ËÐÜ¿á ÓÜíPæàñÜ 234 *234/A* Akpsc.kar.nic.in/234 - Accounts set A.pdf · 234 (3 – A )...
Transcript of ËÐÜ¿á ÓÜíPæàñÜ 234 *234/A* Akpsc.kar.nic.in/234 - Accounts set A.pdf · 234 (3 – A )...
-
234 (1 – A )
D ±ÜÅÍæ°±ÜâÔ¤Pæ¿á®Üá° ñæÃæ¿ááÊÜíñæ ¯ÊÜáWæ £ÚÓÜáÊÜÊÜÃæWÜã C¨Ü®Üá° ñæÃæ¿áPÜãvÜ̈ Üá
±ÜÅÍæ° ±ÜâÔ¤Pæ ÍæÅà~
±ÜÅÍæ° ±ÜâÔ¤Pæ
¯©ìÐÜr ±Ü£ÅPæ (±Ü£ÅPæ II)
ÓÜÊÜá¿á : 2 WÜípæWÜÙÜá WÜÄÐÜu AíPÜWÜÙÜá : 200
ÓÜãaÜ®æWÜÙÜá 1. ±ÜÄàûæ ±ÝÅÃÜí»ÜWæãívÜ ñÜûÜ|Êæà J.Gí.BÃ…. EñܤÃÜÖÝÙæ¿áÈÉ ±ÜÅÍæ° ±ÜâÔ¤Pæ ÍæÅà~¿á®Üá° WÜáÃÜáñÜá ÊÜÞvÜáÊÜ Êæã¨ÜÆá, D ±ÜÅÍæ° ±ÜâÔ¤Pæ¿áÈÉ
ÊÜáá©ÅñÜÊÝWÜ Ü̈ A¥ÜÊÝ ÖÜÄ©ÃÜáÊÜ A¥ÜÊÝ ¿ÞÊÜâ æ̈à ±Üâo CÆÉ©ÃÜáÊÜ A¥ÜÊÝ ÊÜáá©ÅñÜÊÝWÜ Ü̈ ±ÜÅÍæ°WÜÙÜá CñÝ© JÙÜWæãíwÆÉÊæíŸá¨Ü®Üá° ¯àÊÜâ ±ÜÄàüÓÜñÜPÜR̈ Üáª. Êæáà騆 ¿ÞÊÜâ æ̈à ¨æãàÐÜ PÜívÜáŸí Ü̈ÈÉ A¨Ü®Üá° ×í£ÃÜáXÔ Æ»ÜÂËÃÜáÊÜ ÍæÅà~¿á ±ÜıÜä|ìÊÝ Ü̈ ¸æàÃæ ±ÜÅÍæ° ±ÜâÔ¤Pæ¿á®Üá° ±Üvæ¿áñÜPÜR¨Üáª.
2. A»Ü¦ì¿áá ±ÜÅÍæ° ±ÜâÔ¤Pæ¿á ÍæÅà~ A, B, C A¥ÜÊÝ D A®Üá° ËÐÜ¿á ÓÜíPæàñÜ ÊÜáñÜᤠ®æãàí Ü̈~ ÓÜíTæ¿á®Üá° OMR EñܤÃÜ ±Ü£ÅPæ¿áÈÉ A¨ÜPÝRX J¨ÜXÓÜÇÝXÃÜáÊÜ ÓܧÙܨÜÈÉ ŸÃæ¨Üá ÓÜíPæàñÜ (G®… Pæãàv…) WæãÚÓܸæàPÜá. ÖÝWÜã ¯WÜ©ñÜ ÓܧÙÜ Ü̈ÈÉ ñÝÊÜâ ÊÜáñÜᤠÓÜíËàûÜPÜÃÜá ÓÜ× ÊÜÞwÃÜáÊÜâ¨Ü®Üá° SbñÜ ±ÜwÔPæãÙÜÛ̧ æàPÜá. J.Gí.BÃ…. ÖÝÙæ¿áÈÉ £ÚÔÃÜáÊÜ ¿ÞÊÜâ¨æà ÊÜÞ×£¿á®Üá° »Ü£ì ÊÜÞvÜáÊÜâ Ü̈á/G®… Pæãàv… ÊÜÞvÜáÊÜâ¨Üá A»Ü¦ìWÜÙÜ gÊݸݪĿÞXÃÜáñܤ¨æ. Jí¨Üá ÊæàÙæ »Ü£ì ÊÜÞvÜ©¨ÜªÈÉ/ñܲ³¨ÜÈÉ AíñÜÖÜ J.Gí.BÃ…. EñܤÃÜ ÖÝÙæ¿á®Üá° £ÃÜÓÜRÄÓÜÇÝWÜáÊÜâ Ü̈á.
3. ±ÜPÜR̈ ÜÈÉ J Ü̈XÔÃÜáÊÜ aèPÜ Ü̈ÇæÉà ¯ÊÜá¾ ®æãàí Ü̈~ ÓÜíTæ¿á®Üá°
®ÜÊÜáã©ÓÜ æ̧àPÜá. ±ÜÅÍæ° ±ÜâÔ¤Pæ¿áÈÉ ¸æàÃæ H®Ü®Üã° ŸÃæ¿á¸ÝÃܨÜá.
4. D ±ÜÅÍæ° ±ÜâÔ¤Pæ 100 ±ÜÅÍæ°WÜÙÜ®Üá° JÙÜWæãíwÃÜáñܤ æ̈. ±ÜÅ£Áãí¨Üá ±ÜÅÍæ°¿áá 4 ±ÜÅ£QÅÁáWÜÙÜ®Üá° (EñܤÃÜWÜÙÜ®Üá°) JÙÜWæãíwÃÜáñܤ æ̈. ¯àÊÜâ EñܤÃÜ ÖÝÙæ¿áÈÉ WÜáÃÜáñÜá ÊÜÞvܸæàPæ¯ÓÜáÊÜ EñܤÃÜÊÜ®Üá° BÁáR ÊÜÞwPæãÚÛ. Jí Ü̈á ÊæàÙæ AÈÉ Jí¨ÜQRíñÜ ÖæaÜác ÓÜÄ¿Þ Ü̈ EñܤÃÜWÜÚÊæÁáí¨Üá ¯àÊÜâ »ÝËÔ¨ÜÃæ ¯ÊÜáWæ AñÜáÂñܤÊÜáÊǣ ÓÜáÊÜ EñܤÃÜPæR WÜáÃÜáñÜá ÊÜÞw. H®æà A¨ÜÃÜã ±ÜÅ£ ±ÜÅÍæ°Wæ ¯àÊÜâ PæàÊÜÆ Jí Ü̈á EñܤÃÜÊÜ®Üá° ÊÜÞñÜÅ BÁáR ÊÜÞvÜ æ̧àPÜá.
5. GÇÝÉ EñܤÃÜWÜÙÜ®Üá° ¯ÊÜáWæ J Ü̈XÓÜÇÝXÃÜáÊÜ ±ÜÅñæÂàPÜ EñܤÃÜ ÖÝÙæ¿á ÊæáàÇæ PæàÊÜÆ PܱÜâ³ A¥ÜÊÝ ¯àÈ ÍÝÀá¿á ¸ÝÇ…±ÝÀáíp… ±æ °̄®ÜÈÉ ÊÜÞñÜÅ WÜáÃÜáñÜá ÊÜÞvÜ æ̧àPÜá. J.Gí.BÃ…. EñܤÃÜ ±Ü£ÅPæ ÖÝÙæ¿áÈÉ®Ü ËÊÜÃÜÊÝ¨Ü ÓÜãaÜ®æWÜÙÜ®Üá° WÜÊÜá¯ÓÜáÊÜâ¨Üá.
6. GÇÝÉ ±ÜÅÍæ°WÜÚWæ ÓÜÊÜÞ®Ü AíPÜWÜÙÜá. GÇÝÉ ±ÜÅÍæ°WÜÚWæ EñܤÄÔÄ. ±ÜÅ£ ñܱÜâ³ EñܤÃÜPæR ±ÜÅÍæ°Wæ ¯WÜ©±ÜwÔ Ü̈ AíPÜWÜÙÜ ¼ (0.25) ÃÜÐÜár AíPÜWÜÙÜ®Üá° PÜÙæ¿áÇÝWÜáÊÜâ Ü̈á.
7. bñÜᤠPæÆÓÜPÝRX ÖÝÙæWÜÙÜ®Üá° ±ÜÅÍæ° ±ÜâÔ¤Pæ¿á Pæã®æ¿áÈÉ ÓæàÄÓÜÇÝX¨æ. ±ÜÅÍæ° ±ÜâÔ¤Pæ¿á C®Üá°Ú Ü̈ ¿ÞÊÜ »ÝWܨÜÈÉ¿áã ¯àÊÜâ ¿ÞÊÜ Äࣿá WÜáÃÜáñÜ®Üá° ÊÜÞvÜñÜPÜR̈ ܪÆÉ.
8. ±ÜÄàûæ¿á ÊÜááPݤ¿áÊÜ®Üá° ÓÜãbÓÜáÊÜ Aí£ÊÜá WÜípæ ¸ÝÄÔ Ü̈ ñÜûÜ|Êæà EñܤÃÜ ±Ü£ÅPæ ÖÝÙæ¿áÈÉ C®Ý°ÊÜâ¨æà WÜáÃÜáñÜá ÊÜÞvÜáÊÜâ Ü̈®Üá° ¯ÈÉÓܸæàPÜá. ÓÜíËàûÜPÜÃÜá Ÿí¨Üá ¯ÊÜá¾ÈÉÃÜáÊÜ EñܤÃÜ ÖÝÙæ¿á®Üá° ñÜÊÜá¾ ÊÜÍÜPæR ±Üvæ̈ ÜáPæãívÜá ÇæPÜRP æR ñæWæ¨ÜáPæãÙÜáÛÊÜÊÜÃæWÜã ¯ÊÜá¾ ¯ÊÜá¾ BÓÜ®Ü Ü̈ÈÉÁáà PÜáÚ£ÃÜñÜPÜR Ü̈áª.
9. ±ÜÅÍæ°WÜÙÜá PܮܰvÜ ÊÜáñÜᤠBíWÜÉ »ÝÐæ¿áÈÉÃÜáñܤÊæ. PܮܰvÜ ±ÜÅÍæ°WÜÙÜÈÉ ÓÜí¨æàÖÜ EípÝ Ü̈Ãæ, Ü̈¿áËoár BíWÜÉ »ÝÐæ¿á ±ÜÅÍæ°WÜÙÜ® Üá° WÜÊÜá¯ÓÜáÊÜâ¨Üá. ±ÜÅÍæ° ±Ü£ÅPæ¿á ±ÜÅÍæ°WÜÙÜÈÉ ¿ÞÊÜâ¨æà Wæãí¨ÜÆWÜڨܪÃÜã BíWÜÉ»ÝÐæ¿á ±ÜÅÍæ°WÜÙæà Aí£ÊÜáÊÝXÃÜáñܤ¨æ.
Note : English version of the instructions is printed on the back cover of this booklet.
A ËÐÜ¿á ÓÜíPæàñÜ : 234
*234/A*
®æãàí¨Ü~ ÓÜíTæÂ
¿ÞÊÜâ æ̈à Äࣿá Êæã æ̧çÇ… ¶æäà®…, PÝÂÇ…PÜáÂÇæàoÃ… ÊÜáñÜᤠCñÜÃæ Äࣿá GÇæPÝó¯P…/PÜÊÜáã¯PæàÐÜ®… ÓÝ«Ü®ÜWÜÙÜá CñÝ©WÜÙÜ®Üá° ±ÜÄàûÝ Pæàí¨ÜÅ Ü̈ BÊÜÃÜ|¨æãÙÜWæ ñÜÃÜáÊÜâ Ü̈®Üá° ¯Ðæà˜Ô¨æ.
-
234 (2 – A )
1. ªÀiÁ°ÃPÀ£ÀÄ ¸ÀAUÀ滹 vÀAzÀ §AqÀªÁ¼ÀªÀÅ
EzÀPÉÌ GzÁºÀgÀuÉAiÀiÁVzÉ.
(1) dªÁ¨ÁÝjAiÀÄ°è ºÉZÀѼÀ ªÀÄvÀÄÛ D¹ÛAiÀÄ°è E½PÉ
(2) D¹ÛAiÀÄ°è ºÉZÀѼÀ ªÀÄvÀÄÛ dªÁ¨ÁÝjAiÀÄ°è KjPÉ
(3) D¹ÛAiÀÄ°è KjPÉ ªÀÄvÀÄÛ dªÁ¨ÁÝjAiÀÄ°è E½PÉ
(4) MAzÀÄ D¹ÛAiÀÄ°è KjPÉ ªÀÄvÀÄÛ E£ÉÆßAzÀÄ D¹ÛAiÀÄ°è E½PÉ
2. PɼÀV£À AiÀiÁªÀ ¥ÀzÀÞwAiÀÄ ¥ÀæPÁgÀªÁV,
C£ÀĪÀiÁ£Á¸ÀàzÀ ¸Á®UÀ¼À «µÀAiÀÄzÀ°è »Ã£À
¸Á®UÀ½UÉ CªÀPÁ±ÀªÀ£ÀÄß ªÀiÁqÀ¯ÁUÀÄvÀÛzÉ?
