PAPER - 1 ALL INDIA OPEN PRELIMS MOCK TEST - NEO IAS. AIPOMT Question Paper.pdf · all india open...
Transcript of PAPER - 1 ALL INDIA OPEN PRELIMS MOCK TEST - NEO IAS. AIPOMT Question Paper.pdf · all india open...
TEST BOOKLET TARGET PRELIMS 2018
GENERAL STUDIES PAPER - 1
ALL INDIA OPEN PRELIMS MOCK TEST Time Allowed: Two Hour Maximum Marks: 100
INSTRUCTIONS 1. IMMEDIATELY AFTER THE COMMENCEMENT OF THE EXAMINATION, YOU SHOULD
CHECK THAT THIS TEST BOOKLET DOES NOT HAVE ANY UNPRINTED OR TORN OR MISSING PAGES OR ITEMS, ETC. IF SO, GET IT REPLACED BY A COMPLETE TEST BOOKLET.
2. Encode clearly the test booklet series A, B, C or D as the case may be in the appropriate place in the answer sheet.
3. You have to enter your Roll Number on the Test Booklet in the Box provided alongside. DO NOT write anything else on the Test Booklet.
4. This Test Booklet contains 50 items (questions). Each item comprises four responses (answers). You will select the response which you want to mark on the Answer Sheet. In case, you feel that there is more than one correct response, mark the response which you consider the best. In any case, choose ONLY ONE response for each item.
5. You have to mark all your responses ONLY on the separate Answer Sheet provided. See directions in the Answer Sheet.
6. All items carry equal marks. 7. Before you proceed to mark in the Answer Sheet the response to various items in the Test
Booklet, you have to fill in some particulars in the Answer Sheet as per instructions sent to you with your Admission Certificate.
8. After you have completed filling in all your responses on the Answer Sheet and the examination has concluded, you should hand over to the Invigilator only the Answer Sheet. You are permitted to take away with you the Test Booklet.
9. Sheets for rough work are appended in the Test Booklet at the end. 10. Penalty for wrong answers:
THERE WILL BE PENALTY FOR WRONG ANSWERS MARKED BY A CANDIDATE IN THE OBJECTIVE TYPE QUESTION PAPERS. (i) There are four alternatives for the answer to every question. For each question which
has a penalty for which a wrong answer has been given by the candidate, one-third (.33) of the marks assigned to that question will be deducted as penalty.
(ii) If a candidate gives more than one answer, it will be treated as a wrong answer even if one of the given answers happens to be correct and there will be same penalty as above to that question, if it has a penalty.
(iii) If a question is left blank, i.e., no answer is given by the candidate, there will be no penalty for that question.
DO NOT OPEN THIS TEST BOOKLET UNTIL YOU ARE ASKED TO DO SO
Date: 07-01-2018
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1. The term ‘Anti Profiteering Measures’ is sometimes seen in the news with reference to (a) Ending the trade distorting subsidies
in the developed countries. (b) Transfer of benefits of Goods and
Services Tax to the customers (c) Government measures for checking
black money in the economy (d) Regulation of Peer to Peer (P2P)
lending by Reserve Bank of India
2. Who among the following can join Pradhan Mantri Vaya Vandana Yojna? (a) Senior citizens aged 60 years and
above (b) Any person between the age of 18 and
70. (c) Senior female citizens aged 60 years
and above only (d) Any person not part of the organised
sector
3. The recent Cyclone Ockhi which affected Tamil Nadu, Lakshadweep and west coast of India, is regarded as a rare 'recurving cyclone'. How is/are recurving cyclone (s) different from normal cyclones? 1. Normal cyclones move westward and
poleward, whereas recurving cyclones move eastward and poleward.
2. Recurving cyclones rotate clockwise in northern hemisphere but normal cyclones in northern hemisphere rotate anti-clockwise.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
4. Major hot deserts of the world are mainly seen in a zone of (a) low level wind convergence with
cyclonic activity. (b) low level wind convergence with
ascending convective currents. (c) low level wind divergence and
anticyclonic activity. (d) None of the above.
5. With reference to ‘International Court of Justice (ICJ)’, consider the following statements: 1. It is the principal judicial organ of the
United Nations (UN). 2. The seat of the Court is in Hague,
Netherlands.
