Paper-II ( Sets)

download Paper-II ( Sets)

of 21

Transcript of Paper-II ( Sets)

  • 7/30/2019 Paper-II ( Sets)

    1/21

    Set -1

    1. Mark the correct statement.a) Elastic stop nut can be used many

    time.b) As in a) & when turn with fingers,

    replace it.c) Every time the parts disassembled,

    replace the elastic stop nut.

    d) As in c) & used at place wheretemperature exceed 250F.2. Which type of Synthetic rubber will bethe first choice for manufacturing ofaircraft tubeless tyre

    a. Butyl rubber b. Neoprene rubberc. BUNA-N d. thiokol

    3. Which synthetic rubber is chiefly used inaircraft hot air duct as sealing ring andwire insulation

    a. Silicon rubber b.Polymethane rubber c. BUNA-S d.BUNA-N

    4. Highest resistance to deterioration butlowest physical property is thecharacteristic of which kind of syntheticrubber.

    a. GR I b. GR Sc. GR P d.

    GR A

    5. To valcanise thiokol rubber, whichelement to be added

    a. Sulfur b. Sulfuroxide c. Zinc d. Zinc oxide

    6. Which material is used formanufacturing of hydraulic booster pistonseal

    a. Styrene butadiene seal b.Nitrile rubber

    c. Flexon rubberd. Fluoro carbon rubber

    7. Natural rubber attains fibrous structurewhen

    a. It under goes at lowtemperature b. It is frozen

    c. It is heated to 1300C d.It undergoes continues stress at normal

    temperature

    8. The grade of Kevlar fiber is used foraircraft structure

    a. Kevlar 49 b. Kevlar 149 c.Kevlar 29 d. Kevlar 129

    9. The composition for E glass is

    a. Magnesia-alumina-silicate glassb. Lime-alumina

    borosilicate glassc. Soda borosilicate glass

    d. None of the above

    10. Truly outstanding properties ofstrength competes with stronger steel iskind of fiber

    a. S glass b. Hollowfibre glass c. A glassd. Carbon glass

    11. Which composit material is difficult tocut or drill

    a. Glass fibre b. Aramidc. Carbon / Graphite

    d. None of above

    12. Mark the wrong statement for carbon /graphite fibre

    a. Is used to fabricate primary

    structure b. It has high strength andhigh rigidityc. It takes compressive load

    d. It is ductile in nature

    13. Corrosion control techniques areemployed when corbon fibre is in contactto aluminium

    a. A layer of fiber glass is used asa barrie

    b. Aluminium is anodized, primedand painted prior to assembly

    c. Both (a) and (b) will be appliedtogether

    d. None of the above

    14. Which composite material is useful formaking aircraft parts that are subject tohigh stress and vibration

    a. Fibergalss b. Aramid c.Carbon / Graphite d. None of these

    15. Mark the correct statementa. Carbon fiber are electrically

    non conductiveb. Carbon fibers have high

    thermal expansionc. Carbon fibers have high fatigue

    resistance

    16. Boron fibers are made by sintering theboron elements on a thin film of material

    a. Titanium b. Tinc. Tungsten d. All above

    17. Which fiber material bears all tension,compression and bending stresses

    a. Ceramic fiber b. Boronfiber c. Fiber glass d. Graphite fiber

  • 7/30/2019 Paper-II ( Sets)

    2/21

    18. Mark the correct statement in FiberOrientation

    a. Warp direction is designated at900

    b. Weft is designated at 00

    c. Bias is at 450 angle of fillthreads

    d. None of the above

    19. For repairing of fabric, which weave tobe useda. Plain weave b. Basket weavec. Satin weave d. All of these

    20. Find out the wrong answer: Hybrids ofcomposite material used in Aviation fieldare

    a. Kevlar with carbon / graphiteb. Kevlar with fiber glass

    c. Carbon / graphite with fiberglass d. None of these

    21. In fiber science, which acts as a curing

    agent a. Resin b. Matrixc. Catalyst d.

    All of these

    22. Plexiglass isa. Thermoplastic b.

    Thermoset c. Laminatedd. None of these

    23. Mark the correct answer:Apart from strongest adhesive

    characteristics of epoxy resin, it has otheradvantages

    a. Useful at very high temperatureb. It withstand bendingstress

    c. Reasonable rigidity and flexibilityd. All of these

    24. Mark the correct answer:The advantages of fillers to add to

    resins area. To control viscosity and weight

    b. To increase pot life andstrength

    c. Both (a) and (b)d. None of these

    25. Nomex is aa. Filler material b. Matrix

    c. Reinforced fiber d.Core material

    26. Tapered roller bearing supporta. Radial load b. Thrust load c.

    Both (a) and (b)

    27. Bearing used on high powered aircraftengine is

    a. Ball bearing b. Rollerbearing c. Plain bearing d. Both (a) and (c)

    28. Plain bearings are used fora. Connecting rods b. Crank

    shaft c. Cam shaft d.All of these

    29. Bearings are used to takea. Thrust load b. Radial

    load c. Side load d.Both (a) and (b)

    30. Bearing used where high compressivepressure, is generally made ofa. Babitt b. Bronze

    c. Siliver bronze d. All of these

    31. Bearing which offer more friction ismade of

    a. Bronze b. Babittc. Silicon d.None of these

    32. The amount of electricity a capacitorcan store is directly proportional to

    a. Distance between the plate andinversely proportional to theplate area

    b. Plate area and is not affectedby the distance between theplate.

    c. Plate area and inverselyproportional to the distance

    between the plated. None of these

    33. The correct way to connect a test voltmeter in a circuit is

    a. In series with a unit b.Between the source voltage and the load

    c. In parallel with unit d.Both (a) and (c) are correct

    34. Typical application of Zener diode is asa. Full wave rectifiers b.

    Half wave rectifierc. Voltage regulator d.