I. ¤gÀAvÀgÀvÉ CA±À (PÀ¤ì¸ÉÖ¤ì)
II. §»gÀAUÀ¥Àr¸ÀÄ«PÉ (r¸ïPÉÆèñÀgï)
III. ¸ÀAgÀPÀëuÉ (PÀ£ïPÀìgïªÉñÀ£ï)
IV. ªÀ¸ÀÄÛ«£À DzsÁgÀzÀ°è (ªÉÄnÃjAiÀiÁ°n)
¸ÀjAiÀiÁzÀ GvÀÛgÀªÀ£ÀÄß PɼÀV£À DAiÉÄÌUÀ¼À£ÁßzsÀj¹ GvÀÛj¹ :
(1) I ªÀiÁvÀæ
(2) II ªÀiÁvÀæ
(3) III ªÀiÁvÀæ
(4) I ªÀÄvÀÄÛ II JgÀqÀÆ
3. ¨ÁåAPï jPÀ¤ì°AiÉÄõÀ£ï ¸ÉÖÃmïªÉÄAl£ÀÄß
vÀAiÀiÁj¸ÀĪÀÅzÀÄ F ªÀåvÁå¸ÀzÀ PÁgÀtUÀ¼À£ÀÄß
¥ÀvÉÛ ºÀZÀÑ®Ä
(1) PÁåµï§ÄPï£À PÁåµï PÁ®A£À ²®ÄÌ ªÀÄvÀÄÛ ¥Á¸ï§ÄPï£À ²®ÄÌ
(2) PÁåµï§ÄPï£À ¨ÁåAPï PÁ®A£À ²®ÄÌ ªÀÄvÀÄÛ ¥Á¸ï§ÄPï ²®ÄÌ
(3) PÁå±ï§ÄPï£À ¨ÁåAPï PÁ®A£À ²®ÄÌ ªÀÄvÀÄÛ PÁå±ï§ÄPï£À PÁå±ï PÁ®A£À ²®ÄÌ
(4) PÁå±ï§ÄPï ªÀÄvÀÄÛ ¥Á¸ï§ÄPï£À ²®ÄÌUÀ¼ÀÄ
4. ªÀiÁåaAUï ¥ÀzÀÞwAiÀÄ ¥ÀæPÁgÀªÁV AiÀiÁªÀ
CA±ÀUÀ¼À£ÀÄß ºÉÆA¢¸À¨ÉÃPÀÄ?
(1) qÉ©mïìUÀ¼À£ÀÄß PÉærmïUÀ¼ÉÆA¢UÉ
(2) D¹ÛUÀ¼À£ÀÄß dªÁ¨ÁÝjUÀ¼ÉÆA¢UÉ
(3) RZÀÄðUÀ¼À£ÀÄß DzÁAiÀÄUÀ¼ÉÆA¢UÉ
(4) dªÀiÁUÀ¼À£ÀÄß ¥ÀƪÀð ¥ÁªÀwUÀ¼ÉÆA¢UÉ
5. M§â ªÀåQÛAiÀÄÄ JµÀÖgÀ ªÀÄnÖUÉ PÁvÀgÀ£ÁVzÁÝ£É,
PÉÆÃ¥ÀUÉÆArzÁÝ£É ªÀÄvÀÄÛ ¨sÁªÀ
Kj½vÀUÀ½UÉƼÀUÁVzÁÝ£É,
¨sÁªÀ£ÁvÀäPÀ£ÁVzÁÝ£É J£ÀÄߪÀÅzÀ£ÀÄß
vÉÆÃj¸ÀĪÀÅzÀÄ _______
(1) £ÀgÀ z˧ð®åvÉ
(2) ¸Àé ¤AiÀÄAvÀæt
(3) ¸ÀQæAiÀÄ ªÀåQÛvÀé
(4) DvÀä UËgÀªÀ
-
234 (3 – A )
1. Capital brought in by the proprietor is an
example of;
(1) Increase in liability and decrease in
asset
(2) Increase in asset and increase in
liability
(3) Increase in asset and decrease in
liability
(4) Increase in one asset and decrease in
other asset
2. In respect of doubtful debts, provisions for
bad debts are made on the basis of which of
the following convention(s):
I. Consistency
II. Disclosure
III. Conservatism
IV. Materiality
Select the correct answer using the codes
given below :
(1) (I) Only
(2) (II) Only
(3) (III) Only
(4) Both (I) and (II)
3. Bank Reconciliation Statement is prepared
in order to detect the causes for the
difference between
(1) The balances as per cash column of
Cash Book and the Pass Book.
(2) The balances as per bank column of
Cash Book and the Pass Book.
(3) The balances as per bank column of
Cash Book and balances as per cash
column of Cash Book
(4) The balances as per Cash Book and
the Pass Book.
4. As per the matching principle which items
should be matched?
(1) Debits with credits
(2) Assets with liabilities
(3) Expenses with revenues
(4) Accruals with prepaids
5. The degree to which a person is anxious,
irritable, temperamental and moody refers to
(1) Neuroticism
(2) Self-monitoring
(3) Proactive personality
(4) Self-esteem
-
234 (4 – A )
6. F PɼÀV£À AiÀiÁªÀ AiÉÆÃd£Á ªÀUÀðUÀ¼ÀÄ,
AiÀiÁªÀÅzÀgÀ°è ¸ÀàzsÁðvÀäPÀ CªÀPÁ±ÀUÀ¼À
«±ÉèõÀuÉ ªÀÄvÀÄÛ ¨ÉzÀjPÉ ºÁUÀÆ ¸ÀA¸ÉÜAiÀÄ
±ÀQÛ ªÀÄvÀÄÛ z˧ð®åUÀ¼ÀÄ CqÀPÀªÁVªÉ ªÀÄvÀÄÛ
vÀªÀÄä ¥Àj¸ÀgÀzÀ°è ¥ÀgÀuÁªÀÄPÁjAiÀiÁV
¸Àà¢üð¸À®Ä ¸ÀA¸ÉÜAiÀÄ£ÀÄß AiÀiÁªÀ jÃw ¹zÀÞ
ªÀiÁqÀ¨ÉÃPÀÄ JA§ CA±ÀUÀ¼À£ÀÄß
M¼ÀUÉƼÀÄîvÀÛzÉ?
(1) C¯ÁáªÀ¢ü AiÉÆÃd£É
(2) PÁAiÀÄðvÀAvÀæ P˱À®åzÀ (gÀPÀëuÁvÀäPÀ) AiÉÆÃd£É
(3) G¥ÁAiÀÄPÀgÀ AiÉÆÃd£É
(4) PÁAiÀiÁðZÀgÀuÉAiÀÄ AiÉÆÃd£É
7. PɼÀV£ÀzÀgÀ°è AiÀiÁªÀÅzÀÄ ¤ªÀðºÀuÉAiÀÄ
¸ÀªÀÄPÁ°Ã£À ªÀiÁUÀðªÀ®è?
I. ¹¸ÀÖªÀiïì C¥ÉÆæÃZï
II. PÀAnAeɤì C¥ÉÆæÃZï
III. ºÁxÉÆ£ïð ¸ÀÖrøï C¥ÉÆæÃZï
IV. ¸ÉÊAn¦üPï ªÀiÁå£ÉÃeïªÉÄAmï C¥ÉÆæÃZï
¸ÀjAiÀiÁzÀ GvÀÛgÀªÀ£ÀÄß PɼÀV£À DAiÉÄÌUÀ¼À£ÁßzsÀj¹ GvÀÛj¹
(1) I ªÀiÁvÀæ
(2) II ªÀiÁvÀæ
(3) I ªÀÄvÀÄÛ II ªÀiÁvÀæ
(4) III ªÀÄvÀÄÛ IV JgÀqÀÆ ¸ÀºÀ
8. ªÀiÁgÀÄPÀmÉÖ ¸ÀA±ÉÆÃzsÀ£ÉAiÀÄ ¸ÀA§AzsÀzÀ°è PɼÀV£À
AiÀiÁªÀ ºÉýPÉAiÀÄÄ/ªÀÅ ¸ÀvÀåªÁzÀzÀÄÝ? I. ªÀiÁgÀÄPÀmÉÖ ¸ÀA±ÉÆÃzsÀ£ÉAiÀÄ°è ¸ÀªÀĸÉåUÀ¼À §UÉÎ
PÀAqÀÄ »rAiÀÄ®Ä UÀÄuÁvÀäPÀ ¸ÀA±ÉÆÃzsÀ£Á «zsÁ£ÀUÀ¼À£ÀÄß §¼À¸À¯ÁUÀĪÀÅ¢®è.
II. ªÀiÁgÀÄPÀmÉÖ ¸ÀA±ÉÆÃzsÀ£ÉAiÀÄ°è ¸ÀªÀĸÉåUÀ¼À §UÉÎ PÀAqÀÄ »rAiÀÄ®Ä UÀÄuÁvÀäPÀ ¸ÀA±ÉÆÃzsÀ£Á «zsÁ£ÀUÀ¼À£ÀÄß §¼À¸À§ºÀÄzÀÄ.
III. ¸ÀA±ÉÆÃzsÀ£Á £ÀAvÀgÀzÀ vÀ¤SÉUÀ¼À£ÀÄß £ÀqɸÀ®Ä UÀÄuÁvÀäPÀ ¸ÀA±ÉÆÃzsÀ£Á «zsÁ£ÀUÀ¼À£ÀÄß G¥ÀAiÉÆÃV¸À®Ä ¸ÁzsÀå«®è
¸ÀjAiÀiÁzÀ GvÀÛgÀªÀ£ÀÄß PɼÀV£À DAiÉÄÌUÀ¼À£ÁßzsÀj¹ GvÀÛj¹
(1) I ªÀiÁvÀæ (2) II ªÀiÁvÀæ (3) I ªÀÄvÀÄÛ III JgÀqÀÆ (4) II ªÀÄvÀÄÛ III JgÀqÀÆ
9. F PɼÀV£À ºÉýPÉUÀ¼À°è AiÀiÁªÀÅzÀÄ vÀ¥ÀÄà? I. C¢üPÁgÀªÀ£ÀÄß ºÉÆA¢gÀĪÀªÀjUÉ
¨ÉA§°¸À®Ä, ¸ÀºÁAiÀÄ ªÀiÁqÀ®Ä ªÀÄvÀÄÛ ¸À®ºÉ ¤ÃqÀ®Ä ¸Àé®à C¢üPÁgÀªÀ£ÀÄß¼Àî ºÀÄzÉÝUÀ½zÀÄÝ EªÀgÀ£ÀÄß ¸ÁÖ¥sï CxÁjn J£ÀÄßvÁÛgÉ.
II. M§â ªÀåQÛAiÀÄÄ E§âgÀÄ ¥Àæ§AzsÀPÀjUÉ ªÀgÀ¢ ªÀiÁqÀ¨ÉÃPÉ£ÀÄߪÀ ¤ªÀðºÀuÁ vÀvÀéªÀ£ÀÄß AiÀÄƤn D¥sï PÀªÀiÁåAqï J£ÀÄßvÁÛgÉ.
III. ºÀAUÀÄ CxÀªÁ ªÀ»¹zÀ PÀvÀðªÀåUÀ¼À£ÀÄß ¥ÀÆwðªÀiÁqÀĪÀ ¤jÃPÀëuÉUÀ¼À£ÀÄß CPËAl©°n J£ÀÄßvÁÛgÉ.
IV. M§â ¥Àæ§AzsÀPÀ£ÀÄ zÀPÀëvɬÄAzÀ ªÀÄvÀÄÛ ¥ÀjuÁªÀÄPÁjAiÀiÁV ¤ªÀð»¸À§ºÀÄzÁzÀ ¹§âA¢ ¸ÀASÉåAiÀÄ£ÀÄß ¸Áàöå£ï D¥sï PÀAmÉÆæïï J£ÀÄßvÁÛgÉ.
(1) I ªÀiÁvÀæ (2) III ªÀiÁvÀæ (3) II ªÀÄvÀÄÛ III JgÀqÀÆ (4) II ªÀÄvÀÄÛ IV JgÀqÀÆ
-
234 (5 – A )
6. Which of the following categories of
planning involves analyzing competitive
opportunities and threats, as well as the
strengths and weaknesses of the
organization, and then determining how to
position the organization to compete
effectively in their environment?
(1) Short-term planning
(2) Strategic planning
(3) Tactical planning
(4) Operational planning.
7. Which of the following is/are not
contemporary approach of management?
I. Systems Approach
II. Contingency Approach
III. Hawthorne Studies Approach
IV. Scientific Management Approach
Select the correct answer using the codes
given below :
(1) (I) Only
(2) (II) Only
(3) Both (I) and (II)
(4) Both (III) and (IV)
8. Which of the following statements is/are
true with respect to marketing research?
I. Qualitative research methods cannot be used to investigate issues in
marketing research.
II. Qualitative research methods may be used to investigate issues in marketing
research.
III. Qualitative research methods cannot be used to conduct post-research
investigations.
Select the correct answer using the
codes given below
(1) (I) Only
(2) (II) Only
(3) Both (I) and (III)
(4) Both (II) and (III)
9. Which of the following statements is/are
false?
I. Positions with some authority that
have been created to support, assist,
and advise those holding line authority
is called staff authority.
II. The management principle that each
person should report to two managers
is known as unity of command.
III. The obligation or expectation to
perform any assigned duties is referred
to as accountability.
