, 16) (D) (4, 8, 12)

18. Given set (223, 324, 425)

(A) (554, 655, 756) (B) (225, 326, 437) (C) (451, 552, 636) (D) (623, 723, 823)

In each of the questions (19-22) four words have been given out of which three are alike in some manner while one is different.

Find out the odd one.

19. (A) Parrot (B) Crow (C) Bat (D) Pegion

20. (A) Mathematics (B) Geometry (C) Algebra (D) Trigonometry

21. (A) May (B) June (C) July (D) August

22. (A) Cabbage (B) Brinjal (C) Cucumber (D) Papaya

In each of the questions (23-26), choose the number pair which is different from others.

23. (A) 20, 10 (B) 30, 18 (C) 45, 27 (D) 60, 30

24. (A) 7, 26 (B) 8, 30 (C) 10, 35 (D) 15, 30

25. (A) 1/2, 1/8 (B) 1/3, 1/12 (C) 9, 3 (D) 24, 6

26. (A) 3, 5 (B) 7, 9 (C) 11, 13 (D) 17, 19

In each of the questions (27-30) choose the group of letters which is different from others.

27. (A) AI (B) IU (C) EO (D) OU

28. (A) PUT (B) OWL (C) END (D) ARM

29. (A) EBA (B) XUT (C) TQP (D) GFE

30. (A) NPM (B) IJL (C) QSZ (D) XGT

Study the following diagram and answer questions (31-35).


31. How many experience and trained teachers, who work in the rural areas, are there?

(A) 5 (B) 4 (C) 6 (D) 2

32. How many experienced and trained teachers work in urban areas?

(A) 3 (B) 4 (C) 5 (D) 6

33. How many teachers, who are experienced but not trained, work in the rural areas?

(A) 2 (B) 4 (C) 5 (D) 6

34. How many teachers are there who work in the rural areas but are neither experienced nor trained?

(A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 3 (D) 4

35. How many trained but inexperienced teachers are there who work out of the rural areas?

(A) 6 (B) 5 (C) 3 (D) 1

Questions (36-40) are based on the patterns of three circles as shown in the following diagrams. Each question has an item

group having relationship with a particular pattern of circles. Find out which item group is related to which pattern of circles.

36. Mammals, Cows, Crows

(A) E (B) B (C) C (D) D

37. Women, Mothers, Engineers

(A) E (B) C (C) D (D) A

38. Family, Sons, Daughters

(A) E (B) B (C) C (D) A

39. Colour, Cloth, Merchant

(A) A (B) B (C) C (D) D

40. Konark, Manasarovar, India

(A) E (B) D (C) C (D) B

41. If A = 26, SUN = 27, then CAT = ________

(A) 27 (B) 27 (C) 57 (D) 58

42. If REASON is coded as 5 and BELOEVED as 7, then what is the code for GOVERNMENT?

(A) 6 (B) 8 (C) 9 (D) 10

43. If NOIDA is written as 39658, how will INDIA be written?

(A) 36568 (B) 63568 (C) 63569 (D) 65368

44. If O = 16, FOR = 42, then what is FRONT equal to?

(A) 61 (B) 65 (C) 73 (D) 78

45. If TERMINATION is coded as 12345671586, how will MOTION be coded?

(A) 481586 (B) 451586 (C) 485186 (D) 438586

Read the following information and answer questions (46-50)


In a certain code language, 481 means ‘sky is blue’, 246 means ‘sea is deep’ and 698 means ‘sea looks blue’.

46. What number is the code for blue?

(A) 1 (B) 6 (C) 8 (D) 9

47. What number is the code for sea?

(A) 4 (B) 6 (C) 8 (D) 9

48. What number is the code for deep?

(A) 2 (B) 4 (C) 6 (D) 8

49. What number is the code for looks?

(A) 4 (B) 6 (C) 8 (D) 9

50. What number is the code for sky?

(A) 8 (B) 6 (C) 4 (D) 1

51. If A is to the south of B and C is to the east of B, in what direction is A with respect to C?

(A) North-east (B) North-west (C) South-east (D) South-west

52. A watch reads 4.30. If the minute hand points East to what direction will the hour hand point?

(A) North (B) North-east (C) North-west (D) South-east

53. Paresh is 7 ranks ahead of Sumit in a class of 39. If Sumit’s rank is seventeenth from the last, what is Paresh’s rank from

the start?