    Amplifier

    35. The method used to rapidly charge aNickel Cadmium battery utilizes

    a. Constant current and constantvoltage b. constant current and varyingvoltage

    c. Constant voltage and varyingcurrent

    d. Varying voltage and varyingcurrent

  • 7/30/2019 Paper-II ( Sets)

    3/21

    36. What tasks are completed prior toweighing an aircraft to determine its emptyweight

    a. Remove all items except thoseon aircraft equipment list, drainfuel and hydraulic fluids

    b. Remove all items on theaircraft equipment list, drainfuel, compute oil and hydraulic

    fluid weightc. Remove all items except thoseon the aircraft equipment list,drain fuel and fill hydraulicreservoir

    d. All of these

    37. Useful load of an aircraft is thea. Difference between the

    maximum gross weight andempty weight

    b. Difference between the netweight and total weight

    c. Some of the empty weight and

    the max. gross weightd. Weight of the fuel

    38. Certain amount of slacks must be leftin flexible hose during installation becausewhen under pressure it

    a. Expand in length and diameterb. Expand in length and contracts

    in diameterc. Contracts in length and

    expands in diameterd. Contracts in length and

    diameter39. Excessive stress on fluid or pneumatic

    metal tubing caused by expansion orcontraction due to temperature change canbest be avoided by

    a. Using short, straight sectionsof tubing between fixed partsof aircraft

    b. Not projecting the aircraft tosudden change in temperature

    c. Providing bends in the tubingd. None of the above

    40. Which heat treating process of metalproduces a hard, wear resistance surfaceover strong, tough core

    a. Case hardening b.Annealing c. Temperingd. Hardening

    41. Which of the following hose materialsare compatible with phosphate-ester basehydraulic fluids

    a. Butyl b. Buna-Nc. Neoprene d. Buna-S

    42. In a metal tubing installation

    a. Rigid straight line runs arepreferable

    b. Tension is undesirable becausepressurisation will cause is toexpand and shift

    c. A tube may be pulled in if thenut will start on the threadedcoupling

    d. None of the above

    43. Magnetic particles inspection is usedprimarily to detect

    a. Distortionb. Deep surface flaw

    c. Flaws on or near the surfaced. Flaws in plastic material

    44. Which material cannot be heat treatedrepeatedly without harmful effects

    a. Unclad aluminium alloys insheet forms

    b. 6061- T9 Stainless steelc. Clad aluminium alloy

    d. Carbon steel45. What is generally used in theconstruction of aircraft engine fire walls

    a. Stainless steelb. Chromium

    Molybdenum alloy steelc. Magnesium Titanium alloy steel

    d. Wrought iron46. A fiber type self locking nut must neverbe used on an aircraft if the bolt is

    a. Under shear loadingb. Under tension loadingc. Subject to rotation

    d. All of these

    47. Aircraft bolts are usually manufacturedwith aa. Class-I fit for the threadb. Class-II fit for the threadc. Class-III fit for the threadd. Class-IV fit for the thread

    48. Hose and a few projecting globules arefound in a weld. What action should betaken

    a. Re-weld the defective portions

    b. Remove all the old weld and re-weld the jointc. Grind the rough surface smooth,

    inspect and re-weld all gaps / holesd. Can be used in the same way49. Which condition indicate a part hascooled too quickly after being welded

    a. Cracking adjacent to the weldb. Discoloration of the base metalc. Gas pockets and porosityd. Slag inclusion

    50. Which tool is used to measure theclearance between the surface plates and a

  • 7/30/2019 Paper-II ( Sets)

    4/21

    relatively narrow surface being checked forflatness.

    a. Depth gauge b. Thickness gaugec. Dial indicatord. Vernier

    Caliper

    51. Which tool is used to find the center ofa shaft or other cylinder work

    a. Combination set b. Dial

    indicator c. Micrometer caliperd. Set square

    52. What tool is generally used to calibratea micrometer or check its accuracy

    a. Gauge block b. Dial indicatorc.Machinist scale d. None of these

    53. When approaching the front of anidling jet engine the hazard area extendsforward of the engine approximately

    a. 10 feet b. 15 feetc. 25 feet d.

    35 feet

    54. Which of the following is the mostsatisfactory extinguishing agent for use ona carburetor or intake fire

    a. Dry chemicalb. A fine water mistc. Carbon dioxided. Form

    55. When approaching the rear of an idlingturbo jet engine the hazard area extendsaft of the engine approximately

    a. 200 feet b. 100 feetc. 50 feet d.

    25 feet

    56. When towing a large aircrafta. A person should be in the

    cockpit to watch theobstruction

    b. Person should be stationed atthe nose

    c. Person should be positionedeach wing tip and theempennage

    d. A person should be in thecockpit to operate brakes

    57. A fuel that vaporizes too readily may

    cause a. Hard startingb. Detonation c.Vapor lock d. None of these

    58. The main difference between grades100 and 100LL fuel are

    a. Volatility and lead contentb. Volatility, lead content and

    colourc. Lead content and colourd. All of these

    59. Tetra ethyl lead is added to aviationgasoline to

    a. Retard the formation ofcorrosive

    b. Improve the gasolineperformance in the engine

    c. Dissolve the moisture in thegasoline

    d. None of these

    60. If the temperature of a confined liquidis held constant and its pressure istrippled, the volume will

    a. Tripleb. Reduced to one third its original

    volumec. Remains samed. Multiply by a fixed factor

  • 7/30/2019 Paper-II ( Sets)

    5/21

    set -II1. Choose the correct sets of angles of setsquare of one piecea) 450 x 300 b) 300 x 900

    c) 450 x 600

    d) 600 x 600

    2. Phantom line is used for indicating the_________ position of parta) Actual b) Hidden

    c) Relative d)None of these

    3. Mark the correct statementa) The arrow head length is equal todouble of its widthb) The arrow head length is equal to tripleof its widthc) The arrow head length is equal to itswidthd) None of these

    4. Top view false on the

  • 7/30/2019 Paper-II ( Sets)

    6/21

    a) Horizontal planeb) Vertical plane

    c) Half in horizontal and half in Verticalplane d) All above cases may bepossible