3. The judges of the court are elected by the executive committee of the ICJ.
Select the correct answer using the code given below. (a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 2 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
6. Consider the following chemicals: 1. Antimony 2. Mercury 3. Lithium 4. Lead 5. Arsenic Which among the above chemicals are prohibited in the manufacture of firecrackers by the Supreme Court? (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1, 3, 4 and 5 only (c) 2, 4 and 5 only (d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
7. Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding ‘E-Waste (management) Rules, 2016’? 1. Collection of E-waste is now
exclusively Producer’s responsibility. 2. Compact Fluorescent Lamps are
brought under the purview of rules. Select the correct answer using the code given below. (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
8. With reference to ‘Prime Minister’s Employment Generation Programme (PMEGP)’; consider the following statements: 1. It aims to generate employment
opportunities in rural as well as urban areas through setting up of self-employment ventures.
2. Khadi & Village Industries Commission (KVIC) is the nodal agency at national level for implementation of the scheme.
Which of the following statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
9. With reference to mangrove trees, consider the following statements: 1. Since mangroves are salt tolerant and
cold tolerant trees, it can be seen everywhere on earth.
2. Mangrove forest in India can be found along the coastal areas of West Bengal and Odisha only.
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Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
10. Consider the following pairs: 1. Nagarjunsagar
Srisailam Tiger Reserve
: Krishna river
2. Agasthyamalai Biosphere Reserve
: Neyyar river
3. Satkosia Tiger Reserve
: Mahanadi
Which of the above pairs is/are correctly matched? (a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 2 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
11. With reference to Hinayana and Mahayana division of Buddhism consider the following statements 1. Mahayana advocated universal
salvation. 2. The ideal of Mahayana is Bodhisattva 3. Mahayana and Vajrayana Buddhism
had no Indian patrons 4. Hinayana was patronised by kushana
ruler Kanishka and Palas of eastern India.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below. (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 3 and 4 only
12. With reference to Ryotwari Settlement, which of the following statements is/are correct? 1. The government retained the right to
enhance land revenue at will. 2. It deprived the zamindars of their
judicial powers. 3. The land ownership rights were vested
with the peasants. Select the correct answer using the codes given below. (a) 1 and 3 only (b) 2 only (c) 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
13. Consider the following statements: 1. A proclamation issued under Article
356 must be approved by resolutions of both Houses of Parliament within a period of one month from the date of proclamation.
2. When Article 356 is imposed, the President can by proclamation declare
that the powers of the State Legislature, shall be exercisable by or under the authority of the Parliament.
3. If the Houses of Parliament approves the proclamation, it shall be in force for a period of six months.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1 and 2 only (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 3 only
14. In the Seventh Schedule of the Indian Constitution, which of the following entries is/are included in the Concurrent List? 1. Electricity 2. Fisheries 3. Bankruptcy and Insolvency 4. Adoption 5. Taxes on professions, trades, callings
and employments Select the correct answer using the code given below. (a) 3 only (b) 1, 2 and 5 (c) 1 and 4 (d) 1, 3 and 4
15. Consider the following statements: 1. European Bank for Reconstruction
and Development (EBRD) was set up by the European Union.
2. The headquarters of EBRD is in Geneva, Switzerland.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
16. What is/are the advantage/advantages in implementing the GST composition scheme? 1. It will bring simplicity and reduce the
compliance cost for small taxpayers registered under GST.
2. Eligible person opting to pay tax under this scheme can pay tax at a prescribed percentage of his turnover every quarter, instead of paying tax at normal rate.
Select the correct answer using the code given below. (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
17. Some substances known as ‘Short-Lived Climate Pollutants’ (SLCP) assume importance in the context of climate
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change. Which of the following is/are SLCP? 1. Carbon dioxide 2. Black carbon 3. Hydrofluorocarbons 4. Methane Select the correct answer using the code given below. (a) 1 only (b) 1 and 2 only (c) 2, 3 and 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
18. Which one of the following statements is correct? (a) Stratus clouds are white and thin and
form delicate patches and give a fibrous and feathery appearance.
(b) Cirrus clouds are composed of ice crystals.
(c) Stratus clouds are classified as high clouds.
(d) Cirrus clouds are layered and cover large portions of sky.