(A) 14 (B) 15 (C) 16 (D) 17

54. A, B, C, D, E and F are sitting in a row. E and F are at the centre. A and B are at the ends. C is sitting on the left of A. Then

who is sitting on the right of B?

(A) D (B) C (C) E (D) F

55. P is 300km eastward of O and Q is 400km south of O. R is exactly in the middle of Q and P. The distance between Q and R

is __________ km.

(A) 500 (B) 250 (C) 250√2 (D) 300

Questions (56-60) are based on the following information:

Data on 450 candidates, who took on examination in Social Science, Mathematics and Science, are given below:

Passed in all Subjects

Failed in all Subjects

Failed in Mathematics

Failed in Science

Passed in Social Science only

Passed in Mathematics only

Passed in Science only

56. How many failed in Social Science only?

(A) 15 (B) 21 (C) 30 (D) 42

57. How many failed in one subject only?

(A) 152 (B) 144 (C) 61 (D) 56

58. How many passed in Mathematics and at least one more subject?

(A) 210 (B) 203 (C) 170 (D) 94

59. How many failed in two subject only?

(A) 56 (B) 61 (C) 152 (D) 162

60. How many passed at least in one subject?

(A) 450 (B) 390 (C) 304 (D) 167

Answer questions (61-65) based on the following information:


A cube pained red on two adjacent faces and black on the faces opposite to the red faces and green on the remaining facs is cut

into 64 smaller cubes of equal size.

61. How many smaller cubes have not face painted?

(A) 0 (B) 4 (C) 8 (D) 16

62. How many smaller cubes have only one face panited?

(A) 32 (B) 24 (C) 16 (D) 8

63. How many smaller cubes have less than three faces painted?

(A) 8 (B) 24 (C) 28 (D) 48

64. How many smaller cubes have three faces painted?

(A) 8 (B) 16 (C) 24 (D) 28

65. How many smaller cubes have one face green and one of the adjacent faces black or red?

(A) 8 (B) 16 (C) 24 (D) 28

In each of the questions (66-70), there are four figures. Three of them are similar in some way and one is different. Identify that

odd figure.

66.

67.

68.

69.

70.

In each of the questions (71-75), which one of the four numbered figures from the right side row will replace the question mark

in the left side row so as to maintain the sequence?

71.


72.

73.

74.

75.

In each of the questions (76-80) there is some relationship between figures 1 & 2. Establish a similar relationship between

figures 3 & 4 by choosing a suitable figure from the answer figures.

76.

77.

78.

79.

80.

In each of the questions (81-85), a part of the figure is given. Select one from the given four figures in which that part is

embedded.

81.


82.

83.

84.

85.

In each of the questions (86-88), there is a big figure at the top having a vacant chamber. Identify one figure from the given

choices which will fit into the vacant chamber.

86.

87.

88.

89. Choose the mirror image of the figure given at the top from amongst the four alternatives.


90. How many triangles are there in the following figure?

(A) 9

(B) 13

(C) 16

(D) 18


(NTSE – STAGE - 1)

Time for marking all 90 Questions : 1:30 Hours Maximum Marks : 90

SAT NOTE

1 . This paper has Three sections, Science : Social Science and Mathematics :

2. This question booklet contains 90 questions numbered from 1 to 90 and each question carries 1 mark. All

questions are compulsory. There is no-negative marking.

3. Tally the number of pages along with no. of questions printed on cover page of the booklet. Also check that

question booklet contains the questions of all relevant subjects/topics, as required and stated above and no

repetition or omission of questions is evident.

4. If any discrepancy is found in the Question Booklet, the same can be replaced with another correct Question

Booklet within first 15 minutes.

5. Before answering the questions please read carefully the instructions printed on the back cover page of the

question booklet and strictly follow them. Indicate your answers by blacking bubbles carefully only on the

O.M.R. Answer Sheet provided.

6. Use of any type of calculator, mobile phone or any other electronic equipment and log table etc. is strictly

prohibited.


SAT

1. A velocity-time graph for a moving object is shown below. What

would be the total displacement during time t = 0 to t = 6s?