IV. The number of employees a manager can efficiently and effectively manage
is termed as span of control.
Select the correct answer using the codes
given below :
(1) (I) Only
(2) (III) Only
(3) Both (II) and (III)
(4) Both (II) and (IV)
-
234 (6 – A )
10. ªÀiÁPÉðnAUï «Ä±ÀætªÀÅ ¸ÁªÀiÁ£ÀåªÁV EzÀ£ÀÄß ºÉÆA¢gÀÄvÀÛzÉ. I. ¨É¯É
II. GvÀà£Àß
III. ¥ÀzÉÆãÀßw IV. ¸ÀܼÀ
V. GvÀàwÛ
¸ÀjAiÀiÁzÀ GvÀÛgÀªÀ£ÀÄß PɼÀV£À DAiÉÄÌUÀ¼À£ÁßzsÀj¹ GvÀÛj¹ :
(1) I ªÀiÁvÀæ (2) II ªÀiÁvÀæ (3) V ªÀiÁvÀæ (4) I, II, III ªÀÄvÀÄ IV
11. ¥ÀjuÁªÀÄPÁj ¨sÁUÀUÀ½UÉ PɼÀV£ÀªÀÅUÀ¼À°è
AiÀiÁªÀÅzÀÄ CvÀåªÀ±ÀåPÀªÁzÀ
ªÀiÁ£ÀzÀAqÀªÁVzÉ?
I. KPÀgÀÆ¥ÀvÉ
II. ªÀiÁ¥À£À ¸ÁzsÀåvÉ
III. ¯Á¨sÀ ¸ÁzsÀåvÉ
IV. C£ÉÃPÀ gÀÆ¥ÀvÉ
¸ÀjAiÀiÁzÀ GvÀÛgÀªÀ£ÀÄß PɼÀV£À DAiÉÄÌUÀ¼À£ÁßzsÀj¹ GvÀÛj¹ :
(1) I ªÀÄvÀÄÛ II JgÀqÀÆ
(2) II ªÀÄvÀÄÛ III JgÀqÀÆ
(3) I, II ªÀÄvÀÄÛ III
(4) II, III ªÀÄvÀÄÛ IV
12. PɼÀV£ÀªÀÅUÀ¼À£ÀÄß ¸ÀjAiÀiÁV ºÉÆA¢¹j:
I vÀªÀÄä vÀªÀÄä PÉ®¸ÀUÀ¼À°è ªÁ¸ÀÛªÀªÁV d£ÀgÀÄ AiÀiÁªÀ AiÀiÁªÀ PÉ®¸ÀUÀ¼À£ÀÄß ªÀiÁqÀĪÀgÉAzÀÄ ¤µÀ̶ð¸À®Ä C©üªÀÈ¢Þ ¥Àr¹zÀ O¥ÀZÁjPÀ ¥ÀzÀÞw
a. ªÀÈwÛ «ªÀgÀUÀ¼ÀÄ
II MAzÀÄ ªÀÈwÛAiÀÄ£ÀÄß ªÀiÁ¥Àðr¸ÀĪÀÅzÀjAzÀ CxÀªÁ §zÀ¯Á¬Ä¸ÀĪÀÅzÀjAzÀ ºÉÃUÉ ºÉZÀÄÑ ¥ÀjuÁªÀÄPÁjAiÀiÁUÀĪÀAvÉ ªÀiÁqÀ§ºÀÄzÀÄ
b. ªÀÈwÛAiÀÄ ªÀtð£É
III PÉ®¸ÀzÀ°è£À PÀvÀðªÀåUÀ¼ÀÄ, dªÁ¨ÁÝjUÀ¼ÀÄ ªÀÄvÀÄÛ ¸ÀªÁ®ÄUÀ¼À MAzÀÄ ¥ÀnÖ
c. ªÀÈwÛ «£Áå¸À
IV PÉ®¸ÀªÀ£ÀÄß ªÀiÁqÀ®Ä ªÀåQÛAiÀÄ°ègÀ¨ÉÃPÁzÀ P˱À®åUÀ¼ÀÄ ªÀÄvÀÄÛ ¸ÁªÀÄxÀåðUÀ¼À §UÉÎ ZÀZÉð
d. ªÀÈwÛ «±ÉèõÀuÉ
F PɼÀUÉ PÉÆnÖgÀĪÀ ¸ÀAPÉÃvÀUÀ¼À°è ¸ÀjAiÀiÁzÀ DAiÉÄÌAiÀÄ£ÀÄß UÀÄgÀÄw¹
I II III IV
(1) a d c b
(2) d c b a
(3) c b a d
(4) a b c d
13. ¥Àæ¸ÀÄÛvÀ CxÀªÁ ¨sÀ«µÀåzÀ ºÀÄzÉÝAiÀÄ£ÀÄß
vÀÄA§®Ä ¨ÉÃPÁzÀ CºÀðvÉUÀ¼À£ÀÄß¼Àî d£ÀgÀ£ÀÄß
DAiÉÄÌ ªÀiÁqÀ®Ä EgÀĪÀ PÀæªÀÄUÀ¼ÀÄ
(1) DAiÉÄÌ
(2) £ÉêÀÄPÁw
(3) ¥Àæ²PÀët (NjAiÀÄAmÉñÀ£ï)
(4) ªÀÈwÛ §zÀ¯ÁªÀuÉ
-
234 (7 – A )
10. Marketing mix generally comprises of
I. Price
II. Product
III. Promotion
IV. Place
V. Production
Select the correct answer using the codes
given below
(1) (I) Only
(2) (II) Only
(3) (V) Only
(4) (I), (II), (III) and (IV)
11. Which of the following are the essential
criteria for effective segmentation?
I. Homogeneity
II. Measurability
III. Profitability
IV. Heterogeneity
Select the correct answer using the codes
given below
(1) Both (I) and (II)
(2) Both (II) and (III)
(3) (I), (II) and (III)
(4) (II), (III) and (IV)
12. Match the following correctly
I. A formal system
developed to determine
what tasks people actually
perform in their jobs
a. Job specifications
II. How a job can be
modified or changed to be
more effective
b. Job description
III. A list of tasks, duties,
and responsibilities of a
job
c. Job design
IV. Discussion of the skills
and abilities the person
must have to perform the
job.
d. Job analysis
Select the correct answer using the codes
given below
I II III IV
(1) a d c b
(2) d c b a
(3) c b a d
(4) a b c d
13. The steps involved in choosing people who
have the right qualifications to fill a current
or future job opening :
(1) Selection
(2) Recruitment
(3) Orientation
(4) Job rotation
-
234 (8 – A )
14. ̧ ÀA¸ÉÜAiÉÆAzÀgÀ §AqÀªÁ¼À gÀZÀ£ÉAiÀÄ°è ¸ÀÄ¢ÃWÀð PÁ®zÀ°è CzÀgÉƼÀPÉÌ ªÀÄvÉÛ ºÀjzÀÄ §gÀĪÀ FQén §AqÀªÁ¼À ªÀÄvÀÄÛ G½¹PÉÆAqÀ UÀ½PÉAiÀÄ §ºÀÄ¥Á®Ä EzÀÝ°è CzÀgÀ §AqÀªÁ¼À gÀZÀ£ÉAiÀÄ£ÀÄß »ÃUÉ£À߯ÁUÀÄvÀÛzÉ
(1) §ÄqÀªÉÄïÁzÀ ¦gÀ«Äqï DPÀÈwAiÀÄ §AqÀªÁ¼À gÀZÀ£É
(2) ¦gÀ«Äqï DPÀÈwAiÀÄ §AqÀªÁ¼À gÀZÀ£É (3) ®A§ªÁzÀ §AqÀªÁ¼À gÀZÀ£É (4) ¸ÀªÀiÁ£ÁAvÀgÀ §AqÀªÁ¼À gÀZÀ£É
15. §AqÀªÁ¼À gÀZÀ£É ªÀÄvÀÄÛ DyðPÀ ¸ÀégÀÆ¥ÀPÉÌ ¸ÀA§A¢ü¹zÀAvÉ PɼÀV£À AiÀiÁªÀ ºÉýPÉ/UÀ¼ÀÄ ¸ÀjAiÀiÁVzÉ/ªÉ?
I. ¢ÃWÀðPÁ®zÀ D¹ÛAiÀÄ£ÀÄß ¸À馅 ªÀiÁqÀ®Ä ºÀÆqÀĪÀ ¢ÃWÀðPÁ®zÀ §AqÀªÁ¼ÀzÀ §UÉÎ §AqÀªÁ¼À ¸ÀégÀÆ¥ÀªÀÅ ¸ÀA§A¢ü¹zÉ. EzÀgÀ°è «wÛÃAiÀÄ ¸ÀégÀÆ¥ÀªÀÅ ¢ÃWÁðªÀ¢üAiÀÄ ªÀÄvÀÄÛ C¯ÁàªÀ¢üAiÀÄ JgÀqÀÆ D¹ÛUÀ¼À ¸Àȶ×AiÀÄ£ÀÄß M¼ÀUÉƼÀÄîvÀÛzÉ.
II. «wÛÃAiÀÄ ¸ÀégÀÆ¥ÀªÀÅ PÉÃAzÀæzÀ°è §AqÀªÁ¼À ¸ÀégÀÆ¥À«zÉ. ¥Àæ¸ÀÄÛvÀ dªÁ¨ÁÝjUÀ½®èzÉ §AqÀªÁ¼À gÀZÀ£ÉAiÀÄÄ EgÀ®Ä ¸ÁzsÀå«®è. CAxÀºÀ ¸ÀAzÀ¨sÀðUÀ¼À°è §AqÀªÁ¼À ¸ÀégÀÆ¥ÀªÀÅ «wÛÃAiÀÄ ¸ÀégÀÆ¥ÀPÉÌ ¸ÀªÀĪÁVgÀÄvÀÛzÉ.
III. ¥Àæ¸ÀÄÛvÀ dªÁ¨ÁÝjUÀ¼À ªÉƧ®UÀÄ ºÉÆgÀV£À ¸Á®zÀ MlÄÖ §AqÀªÁ¼À gÀZÀ£ÉUÉ ¸ÀªÀÄ£ÁVzÀÝgÉ ¸ÀA¸ÉÜAiÉÆAzÀgÀ «wÛÃAiÀÄ ¸ÀégÀÆ¥ÀªÀÅ ¸ÀªÀÄvÉÆðvÀªÉAzÀÄ ¥ÀjUÀt¸À¯ÁUÀÄvÀÛzÉ. KPÉAzÀgÉ CAvÀºÀ ¸ÀAzÀ¨sÀðUÀ¼À°è ¥Àæ¸ÀÄÛvÀ D¹ÛUÀ¼ÀÄ £ÀµÀÖªÁzÀ ¥ÀPÀëzÀ°è ¥Àæ¸ÀÄÛvÀ dªÁ¨ÁÝjUÀ½UÉ ¥ÁªÀw¸À®Ä ¢ÃWÀðPÁ°Ã£À §AqÀªÁ¼ÀªÀÅ ¸ÁPÀ¶ÖzÉAiÉÄAzÀÄ ¨sÁ«¸À¯ÁUÀÄvÀÛzÉ.
(1) I ªÀiÁvÀæ (2) II ªÀiÁvÀæ (3) III ªÀiÁvÀæ (4) II ªÀÄvÀÄÛ III JgÀqÀÆ
16. E£ï¥sÁæ¸ÀÖçPÀÑgï °. £À°è «Ä.Dj¥sï ¥ÁæeÉPïÖ ªÀiÁå£ÉÃdgï DVzÁÝgÉ. ¥ÁæeÉPïÖ (P1) CxÀªÁ ¥ÁæeÉPïÖ (P2) £ÀÄß PÉÊUÉwÛPÉÆAqÀgÉ ºÀvÀÄÛ PÉÆÃn gÀÆ¥Á¬ÄUÀ¼ÀÄ (ºÉÆgÀ ºÀjªÀÅ) £ÀUÀzÀÄ RZÁðUÀÄvÀÛzÉAiÉÄAzÀÄ CªÀgÀÄ ¯ÉPÀÌ ºÁPÀÄvÁÛgÉ. DzÀgÀÆ P1 ¤AzÀ gÀÆ. 90.66 ®PÀëUÀ¼À ¤ªÀé¼À M¼ÀºÀjAiÀÄÄ«PÉ ªÀÄvÀÄÛ P2 ¤AzÀ gÀÆ.60.31 ®PÀë M¼ÀºÀjAiÀÄÄ«PÉAiÀÄ£ÀÄß ¤jÃQë¸ÀÄvÁÛgÉ. ¯Á¨sÀ ¸ÀÆZÀåAPÀ PI zÀ ªÀiÁ£ÀzÀAqÀzÀ ¥ÀæPÁgÀªÁV «Ä.DjÃ¥sïgÀªÀgÀÄ EzÀ£ÀÄß Dj¹PÉƼÀî¨ÉÃPÀÄ
(1) ¥ÁæeÉPïÖ (P1) KPÉAzÀgÉ CzÀgÀ PI ªÀiË®åªÀÅ 10.07 PÉÌ ¸ÀªÀÄ DVzÉ
(2) ¥ÁæeÉPïÖ (P2) KPÉAzÀgÉ CzÀgÀ PI ªÀiË®åªÀÅ 7.03 PÉÌ ¸ÀªÀÄ DVzÉ
(3) ¥ÁæeÉPïÖ (P1) KPÉAzÀgÉ CzÀgÀ PI ªÀiË®åªÀÅ 12.02 PÉÌ ¸ÀªÀÄ DVzÉ
(4) ¥ÁæeÉPïÖ (P2) KPÉAzÀgÉ CzÀgÀ PI ªÀiË®åªÀÅ 13.02 PÉÌ ¸ÀªÀÄ DVzÉ
17. J¯ÉPÉÆÖçà ¸Áån °. AiÀÄ£ÀÄß 7% ¨ÁAqï£À 10 ®PÀë gÀÆ¥Á¬ÄUÀ¼ÀÄ ªÀÄvÀÄÛ ¸ÁªÀiÁ£Àå ¸ÁÖPï£À 20 ®PÀë gÀÆ¥Á¬ÄUÀ½AzÀ £ÀqɸÀ¯ÁUÀÄwÛzÉ. ¸ÁÖPï£À°è 1.5£À ©ÃmÁ EzÉ. D¥ÀvÀÄÛgÀ»vÀ zÀgÀªÀÅ 4% DVzÉ. ªÀiÁPÉðmï j¸ïÌ ¦æëÄAiÀĪÀiï 3.5% DVzÉ. PÁ¥ÉÆÃðgÉõÀ£ï MAzÀPÉÌ ªÀiÁfð£À¯ï vÉjUÉ zÀgÀªÀÅ 35% DVzÉ. J¯ÉPÉÆÖçà ¸ÁÌn °«ÄmÉqï£À ªÉÊmÉqï DªÀgÉÃeï PÁ¸ïÖ D¥sï PÁå¦l¯ï(WACC), ¸ÀĪÀÄgÁV EgÀĪÀÅzÀÄ.