19. Iran is located between (a) Black Sea and Caspian Sea (b) Black Sea and Mediterranean Sea (c) Caspian Sea and Mediterranean Sea (d) Caspian Sea and Persian Gulf
20. What is ‘Muntra’, recently seen in news ? (a) Nuclear Submarine developed by
DRDO (b) An aircraft carrier jointly developed by
India and Israel. (c) India's first unmanned tank developed
by DRDO. (d) Artillery gun developed by DRDO.
21. Which of the following are the main components of ‘System of Rice Intensification (SRI)’? 1. Soil fertility management 2. Planting method 3. Weed control 4. Water management Select the correct answer using the code given below. (a) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 3 and 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
22. Consider the following statements with regard to National Academic Depository (NAD): 1. It is an online store house of academic
awards (degrees, diplomas, certificates, mark-sheets etc) lodged by the academic institutions/school boards/
eligibility assessment bodies in a digital format.
2. NAD comprises of two inter-operable digital depositories namely NSDL Database Management Limited (NDML) and CDSL Ventures Limited (CVL).
3. The Central Educational Institutions and State Universities are the only academic institutions engaging with NAD.
Which of the following statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
23. Which one of the following is the best description of the term ‘Invasive species’? (a) Species that move from one habitat to
another during different times of the year, as they cannot live in the same environment all year round due to seasonal limitations in factors such as food, sunlight, and temperature.
(b) A species that has been introduced by humans intentionally or otherwise through human agency or accidentally from one region to another.
(c) An alien species which becomes established in natural or semi-natural ecosystems and is an agent of change, and threatens native biological diversity
(d) Species which are the first to colonize previously disrupted or damaged ecosystems, beginning a chain of ecological succession that ultimately leads to a more biologically diverse ecosystem.
24. Consider the following: 1. Star tortoise 2. Puma 3. Palm civet 4. Sangai deer Which of the above are naturally found in India? (a) 1 and 3 only (b) 1, 3 and 4 only (c) 2 and 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
25. Consider the following pairs: Folk dance state of origin 1. Bihu : Karnataka 2. Bhangra : Punjab 3. Dandiya raas : Gujarat 4. Therukoothu : kerala
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Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched? (a) 1 and 4 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 3 only (d) 2, 3 and 4 only
26. Which of the following statements about Theosophical Society is/are correct? 1. It was founded at Adayar near Madras
in 1886. 2. Annie Besant was a co-founder of this
society. 3. It involved in the study of Jainism. Select the correct answer using the code given below. (a) 1 and 3 only (b) 1 and 2 only (c) 2 only (d) 3 only
27. What is/are the major difference/ differences between a written and an unwritten constitution? 1. An unwritten constitution is the formal
source of all constitutional laws in the country and the written constitution is not the formal source.
2. In written constitution, conventions play a dominant role while they do not have any role in unwritten constitution.
Select the correct answer using the code given below. (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
28. With reference to the ‘Preamble’, which of the following statements is/are not correct? 1. Preamble is not a part of the
Constitution. 2. The Preamble has been amended only
once so far. 3. As it is non-justiciable in nature, it
cannot be taken as an aid to the legal interpretation of constitution.
Select the correct answer using the code given below. (a) 1 and 3 only (b) 1 and 2 only (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1 only
29. With reference to ‘Urja Ganga Natural Gas Pipeline Project’, consider the following statements: 1. It aims to provide piped cooking gas to
all BPL households within 3 years. 2. The project is implemented by the Gas
Authority of India Ltd.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
30. With reference to ‘Deposit Insurance and Credit Guarantee Corporation (DICGC)’, consider the following statements. 1. It is a wholly owned subsidiary of the
Reserve Bank of India. 2. All commercial banks including
branches of foreign banks functioning in India, local area banks and regional rural banks are insured by the DICGC.
3. Each depositor in a bank is insured up to a maximum of ₹1,00,000 (Rupees One Lakh) for both principal and interest amount held by him/her under DICGC.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
31. The summer monsoon winds come from south-western direction in the northern hemisphere. What could be the main reason for this? (b) The general direction of wind from the
Indian Ocean is south-western. (c) The presence of the doldrums around
the Equator. (d) The low-pressure conditions in north-
west India. (e) The coriolis force deflects the winds.