(A) 10 m

(B) 20 m

(C) 2.5 m

(D) 0.0 m

2. Two bodies of masses m and 3m, moving with velocities 3v and v respectively along same direction, collide with each

other. After collision they stick together and move with a velocity V in the same direction. Then:

(A) V = v (B) 3

V v2

= (C) V = 2v (D) 4

V v3

=

3. The radius of the orbit of a geosynchronous satellite is 36000 km. then the period of revolution of a satellite with its

orbital radius 9000 km would be

(A) 24 hrs (B) 12 hrs (C) 6 hrs (D) 3 hrs

4. A single electron has change |e| = 1.6 × 10–19

C. If the current passing through a conducting wire is 0.32 A, how many

electrons would pass through the wire in one hour?

(A) 72 × 1020

(B) 20 × 1015

(C) 7.2 × 1019

(D) 2 × 1018

5. An electric bulb is rated 100W at 220V. When it is connected to 110V main supply, the power consumed would be:

(A) 100W (B) 75W (C) 50W (D) 25W

6. A piece of wire of resistance R is cut into five equal parts out of which four of them are connected to form a square ABCD.

The fifth one is connected diagonally across BD. If a battery is connected across AC, what would be the equivalent

resistance in the circuit?

(A) R/25 (B) 4R/5 (C) R/5 (D) 2R/5

7. A circular coil carrying current produces a magnetic field B0 at its centre. This coil is made itself to 10 turns and the same

current is set up in it. The magnetic field B at its centre would be

(A) B = B0 (B) B = 10 B0 (C) B = 50 B0 (D) B = 100 B0

8. An electric kettle has two thermal coils A and B. When current is passed through A, water in the kettle boils in 6 minutes.

When current is passed through B, same volume of water in the kettle boils in 8 minutes. If both A and B would be joined

in series and current would be passed, water would boil in

(A) 14 minutes (B) 7 minutes (C) 24 minutes (D) 24/7 minutes

9. What should be the minimum height of a plane mirror so that a 6ft tall man can see his full view image standing in front

of the mirror?

(A) 6 ft (B) 12 ft (C) 3 ft (D) 2 ft

10. A virtual image larger than the object can be produced by

(A) Convex mirror (B) Concave lens (C) Concave mirror (D) Plane mirror

11. A concaved lens has focal length of 15 cm. At what distance should the object from the lens be placed so that it forms an

erect and virtual image at 10 cm from the lens?

(A) 30 cm (B) 15 cm (C) 60 cm (D) 10 cm

12. A lens of power +3D and another of power-1.5 D are placed in contact. What would be the focal length of the

combination?

(A) 1.5 m (B) – 0.67 m (C) 0.67 m (D) – 67.0 m

13. Which of the following is not a pure substance?

(A) Gold (B) Glucose (C) Pure Milk (D) Water

14. Which of the following pair is isoelectonic?

(A) Na+, Ar (B) Mg

++, Ca

++ (C) K

+, Ar (D) Na

+, K

+


15. Which of the following element has highest electron-gain enthalpy?

(A) Oxygen (B) Fluorine (C) Chlorine (D) Neon

16. The geometry of Ni(CO)4 is

(A) Tetrahedral (B) Octahedral (C) Square planar (D) Pyramidal

17. The atomic number of third alkali metal is _________.

(A) 3 (B) 11 (C) 19 (D) 37

18. ___________ is used as electrodes in batteries and composites in aircrafts.

(A) Diamond (B) Graphite (C) Activated charcoal (D) Carbon black

19. Identify the metal that occurs in the native sate in nature.

(A) Potassium (B) Copper (C) Aluminium (D) Zinc

20. Silicon carbide is also known as _________.

(A) Carborundum (B) Cyanogen (C) Silane (D) Silicone

21. The chemical formula of white vitriol is _________.

(A) CuSO4.5H2O (B) ZnSO4.7H2O (C) FeSO4.7H2O (D) MgSO4.7H2O

22. Amount of sodium hydroxide present in 500 ml of 0.2M solution is ________.

(A) 4 gm (B) 8 gm (C) 40 gm (D) 20 gm

23. The mixture of CO and N2 is called as __________.

(A) Water gas (B) Producer gas (C) Synthetic gas (D) Marsh gas

24. When we smell a flower, which one of the following first receives the scent?

(A) Dendrite of motor neuron (B) Dendrite of sensory neuron

(C) Axon of motor neuron (D) Axon of sensory neuron

25. Which one of the following is secreted by pituitary gland?

(A) Insulin (B) Estrogen (C) Adrenaline (D) Growth hormone

26. Which one of the following first receives the pollen during fertilization?

(A) Stigma (B) Style (C) Pollen tube (D) Female gamete

27. Which of the following two diseases have no specific treatment?

(A) Hepatitis and influenza (B) Tuberculosis and influenza

(C) Leprosy and Hepatitis (D) Hydrophobia and Tuberculosis

28. Choose the correct pairing of fish and its feeding zone from the choices given below.

(A) Rohu-Bottom Zone (B) Catla-Middle Zone (C) Common carp-Bottom Zone (D) Mrigal-Surface Zone