    5. Direction of rotation of external gearsarea) Opposite b) Same

    c) Either a) or b) d) None ofthe above

    6. S in Al-alloy designation indicatesa) Cast alloy b) Wrought alloy

    c) As in b) and used for a/cstructure d) None

    7. Which Al-alloy is more corrosionresistant?a) 2 S b) 3 S

    c) 17 S d) 52 S

    8. Al clad is generally of

    a) 17 S & 24 S b) 24 S & 52 Sc) 52 S & 53 S d) 53 S & 62 S

    9. Inter-crystalline corrosion is generallyoccurred ina) Al-alloy containing copper composition

    b) 17 S c) 24 Sd) All of these

    10. Which of the following material is usedfor spot welding?

    a) Clad alloys b) 52 S Al-alloyc) Both a) & b) d) None of these

    11. Natural rubber is a polymer ofa) Isoprene b) Neoprene

    c) Diprene d) None of these

    12. Which material is used for increasingthe hardness of natural rubber?a) Sulpher b) Phosphorus

    c) Sodium d) Carbon

    13. Which is the basic colour of

    commercial BUNA-Sa) White b) Blackc) Red d) Green

    14. GR-A is a known as BUNA-N, in whichA stands fora) Butadiene b) Acrylonitrile

    c) Monovinyl d) Nitrile

    15. Neoprene is designated as GR-M, inwhich M is stands

    a) Monovinyl b) Chloroprenec) Acrylonitrile d) Styrene

    16. GR-I designated for which type ofrubbera) Neoprene b) BUNA-S

    c) BUNA-N d) Butyl

    17. Which type of properties is introduced

    in rubber after vulcanising process?a) Elasticity b) Strong nessc) Reduce the tackiness d)

    All of these

    18. A/C rivets are identified bya) Head Style b) Alloy c)Length & Diameter d)All of these

    19. For accurate location of particular areaon an a/c, which of the following isnecessary?a) Water line b) Butt line c) As in a)

    & b) in conjunction with station line d)None

    20. Which type of corrosion is occurred instainless steel after electric arc welding?a) Pitting b) Galvanic

    c) Inter crystalline d)Fretting

    21. Which is most suitable for spotwelding, in stainless steel?a) Low-voltage b)High-amperagec) Low-voltage and High-amperage

    d) High-voltage and Low-amperage

    22. Which of the following is the Non-Magnetic?a) Inconel b) K-Monel

    c) Monel d) All of these

    23. SAE 13XX representsa) Magnesium Steel b) ManganeseSteel c) Silicon Steel d)Chromium Steel

    24. Hot piece of metal is increased in

    thickness and decreased in lengtha) Upsetting b) Down settingc) Swaging d)

    Rolling

    25. Which of the following have greatesttensile strength?a) Fibreglass b) Aramid

    c) Carbon d) Ceramic

    26. For flight equilibrium, designer tries tofix the CG

  • 7/30/2019 Paper-II ( Sets)

    7/21

    a) and C of P togetherb) At rear of C of P

    c) In front of most forward position of CPd) Along aerodynamic C of

    P

    27. Flight calculations are based on themagnitude and direction ofa) Lift & drag b) Weight & thrust

    c) Lift & thrust d) Both a)& b)

    28. The factors limiting the aspect ratio area) Structural consideration b)Drag considerationc) Lift consideration d)Both a) & b)

    29. What is required to reduce the landingspeed?a) A low minimum drag coefficient

    b) A small movement of C of Pc) A high max CL

    d) A high value of CL3/2/CD

    30. With increase in altitude pressure &temperaturea) Drops

    b) Will risec) Pressure drops, temperature increases

    d) Temperature drops,pressure increases

    31. The disadvantage of vacuum operatedGyro is

    a) At high altitude, stability is reduced dueto decrease in atmospheric pressure.b) Weight due to pipelinesc) Possibility of contamination by corrosionand dirt particles.d) All of these

    32. Gyro of AC operated instrumentsutilize the principle of squirrel cageinduction motor and because of highfrequency of power supply, greater rotorspeeds are possible of approximate.

    a) 23000rpm b) 24000rpmc) 24500rpm d) None

    33. Indication of pitch & Bank attitude arepresented by the relative position ofa) Aircraft symbol b)Gyro stabilised bar (Horizon symbol)c) Both a) & b) d) None ofthese

    34. Freedom of gimbal system movementabout the roll & pitch axes in gyro horizonis ______ respectivelya) 3600 and 900b) 3600 and 800c) 3600 and850 d) None

    35. The reason for restricting pitchmovement of gyro horizon is to preventa) Gimbal error b) Gimbal lock c)

    Transport wander d) None36. In single disk break, break linings areknown asa) Pucks b) Three are fix

    c) Three are movable d) All above

    37. When break pressure is released pistonmoves back to position with thea) Return spring force b) Hydraulicpressure c) Adjusting pind)None

    38. To check the angle of the main

    structural component in relation to thelongitudinal and lateral axis is known asa) Incidence check b) Dihedral check

    c) Structural alignment check d)Verticality check

    39. On copper and copper alloy corrosionforms on the surface asa) White powder b) Greenish film

    c) Blue d)Black

    40. Corrosion on the metal is due to

    a) Chemical attack b) Electrochemical attackc) Both a) & b) d) None

    41. During routine check, the fuselageshould be inspected fora) Corrosion b) Fretting

    c) Spilage d) All ofthese

    42. The truss type fuselage is covered bya) Steel sheet b) Al alloy sheet

    c) Fabric d) All ofthese

    43. Thermoplastic material is originallya) Hardb) Soft and pliable when exposed

    to heatc) It retains the moulded shape whencooled d) All of these

    44. Remoulding and reshaping cannot bedone ona) Thermosetting plastic b)Thermoplastic c) Both a) & b) d) None ofthese

  • 7/30/2019 Paper-II ( Sets)