32. Consider the following statements: 1. Ocean currents assist in maintaining
the Earth’s heat balance 2. The most important fishing grounds of
the world are found in the regions where warm and cold oceanic currents meet.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
33. With reference to the ‘Wassenaar Arrangement’, consider the following statements: 1. It was established to promote
transparency and greater responsibility in transfers of
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conventional arms and dual-use goods and technologies.
2. It also aims to prevent the acquisition of conventional arms and dual-use goods and technologies by terrorists.
3. The headquarters of the Arrangement is located in Wassenaar, Netherlands.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 2 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
34. ‘Blockchain’ technology is often seen in news. Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding Blockchain technology? 1. ‘Blockchain’ is expected to improve the
efficiency of a financial transaction by eliminating the middlemen.
2. It is expected to reduce the cost of all financial transactions.
3. It is likely to reduce the transparency and increase the chances of fraud in financial transactions.
Select the correct answer using the code given below: (a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 2 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
35. With respect to ‘India Hypertension Management Initiative (IHMI)’, consider the following statements: 1. It aims to reduce disability and death
related to cardiovascular diseases. 2. It is a collaborative project of Medical
Council of India and Ministry of AYUSH.
Select the correct answer using the code given below: (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
36. Which one of the following is a purpose of ‘Vanbandhu Kalyan Yojana’, a scheme of the Government? (a) Promoting appropriate practices, care
and institutional service utilization during pregnancy, delivery and lactation.
(b) Encouraging aptitude towards employable skills and to increase working efficiency of probable and existing daily wage earners.
(c) Creating enabling environment for need based and outcome oriented
holistic development of the tribal people.
(d) Ensuring long-term sustainable livelihoods for the affected people in mining areas.
37. With reference to ‘Irrawady Dolphin’, which of the following statements is/are correct? 1. It is an aquatic mammal found in
estuaries and mangrove areas, with freshwater populations occurring in river systems.
2. It is not found naturally in India 3. It is given legal protection under
Schedule I of the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972.
Select the correct answer using the code given below. (a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 only (c) 1 and 3 (d) 3 only
38. Which one of the following statements concerning the Rotterdam Convention is correct? (a) The Convention deals with banning of
the human clone experiment (b) The Convention deals with limiting the
use of toxic chemicals (c) The Convention deals with
conservation of natural forests (d) The Convention deals with reducing
nuclear weapon stockpiles
39. With reference to the Government of India Act 1935, consider the following statements: 1. It rejected the idea of creation of all
India federation. 2. It provided for abolition of provincial
dyarchy. 3. It provided for the abolition of Indian
council. 4. It provided for a common constitution
for Burma and India. Select the correct answer using the code given below. (a) 1, 3 and 4 only (b) 2 only (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 4 only
40. Which one among the following is not correct about the Subsidiary Alliance? (a) It compelled to expel only all non-
Europeans from subsidiary state (b) The subsidiary state had to maintain
British troops at its own cost
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(c) An annual tribute to the British by the subsidiary state
(d) A British Resident was posted in the subsidiary state
41. Consider the following statements: 1. The Ghandhara school is known for its
‘narrative art’. 2. Early Mathura sculptures show strong
Greek influences in the depiction Buddha
3. The main theme of Gandhara school was Mahayanism.
Which of the statements given above is/are not correct? (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1 and 3 only (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 2 only
42. Regarding the Eighth Schedule of the Constitution, consider the following statements: 1. Rajasthani and Bhojpuri are included
in this schedule. 2. The provisions in this schedule can be
amended by simple majority 3. Presently there are only 22 languages
in this schedule. Select the correct answer using the code given below. (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) 3 only (d) None
43. Which one of the following statements is not correct? (a) The power of the President to grant
pardon is wider than the power of the Governor
(b) The power of High Courts to issue writs under Article 226 of the Constitution of India is wider than the power of the Supreme Court under Article 32
(c) The Advocate General is to be consulted by the Governor in the matter of appointing, posting and promoting District Judge
(d) The District Judge is the highest judicial authority in the district in both civil and criminal matters.
44. Which of the following is/are correct regarding the office of Governor in India? 1. One Governor can act as Governor of
more than one State 2. The Governor has the power to grant
pardons, reprieves, remission of
punishment to persons convicted under the Laws of both State list and Concurrent list.