29. Which two of the following animals belong to the same Phylum?

(A) Starfish and Nereis (B) Antedon and Starfish

(C) Antedon and Chiton (D) Nereis and Chiton

30. Which two of the following are growth promoting hormones in plant?

(A) Auxin and Cytokinin (B) Gibberelin and Ethylene

(C) Abscisic acid and Auxin (D) Cytokinin and Ethylene

31. Which one of the following is having conducting tissue?

(A) Fern (B) Funaria (C) Riccia (D) Marchantia

32. Which one of the following compound contains two carbon atoms?

(A) Ethanol (B) Pyruvic acid (C) Lactic acid (D) Glucose

33. Which of the following two are only applicable for birds?

(A) Warm blooded and four chambered heart (B) Feather and breathing by lungs

(C) Warm blooded and egg laying (D) Egg laying and with Feather


34. Which of the following is not a foreign breed cow?

(A) Sahiwal (B) Holstein (C) Brown swiss (D) Jersy

35. Read the following two statements and choose the correct answer.

i. Stomata regulates the body temperature in plants.

ii. Stomata helps in the absorption of minerals from the soil.

(A) i is true but ii is false (B) i is false but ii is true (C) Both i and ii are true (D) Both i and ii are false

36. If the sum of the two roots of the equation 1 1 1

x a x b c+ =

+ + is zero, then the product of the two roots is __________.

(A) 0 (B) 2 2a b

2

+ (C)

a b

2

+ (D)

( )2 2a b

2

+−

37. The highest power of 2 by which the product of first 100 counting numbers can be divided without any remainder is

_________.

(A) 97 (B) 96 (C) 95 (D) 94

38. If x + y + z = 1, x² + y² + z² = 2 and x³ + y³ + z³ = 3 then the value of xyz is __________.

(A) 1/5 (B) 1/6 (C) 1/7 (D) 1/8

39. Four whole numbers added three at a time give sums 180, 197, 208 and 222 respectively. The largest of the four numbers

is ________.

(A) 87 (B) 88 (C) 89 (D) 90

40. The remainder when 1997 1997 19971 2 .......... 1996+ + + is divded by 1997 is _________.

(A) 0 (B) 1 (C) 197 (D) 1996

41. If the product of 1000 positive integers is 1000 then their maximum sum is ____________.

(A) 1000 (B) 1999 (C) 2000 (D) 2999

42. If t11 and t16 of an A.P. are respectively 38 and 73, then t31 is ____________.

(A) 178 (B) 177 (C) 176 (D) 175

43. If ( ) ( )2f n 1f n 1

2

++ = , n = 1, 2, ………….. and f(1) = 2, then f(101) = ____________.

(A) 53 (B) 52 (C) 51 (D) 50

44. A triangle with integral sides has perimeter 8 units. The area of the triangle is __________ sq units.

(A) 2 (B) 2√2 (C) 3√2 (D) 4

45. At a party of married couples, each man shook hand with everyone except his spouse and no handshakes took place

between women. If 13 married couples attended the party, the number of handshakes among these 26 people was

__________.

(A) 230 (B) 22 (C) 233 (D) 234

46. If the median of x x x x x x, , , x, , ,7 5 6 4 3 2

is 8, then the value of x is __________.

(A) 8 (B) 24 (C) 32 (D) 48

47. If m = 7777 ……… 7777 is a 99 digit number and n = 999 ………. 999 is 77 digit number then the sum of the digits in the

product m × n is __________.

(A) 890 (B) 891 (C) 892 (D) 893

48. The value of sin²1° + sin²2° + …………. + sin²89° is __________.

(A) 1 (B) 44 (C) 1

442

(D) 45

49. If A + B + C = π and m∠C is obtuse then tan A. tan B is ____________.

(A) > 1 (B) < 1 (C) = 1 (D) ≤ 1


50. The area of a circle inscribed in an equilateral triangle is 48π square units. The perimeter of the triangle is __________

units.