    8/21

    45. Plastic should be stored in bins whichare tilted ata) 200 b) 100

    c) 150 d) 250

    46. The operating frequency of ADF isa) 90Hz b) 90KHz c)150Hz d) 90KHz to 1800KHz

    47. The ADF operates ona) LF Band b) MF Band

    c) LF & MF Band d)VHF Band

    48. In ADF antenna system at a pointsignal fades out this is calleda) Null position b) Figure of eight

    c) Cardiod d) None of these

    49. ADF receiver essentially isa) TRF receiver b) Superhetrodyne receiver

    c) Double superhetrodynereceiverd) Suppressed carrier receiver

    50. Types of antenna / antennas used forADF receivera) Half wave b) Full wave

    c) Sense aeriald) As in c) and loop aerial

    51. If a D flip-flop is to switch from 0 to 1,then input is to be kept high for at leasttime T wherea) T= t setup + t hold

    b) T= t setup + t hold + tpropagation delayc) T= t setup + t hold - t propagation delay

    d) T= clock period

    52. JK Flip flop is dividing the inputfrequency by 2, then its condition isa) J=0, K=0 b) J=0, K=1

    c) J=1, K=0 d) J=1,K=1

    53. In decimal to BCD decodera) 1 input, 10 output b)10 input, 4 output

    c) 4 input, 10 output d)10 input, 1 output

    54. If SUB pin is high in a Adder-subtractorcircuit, then circuit is;a) Adding Two bytes

    b) Subtracting input byte fromoutputc) Subtracting output byte from input d)Adding 2s complement byte to the otherbyte

    55. One of the effect of negative feed backin amplifiers is toa) Increase the noise

    b) Increase the harmonic distortionc) Decrease the bandwidth

    d) Decrease the harmonicdistortion

    56. The relationship between back emf and

    applied voltage in case of a dc motor isgiven bya) Eb = V + Ia Ra b) Eb = V Ia Ra c) Eb = V d)None of these

    57. The direction of rotation of dc motorcan be determined bya) Flemings right hand rule

    b) Flemings left hand rulec) Lenzs law

    d) Amperes law

    58. An engine driven 50 Hz alternator has

    a speed of 750 rpm. How many poles ithas?a) 6 poles b) 4 poles

    c) 2 poles d) 8 poles

    59. The frequency of emf generated by agenerator depends upon itsa) Speed b) No. of ploles c)Machine rating d) Both a) & b)

    60. Two quantities are said to be in phasewith each other whena) The phase difference between twoquantities is zero degrees

    b) Each of them pass through zero valuesat the same time and rise in the samedirectionc) Both a) & b)d) None of these61. Capacity of a capacitor depends upona) Separation between the plates

    b) Area of platesc) Di-electric material

    d) All of these62. The device used to measure very highinsulation resistance of electric cable isa) High resistance voltmeter

    b) Megger / Insulation resistance

    testerc) Iron vane meterd) Ammeter of high range

    63. If six cells are connected in series ofeach E volts, the total voltage of thebattery will bea) 6E b) 3E

    c) 4E d) 12E64. Special test equipment comprising ameter and two cables each of specificlength, is required for checking theresistance of bonding. A meter widely

  • 7/30/2019 Paper-II ( Sets)

    9/21

    used , consists of an ohm-meter operatingona) Principle of current ratio b)Principle of voltage ratio c)None of these

    65. Cell phone is used to protect the Ni-Cad battery froma) Shorting between plates

    b) Thermal runawayc) Avoid leakage of electrolyte d)All of these66. Which material you select for rivetingNi-steel sheeta) Monel b) 2017-T

    c) 2024-T6 d) Mildsteel67. Which one of the following rivet isready for use as received and need nofurther heat treatmenta) 2117 b) 2017-T

    c) 2024 d) 1100

    68. Ice-Box rivets area) 2017-T b) 2117-T

    c) 2024-T d) Both a)& c)

    69. The specification for universal headriveta) AN-470 b) MS-20613

    c) MS-20615 d) All ofthese

    70. Part No AN 470 B 3-8, indicatesa) Shank dia is 3/16

    b) Rivet length is 8/32

    c) Material is 5056-Al alloyd) All of the above

    71. Fluid used in the Aircraft hydraulicsystems area) Vegetable b) Mineral

    c) Synthetic d) All ofthese72. With pure rubber seals and hose oilused in the system isa) Mineral b) Vegetable

    c) Synthetic d) All of these73. In open centre system, the number ofservices can be operated at one time is

    a) One only b) Two onlyc) Any number d) All of these

    74. In closed system where fixed volumepump is fitted, the system is fitted with

    a) Automatic cut out value to divert pumpoutput to reservoirb) To maintain the normal built uppressurec) Both a) & b)d) None of these75. Pressure maintaining value fitted in thesystem is fora) To maintain the normal system pressure

    b) To safe guard the operation of theimportant servicesc) To maintain the pressure in primaryservices at a value suitable for operation ofservicesd) Both b) & c)76. Packing is made ofa) Asbestos b) Cork c)Synthetic or natural rubber d)Felt77. Aviation gasoline is having relativedensity ofa) 0.70 b) 0.72

    c) 0.80 d) 0.5

    78. Re-fuller delivery line should have filterofa) 5 microns b) 8 microns

    c) 4 microns d) 10microns79. Component fitted in pressurizationsystem to limit any possible negativedifferentiate pressure to a sage value isa) Safety value b) Outflow value

    c) Inward relief value d) pressurecontroller.

    80. Roots type blower pressurized andsend air to cabin duct by taking

    a) Ram air b) Air from exhaustc) Bleed air d)None of these

    SET -III

    1. Duckbill pliera) Is a flat nose plier b)Is used for twisting safety wiresc) Have serrations on their jaws d)

    All are correct

    2. Needle nose pliers are used fora) Extracting thin/sharp components

    b) Extractingnailsc) Gripping small electronic components

    d) All are correct

    3. i) A chisel can never cut the material allby itselfii) A die is a cutting tool

    a) Only i) is correct b)Only ii) is correctc) Both i) and ii) are correct d)Neither i) nor ii) is correct

  • 7/30/2019 Paper-II ( Sets)

    10/21

    4. Cutting edge of a chisel is generallyground to an angle ofa) 30 degrees b)70 degreesc) 90 degrees d)110 degrees

    5. Various types of cut of a file area) Single cut b)

    Smooth cutc) Rasp d) Both a)& b) are correct

    6. Bearing strength of a material refers toa) Direct tensile load it can bearb) Resistance to tear at the point of appliedloadc) Resistance to fracture at the point ofapplied loadd) Resistance to shear