3. The Governor is appointed by the President on the recommendation of the Chief Minister of the respective State.
Select the correct answer using the code given below. (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1, 2 and 3 (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1 only
45. Which of the following come under the purview of the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code, 2016? 1. Corporate insolvency resolution 2. Scheduled commercial banks
insolvency resolution 3. Individual bankruptcy 4. Insurance Corporation insolvency
resolution Select the answer using the code given below. (a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 4
46. Which of the following facilities will be available to the customers through ‘Digi Pay’? 1. Bank account balance enquiry 2. Cash withdrawal facility 3. Cash deposit facility 4. Point-of-sale payments Select the answer using the code given below. (a) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 3 and 4 only (d) 1 and 4 only
47. Which of the following statements is not correct regarding African Development Bank (AfDB)? (a) AfDB headquarters is at Abidjan, Cote
d’Ivoire (b) India is a non-regional member of
AfDB. (c) All the members of AfDB are members
of African Union. (d) AfDB’s Annual Meeting in 2017 was
conducted in New Delhi, India
48. “Exceptionally high and low tides that occur at the time of the new moon or the full moon”. Which of the following tide is described in the above statement?
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(a) Spring tide (b) Mixed tide (c) Neap tide (d) Diurnal tide
49. Dhola-Sadiya bridge, India’s longest bridge, connects which one of the following pairs of states? (a) Assam and Nagaland (b) Assam and Meghalaya (c) Assam and Arunachal Pradesh (d) Assam and Manipur
50. Which one of the following statements is not correct regarding the Himalayas? (a) Himalayas have deep gorges and steep
gradients causing land slides. (b) Himalayas rose up from the Tethys
Sea. (c) Himalayas are devoid of parallel
ranges. (d) Numerous U-shaped and hanging
valleys are found in Himalayas.
51. The term ‘Istanbul Processes’ sometimes seen in the news with reference to (a) accession of turkey into European
Union. (b) trade related talks in World Trade
Organisation (c) security cooperation in North Atlantic
Treaty Organisation (d) cooperation among Afghanistan and its
neighbours.
52. Regarding ‘Pradhan Mantri Bhartiya Janaushadhi Pariyojana (PMBJP)’, which of the following statements is/are correct? 1. It is a campaign to provide quality
medicines at affordable prices to the masses through special kendra’s known as Pradhan Mantri Bhartiya Jan Aushadhi Kendra.
2. Private hospitals are not eligible to apply for new Jan Aushadhi stores.
3. It is being operated by Bureau of Pharma Public Sector Undertakings of India (BPPI) under Ministry of Chemicals & Fertilizers.
Select the correct answer using the code given below. (a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
53. With reference to ‘Neelakurinji (Strobilanthes kunthiana)’, sometimes seen in the news, consider the following statements:
1. It is a plant species found in a certain part of South India.
2. The species blossoms only once in 12 years.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
54. With reference to biodiversity hotspot, consider the following statements 1. The concept of biodiversity hotspot
was originated from the organisation IUCN
2. Exceptional levels of plant endemism is an important criteria for identifying biodiversity hot spots
3. Serious levels of habitat loss is the only criteria for identifying biodiversity hotspots
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 only (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 3 only
55. ‘NoMore50’, sometimes seen in the news, is related to (a) campaign calling for stronger and
higher penalties for Tax evading (b) campaign calling for stronger and
higher penalties for animal cruelty (c) campaign calling for stronger and
higher penalties for environmental pollution
(d) campaign calling for stronger and higher penalties for smoking in public place
56. Consider the following statements regarding Home Rule Movement: 1. It aimed to attain self-government and
uprooting the British rule. 2. It was able to combine the moderates,
extremists, and revolutionary terrorists.
3. The enactment of Indian Council Act 1909 ended this movement
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) 2 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 3 only
57. Which one of the following is not correct about the Cabinet Mission Plan? It approved (a) Pakistan resolution
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(b) Grouping of provinces (c) Interim Cabinet of Indians (d) Constitution framing right
58. Consider the following statements about Rig Vedic polity: 1. The monarch enjoyed the absolute
power. 2. The king imposed taxes on farmers. 3. Tribal assemblies existed and they
were powerful. 4. The king was elected by the tribal
assemblies. Which of the statements given above are correct? (a) 1 and 4 only (b) 2, 3 and 4 only (c) 3 and 4 only (d) 1, 2 and 4 only
59. The 73rd Amendment of the Constitution provided Constitutional status to the Panchayati Raj Institutions. Which of the following are the main features of this provision? 1. A three tier system of Panchayati Raj
for all States. 2. Panchayat elections in every 5 years. 3. Not less than 33% of seats are
reserved for women. 4. Constitution of District Planning
Committees to prepare development plans.