(A) 24 (B) 32 (C) 36 (D) 72

51. The reminder of 20052002

+ 20022005

when divided by 200 is _________.

(A) 0 (B) 1 (C) 2 (D) 3

52. Let ABCD be a cyclic quadrilateral inscribed in a circle of radius 1 unit. If AB.BC.CD.DA ≥ 4, then the quadrilateral ABCD is a

_________.

(A) Parallelogram (B) Square (C) Rectangle (D) Rhombus

53. In the given figure m∠A + m∠B + m∠C + m∠D + m∠E + m∠F + m∠G = _________.

(A) 360° (B) 500°

(C) 520° (D) 540°

54. In the given figure

BD 3

CD 4= and AE = 6BE, then

CF

AF = __________

(A) 2/9

(B) 4/6

(C) 3/8

(D) 5/9

55. On increasing each of the radius of the base and the height of a cone by 20% its volume will be increased by _________.

(A) 20% (B) 40% (C) 72.2% (D) 72.8%

56. Who had given the title of “Mahatma” to “Gandhiji”?

(A) Bal Gangadhar Tilak (B) Gopal Krishna Gokhle

(C) Motilal Nehru (D) Rabindra Nath Tagore

57. Who was the political guru of Mahatma Gandhi?

(A) Bal Gangadhar Tilak (B) Dada Bhai Naroji

(C) Badruddin Tyabij (D) Gopal Krishna Gokhle

58. Who among the following was the Congress President when Congress declared complete independence as its goal?

(A) Jawaharlal Nehru (B) Subhas Chadra Bose

(C) Sardar Ballabh Bhai Patel (D) Maulana Abul Kalam Azad

59. Who among the following was responsible for the foundation of I.N.A.

(A) Ras behari Bose (B) Subhas Chandra Bose

(C) Captain Mohan singh (D) Major Fuzihara

60. Who among the following leaders was to associated with the Revolt of 1857?

(A) Azimullah Khan (B) Ahmed Shah (C) Kunwar Singh (D) Sir Syed Ahmed Khan

61. Who wrote ‘Das Capital’?

(A) Tolstoy (B) Lenin (C) Karl Marx (D) Kerensky

62. Who was the last Tsar of Russia?

(A) Nicholas I (B) Nicholas II (C) Alexander I (D) Alexander II

63. Who among the following leaders was not a pioneer of Non-alignment movement.

(A) J.Nehru (B) Nasser (C) Woodrow Wilson (D) Tito

64. Which of the following features stood for Nazism?

(A) Anti-semitic Policy (B) Pro-socialistic policy

(C) Pro-democratic Policy (D) Pro-communist Policy

65. The first convention of Facist party was held at _______

(A) Rome (B) Vatican City (C) Milan (D) Venice


66. Which of the following is not a feature of Fundamental Rights in India?

(A) They are enumerated in Part III of our constitution

(B) They are absolute in nature

(C) Some of them are positive and some are negative in nature

(D) They are Judiciable in the Court of law

67. Disputes relating to the election of the President of India can be adjudicated in which if the following courts?

(A) Supreme Court of India (B) State High Court

(C) Subordinate Courts (D) All of the above Courts

68. Who of the following does prorogue the Houses of the Parliament in India?

(A) President (B) Vice President (C) Speaker of Loksabha (D) Prime Minister

69. Read the following statement and indicate which one is correct?

Statement :

i. Democracy is a form of government in which the Governing Body is a comparatively large fraction of the entire

population

ii. Democracy really means nothing more or less than the rule of the whole people expressing their sovereign will be

their votes.

Indications:

(A) i is true, ii is false (B) i is false, ii is true (C) Both i and ii are true (D) Both i and ii are false

70. In which year in India was the Protection of Human Rights Act enacted?

(A) 1992 (B) 1993 (C) 1994 (D) 1995

71. The voting age in India was lowered from 21 years to 18 years by which Amendment Act of the constitution?

(A) 24 th Amendment Act, 1971 (B) 42 nd Amendment Act, 1976

(C) 44 th Amendment Act, 1978 (D) 61 st Amendment Act, 1989

72. Since when the Right to Information Act was implemented in India?

(A) September 12, 2005 (B) October 12, 2005 (C) November 19, 2005 (D) December 19, 2005