    7. Characteristics of metals relating todrawing it into wire is

    a) Tensile strength b)Malleability c) Ductilityd) Brittleness

    8. Fusibility of a metal refer to its propertythat permitsa) Welding b)Drawing into thin sheetsc) Drawing into wires d)Good thermal conductivity

    9. Aluminium alloy 1100 impliesa) Pure aluminium b)It contains 11% copper

    c) It contains 111% zinc d)Heat treated alloy

    10. Clad aluminium alloys are used inaircraft. They area) Lighter than other aluminium alloysb) Stronger than unclad aluminium alloysc) Easily heat treatabled) Less susceptible to corrosion11. Medium carbon steels have a carbonpercentage ofa) 0.1 0.3 b)0.3 0.5c) 0.5 1.0 d)

    1.0 2.0

    12. Which of the statement is correct?a) Both heat treatable & non heat treatablealuminium alloys can be strain hardenedb) Strain hardening is same as coldworkingc) Strength & hardness increases duringcold workingd) All are correct

    13. Find out the wrong statementregarding titaniuma) It is highly corrosion resistant b)It maintain strength at elevatedtemperaturesc) It has good resistance to creep d)It is magnetic

    14. Pitot static system have heating

    elements toa) Remove moisture from the airb) Prevent ice formation

    c) To permit flying at high altituded) All are correct

    15. Pressure heads of pitot static systemshould not be painted, because ita) Impairs their thermal efficiency

    b) May cause obstruction of orificesc) None of the above

    d) Both a) and b) are correct

    16. i. In cross filing, the file is moved

    length wise across the workii. In draw filing, the file is moved side wiseacross the worka) Only i) is correct b)Only ii) is correctc) Both i) and ii) are correct d)Neither i) nor ii) is correct

    17. A cross cut saw hasa) 4-6 teeth per inch b)6-12 teeth per inchc) 10-15 teeth per inch d) 12-18teeth per inch

    18. i) For a good cut on a hard material, ablade with more teeth should be usedii) While cutting a tube, a blade should beso chosen that at least five teeth are thereon each side of the tube as it is cuta) Only i) is correct b)Only ii) is correctc) Both i) and ii) are correct d)Neither i) nor ii) is correct

    19. Spiral anger bit for drilling holes inwood area) Generally 7-10 inches long

    b) - one inch in diameter

    c) Used only with a bow type hand braced) All are correct

    20. Screw driver used when there is noclearance for normal screw driver is calleda) Closed area screw driver

    b) Stubby screw driverc) Off set slot screw driver

    d) Any one of the above

    21. Air driven power screw driver shouldbe used

  • 7/30/2019 Paper-II ( Sets)

    11/21

    a) For large diameter screwb) For removing screw that are jammedc) Where large number of screws are to beremoved and fitted backd) When removing screws from hardermaterial22. With regard to wrenches, find out theincorrect statementa) These are made from chrome vanadium

    steelb) These are generally die castc) Wrenches are made in various shapes &sizesd) These are plated to improve theirappearance

    23. Box end wrenches are useda) To loosen nuts that are exceptionallylightb) Where there is restricted spacec) For nuts that are bigger than one inchsized) When open end wrench is not available

    24. Crowfoot socket wrench is used wherethe following cannot be useda) Open end wrench b)Box end wrenchc) Standard socket wrench d)All are correct

    25. SAE 2340 isa) Chromium steel with 3% chromiumb) Nickel chromium steel with 0.3% carbonc) Nickel steel with 3% Nickel & 0.4%carbond) Carbon (0.4%) steel

    26. During nitric acid test, if the materialshows strongly magnetic nature, then it isa) Monel metal b) Carbonsteelc) Nickel steel d)18-8 steel

    27. Weldability is poorest in case ofa) Plain carbon steel b)Low carbon steelc) High carbon steel d)

    Wrought iron

    28. Stainless steel is corrosion resistancedue to presence ofa) Silicon b)Cobaltc) Chromium d)Manganese

    29. L shaped channels are produced bya) Forging b)Extrusion

    c) Machining d)Casting

    30. Creep in metals isa) Elongation due to temperatureb) Temporary elongation due totemperature and stressesc) Permanent set due to stresses and hightemperature operation

    d) All are correct31. Angular momentum isa) Moment of inertia b) Angularvelocityc) Product of a) & b) d) Sum of a) & b)

    32. Mark the incorrect statementa) Precession is inversely proportional tothe strength & direction of applied force.b) Precession is inversely proportional tothe moment of inertia of the rotor.c) Precession is inversely proportional tothe angular velocity of the rotor.

    d) None of the above

    33. Control of drift, relating to horizontalgyroscopes can be achieved by:a) Calculating corrections using earth rateformula and applying them as appropriateb) Applying fixed torques & cause gyro toprocess at a rate equal & opposite to theearth rate.c) As in b) but which can be variedaccording to latituded) All of these

    34. When gimbal orientation is such that

    the spin axis becomes coincident with oneor the other of the axes of freedom whichserves as attitude displacement referenceis termed asa) Gimbal lock b) Gimbal Errorc)Apparent drift

    35. Grip length of the bolt isa) Total length of the bolt

    b) Plain shank length of the boltc) Length under the head to the end of thebolt d) None of these

    36. In close tolerance bolt, force applied to

    drive in isa) 10 ounce hammerb) 20 ounce hammer

    c) 12 to 14 ounce hammerd) Sledge hammer

    37. Special washer AC 950 and AC 955 areused where

  • 7/30/2019 Paper-II ( Sets)