Select the current answer using the code given below. (a) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) 1, 3 and 4 only (c) 1, 2 and 4 only (d) 2, 3 and 4 only
60. Consider the following statements about the Estimates Committee: 1. Members of the Committee are drawn
from both the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha.
2. The maximum number of members of the Committee is 30.
3. The members from Lok Sabha are nominated by the Speaker, while the members from Rajya Sabha are nominated by the Chairman.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 2 only (d) 1 and 3 only
61. A person shall be disqualified for being chosen as, and for being, a member of either House of the Parliament if she/he
1. holds any office of profit under the Government of India or the Government of any State, other than an office exempted by the Parliament by law.
2. is of unsound mind and stands so declared by a competent court.
3. remains absent from all meetings of the House for a period of 60 days without the permission of the House.
Select the correct answer using the code given below. (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) 1 and 3 only
62. The ‘Global Battery Alliance’ is related to (a) World Economic Forum (b) Federal Communications Commission,
USA (c) International Telecommunication
Union (d) United Nations Framework Convention
on Climate Change
63. Fiscal slippage means (a) the actual fiscal deficit is more than
the expected limit. (b) the actual revenue deficit is more than
the expected limit. (c) the decrease in the amount of foreign
direct investment compared to previous financial year.
(d) the decrease in the amount of foreign portfolio investment compared to previous financial year.
64. In our solar system, Terrestrial planets are quite different from Jovian planets. This can be attributed to which of the following? 1. The solar wind was most intense near
the Sun. 2. Lower gravity of terrestrial planets
could not hold the escaping gases. 3. Terrestrial planets were formed 1
billion years after the formation of Jovian planets.
Select the correct answer using the code given below. (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1 and 3 only (c) 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
65. The standard meridian of India (82°30´ E) does not pass through (b) Uttar Pradesh
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(c) Andhra Pradesh (d) Jharkhand (e) Odisha
66. In the South Asia Subregional Economic Cooperation (SASEC), an initiative of seven countries, which of the following is/are not a participant/participants? 1. Pakistan 2. Bangladesh 3. Thailand 4. Myanmar 5. Nepal Select the correct answer using the code given below. (a) 1 only (b) 2, 3 and 4 (c) 1 and 3 (d) 1, 2 and 5
67. With reference to Central Adoption Resource Authority (CARA), consider the following statements: 1. It functions as the nodal body for
adoption of Indian children and is mandated to monitor and regulate in-country and inter-country adoptions.
2. It is designated as the Central Authority to deal with inter-country adoptions in accordance with the provisions of the Hague Convention on Inter-country Adoption, 1993.
3. It currently comes under the purview of the Ministry of Social Justice & Empowerment.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
68. Consider the following statements: 1. Padmavat was written in Awadhi
language. 2. It was written by Malik Muhammad
Jayasi.. 3. According to it, Alauddin Khilji,
the Sultan of Delhi,was defeated by Padmavati.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below. (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) 1 and 2 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
69. Which one among the following is a function of the Pro-Tem Speaker of the Lok Sabha? (a) Conduct of the proceedings of the
house in the absence of the Speaker
(b) To check if the election certificates of the members of the house are in the order
(c) Swear in the members of the House and hold the charge till a regular Speaker in the members of the House is elected
(d) Present the bills passed by the House, in the absence of the Speaker, for presidential assent.