(1) 6.20%
(2) 7.70%
(3) 8.20%
(4) 9.10%
-
234 (9 – A )
14. If a firm’s capital structure has a large
proportion of equity capital and retained
earnings which have been ploughed back
into it over a considerably large period of
time, its capital structure is considered as
(1) Inverted Pyramid shaped Capital Structure
(2) Pyramid shaped Capital structure
(3) Vertical Capital Structure
(4) Horizontal Capital Structure
15. Which of the following statements is/are
true with respect to Capital structure and
Financial structure?
I. Capital structure relates to long term capital deployment for creation of
long term assets whereas Financial
structure involves creation of both
long term and short term assets.
II. Capital structure is the core element of the financial structure. Capital
structure cannot exist without the
current liabilities and in such cases
capital structure shall be equal to the
financial structure.
III. The financial structure of a firm is considered to be a balanced one if the
amount of current liabilities is equal to
the capital structure net of outside debt
because in such cases the long term
capital is considered sufficient to pay
current liabilities in case of sudden
loss of current assets.
Select the correct answer using the
codes given below
(1) (I) Only
(2) (II) Only
(3) (III) Only
(4) Both (II) and (III)
16. Mr. Arif is a project manager in
Infrastructure Ltd. He computes that there
will be a cash outflow of Rs.10 crore if
either project (P1) or project (P2) is
undertaken. However, he expects a net
present value of cash inflow of Rs.90.66
lakh from P1 and < 60.31 lakh from P2
respectively. According to Profitability
Index (PI) criterion Mr. Arif should select
(1) Project (P1) because its PI value is
equal to 10.07
(2) Project (P2) because its PI value is
equal to 7.03
(3) Project (P1) because its PI value is
equal to 12.02
(4) Project (P2) because its PI value is
equal to 13.02
17. Electro Scotty Limited is currently financed
with Rs. 1,000,000 of 7% bonds, and Rs.2,
000,000 of common stock. The stock has a
beta of 1.5, and the risk free rate is 4%, and
the market risk premium is 3.5%. The
marginal tax rate for a corporation is 35%.
The Weighted Average Cost of Capital
(WACC) of Electro Scotty Limited
approximately is
(1) 6.20%
(2) 7.70%
(3) 8.20%
(4) 9.10%.
-
234 (10 – A )
18. NPV ªÀÄvÀÄÛ IRR UÉ ¸ÀA§A¢ü¹zÀAvÉ PɼÀV£À AiÀiÁªÀ ºÉýPÉ/UÀ¼ÀÄ ¸ÀjAiÀiÁzÀzÀÄÝ?
I. ¥Àæ¸ÀÄÛvÀ ¤ªÀé¼À ªÀiË®å «zsÁ£ÀzÀ ¥ÀæPÁgÀ §rØ zÀgÀªÀ£ÀÄß w½zÀ CA±ÀªÉAzÀÄ ¨sÁ«¸À¯ÁVzÉ. ºÁUÉAiÉÄà DAvÀjPÀ ªÀÄgÀÄ¥ÁªÀw zÀgÀzÀ «µÀAiÀÄzÀ°èAiÀÄÆ EzÀÄ w½¢zÉ.
II. JgÀqÀÆ «zsÁ£ÀUÀ¼À°è, ºÉƸÀ ¥ÁæeÉPïÖUÀ¼À£ÀÄß jAiÀiÁ¬Äw zÀgÀzÀ°è £ÀUÀzÀÄ M¼ÀºÀjªÀ£ÀÄß ªÀÄgÀĺÀÆqÀ®Ä ¸ÁzsÀå«®èªÉAzÀÄ H»¸À¯ÁVzÉ.
III. M¼ÀºÀj«£À DAvÀjPÀ zÀgÀzÀ «zsÁ£ÀªÀÅ M¼ÀºÀjAiÀÄĪÀ £ÀUÀ¢¤AzÀ ºÀÆrzÀ ¤¢üAiÀÄ£ÀÄß UÀjµÀÖ §rجÄAzÀ ªÀÄgÀÄ¥ÁªÀw ªÀiÁqÀĪÀÅzÀgÀ §UÉÎ PÀAqÀÄ PÉƼÀî®Ä ¥ÀæAiÀÄw߸ÀÄvÀÛzÉ.
¸ÀjAiÀiÁzÀ GvÀÛgÀªÀ£ÀÄß PɼÀV£À DAiÉÄÌUÀ¼À£ÁßzsÀj¹ GvÀÛj¹ :
(1) I ªÀiÁvÀæ
(2) II ªÀiÁvÀæ
(3) III ªÀiÁvÀæ
(4) I ªÀÄvÀÄÛ II JgÀqÀÆ
19. d£À¸ÀASÉåAiÀÄ AiÀiÁªÀÅzÁzÀgÀÆ CA±ÀªÀ£ÀÄß PÉÆæÃrüÃPÀj¸ÀĪÀ ¸ÀASÉåAiÀÄ£ÀÄß »ÃUÉAzÀÄ PÀgÉAiÀÄÄvÁÛgÉ.
(1) ¥ÁågÁ«ÄÃlgï
(2) CAQ CA±À
(3) £ÀªÀÄÆ£É
(4) ªÀiÁ¥À£À
20. «Ä.gÁªÀÄ£ï 5 ®PÀëUÀ¼À£ÀÄß ¨ÁåAPï£À°è dªÀiÁ ªÀiÁrzÀgÀÄ. ªÁ¶ðPÀªÁV 5% ¸ÀgÀ¼À §rØAiÀÄ£ÀÄß ¨ÁåAPï ¤ÃqÀÄvÀÛzÉ. ºÀvÀÄÛ ªÀµÀðUÀ¼À £ÀAvÀgÀ «Ä.gÁªÀÄ£ïUÉ zÉÆgÀPÀĪÀ ªÉÆvÀÛªÀÅ
(1) 7.50 ®PÀë
(2) 5.50 ®PÀë
(3) 2.50 ®PÀë
(4) 2.25 ®PÀë
21. ̧ ÁzsÀåªÁUÀ§®è ªÀiË®åUÀ¼À£ÀÄß¼Àî Jt¸À§ºÀÄzÁzÀ CxÀªÁ ¥Àj«ÄvÀ ¸ÀASÉåAiÀÄļÀîzÀÄ ªÉÃjAiÀħ¯ï ºÉÆA¢gÀĪÀÅzÀÄ.
(1) gÁåAqÀªÀiï ªÉÃjAiÀħ¯ï
(2) r¹ÌçÃmï ªÉÃjAiÀħ¯ï
(3) PÀAn£ÀÆåAiÀÄ¸ï ªÉÃjAiÀħ¯ï
(4) JPÉì÷ÖçäAiÀÄ¸ï ªÉÃjAiÀħ¯ï
-
234 (11 – A )
18. Which of the following statements is/are
true with respect to NPV and IRR?
I. Under the net present value method
rate of interest is assumed as the
known factor. Similarly it is also
known in case of internal rate of return
method.
II. Under both the methods, it is assumed
that cash inflows cannot be re-invested
at the discount rate in the new
projects.
III. Internal rate of return method attempts
to find out the rate of interest which is
maximum to repay the invested fund
out of the cash inflows.
Select the correct answer using the
codes given below
(1) (I) Only
(2) (II) Only
(3) (III) Only
(4) Both (I) and (II)
19. A number that summarizes some aspect of
the population as a whole is called as
(1) Parameter
(2) Statistic
(3) Sample
(4) Measurement
20. Mr. Raman deposited Rs.5 lakh in a bank.
The bank is offering an annual simple
interest rate of 5%. After 10 years Mr.
Raman will receive an amount of
(1) Rs.7.50 lakh
(2) Rs.5.50 lakh
(3) Rs.2.50 lakh
(4) Rs.2.25 lakh
21. A variable that has either a finite or a
countable number of possible values is
termed as
(1) Random variable
(2) Discrete variable
(3) Continuous variable
(4) Extraneous variable
-
234 (12 – A )
22. ªÀiÁqÀ£ïð ¸Áå¤lj ¦ünÖAUïì °. ¸ÀĪÀiÁgÀÄ 75,000 ªÁ¯ïéUÀ¼À£ÀÄß ªÁ¶ðPÀªÁV §¼À¹PÉƼÀÄîvÀÛzÉ. §¼ÀPÉAiÀÄÄ ¹ÜgÀªÁV wAUÀ½UÉ 6250 ªÁ¯ïé DVzÉ. C¢üPÀ ¥ÀæªÀiÁtzÀ°è PÉÆAqÁUÀ MAzÀPÉÌ gÀÆ. 1.50 gÀ¨É¯É DUÀÄvÀÛzÉ. ªÁ¶ðPÀ zÀgÀzÀ DzsÁgÀzÀ°è ºÀÆrPÉ zÀgÀzÀ 20% £ÀAvÉ ¸ÀAUÀæºÀ zÀgÀªÉAzÀÄ CAzÁf¸À¯ÁVzÉ. PÉÆÃjPÉ ¸À°è¸À®Ä ªÀÄvÀÄÛ «¯ÉêÁj ¥ÀqÉAiÀÄ®Ä vÀUÀ®ÄªÀ ªÉZÀѪÀÅ gÀÆ.18 DUÀÄvÀÛzÉ. PÉÆÃjPÉ ¸À°è¹zÀ ¢£À¢AzÀ «¯ÉêÁj ¢£ÀzÀªÀgÉUÉ 45 ¢£ÀUÀ¼ÁUÀÄvÀÛªÉ. ¸ÀÄgÀPÁë ¸ÀAUÀæºÀªÁV 3250 ªÁ¯ïéUÀ½gÀ¨ÉÃPÉA§ §AiÀÄPÉ EzÉ. ªÀiÁqÀ£ïð ¸Áå¤lj ¦ünÖAUïì °. UÉ CvÀåAvÀ, «ÄvÀªÀåAiÀÄPÀgÀ ¥ÀæªÀiÁtªÀÅ
(1) 2000 AiÀÄƤmïUÀ¼ÀÄ (2) 3000 AiÀÄƤmïUÀ¼ÀÄ (3) 4000 AiÀÄƤmïUÀ¼ÀÄ (4) 5000 AiÀÄƤmïUÀ¼ÀÄ
23. PÁSÁð£ÉAiÉÆAzÀgÀ°è ªÁgÀzÀ°è 48 WÀAmÉUÀ¼ÀAvÉ ¥Àæw WÀAmÉUÉ gÀÆ. 18/- gÀ zÀgÀzÀAvÉ SÁwæAiÀiÁzÀ ªÉÃvÀ£ÀªÀ£ÀÄß ¥ÁªÀw¸À¯ÁUÀÄvÀÛzÉ. ¸ÀªÀÄAiÀÄ ªÀÄvÀÄÛ ZÀ®£ÉAiÀÄ CzsÀåAiÀÄ£ÀzÀAvÉ ¤¢ðµÀÖ GvÀà£ÀßzÀ MAzÀÄ AiÀÄƤmï£ÀÄß vÀAiÀiÁj¸À®Ä 20 ¤«ÄµÀUÀ¼ÀÄ ¨ÉÃPÉAzÀÄ CAzÁf¸À¯ÁVzÉ. ¨ÉÃPÁzÀ ¸ÀªÀÄAiÀĪÀ£ÀÄß 25% PÉÌ ºÉaѸÀ¯ÁVzÉ. MAzÀÄ ªÁgÀzÀ°è DPÁ±ïgÀÄ GvÀà£ÀßzÀ 180 AiÀÄƤmïUÀ¼À£ÀÄß vÀAiÀiÁj¹zÀgÀÄ. SÁwæAiÀiÁzÀ ªÁgÀzÀ ªÉÃvÀ£À ¥ÀæPÁgÀ AiÀÄƤmï zÀgÀzÀ C£ÀĸÁgÀªÁV AiÀÄƤmï MAzÀPÉÌ DPÁ±ïgÀ ªÉÃvÀ£À zÀgÀªÀÅ EzÁVzÉ.