73. Which of the following is not a challenge to the National Integration in India?

(A) Regionalism (B) Casteism (C) Secularism (D) Communalism

74. Which of the following is a demerit of globalisation?

(A) Consumerism (B) Employment opportunity

(C) Proper use of capital and resources (D) Cultural Osmosis

75. In which year was the United Nations Peace Keeping Forces awarded Nobel Peace Prize?

(A) 1988 (B) 1990 (C) 1992 (D) 1994

76. Density of Population indicates the ___________.

(A) Capital-Land Ratio (B) Land-Output Ratio (C) Land-Labour Ratio (D) Man-Land Ratio

77. In which year New Economic Reforms were started in India?

(A) 1981 (B) 1991 (C) 2001 (D) 1995

78. Which sector provides Livelihood to majority of Indians?

(A) Industry (B) Agriculture (C) Service (D) Commerce

79. ‘Jago Grahak Jago’ slogan is meant for _______.

(A) Consumers (B) Producers (C) Labourers (D) Distributors

80. What type of unemployment is found in Indian agricultural sector?

(A) Seasonal unemployment (B) Cyclical unemployment

(C) Voluntary unemployment (D) Disguised unemployment

81. Which of the following is the oldest mountain range of India?

(A) Aravali (B) Nilgiri (C) Vindhya (D) Karakoram

82. Of which river the Chambal is a tributary?

(A) The Narmada (B) The Yamuna (C) The Godavari (D) The Tapti


83. What type of forest is found in the region where the annual rainfall is more than 200 cms?

(A) Alpine Forest (B) Evergreen Forest (C) Deciduous Forest (D) Monsoon Forest

84. Which of the following reservoirs is related to the Bhakra-Nangal Project?

(A) Krishnaraj Sagar (B) Govind Sagar (C) Gandhi Sagar (D) Nizam Sagar

85. Which is the main cash crop of Odisha?

(A) Cotton (B) Maize (C) Wheat (D) Sugarcane

86. Which of the National Highways of India connects Kolkata with Chennai?

(A) No.5 (B) No.6 (C) No.23 (D) No.42

87. From which of the ores Thorium is extracted?

(A) Ilmenite (B) Haematite (C) Monazite (D) Dolomite

88. In the production of which mineral India ranks first in the world?

(A) Manganese (B) Bauxite (C) Tin (D) Mica

89. What type of resource copper is?

(A) Exhaustible (B) Non-exhaustible (C) Potential (D) National

90. In which State of India the Kandala Port is located?

(A) Tamil Nadu (B) Kerala (C) Maharashtra (D) Gujrat


PAPER - I

MAT

ANSWER KEYS

1. C

2. D

3. C

4. B

5. C

6. D

7. B

8. C

9. A

10. B

11. C

12. D

13. B

14. A

15. D

16. C

17. D

18. A

19. C

20. A

21. B

22. A

23. A

24. B

25. C

26. B

27. D

28. A

29. D

30. B

31. A

32. B

33. D

34. C

35. D

36. B

37. D

38. C

39. D

40. C

41. C

42. C

43. B

44. D

45. A

46. C

47. B

48. A

49. D

50. D

51. D

52. B

53. C

54. A

55. B

56. A

57. C

58. B

59. D

60. B

61. C

62. B

63. D

64. A

65. C

66. D

67. C

68. A

69. B

70. A

71. D

72. A

73. C

74. C

75. A

76. B

77. D

78. A

79. C

80. A

81. D

82. B

83. B

84. B

85. B

86. A

87. D

88. A

89. C

90. C


PAPER - II

SAT

ANSWER KEYS

PHYSICS

1. A 2. B 3. D 4. A 5. D 6. B 7. D

8. A 9. C 10. C 11. A 12. C

CHEMISTRY

13. C 14. C 15. C 16. A 17. C 18. B 19. B

20. A 21. B 22. A 23. B

BIOLOGY

24. B 25. D 26. A 27. A 28. C 29. B 30. A

31. A 32. A 33. D 34. A 35. A

MATHEMATICS

36. D 37. C 38. B 39. C 40. A 41. B 42. A

43. B 44. B 45. D 46. B 47. B 48. C 49. D

50. C 51. A 52. B 53. D 54. 55. C

SST

56. D 57. A 58. A 59. B 60. D 61. C 62. B

63. C 64. D 65. C 66. C 67. A 68. A 69. C

70. B 71. D 72. B 73. C 74. A 75. A 76. D

77. B 78. B 79. A 80. D 81. A 82. B 83. B

84. B 85. D 86. A 87. C 88. D 89. A 90. D


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