    12/21

    a) Bolt is installed at angle to surfaceb) Bolt is installed head

    downc) It can be used any where

    d) None of these

    38. Rasp file is used fora) Hard material b) Lead,wood or leather

    c) Both a) & b) d) Other materialsexcept lead, wood & leather

    39. Philips screwdrivers are tapered to anangle ofa) 730 b) 530

    c) 600 d) 930

    40. Snaps are used toa) Support the markers head of rivets

    b) To make the shop head duringrivetingc) Both a) & b) d)None of these

    41. Soft solder is the combination of tinand lead in proportion ofa) 2 : 3 b) 3 : 2

    c) 1 : 4 d) 4 : 1

    42. Bending stress is the combination ofa) Compression and shear

    b) Shear and tensionc) Compression and tension

    d) Tension and shear

    43. In true monocoque constructionprimary stresses is taken by

    a) Skin b) Framesc) Bulkhead d)Longerons

    44. The skin of semi monocoque fuselagecarriesa) No load b) Full load

    c) Part of the load d) Half ofthe load

    45. The longitudinal stability of aeroplaneis dependent ona) Position of C of G b)Movement of C of P on the main plane and

    fuselagec) Area of the tale plane, its aspect ratio,distance from C of G d) All ofthese

    46. Direction of rotation of external gearsarea) Opposite b) Samec) Either a) or b) d) None ofthe above

    47. Al clad is generally of

    a) 17 S & 24 S b) 24 S & 52 Sc) 52 S & 53 S d) 53 S &

    62 S

    48. Natural rubber is a polymer ofa) Isoprene b) Neoprene

    c) Diprene d) None of these

    49. Which is the basic colour ofcommercial BUNA-Sa) White b) Black

    c) Red d) Green

    50. Which type of corrosion is occurred instainless steel after electric arc welding?a) Pitting b) Galvanic

    c) Inter crystalline d)Fretting

    51. SAE 13XX representsa) Magnesium Steel b)Manganese Steel

    c) Silicon Steel d) Chromium Steel

    52. Hot piece of metal is increased inthickness and decreased in lengtha) Upsetting b) Down setting

    c) Swaging d)

    Rolling53. The factors limiting the aspect ratio area) Structural consideration b)Drag considerationc) Lift consideration d)Both a) & b)

    54. The disadvantage of vacuum operatedGyro isa) At high altitude, stability is reduced dueto decrease in atmospheric pressure.b) Weight due to pipelinesc) Possibility of contamination by corrosionand dirt particles.d) All of these

    55. Gyro of AC operated instrumentsutilize the principle of squirrel cageinduction motor and because of highfrequency of power supply, greater rotorspeeds are possible of approximate.

    a) 23000rpm b) 24000rpmc) 24500rpm d) None

    56. During routine check, the fuselageshould be inspected fora) Corrosion b) Fretting

    c) Spilage d) All ofthese

    57. The truss type fuselage is covered by

  • 7/30/2019 Paper-II ( Sets)

    13/21

    a) Steel sheet b) Al alloy sheetc) Fabric d) All of

    these

    58. Two quantities are said to be in phasewith each other whena) The phase difference between twoquantities is zero degreesb) Each of them pass through zero values

    at the same time and rise in the samedirectionc) Both a) & b)d) None of these

    59. If six cells are connected in series ofeach E volts, the total voltage of thebattery will bea) 6E b) 3E

    c) 4E d) 12E60. Which one of the following rivet isready for use as received and need nofurther heat treatmenta) 2117 b) 2017-T

    c) 2024 d) 110061. When calculating power in a reactive orinductive ac circuit, the true power isa) More than the apparent powe

    b) Less than the apparentpowerc) As in b) in reactive circuit and as in a) ininductive circuitd) None of these

    62. The correct way to connect a testvoltmeter in a circuit isa) In series with the unit

    b) Between the source voltage andthe loadc) In parallel with the unit

    63. Transfer of electrical energy from oneconductor to another without the add ofelectrical connectionsa) is called induction b) is calledair gap transferc) Will cause excessive arching and heat,and as a result is impractical

    64. Diodes are used in electrical powercircuit primarily asa) Switches b) Rectifiers

    c) Relays d)Contactors65. If three resistors of 3, 5 and 22 ohmsare connected in series in a 28V circuit,how much current will flow through the 3ohms resistor?a) 9.3 amps b) 1.05 amps

    c) 0.93 amps d) 10.05amps

    66. What is the value of a resistance ifgiven colour codes as brown, black, brown,black and brown.a) 1010 ohms b) 1000 ohms

    c) 101 ohms d) 10.1 Kohms

    67. What is the value of a capacitor ifgiven colour codes are orange, orange,

    blue and white.a) 33nF b) 33F c) 33pFd) 3300F

    68. The output of a astable multi-vibratorisa) Triangular wave b) Sawtooth wave c) Sinusoidal wave

    d) Square wave69. In an oscilloscope by varying intensitycontrol, what actually varied internally?a) Cathode voltage b) Anodevoltage c) Grid voltage d)Cathode current70. The output of NOT gate is always

    a) High b) Low c)Same as inputd) Complementary of input

    71. Oxy acetylene welding process issuitable for joining metal sheets and plateshaving thickness ofa) 1 to 30mm b) 2 to 50 mm

    c) 2 to 40mm d) All of these

    72. In oxyacetylene welding, welding rod isrequired as a filter metal when welding iscarried out above

    a) 15mm b) 10mmc) 40mm d) 5mm

    73. In oxyacetylene welding, neutral flameproduces a maximum temperature ofa) 30000F b) 32000F

    c) 32000C d) 30000C74. Standard colour for oxygen hose isa) Black b) Red

    c) Green d) None ofthese75. In magnet steel, the alloying elementsarea) Nickel, Cobalt

    b) Silicon, Nickelc) Molybdenum, Copperd) Tungsten, Cobalt

    76. Maximum distance between support forfluid tubing of 1/8 size of steel isa) 12 b) 14

    c) 9.5 d) 11.577. MS 20004 is aa) Internal wrenching bolt

    b) Close tolerance boltc) Clevis bolt

    d) None of these

  • 7/30/2019 Paper-II ( Sets)

    14/21

    78. Mark the incorrect statement,regarding K monel metala) It is ferrous alloy

    b) It is used for gears and chainc) It is non ferrous alloy

    d) It is corrosion resistant79. The symbol is fora) Wood b) Cast iron

    c) Steel d) Rubber80. Ballast is used on a/ca) To attain the desired c.g. b)To increase the weightc) For making noseheavy d) None of these