(1) gÀÆ. 1,350/- (2) gÀÆ. 1,421/- (3) gÀÆ. 1510/- (4) gÀÆ. 1,600/-
24. PɼÀV£ÀªÀÅUÀ¼À°è AiÀiÁªÀÅzÀÄ £ÉÃgÀ RZÀÄð DVzÉ/ªÉ?
I. gÁdzsÀ£ÀUÀ¼ÀÄ, AiÀÄƤmï£À zÀgÀzÀ°è ¯ÉPÀÌ ºÁQzÀgÉ
II. ¤¢ðµÀÖ PÉ®¸ÀPÁÌV §¼À¹zÀgÉ PÁSÁð£ÉAiÀÄ ¨ÁrUÉ ªÉZÀÑ
III. PÁSÁð£É ªÀÄvÀÄÛ PÀZÉÃjAiÀÄ ¨ÁrUÉ, zÀgÀUÀ¼ÀÄ ªÀÄvÀÄÛ «ªÉÄ ºÀt
IV. D¹Û ªÀiË®åzÀ E½PÉ, j¥ÉÃj ªÀÄvÀÄÛ G¥ÀPÀgÀtUÀ¼ÀÄ AiÀÄAvÀæUÀ¼À ¦ÃoÉÆÃ¥ÀPÀgÀtUÀ¼À PÀlÖqÀUÀ¼À ¤ªÀðºÀuÉ EvÁå¢UÀ¼ÀÄ ¸ÀjAiÀiÁzÀ GvÀÛgÀªÀ£ÀÄß PɼÀV£À DAiÉÄÌUÀ¼À£ÁßzsÀj¹ GvÀÛj¹
(1) I ªÀiÁvÀæ (2) I ªÀÄvÀÄÛ II JgÀqÀÆ (3) II ªÀÄvÀÄÛ III JgÀqÀÆ (4) ªÉÄð£À J®èªÀÇ ¸Àj
25. ªÀiÁfð£À¯ï PÁ¹ÖAUïUÉ ¸ÀA§A¢ü¹zÀAvÉ PɼÀV£À AiÀiÁªÀ ºÉýPÉAiÀÄÄ ¸ÀjAiÀiÁzÀzÀÄÝ/ªÀÅ?
I. ªÉZÀÑUÀ¼À£ÀÄß ¤UÀ¢vÀ ªÀÄvÀÄÛ Kj½PÉAiÀÄ CA±ÀUÀ½UÁV ¨ÉÃ¥Àðr¹ CgÉ Kj½vÀzÀ ªÉZÀÑUÀ¼À£ÀÄß ¸ÀºÀ CzÉà jÃwAiÀiÁV ªÀVÃðPÀj¸À¯ÁVzÉ.
II. ¥ÀæUÀwAiÀÄ°ègÀĪÀ PÉ®¸ÀzÀ ªÀÄvÀÄÛ vÀAiÀiÁgÁzÀ GvÀà£ÀßUÀ¼À ¸ÀAUÀæºÀzÀ ªÀiË®åªÀ£ÀÄß ¯ÉPÀ̺ÁPÀ®Ä Kj½vÀzÀ ªÉZÀѪÀ£ÀÄß ªÀiÁvÀæ UÀt£ÉUÉ vÉUÉzÀÄPÉƼÀî¯ÁVzÉ.
III. ªÉZÀѪÀiÁrzÀ CªÀ¢üAiÀÄ°è£À DzÁAiÀÄPÉÌ ¤UÀ¢vÀ ªÉZÀѪÀ£ÀÄß ªÀiÁvÀæ ºÁPÀ¯ÁVzÉ. GvÀà£ÀßzÀ ªÉZÀÑ/¸ÀAUÀæºÀzÀ ªÀiË®å ¤tðAiÀÄPÁÌV CzÀ£ÀÄß UÀt¸À¯ÁVzÉ.
IV. ªÀiÁfð£À¯ï ªÉZÀÑUÀ¼ÀÄ ªÉÄÃ¯É ¨É¯ÉUÀ¼À ¤UÀ¢AiÀiÁVzÉ. DzÀgÉ ¸ÁªÀiÁ£Àå ¸ÀAzÀ¨sÀðzÀ°è ¨É¯ÉUÀ¼ÀÄ MmÁÖgÉ Rað£À DzsÁgÀzÀ ªÉÄÃ¯É ¤zsÀðjvÀªÁUÀÄvÀÛªÉ. ¸ÀjAiÀiÁzÀ GvÀÛgÀªÀ£ÀÄß PɼÀV£À DAiÉÄÌUÀ¼À£ÁßzsÀj¹ GvÀÛj¹
(1) I ªÀiÁvÀæ (2) I ªÀÄvÀÄÛ II JgÀqÀÆ (3) II ªÀÄvÀÄÛ III JgÀqÀÆ (4) I, II ªÀÄvÀÄÛ IV
-
234 (13 – A )
22. Modem Sanitary Fittings Ltd. utilizes about
75,000 valves per year and the usage is
fairly constant at 6,250 valves per month.
The valve costs Rs. 1.50 per unit when
bought in large quantities; and the carrying
cost is estimated to be 20% of average
inventory investment on an annual basis.
The cost to place an order and process the
delivery is Rs. 18. It takes 45 days to
receive delivery from the date of an order
and a safety stock of 3,250 valves is desired.
The most economical quantity for Modem
Sanitary Fittings Ltd. is
(1) 2000 units
(2) 3000 units
(3) 4000 units
(4) 5000 units
23. In a factory guaranteed wages at the rate of
Rs. 18 per hour are paid in a 48-hour week.
By time and motion study it is estimated
that to manufacture one unit of a particular
product 20 minutes are taken. The time
allowed is increased by 25%. During one
week Akash produced 180 units of the
product. Akash’s wage rate per unit
according to Piece-rate with a guaranteed
weekly wage is
(1) Rs.1350
(2) Rs.1421
(3) Rs.1510
(4) Rs.1600
24. Which of the following is/are direct
expenses? I. Royalties if it is charged as a rate per
unit II. Hire charges of plant if used for a
specific job. III. Rent, rates and insurance of factory
and office IV. Depreciation, repairs and maintenance
of plant, machinery, furniture, building etc Select the correct answer using the codes given below
(1) (I) Only
(2) Both (I) and (II)
(3) Both (II) and (III)
(4) All of the above
25. Which of the following statements is/are
true with respect to marginal costing?
I. Costs are separated into the fixed and variable elements and semi-variable
costs are also differentiated likewise.
II. Only the variable costs are taken into account for computing the value of
stocks of work-in-progress and
finished products.
III. Fixed costs are charged off to revenue wholly during the period in which they
are incurred and are taken into account
for valuing product cost/inventories.
IV. Prices may be based on marginal costs and contribution but in normal
circumstances prices would cover
costs in total.
Select the correct answer using the
codes given below
(1) (I) Only
(2) Both (I) and (II)
(3) Both (II) and (III)
(4) (I), (II) and (IV)
-
234 (14 – A )
26. PɼÀV£ÀªÀÅUÀ¼À°è AiÀiÁªÀ ºÉýPÉAiÀÄÄ §eÉmï£À «µÀAiÀÄzÀ°è ¸ÀjAiÀiÁVzÉ.
I. §eÉmï ªÀÄÄAzÉ K£ÁUÀ§ºÀÄzÉÆà CzÀgÀ
CAzÁdÄ ªÀiÁvÀæªÁVzÉ. ¤¢ðµÀÖ PÁ®
CªÀ¢üAiÀÄ°è ¤jÃQëvÀ ¥Àj¹ÜwUÀ¼À°è
¸ÀA¨sÀ«¸À§ºÀÄzÁzÀ ¸ÀA¨sÀªÀ¤ÃAiÀÄ WÀl£ÉUÀ¼À
ºÉýPÉAiÀiÁVzÉ.
II. AiÉÆÃfvÀ ¹ÜwUÀwUÀ¼À°è ¨sÀ«µÀåzÀ CªÀ¢üAiÀÄ°è
C£ÀĸÀj¸À¨ÉÃPÁzÀ ¤Ãw ªÀÄvÀÄÛ
PÁAiÀÄðPÀæªÀÄUÀ¼À£ÀÄß §eÉmï vÉÆÃj¸ÀÄvÀÛzÉ.
III. §eÉmï ¤AiÀÄAvÀætzÀ MAzÀÄ ¸ÁzsÀ£ÀªÁVzÉ.
KPÉAzÀgÉ EzÀÄ EZÉÒUÀ£ÀĸÁgÀªÁV
gÀƦ¸À§ºÀÄzÁzÀ QæAiÉÄUÀ¼À£ÀÄß ¥Àæw¤¢ü¸ÀÄvÀÛzÉ.
CzÀjAzÁV WÀn¸ÀĪÀ CxÀªÁ WÀn¸À¢gÀĪÀ
¹ÜwUÀ½UÉ ºÉÆA¢¸À§ºÀÄzÀÄ
¸ÀjAiÀiÁzÀ GvÀÛgÀªÀ£ÀÄß PɼÀV£À
DAiÉÄÌUÀ¼À£ÁßzsÀj¹ GvÀÛj¹
(1) I ªÀiÁvÀæ
(2) II ªÀiÁvÀæ
(3) I ªÀÄvÀÄÛ II JgÀqÀÆ
(4) II ªÀÄvÀÄÛ III JgÀqÀÆ
27. fêÀ «ªÉÄAiÀÄ £ÁªÀiÁAPÀ£ÀzÀ «µÀAiÀÄzÀ°è PɼÀV£À AiÀiÁªÀ ºÉýPÉAiÀÄÄ ‘vÀ¥ÀÄà’ DVzÉ?
I. £ÁªÀiÁAPÀ£À JAzÀgÉ ¥Á°¹AiÀÄ ¸ÀA§AzsÀzÀ°è
ªÀÄgÀtzÀ PÉèöʪÀiï EzÀÝgÉ ªÀiÁvÀæ ¥Á°¹AiÀÄ
¥ÀæAiÉÆÃd£ÀªÀ£ÀÄß ¥ÀqÉAiÀÄ®Ä AiÀiÁgÁzÀgÉƧâ
ªÀåQÛAiÀÄ£ÀÄß UÉÆvÀÄÛ ªÀiÁqÀĪÀÅzÀÄ
II. £ÁªÀiÁAPÀ£À JAzÀgÉ ¥Á°¹AiÀÄ ºÀPÀÄÌUÀ¼ÀÄ,
²Ã¶ðPÉ ªÀÄvÀÄÛ D¸ÀQÛUÀ¼À£ÀÄß ¨ÉÃgÉ ªÀåQÛUÀ½UÉ
ªÀUÁð¬Ä¸ÀĪÀÅzÀÄ
III. £ÁªÀiÁAPÀ£ÀªÀ£ÀÄß «ªÉÄUÉƼÀUÁzÀ ªÀåQÛAiÀÄ
PÉÆÃjPÉAiÀÄ ªÉÄÃgÉUÉ ªÀiÁqÀ¯ÁUÀĪÀÅzÀÄ
¸ÀjAiÀiÁzÀ GvÀÛgÀªÀ£ÀÄß PɼÀV£À
DAiÉÄÌUÀ¼À£ÁßzsÀj¹ GvÀÛj¹
(1) I ªÀiÁvÀæ
(2) II ªÀiÁvÀæ
(3) I ªÀÄvÀÄÛ II JgÀqÀÆ
(4) II ªÀÄvÀÄÛ III JgÀqÀÆ
-
234 (15 – A )
26. Which of the following statements is/are
true with respect to budget?
I. Budget is a mere estimate of what is
likely to happen. It is a statement of
probable events which are likely to
happen under anticipated conditions
during a specified period of time
II. Budget shows that policy and
programme to be followed in a future
period under planned conditions
III. A budget is a tool of control since it
represents actions which can be
shaped according to will so that it can
be suited to the conditions which may
or may not happen.
Select the correct answer using the
codes given below
(1) (I) Only
(2) (II) Only
(3) Both (I) and (II)
(4) Both (II) and (III)
27. Which of the following statements is/are
false with respect to Nomination in life
insurance?
I. Nomination is appointing some
person(s) to receive policy benefits
only when the policy has a death claim
II. Nomination is transfer of rights, title
and interest of the policy to some
person(s)
III. Nomination is done at the instance of
the insured.
Select the correct answer using the
codes given below :
(1) (I) Only
(2) (II) Only
(3) Both (I) and (II)
(4) Both (II) and (III)
-
234 (16 – A )
28. PɼÀV£À ºÉýPÉUÀ¼À°è AiÀiÁªÀÅzÀÄ/ªÀÅ vÀ¥ÀÄà?
I. «ªÉÄzÁgÀ£ÀÄ ¨sÀj¸À¨ÉÃPÁzÀ ªÉÆvÀÛªÀÅ PÉèöʪÀiï£À
C¢üPÀ/»rAiÀĨÉÃPÁzÀ ¨sÁUÀªÁVzÉ.