70. Consider the following with regards to 97th Constitutional Amendment Act 1. It inserted right to form Co-operative
as a fundamental right. 2. It fixed minimum and maximum
numbers of directors allowed for a Co-operative.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
71. According to Article 370, most of the provisions in the Constitution of India can only be extended to Jammu and Kashmir State through (a) a legislation passed in the Jammu and
Kashmir State Assembly (b) a resolution passed in both houses of
the Parliament (c) a Presidential order issued in
agreement with the state government (d) a notification by the State Governor in
agreement with the state government
72. Consider the following industries: 1. Textiles 2. Cement 3. Refinery products 4. Automobile Which of the industries given above are core industries? (a) 1 and 4 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1, 2 and 3 only (d) 2, 3 and 4 only
73. Marginal Cost of fund based Lending Rate (MCLR) is a new methodology to calculate the lending rate of the commercial banks. Which of the following elements is/are considered while calculating MCLR? 1. Marginal cost of funds 2. Tenor premium 3. Net Demand and Time Liability of the
bank
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Select the correct answer using the code given below. (a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 2 and 3 (c) 1 and 2 (d) 1 and 3
74. Consider the following pairs: Hills State
1. Dafla Hills : Nagaland 2. Nallamalai Hills : Tamil Nadu 3. Agasthyamala : Kerala 4. Maikala range : Madhya Pradesh Which of the above pairs are correctly matched? (a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3 (c) 3 and 4 (d) 2 and 4
75. Which of the following factor/factors is/are considered for calculating Minimum Support Price (MSP)? 1. demand and supply 2. cost of production 3. terms of trade between agriculture and
non-agriculture Select the correct answer using the code given below. (a) 1 and 3 only (b) 2 only (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
76. In economy, the term for establishments having formal existence but with close to no operations or assets is termed as (a) tax haven (b) shell company (c) benami property (d) sick industry
77. Which of the following parameters is/are considered by the World Bank to compute the ‘Ease of Doing Business Ranking’ ? 1. Getting electricity 2. Getting credit 3. Paying taxes 4. Enforcing contracts 5. Trading across borders Select the correct answer using the code given below. (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 3 and 5 only (c) 1, 2, 3 and 5 only (d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
78. Regarding ‘Pradhan Mantri Saubhagya Yojana’, which of the following statements is/are correct? 1. It aims to provide free electricity to
over 40 million families in rural and urban areas by December 2018.
2. The beneficiaries under Saubhagya Yojana would be identified using Socio Economic and Caste Census (SECC) 2011 data.
Select the correct answer using the code given below. (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
79. Consider the following regions: 1. Khangchendzonga National Park 2. Kaziranga National Park 3. Keoladeo National Park Which of the above is/are Mixed World Heritage Site(s)? (a) 1 only (b) 1 and 2 only (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
80. With reference to Quit India Movement, which of the following is/are not correct? 1. It became popular by the name August
Revolution. 2. Peasants did not participate in the
movement. 3. The Cripps mission arrived in India
after the Quit India movement. 4. There were no communal clashes
during the Quit India Movement. Select the correct answer using the codes given below. (a) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 2, 3 and 4 only (d) 1 and 4 only
81. Which of the following is not a ground for disqualification under Anti-Defection law? (a) An elected member voluntarily resigns
from his political party and joins any other political party
(b) An elected member votes or abstains from voting contrary to party whip
(c) An independent member of legislature joins any political party
(d) A nominated member of a House joins a political party within six months after becoming a member of the house
82. Consider the following with regard to Cabinet Secretary: 1. His main function is to coordinate
between different ministries. 2. Apex Committee on Digital India
Programme is headed by Cabinet Secretary.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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(a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
83. Which of the following is/are the function/functions of Ministry of Parliamentary Affairs? 1. Forming Consultative Committees of
Members of Parliament for various Ministries.
2. Pursues with the other Ministries for implementation of assurances given in the Parliament.
3. Drafting the legislations on behalf of different Ministries.
Select the correct answer using the code given below. (a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 2 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
84. With reference to the Merchant Discount Rate (MDR), consider the following statements: 1. Merchant Discount Rate is the fee
charged on a merchant by service providers for providing debit and credit card payment services.
2. Merchants can pass on the MDR charges to the customers.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
85. Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding World Trade Organisation (WTO) Ministerial Conference? 1. The 11th WTO Ministerial Conference
was held at Buenos Aires. 2. ‘Peace Clause’ for Public Stockholding
for food security purpose was agreed by WTO members during 9th Ministerial Conference.