    1. Which of these is indicator ofelasticity & plasticity both?a) Rockwell hardness test

    b) Brinell hardnesstest

    c) Shore Scleroscoped) Vickers hardnesstest

    2. Flattening test isa) Bending test b) Only forcopper wires c) For tubetesting d) Both a) & c)

    3. Max rate of bending perminute in reverse bend test is

    a) 50 b) 60c) 10 d) 40

    4. Izod test measuresa) Toughness b)Height of upswing c)Energy in breaking d)Hardness

  • 7/30/2019 Paper-II ( Sets)

    15/21

    5. Fatigue test is fordetermininga) Stress in material b)Strain in rodc) Stress limit for material d)Elongation of wire

    6. Torsion test is essential fora) Wires b) Tube

    c) Rods d) Sheet

    7. Bending test indicatesa) Ductility b) Brittleness

    c) Hardnessd) Density

    8. 250 HB 10 indicatesa) Strength only b) Hardnessonly c) Both a) & b) d)Toughness

    9. Unit of tension isa) N b) N/m

    c) KN/m2 d)Kg/cm2

    10. First usable ferrous product

    obtained by smelting ores in ablast furnace isa) Pig Iron

    b) Wrought Ironc) Cast Iron

    d) Steel

    11. Siderite isa) Oxide ore of Iron

    b) Carbonate

    ore ofIronc) Sulphide ore of Irond) Flux used in

    furnace

    12. Coke used in blast furnace isa) Fuel

    b) Flux

    c) Reducing agentd) Both fuel &

    reducing agent

    13. In upper reduction zone, wegeta) Iron

    b) Carbondioxidec) Carbon monoxide

    d) Both Fe &CO2

    14. Steel is alloyed to improvea) Hardenability

    b) Toughnessc) Fatigue strength

    d) All of theabove

    15. Cast Iron sparks area) Red

    b) Whitec) Straw coloured

    d) First Red thenStraw coloured

    16. Corrosion resistant steel

    used in Aircraft construction isa) 18 8 steel

    b) Mediumcarbon steelc) 18 6 steel

    d) Silicon steel

    . Major alloying elements ofstainless steel are ( in order of% composition)

    a) Ni Cr b) Ni Vc) W Ni

    d) Cr Ni

    18. Forging steel isa) Low Carbon steel

    b) MediumCarbon steel

  • 7/30/2019 Paper-II ( Sets)

    16/21

    c) High Carbon steeld) Either a) or

    c)

    19. Exhaust collector is made upofa) Silicon steel

    b) Titanium steelc) Chromium steel

    d) Ni Crsteel

    20. Which element isresponsible for Red hardnessproperty?a) Ti b) Ta

    c) Mo d) W

    21. Which elements areresponsible for Penetrationhardness?a) Mn, S b) Mn, P

    c) Mn, Cr d) Cr, C

    22. Stainless steel isa) Ni Cr steel b) Cr Mosteel c) Ni W steel d) Cr Va steel

    23. Silicon in steel acts asa) Oxidiser b) Deoxidiser

    c) Impurity d)Both b) & c)

    24. Mark the correct statementa) SAE 2330 is chromium steel

    b) SAE 3250 is used in making

    axle shafts because of highstrengthc) SAE 3115 is used for makingpiston pins, cam rings

    25. Steel is preheated beforewelding toa) Include strength b)Enhance its creep resistance

    c) Enhance its creep resistance

    26. Steel used for wing-hingefittings & flying wire trunnions isa) SAE 4140 b)SAE 6150 c) SAE1015

    27. Steel used commercially forautomatic machine production isa) SAE 4135 b)SAE 4615 c) SAE611528. Steel used as an alternatefor SAE 4130 steel isa) SAE 8620 b)SAE 8630 c) SAE

    926029. Pyrometer is used toa) Measure the temperature

    b) Protect thefurnacec) Give protective atmosphere

    30. The fastest rate of cooling isgiven bya) Brine b)

    Oil c) Water

    31. The tip of the rivet is upsetto form a second head and thatis known asa) Round head b) Shophead c) Flat head d)Brazier head

    32. O ring packings are used forpreventinga) Internal leak b) Externalleak c) One direction leakd) Both a) & b)

    33. Gaskets are made of

  • 7/30/2019 Paper-II ( Sets)

    17/21

    a) Asbestos b)Copper c) Cork

    d) All of these

    34. While bending tubing, asmall flattening is allowed butthe small diameter of the bend

    should not be less than_______ of the outsidediametera) 90% b) 25%

    c) 75%d) 80%

    35. Deep permanent impressionin the hose produced by thepressure of hose clamp is known

    asa) Hot flow b) Deep flowc) Cold flow d)

    None of these

    36. In hex bolt, the length ismeasureda) Under the head to the end ofthe bolt b) Plainportion of the shankc) Total length

    d) Threadedlength

    37. Aircraft bolts are made ofa) Mild steel b)Stainless steel c)Aluminum alloyd) Cadmium plated nickel steelcorrosion resistance steel andaluminum alloy

    38. Fluid used in the Aircrafthydraulic systems area) Vegetable b)Mineral c) Synthetic

    d) All of these

    39. Vegetable based fluid isnormally

    a) Pink b)Yellow c) Almostcolourless d) None ofthese

    40. With pure rubber seals andhose oil used in the system is

    a) Mineral b) Vegetablec) Synthetic

    d) All of these

    41. In open centre system, thenumber of services can beoperated at one time isa) One only b) Two only

    c) Any number d) All ofthese

    42. When no services areoperated in open centre system,the pressure value in thesystem isa) At low value

    b) At highvaluec) Pump output passes directlyto the reservoir d) Botha) & c)

    43. In closed system wherefixed volume pump is fitted, thesystem is fitted witha) Automatic cut out value todivert pump output to reservoirb) To maintain the normal builtup pressurec) Both a) & b)

    d) None of these

    44. Thermal relief value fitted inthe hydraulic system operatesat a pressurea) Slightly higher than normalsystem pressureb) Relieve only a small quantityof fluid