II. ¸À¨ïgÉÆUÉõÀ£ï JAzÀgÉ ªÀÄÆgÀ£Éà ¥ÀPÀëzÀ
«gÀÄzÀÞªÁV §AiÀĹzÀ ºÀPÀÄÌUÀ¼ÀÄ ªÀÄvÀÄÛ
¥ÀjºÁgÀUÀ¼ÀÄ
III. «ªÉÄ ªÀiÁqÀ®àlÖ D¹ÛAiÀÄ£ÀÄß M§âjVAvÀ ºÉZÀÄÑ
ªÀåQÛUÀ¼ÀÄ «ªÉÄ ªÀiÁrzÁUÀ ¸À¨ïgÉÆUÉõÀ£ï
¸ÀA¨sÀ«¸ÀÄvÀÛzÉ. CAvÀºÀ ¸ÀAzÀ¨sÀðUÀ¼À°è ¸ÀºÀ
«ªÉÄzÁgÀ¤AzÀ ªÀÄÄRå «ªÉÄzÁgÀ£ÀÄ
ªÀ¸ÀƯÁw ªÀiÁqÀĪÀ£ÀÄ.
IV. C¥ÁAiÀÄ ªÀUÁðªÀuÉAiÀÄ Cw ¸ÁªÀiÁ£Àå
«zsÁ£ÀªÉAzÀgÉ ªÀÄgÀÄ«ªÉÄ ªÀiÁqÀĪÀÅzÀÄ.
CzÀgÀ°è C¥ÁAiÀĪÀ£ÀÄß
(ªÀÄgÀÄ«ªÉÄzÁgÀgÉÆA¢UÉ)
ªÀÄgÀÄ«ªÉĪÀiÁqÀ¯ÁUÀĪÀÅzÀÄ. PÉèöʪÀiï£À
£ÀAvÀgÀzÀ°è «ªÉÄzÁgÀjUÉ ¥ÁªÀwAiÀiÁzÀ
£ÀAvÀgÀzÀ°è CzÀ£ÀÄß ªÀ¸ÀÆ®Ä
ªÀiÁqÀ¯ÁUÀĪÀÅzÀÄ.
¸ÀjAiÀiÁzÀ GvÀÛgÀªÀ£ÀÄß PɼÀV£À
DAiÉÄÌUÀ¼À£ÁßzsÀj¹ GvÀÛj¹
(1) I ªÀiÁvÀæ
(2) III ªÀiÁvÀæ
(3) I ªÀÄvÀÄÛ II JgÀqÀÆ
(4) III ªÀÄvÀÄÛ IV JgÀqÀÆ
29. PɼÀV£ÀªÀÅUÀ¼À°è ¨ÁåAPï¤AzÀ ¥ÁæxÀ«ÄPÀªÁV ªÀiÁqÀ¯ÁUÀĪÀ PÁAiÀÄðUÀ¼ÀÄ AiÀiÁªÀÅzÀÄ/ªÀÅ?
I. oÉêÀtÂUÀ¼À£ÀÄß M¦àPÉƼÀÄîªÀÅzÀÄ
II. ¸Á®UÀ¼À£ÀÄß PÉÆqÀĪÀÅzÀÄ
III. Keɤì PÁAiÀÄðUÀ¼ÀÄ
IV. G¥ÀAiÀÄÄPÀÛvÉ PÁAiÀÄðUÀ¼ÀÄ/DyðPÀ ¸ÉêÉUÀ¼ÀÄ
¸ÀjAiÀiÁzÀ GvÀÛgÀªÀ£ÀÄß PɼÀV£À DAiÉÄÌUÀ¼À£ÁßzsÀj¹ GvÀÛj¹
(1) I ªÀiÁvÀæ
(2) II ªÀiÁvÀæ
(3) I ªÀÄvÀÄÛ II JgÀqÀÆ
(4) III ªÀÄvÀÄÛ IV JgÀqÀÆ
30. PɼÀV£ÀªÀÅUÀ¼À°è AiÀiÁªÀÅzÀÄ/AiÀiÁªÀŪÀÅ ºÀtPÁ¹£À ªÀiÁgÀÄPÀmÉÖ ¸ÁzsÀ£ÀUÀ¼À®è?
I. mÉæµÀj ©®ÄèUÀ¼ÀÄ
II. ªÀÄĤ¹¥À¯ï ¨ÁAqïUÀ¼ÀÄ
III. FQén µÉÃgïUÀ¼ÀÄ
IV. DzÀåvÁ µÉÃgïUÀ¼ÀÄ
¸ÀjAiÀiÁzÀ GvÀÛgÀªÀ£ÀÄß PɼÀV£À DAiÉÄÌUÀ¼À£ÁßzsÀj¹ GvÀÛj¹
(1) I ªÀiÁvÀæ
(2) II ªÀiÁvÀæ
(3) I ªÀÄvÀÄÛ II JgÀqÀÆ
(4) III ªÀÄvÀÄÛ IV JgÀqÀÆ
-
234 (17 – A )
28. Which of the following statements is/are
false?
I. Excess/deductible is that portion of the
claim which is to be borne by the
insured
II. Subrogation is the rights and remedies
preferred against the third party.
III. Subrogation occurs when the insured
property is insured by more than 1
insurer in such cases recovery would
be made by the lead insurer from the
co-insurer.
IV. Reinsurance is the most common
method of risk transfer where the risk
is reinsured with reinsurers and after
the claim the same is recovered from
them after payment to insured.
Select the correct answer using the
codes given below
(1) (I) Only
(2) (III) Only
(3) Both (I) and (II)
(4) Both (III) and (IV)
29. Which of the following is/are the primary
functions rendered by a bank?
I. Accepting Deposits
II. Lending Loans
III. Agency Functions
IV. Utility Function/ Financial Services
Select the correct answer using the
codes given below
(1) (I) Only
(2) (II) Only
(3) Both (I) and (II)
(4) Both (III) and (IV)
30. Which of the following is/are not money
market instruments?
I. Treasury Bills
II. Municipal Bonds
III. Equity shares
IV. Preference shares
Select the correct answer using the
codes given below
(1)(I) Only
(2)(II) Only
(3)Both (I) and (II)
(4)Both (III) and (IV)
-
234 (18 – A )
31. PɼÀV£ÀªÀÅUÀ¼À°è AiÀiÁªÀÅzÀÄ RBI£À ¥ÀÆgÀPÀªÀ®è?
(1) ¸ÉÖÃmï ¨ÁåAPï D¥sï EArAiÀiÁ
(2) £ÁåµÀ£À¯ï ºË¹AUï ¨ÁåAPï
(3) r¥Á¹mï E£ÀÆëgÉ£ïì CAqï PÉærmï UÁågÀAn PÁ¥ÉÆÃðgÉõÀ£ï
(4) £ÁåµÀ£À¯ï ¨ÁåAPï ¥sÁgï CVæPÀ®Ñgï ªÀÄvÀÄÛ gÀÆgÀ¯ï qɪÀ®¥ïªÉÄAmï
32. Drmï ¥ÀÄgÁªÉ¬Ä®èzÉ, Drlgï EzÀ£ÀÄß eÁjUÉƽ¸ÀÄvÁÛgÉ
(1) PÁé°¥sÉÊqï C©ü¥ÁæAiÀÄ
(2) C£ï PÁé°¥sÉÊqï C©ü¥ÁæAiÀÄ
(3) CqïªÀ¸ïð C©ü¥ÁæAiÀÄ
(4) r¸ïPÉèöÊÊÜáÃ… D¥sï M¦¤AiÀÄ£ï
33. ̧ ÀPÁðj PÀA¥É¤AiÉÆAzÀgÀ Drlgï£ÀÄß EªÀgÀÄ £ÉëĸÀĪÀgÀÄ
(1) PÀA¥ÉÆÖçîgï ªÀÄvÀÄÛ Drlgï d£ÀgÀ¯ï D¥sï EArAiÀiÁ
(2) ¸ÁªÀiÁ£Àå ¸À¨sÉAiÀÄ°è ±ÉÃgï ºÉÆîØgïUÀ¼ÀÄ
(3) ªÁ¶ðPÀ ¸ÁªÀiÁ£Àå ¸À¨sÉAiÀÄ°è µÉÃgï ºÉÆîØgïUÀ¼ÀÄ
(4) ¨ÉÆÃqïð D¥sï qÉÊgÉPÀÖgïì
34. PÁ¸ïÖ Drmï EzÀPÉÌ ¸ÀA§A¢ü¹zÉ
(1) PÁ¸ïÖ CPËAnAUï zÁR¯ÉUÀ¼ÀÄ
(2) PÁA¦èAiÀÄ£ïì
(3) ºÀtPÁ¹£À ¥ÀnÖUÀ¼ÀÄ
(4) ²®ÄÌ ªÀÄvÀÄÛ ¯Á¨sÀ £ÀµÀÖUÀ¼À SÁvÉ
35. PɼÀV£ÀzÀgÀ°è AiÀiÁªÀÅzÀÄ qÉÃmÁ¨Éøï C®è?
(1) NgÉPÀ¯ï
(2) ¸ÉʨÉøï
(3) Dgïr©JªÀiïJ¸ï
(4) JªÀiïJ¸ï ªÀqïð
36. PɼÀV£ÀªÀÅUÀ¼À°è AiÀiÁªÀÅzÀÄ ¢éwÃAiÀÄ ºÀAvÀzÀ ¸ÁzsÀ£ÀªÀ®è?
(1) ªÀÄzÀgï¨ÉÆÃqïð
(2) ºÁqïð r¸ïÌ
(3) ¹r
(4) AiÀÄÄJ¸ï©
37. PɼÀV£ÀªÀÅUÀ¼À°è WTO UÉ ¸ÀA§A¢ü¹zÀAvÉ AiÀiÁªÀÅzÀÄ/ªÀÅ ¸Àj?
I. WTO vÀ£ÀßzÉà DzÀ ¸ÀaªÁ®AiÀĪÀ£ÀÄß ºÉÆA¢gÀĪÀ ±Á±ÀévÀ ¸ÀA¸ÉÜAiÀiÁVzÉ
II. WTO §zÀÝvÉUÀ¼ÀÄ ¥ÀÆtð ªÀÄvÀÄÛ ±Á±ÀévÀ
III. WTO PÁ£ÀÆ£ÀÄUÀ¼ÀÄ ¸ÁªÀÄVæUÀ½UÉ ªÀiÁvÀæ ªÁtÂdåzÀ°è C£ÀéAiÀĪÁUÀÄvÀÛzÉ.
¸ÀjAiÀiÁzÀ GvÀÛgÀªÀ£ÀÄß PɼÀV£À DAiÉÄÌUÀ¼À£ÁßzsÀj¹ GvÀÛj¹
(1) I ªÀiÁvÀæ
(2) II ªÀiÁvÀæ
(3) III ªÀiÁvÀæ
(4) I ªÀÄvÀÄÛ II JgÀqÀÆ
-
234 (19 – A )
31. Which of the following is not the subsidiary
of RBI?
(1)State Bank of India
(2)National Housing Bank
(3)Deposit Insurance and Credit Guarantee
Corporation
(4)National Bank for Agriculture and Rural
Development
32. Due to lack of audit evidence, auditor issues
a
(1)Qualified opinion
(2)Unqualified opinion
(3)Adverse opinion
(4)Disclaimer of opinion
33. The auditor of a Government Company is
appointed by the
(1)Comptroller and Auditor General of
India
(2)The shareholder in a general meeting
(3)The shareholder at an annual general
meeting
(4)The board of directors.
34. Cost Audit is related to
(1)Cost accounting records
(2)Compliance
(3)Financial statements
(4)Balance and Profit & Loss Account
35. Which of the following is not a database?
(1)Oracle
(2)Sybase
(3)RDBMS
(4)MS Word
36. Which of the following is not a secondary
storage device?
(1) Motherboard
(2) Hard disk
(3) CD
(4) USB
37. Which of the following statements is/are
true with respect to WTO?