3. In the 11th Ministerial Conference, ‘Permanent solution’ replaced the ‘Peace Clause’.
Select the correct answer using the code given below. (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 only (c) 3 only (d) 2 and 3 only
86. Which of the following gives ‘Global Hunger Index’ ranking to the countries of the world? (a) World Bank (b) Food and Agriculture Organization
(c) International Food Policy Research Institute
(d) United Nations Development Programme
87. With reference to Methanol, sometimes seen in news, consider the following statements: 1. Methanol can be manufactured from
natural gas and coal. 2. Methanol can be an alternative to
conventional transportation fuels. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
88. The Diwani-i-kohi refers to (a) Department of commerce (b) Department of arrears (c) Department of agriculture (d) Department of correspondence
89. Which of the following is/are the conditions suggested by the Election Commission of India to recognize a party as a National Party? 1. It has to win a minimum of two per
cent of the seats in the Lok Sabha from at least three different States.
2. The party is recognised as a 'state level party' in four or more States.
3. In General Elections, the party must manage to win four per cent of the votes and win at least six Lok Sabha seats.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 2 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
90. Article 142 of the Indian Constitution provides discretionary powers to the Supreme Court to ensure complete justice. In which of the following incidents, the Supreme Court has invoked this Article while pronouncing the judgments? 1. Awarding compensation for Bhopal
Gas tragedy victims. 2. Invalidating National Judicial
Appointment Commission Act. 3. The ban on the sale of alcohol along
highways. 4. Cancellation of discriminatory coal
block allocation.
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Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a)1, 2 and 3 only (b) 1, 3 and 4 only (c) 2 and 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
91. Regarding the Electoral Bonds, which one of the following statements is not correct? (b) It will be issued only by a notified bank
for specified denominations (c) Political funding can be done by
buying these bonds through digital payments or cheque only.
(d) It can be received by a registered political party only.
(e) The identity of the donor can be clearly known, shows its merit.
92. The recently approved SHAKTI policy aims to address the concerns in: (a) Agricultural sector (b) Women and child empowerment (c) Coal sector (d) Education sector
93. What is/are the likely advantage/ advantages of implementing the Model Contract Farming Act ? 1. It will transfer the risk associated with
price unpredictability from the buyers to farmers.
2. It will incentivise buyers to procure material directly from farmers.
3. It will benefit the farmers with access to better inputs, scientific practices and credit facilities.
Select the correct answer using the code given below: (a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
94. Recently, NITI Aayog had suggested ‘Price Deficiency Payment’ system to address the gaps in Minimum Support Price (MSP) based procurement of crop. Which among the following states have implemented this system? (a) Madhya Pradesh (b) Uttar Pradesh (c) Maharashtra (d) Both (a) and (c)
95. Consider the following pairs: Main river Tributary 1. Cauvery : Kabini 2. Narmada : Wainganga 3. Krishna : Bhima 4. Godavari : Tawa
Which of the above pairs is / are correctly matched? (a) 1 only (b) 2, 3 and 4 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
96. Which of the following best describes the term Gross Value Added at basic prices ? (a) Gross Domestic Product at market
prices minus Product taxes plus Product subsidies
(b) Gross Domestic Product at market prices plus Product taxes minus Product subsidies
(c) Gross Domestic Product at market prices minus Production taxes plus Production subsidies
(d) Gross Domestic Product at market prices plus Production taxes minus Production subsidies
97. Consider the following statements: 1. Full convertibility is a reason for
international acceptance of US Dollar. 2. Indian rupee is fully convertible in
capital account of Balance of Payments.
3. Full convertibility of Indian rupee will attract more foreign capital into the country.
Select the correct answer using the code given below. (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1 and 3 only (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
98. With reference to Sufism in medieval India, consider the following: Sufis followed 1. Fasting, prayers and pilgrimages 2. Charity and suppression of passions 3. Strict observance of the Sharia 4. Self-discipline Which of the statements given above is / are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 4 only
99. Consider the following with regard to Union Public Service Commission: 1. UPSC chairman is selected by a
Committee consisting of Prime Minister, Opposition Leader in the Lok Sabha and the Lok Sabha Speaker.
2. UPSC Chairman is removed from the office in the same manner as a judge of Supreme Court.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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(a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
100. Which of the following are initiatives by NITI Aayog? 1. Atal Innovation Mission 2. SAFAR 3. SAMAVESH 4. SATH Select the correct answer using the code given below. (a) 1, 2 and 4 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1, 3 and 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
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