  • 7/30/2019 Paper-II ( Sets)

    18/21

    c) At lower than the systempressured) Both a) & b)

    45. Pressure maintaining valuefitted in the system is fora) To maintain the normal

    system pressureb) To safe guard the operationof the important servicesc) To maintain the pressure inprimary services at a valuesuitable for operation of servicesd) Both b) & c)

    46. Restrictor valve fitted in thehydraulic system for

    a) Allowing free flow of fluid inone direction b)Limited flow in other directionc) To control the pressured) Both a) & b)

    47. Packing is made ofa) Asbestos b) Cork

    c) Synthetic or naturalrubber d) Felt

    48. Running seals area) Packing b) Gasket

    c) Wiper d) Noneof these

    49. Washer (gasket) used forspark plug isa) Asbestos b) Copper

    c) Cork d) All of these

    50. Gasket used on uneven orvarying space is made ofa) Asbestos b) Cork

    c) Copper d) All of these

    51. Seals used for cleaning andlubricating is called

    a) Wiper b) Gasketc) Packing d) None

    of these

    52. Fuel used for turbo jetengine isa) Gasoline b) Aviation

    kerosene c) Petrol d)None of these

    53. Aviation gasoline is havingrelative density ofa) 0.70 b) 0.72

    c) 0.80d) 0.5

    54. Relative density of AVTUR

    fuel isa) 0.80 b) 0.72

    b) 0.75 c) 0.70d) 0.72

    55. Re-fuller delivery line shouldhave filter ofa) 5 microns b) 8microns c) 4 microns

    d) 10 microns

    56. The source of pressurisedair in piston engine aircraft isa) Compressor b)Supercharger c) Turbocharger d) Both b) & c)

    57. Component fitted inpressurisation system to limitany possible negative

    differentiate pressure to a sagevalue isa) Safety value b)Outflow value c) Inwardrelief value d) pressurecontroller

    58. To maintain a free flow ofventilation air within the aircraft

  • 7/30/2019 Paper-II ( Sets)

    19/21

    when parked the component isfilled toa) Safety value b)Ground automatic relief valuec)outflow value d) Both a) &c)

    59. Roots type blowerpressurised and send air tocabin duct by takinga) Ram air b) Air fromexhaust c) Bleed air

    d) None of these

    60. Engine driven cabincompressor which is used onturbo prop aircraft, its output

    pressure is controlleda) Automatically b)Manually c) Notcontrolled d) Both a) & b)

    61. The working fluid used inreciprocating engine isa) Solid fuel b)Oxidizer & Fuel c) Fuel /Air Mixture d) All of these

    62. Mark the correct statementa) Turbo prop engine acceleratelarge mass of air through smallvelocity changeb) As in a) & Piston Engine alsoaccelerate large mass of airthrough small velocity changec) Turbo Jet Engine acceleratelarge mass of air through small

    velocity changed) Pulse Jet Engine acceleratelarge mass of air through smallvelocity change

    63. To compress the engineworking fluid, Piston Engineuses

    a) Turbine driven compressorb)

    Pressure rise due to combustionc) Positive displacement, pistontype compressor d) Botha) & c) are correct

    64. Piston engine classifiedaccording toa) Thrust

    b) No. ofstrokec) Cylinder arrangement withrespect to crank shaft d)Both b) & c)

    65. Radial engine classified as

    a) Upright, invertedb) Accordingto no. ofrowsc) Cylinder arranged on camshaft d) Both a) & c)

    66. The emitter resistor RE in atransistor amplifier is bypassedby a capacitora) To reduce the voltage gain

    b) To increase thevoltage gainc) Causes thermal runaway

    d) Stabilises the Qpoint

    67. A transistor is operating inthe active region. Under thisconditiona) Both the junctions are

    forward-biasedb) Both the junctions arereverse-biasedc) Emitter-base junction isreverse-biased, and collector-base junction is forward-biasedd) Emitter-base junction isforward-biased, and collector-base junction is reverse-biased

  • 7/30/2019 Paper-II ( Sets)

    20/21

    68. The potential-dividermethod of biasing is used inamplifier toa) Limit the input ac signalgoing to the base b) Makethe operating point almost

    independent of c) Reduce the dc base current

    d)Reduce the cost of the circuit69. For generating 1 KHz note,the most suitable circuit isa) Hartley Oscillator

    b) Colpits Oscillatorc) Tuned-collector Oscillator

    d) Wein-bridge

    Oscillator70.To generate a 1 MHz signalthe most suitable circuit isa) Wein-bridge Oscillator

    b) Phase shiftOscillatorc) Colpits Oscillator

    d) Hartley Oscillator

    71. Weather radar works on

    a) Echo system b) LOSsystem c) VHF system

    d) HF system

    72. Antenna size for DME isa) 1 b)

    c) /4 d)/8

    73. EDAS means

    a) Electrical and digital Aircraftsystemb) Electronics / digital Aircraftsystemc) Electronics digital andavionics systemd) None of these

    74. The purpose of EDAS is

    a) Modernise the variousAircraft system and their displaysystemb) To reduce the work load ofthe pilotc) To reduce the space in theAircraft

    d) All of these

    75. The satellites are placed ingeo-synchronous orbit for satcom system and they providecoverage betweena) Longitude 750

    b) Between latitude750 North and Southc) Both a) & b) above

    d) None ofthese

    76. In ball type erection unit,rotation of holder takes placethrough reduction gear fromgyro rotor shaft, the speed ofholder being__________a) 25 rpm b) 20 rpm

    c) 30 rpm d) 35 rpm

    77. In torque motor andlevelling switch type of erectionsystem the supply fed to thecentre electrode isa) 25V AC b) 20V AC

    c) 12V AC d) 15V AC

    78. Fast Erection system issupplied witha) 28V DC b) 115V AC

    c) 25V AC d) None

    79. Erection rate of normalerection system isa) 50/sec b) 50/min

    c) 30/min d) 30/sec

    80. Erection rate of fast erectionsystem is

  • 7/30/2019 Paper-II ( Sets)

    21/21

    a) 50/sec b) 50/minc) 30/min d) 30/sec