I. The WTO is a permanent institution
with its own secretariat
II. The WTO commitments are full and
permanent
III. The WTO rules apply to trade in
merchandise only
Select the correct answer using the
codes given below
(1) (I) Only
(2) (II) Only
(3) (III) Only
(4) Both (I) and (II)
-
234 (20 – A )
38. PɼÀV£À ¸ÉêÉAiÀÄ£ÀÄß MzÀV¸ÀĪÀ ªÀÄÆ®PÀ IMF vÀ£Àß ¸ÀzÀ¸ÀåjUÉ ¨ÉA§® ¤ÃqÀÄvÀÛzÉ.
I. DyðPÀ ¨É¼ÀªÀtÂUÉUÀ¼À ªÀÄvÀÄÛ
CAvÀzÉÃð²ÃAiÀÄ C£ÀĨsÀªÀUÀ¼À
«±ÉèõÀuÉUÀ¼À DzsÁgÀzÀ ªÉÄïÉ
¸ÀgÀPÁgÀUÀ½UÉ ªÀÄvÀÄÛ PÉÃAzÀæ ¨ÁåAPïUÀ½UÉ
¤Ãw ¸À®ºÉUÀ¼À£ÀÄß PÉÆqÀĪÀÅzÀgÀ ªÀÄÆ®PÀ
II. DyðPÀvÉUÀ¼À ªÀÄvÀÄÛ ªÀiÁgÀÄPÀmÉÖUÀ¼À
eÁUÀwPÀ, ¥ÁæAwÃAiÀÄ ªÀÄvÀÄÛ ªÉÊAiÀÄQÛPÀ
£É¯ÉUÀ¼À DzsÁgÀzÀ ªÉÄð£À ¸ÀA±ÉÆÃzsÀ£É,
CAQ CA±À, ªÀÄÄ£ÀÆìZÀ£É ªÀÄvÀÄÛ
«±ÉèõÀuÉ ªÀÄÆ®PÀ
III. DyðPÀ ¸ÀAPÀµÀÖUÀ¼À£ÉßzÀÄj¸À®Ä zÉñÀUÀ½UÉ
¸Á®UÀ¼À£ÀÄß PÉÆqÀĪÀÅzÀÄ
IV. C©üªÀÈ¢Þ ºÉÆAzÀÄwÛgÀĪÀ zÉñÀUÀ¼À°è
§qÀvÀ£ÀªÀ£ÀÄß JzÀÄj¸À®Ä jAiÀiÁ¬Äw
zÀgÀzÀ°è ¸Á®UÀ¼À£ÀÄß ¤ÃqÀĪÀ ªÀÄÆ®PÀ
¸ÀjAiÀiÁzÀ GvÀÛgÀªÀ£ÀÄß PɼÀV£À
DAiÉÄÌUÀ¼À£ÁßzsÀj¹ GvÀÛj¹
(1) I ªÀiÁvÀæ
(2) II ªÀiÁvÀæ
(3) II ªÀÄvÀÄÛ III JgÀqÀÆ
(4) ªÉÄð£À J®èªÀÇ
39. JrDgï ¯ÉªÉ¯ï-1 gÀ ¸ÀA§AzsÀzÀ°è PɼÀV£À ºÉýPÉUÀ¼À°è AiÀiÁªÀÅzÀÄ ¸Àj?
I. JrDgï ¯ÉªÉ¯ï -1gÀ°è EgÀĪÀ
±ÉÃgïUÀ½UÁV ªÀiÁgÀÄPÀmÉÖAiÀÄ£ÀÄß ©qÀÄUÀqÉ
ªÀiÁqÀÄwÛgÀĪÀªÀgÀÄ «¸ÀÛj¸À§ºÀÄzÀÄ.
CzÀjAzÁV §AqÀªÁ¼ÀzÁgÀgÀ UÀÄA¥À£ÀÄß
¨É¼É¸À§ºÀÄzÀÄ
II. F ¸ÁzsÀ£ÀzÀ°è J¸ïE¹ UÉ PÀ¤µÀÖ
ªÀiÁ»wAiÀÄ£ÀÄß PÉÆqÀ¨ÉÃPÁUÀĪÀÅzÀÄ.
§AqÀªÁ¼ÀUÁgÀ£ÀÄ US GAAP AiÉÆA¢UÉ
¸ÀºÀªÀÄw vÉÆÃgÀ¨ÉÃPÁV®è.
III. F jÃwAiÀÄ ¸ÁzsÀ£ÀzÀ°è ºÀÆrPÉzÁgÀ£ÀÄ
(issuer) ºÉƸÀ §AqÀªÁ¼ÀªÀ£ÀÄß JvÀÛ®Ä
CxÀªÁ AiÀiÁªÀÅzÉà £ÁåµÀ£À¯ï ¸ÁÖPï
JPïìZÉÃAeï£ÉÆA¢V£À ¥ÀnÖAiÀÄ°è
¸ÉÃjPÉƼÀÀÄzÁVzÉ.
¸ÀjAiÀiÁzÀ GvÀÛgÀªÀ£ÀÄß PɼÀV£À
DAiÉÄÌUÀ¼À£ÁßzsÀj¹ GvÀÛj¹
(1) I ªÀiÁvÀæ
(2) III ªÀiÁvÀæ
(3) I ªÀÄvÀÄÛ II JgÀqÀÆ
(4) II ªÀÄvÀÄÛ III JgÀqÀÆ
-
234 (21 – A )
38. The IMF supports its membership by
providing
I. Policy advice to governments and
central banks based on analysis of
economic trends and cross-country
experiences
II. Research, statistics, forecasts, and
analysis based on tracking of global,
regional and individual economies and
markets
III. Loans to help countries overcome
economic difficulties
IV. Concessional loans to help fight
poverty in developing countries.
Select the correct answer using the
codes given below
(1) (I) Only
(2) (II) Only
(3) Both (II) and (III)
(4) All of the above
39. Which of the following statements is/are
true with respect to ADR Level-I?
I. In ADR Level-I issuer can enlarge the
market for existing shares and thus
diversify the investor base.
II. In this instrument only minimum
disclosure is required to the SEC and
the issuer need not comply with the
US GAAP
III. In this type of instrument the issuer is
allowed to raise fresh capital or list on
any one of the national stock
exchanges.
Select the correct answer using the
codes given below
(1) (I) Only
(2) Only (III)
(3) Both (I) and (II)
(4) Both (II) and (III)
-
234 (22 – A )
40. PɼÀV£ÀªÀÅUÀ¼À£ÀÄß ¸ÀjAiÀiÁV eÉÆÃr¹ I ªÀåªÀºÁgÀzÀ MAzÉÃ
PÉëÃvÀæzÀ°è£À JgÀqÀÄ CxÀªÁ ºÉaÑ£À PÀA¥À¤UÀ¼À ¸ÀAAiÉÆÃUÀ. GzÁ: ªÀiÁgÀÄPÀmÉÖAiÀÄ §ºÀÄ¥Á®£ÀÄß ¥ÀqÉAiÀÄ®Ä JgÀqÀÄ ¥ÀĸÀÛPÀ ¥ÀæPÁ±ÀPÀgÀÄ CxÀªÁ JgÀqÀÄ ®UÉÃdÄ vÀAiÀiÁjPÁ PÀA¥É¤UÀ¼À ¸ÀAAiÉÆÃUÀ
a. ®A¨ÁAvÀgÀ «°Ã£À
II MAzÉà GvÀà£ÀßzÀ vÀAiÀiÁjPÉAiÀÄ°è£À ««zsÀ ºÀAvÀUÀ¼À CxÀªÁ «vÀgÀuÉAiÀÄ JgÀqÀÄ CxÀªÁ ºÉaÑ£À PÀA¥É¤UÀ¼ÀÄ ¸ÉÃ¥ÀðqÉAiÀiÁUÀÄ«PÉ
b. ºÁjd «°Ã£À
III ¸ÀA§AzsÀgÀ»vÀ ªÀåªÀºÁgÀ ZÀlĪÀnPÉUÀ¼À°è vÉÆqÀVgÀĪÀ ¸ÀA¸ÉÜUÀ¼À ¸ÉÃ¥Àðr¸ÀÄ«PÉ GzÁ: ¹ªÉÄAmï GvÀà£ÀßUÀ¼À vÀAiÀiÁjPÉ, UÉƧâgÀ GvÀà£ÀßUÀ¼ÀÄ, «zÀÄå£Áä£À GvÀà£ÀßUÀ¼ÀÄ, «ªÀiÁ ºÀÆrPÉ ªÀÄvÀÄÛ eÁ»ÃgÁvÀÄ ¸ÀA¸ÉÜUÀ¼À
c. Cfð¸ÀÄ«PÉ
ªÀåªÀºÁgÀUÀ¼À «°Ã£À GzÁ: TV vÀAiÀiÁjPÉAiÀÄ (eÉÆÃqÀuÉAiÀÄ) PÀA¥À¤ ªÀÄvÀÄÛ MAzÀÄ n« ªÀiÁPÉðnAUï PÀA¥À¤ CxÀªÁ £ÀƮĪÀ PÀA¥À¤AiÀÄ ¸ÉÃjPÉ ªÀÄvÀÄÛ £ÉÃAiÀÄĪÀ PÀA¥À¤AiÀÄ ¸ÉÃjPÉ.
IV PÀA¥É¤UÀ¼À ¸ÀAAiÉÆÃUÀ«®èzÉ PÀA¥É¤AiÉÆAzÀÄ E£ÉÆßAzÀÄ PÀA¥É¤AiÀÄ D¹ÛUÀ¼À CxÀªÁ ¤ªÀðºÀuÉAiÀÄ ªÉÄÃ¯É ¥ÀjuÁªÀÄPÁj ¤AiÀÄAvÀætªÀ£ÀÄß ¸Á¢ü¸ÀĪÀÅzÀÄ
d. MPÀÆÌl «°Ã£À
F PɼÀUÉ PÉÆnÖgÀĪÀ ¸ÀAPÉÃvÀUÀ¼À°è ¸ÀjAiÀiÁzÀ DAiÉÄÌAiÀÄ£ÀÄß UÀÄgÀÄw¹
I II III IV
(1) a d c b
(2) b a d c
(3) c b a d
(4) a b c d
-
234 (23 – A )
40. Match the following correctly
1. A combination of
two or more firms in
the same area of
business. For example,
combining of two
book publishers or two
luggage
manufacturing
companies to gain
dominant market share
a. Vertical merger
2. A combination of
two or more firms
involved in different
stages of production or
distribution of the
same product.
3.
b. Horizontal merger
4. A combination of
firms engaged in
unrelated lines of
business activity. For
example, merging of
different businesses
like manufacturing of
cement products,
fertilizer products,
electronic products,
insurance investment
and advertising
agencies. For example,
joining of a TV
manufacturing
c. Acquisition
(assembling) company
and a TV marketing
company or joining of
a spinning company
and a weaving
company
5. An act of acquiring
effective control by
one company over
assets or management
of another company
without any
combination of
companies
d. Conglomerate
merger
Select the correct answer using the
codes given below
1 2 3 4
(1) a d c b
(2) b a d c
(3) c b a d
(4) a b c d
-
234 (24 – A )
41. F PɼÀV£ÀªÀÅUÀ¼À£ÀÄß ¸ÀjAiÀiÁV ºÉÆA¢¹j I DyðPÀ
¥ÀjuÁªÀÄUÀ½AzÁV ºÀtPÁ¹£À C£ÁªÀgÀt
a. ªÀåªÀºÁgÀ C£ÁªÀgÀt
II MAzÀÄ ºÀtPÁ¸À£ÀÄß E£ÉÆßAzÀÄ ºÀtPÁ¹£ÉÆA¢UÉ «¤ªÀÄAiÀÄ ªÀiÁrPÉÆAqÁUÀ GAmÁzÀ C£ÁªÀgÀt
b. mÁæ®…ÕÇæàÐÜ®… (¨sÁµÁAvÀgÀ) C£ÁªÀgÀt
III PÉÆæÃrüÃPÀÈvÀ «wÛÃAiÀÄ ºÉýPÉUÀ¼À£ÀÄß ¹zÀÞUÉƽ¸ÀĪÀ CUÀvÀå¢AzÁV §ºÀÄgÁ¶ÖçÃAiÀÄ ¸ÀA¸ÉÜUÀ¼À°è C£ÁªÀgÀtzÀ CªÀ±ÀåPÀvÉ ªÉÄïÉüÀÄvÀÛzÉ
c. PÁAiÀiÁðZÀgÀuÉAiÀÄ C£ÁªÀgÀt
F PɼÀUÉ PÉÆnÖgÀĪÀ ¸ÀAPÉÃvÀUÀ¼À°è ¸ÀjAiÀiÁzÀ DAiÉÄÌAiÀÄ£ÀÄß UÀÄgÀÄw¹
I II III
(1) c a b
(2) c b a
(3) a b c
(4) a c b
42. PɼÀV£ÀªÀÅUÀ¼À£ÀÄß ¸ÀjAiÀiÁV ºÉÆA¢¹j I F ¹zÁÞAvÀªÀÅ ¸ÁzÀgÀ
¥Àr¸ÀĪÀÅzÉãÉAzÀgÉ
AiÀiÁªÀÅzÉà zÉñÀªÀÅ vÀ£Àß°è
AiÀiÁªÀ CA±ÀªÀÅ
«¥sÀÄ®ªÁVzÉAiÉÆà ºÁUÀÆ
ºÉZÀÄÑ wêÀævÉAiÀÄļÀîzÉÆÝÃ
CzÀgÀ°è «±ÉõÀvÉAiÀÄ£ÀÄß
ºÉÆA¢ D GvÀà£ÀߪÀ£ÀÄß
gÀ¥sÀÄÛ ªÀiÁqÀĪÀÅzÀÄ
a. vÀÄ®£ÁvÀäPÀ ªÉZÀÑ ¥ÀæAiÉÆÃd£ÀzÀ ¹zÁÞAvÀ
II F ¹zÁÞAvÀzÀ ¥ÀæPÁgÀªÁV,
PÁ«ÄðPÀgÀ£ÀÄß P˱À®åAiÀÄÄPÀÛ
ªÀÄvÀÄÛ P˱À®ågÀ»vÀªÉAzÀÄ
ªÀVÃðPÀj¸À§ºÀÄzÀÄ
b. ªÀiÁ£ÀªÀ §AqÀªÁ¼À ªÀiÁUÀð
III GvÀà£ÀßzÀ DgÀA s̈ÀzÀ
ºÀAvÀUÀ¼À°è KPÀ¸ÁéªÀÄåzÀ
¥ÀæAiÉÆÃd£ÀUÀ¼À£ÀÄß zÉñÀUÀ¼ÀÄ
¥ÀqÉAiÀÄĪÀÅzÀÄ ªÀÄvÀÄÛ
«zÉòà ªÀiÁgÀÄPÀmÉÖUÀ¼À
¥ÀæªÉñÀå ªÀiÁqÀĪÀŪÀÅ. CzÀÄ
C©üªÀÈ¢Þ ºÉÆA¢zÀ ªÀÄvÀÄÛ
C©üªÀÈ¢Þ ºÉÆAzÀÄwÛgÀĪÀ
zÉñÀUÀ¼À ªÀÄzsÉå ªÀÄvÀÄÛ
OzÉÆåÃVPÀ zÉñÀUÀ¼ÀÄ
vÀªÀÄävÀªÀÄä°èAiÉÄà ªÀ»ªÁnUÉ
ºÁ¢ ªÀiÁrPÉÆqÀĪÀÅzÀÄ
c. GvÀà£ÀßzÀ fëvÀ ZÀPÀæ
F PɼÀUÉ PÉÆnÖgÀĪÀ ¸ÀAPÉÃvÀUÀ¼À°è ¸ÀjAiÀiÁzÀ DAiÉÄÌAiÀÄ£ÀÄß UÀÄgÀÄw¹
I II III
(1) c a b
(2) c b a
(3) a b c
(4) a c b
-
234 (25 – A )
41. Match the following correctly
1. The exposure of the
currency due to economic
effects
a. Transaction exposure
2. Exposure occurs when
one currency must be
exchanged for another
b. Translation exposure
3. Exposure arises in
multinational firms from
the requirement that
produce consolidated
financial statements
c. Operating Exposure
Select the correct answer using the codes
given below
1 2 3
(1) c a b
(2) c b a
(3) a b c
(4) a c b
42. Match the following correctly 1. This theory suggests that a country will specialize and
export that product which is
more intensive in that factor
which is more abundant
a. Theory of Comparative
Cost
Advantage
2. According to this theory, labour can be classified into
skilled and unskilled labour
b. Human Capital
Approach
3. Countries will enjoy monopoly benefits in the
initial stages of production,
and will access to foreign
markets, leading to trade
between the developed and
developing countries as well
as trade among the
industrialized countries
themselves
c. Product Life-Cycle
Select the correct answer using the codes given
below
1 2 3
(1) c a b
(2) c b a
(3) a b c
(4) a c b
-
234 (26 – A )
43. vÀªÀÄä DyðPÀ C©üªÀÈ¢ÞUÉ ¸ÀA§A¢ü¹zÀAvÉ C©üªÀȢ޲î zÉñÀUÀ¼ÀÄ ¸ÀªÀĸÉåUÀ¼À£ÀÄß ZÀað¸À®Ä ªÉâPÉAiÀÄ£ÀÄß PÀ°à¸ÀĪÀÅzÀPÁÌV 1964gÀ°è UN ¸ÁªÀiÁ£Àå ¸À¨sÉAiÀÄÄ PɼÀV£À AiÀiÁªÀ ¸ÀA¸ÉÜAiÀÄ£ÀÄß ¸Áܦ¹vÀÄ.
(1) UNCTAD (2) IMF (3) GATT (4) ËÍÜÌ ¸ÝÂíPÜá
44. PɼÀV£À AiÀiÁªÀ CA±ÀªÀÅ DyðPÀ ¸ÉêÉUÀ¼À ®PÀëtªÀ®è?
(1) ¸ÀàµÀÖvÉ (2) ¸ÀºÀªÀwðvÀé (3) ºÁ¼ÁUÀÄ«PÉ (4) ªÀiÁgÀÄPÀmÉÖ ZÀ®£À²Ã®vÉ
45. PÁ¥ÉÆÃðgÉõÀ£ï ««zsÀ §UÉUÀ¼À ¸ÀA§AzsÀzÀ°è PɼÀV£À AiÀiÁªÀ ºÉýPÉAiÀÄÄ ¸ÀjAiÀiÁVªÉ
I. MAzÀÄ §ºÀÄgÁ¶ÖçÃAiÀÄ ¤UÀªÀĪÀÅ ºÀ®ªÁgÀÄ zÉñÀUÀ¼À°è PÁAiÀiÁðZÀgÀuÉ ªÀiÁqÀÄvÀÛzÉ ªÀÄvÀÄÛ CzÀgÀ ªÀ»ªÁn£À §ºÀÄ¥Á®Ä vÀ£ÀßzÉà zÉñÀUÀ¼ÀzÁÝVgÀÄvÀÛzÉ.
II. MAzÀÄ CAvÀgïgÁ¶ÖçÃAiÀÄ ¤UÀªÀĪÀ£ÀÄß ªÁåSÁ夸ÀĪÀÅzÉAzÀgÉ PÀ¤µÀÖ MAzÀÄ «zÉòà gÁµÀÖçzÀ°è vÀ£Àß ªÀåªÀºÁgÀ PÁAiÀiÁðZÀgÀuÉAiÀÄ£ÀÄß CzÀÄ ºÉÆA¢gÀ¨ÉÃPÀÄ
III. mÁæ£ïì£ÉõÀ£À¯ï PÁ¥ÉÆÃðgÉõÀ£ï MAzÀÄ §ºÀÄgÁ¶ÖçÃAiÀÄ PÁ¥ÉÆÃðgÉõÀ£ï DVzÀÄÝ, CzÀgÀ ªÀiÁ°ÃPÀvÀé ªÀÄvÀÄÛ ¤AiÀÄAvÀætªÀÅ CAvÀgïgÁ¶ÖçÃAiÀĪÁV ºÀgÀrzÉ. CzÀgÀ°è zÉùÃAiÀÄ ºÁUÀÆ MAzÀÄ PÉÃA¢æÃAiÀÄ C¢üPÁgÀ ªÀÄÆ®«gÀÄvÀÛzÉ. ¸ÀjAiÀiÁzÀ GvÀÛgÀªÀ£ÀÄß PɼÀV£À DAiÉÄÌUÀ¼À£ÁßzsÀj¹ GvÀÛj¹
(1) I ªÀiÁvÀæ (2) II ªÀiÁvÀæ (3) I ªÀÄvÀÄÛ II JgÀqÀÆ (4) II ªÀÄvÀÄÛ III JgÀqÀÆ
46. CAvÀgÀgÁ¶ÖçÃAiÀÄ CPËAnAUï ¸ÁÖöåAqÀqïð ¥ÀæPÁgÀ (IAS) CAvÀgÀgÁ¶ÖçÃAiÀÄ «wÛÃAiÀÄ ªÀgÀ¢ ¸ÁÖöåAqÀqïð (IFRS) (IASB ¬ÄAzÀ eÁjAiÀiÁzÀ) «wÛÃAiÀÄ ªÀgÀ¢UÀ¼À ¤gÀÆ¥ÀuÉ EzÀgÀr §gÀĪÀÅzÀÄ.
(1) IAS-1
(2) IAS-2
(3) IAS-7
(4) IAS-8
47. XYZ Ltd. (È) 1,00,000 µÉÃgïUÀ¼À£ÀÄß ºÉÆA¢zÉ ¥Àæw µÉÃgï£À ªÀiÁgÀÄPÀmÉÖ ¨É¯É gÀÆ. 15 DVzÉ. D ªÀµÀðzÀ°è PÀA¥É¤AiÀÄÄ ¤ªÀé¼À¯Á¨sÀªÁV gÀÆ. 2,00,000 UÀ¼À ¤jÃPÀëuÉ ºÉÆA¢zÉ. CzÀÄ ²æêÀÄAvÀ ªÀUÀðPÉÌ ¸ÉÃjzÁÝVzÉ. CzÀgÀ §AqÀªÁ½ÃPÀgÀt zÀgÀªÀ£ÀÄß 20% ªÉAzÀÄ CAzÁf¸À¯ÁVzÉ. ¥Àæ¸ÀÄÛvÀ ªÀµÀðzÀ°è gÀÆ. 2.50 gÀAvÉ ¥Àæw µÉÃjUÉ r«qÉAqï JAzÀÄ PÀA¥É¤AiÀÄÄ ¥ÀjUÀt¸ÀÄwÛzÉ. r«qÉAqï£ÀÄß ¥ÁªÀw ªÀiÁrzÀgÉ µÉÃgï£À ¨É¯ÉAiÀÄÄ ªÀµÀðzÀ PÉÆ£ÉAiÀÄ°è F ªÉÆvÀÛªÁVgÀÄvÀÛzÉ.
(1) gÀÆ. 10.25
(2) gÀÆ. 15.50
(3) gÀÆ. 20.36
(4) gÀÆ. 23.60
-
234 (27 – A )
43. Which of the following institutions was established by U.N. General Assembly in
1964 in order to provide a forum where the
developing countries could discuss the
problems relating to their economic
development?
(1)UNCTAD
(2)IMF
(3)GATT
(4)World Bank
44. Which of the following is not the feature of Financial Services?
(1) Tangibility
(2) Concomitant
(3) Perishability
(4) Market Dynamics
45. Which of the following statements is/are true in context of various types of
corporations?
I. A ‘Multinational Corporation’ is a
company which operates in several
countries and a considerable share of
its business is from domestic countries
II. An ‘International Corporation’ may be
defined as a company which has
business operations in at least one
foreign country
III. A ‘Transnational Corporation’ is a
multinational, the ownership and
control of which are dispersed
internationally. It has a principal
domicile and a single central source of
power
Select the correct answer using the
codes given below
(1)(I) Only
(2)(II) Only
(3)Both (I) and (II)
(4)Both (II) and (III)
46. According to International Accounting
Standards (IAS)/ International Financial
Reporting Standards (IFRS) issued by the
IASB, Presentation of Financial Statements
comes under
(1)IAS-1
(2)IAS-2
(3)IAS-7
(4)IAS-8
47. XYZ Ltd., has 1,00,000 shares outstanding
the current market price of the shares Rs. 15
each. The company expects the net profit of
Rs. 2,00,000 during the year and it belongs
to a rich class for which the appropriate
capitalisation rate has been estimated to be
20%. The company is considering dividend
of Rs. 2.50 per share for the current year.
The price of the share at the end of the year,
if the dividend is paid is
(1)Rs.10.25
(2)Rs.15.50
(3)Rs.20.36
(4)Rs.23.60
-
234 (28 – A )
48. CPËAnAUï ¸ÁÖöåAqÀqïð£À GzÉÝñÀªÀÅ
I. zÉñÀzÀ°è£À ««zsÀ ¯ÉPÀÌ ¥ÀvÀæ ¤ÃwUÀ¼À°è ¸ÀªÀÄgÀ¸ÀªÀ£ÀÄßAlÄ ªÀiÁqÀĪÀÅzÀÄ ªÀÄvÀÄÛ MAzÀÄ zÉñÀzÀ°è §¼À¸ÀĪÀÅzÀÄ.
II. «wÛÃAiÀÄ ºÉýPÉUÀ¼À ¹zÀÞvÉAiÀÄ°è ¯ÉPÁÌZÁgÀzÀ ¥ÀAiÀiÁðAiÀÄUÀ¼À£ÀÄß PÀrªÉÄ ªÀiÁqÀĪÀÅzÀÄ
III. ¨ÉÃgÉ ¨ÉÃgÉ ¸ÀA¸ÉÜUÀ¼À «wÛÃAiÀÄ ºÉýPÉUÀ¼À vÀÄ£À¯ÁvÀäPÀvÉAiÀÄ SÁwæ
IV. PÁ£ÀƤ£À CªÀ±ÀåPÀvÉAiÀiÁZÉ §»gÀAUÀUÉƽ¸À®Ä PÀgÉ ¸ÀjAiÀiÁzÀ GvÀÛgÀªÀ£ÀÄß PɼÀV£À DAiÉÄÌUÀ¼À£ÁßzsÀj¹ GvÀÛj¹
(1) I ªÀiÁvÀæ
(2) II ªÀiÁvÀæ
(3) I ªÀÄvÀÄÛ II JgÀqÀÆ
(4) ªÉÄð£À J®èªÀÇ ¸Àj
49. ̈ sÁgÀvÀzÀ°è DzÁAiÀÄ vÉjUÉAiÀÄ£ÀÄß EzÀgÀ ¥ÀæPÁgÀªÁV ¤UÀ¢¸À¯ÁVzÉ.
(1) ¢ ¥sÉÊ£Á£ïì DPïÖ
(2) ¢ E£ïPÀA mÁåPïì DPïÖ
(3) ¢ ¸ÉAlæ¯ï ¨ÉÆÃqïð D¥sï qÉÊgÉPïÖ mÁåPÀì¸ï
(4) ¢ «Ä¤¹Öç D¥sï ¥sÉÊ£Á£ïì
50. PɼÀV£À ªÀåQÛUÀ¼À ¥ÉÊQ, ¨sÁgÀvÀzÀ ºÉÆgÀUÀqÉ »A¢£À ªÀµÀðzÀ°è ¥ÀqÉzÀ «zÉòà DzÁAiÀÄzÀ ªÉÄÃ¯É vÉjUÉ ºÁPÀĪÀÅ¢®è.
I. gɹqÉAmï (¤ªÁ¹)
II. £Ámï Drð£Àj° gɹqÉAmï (¸ÁªÀiÁ£ÀåªÁV ¤ªÁ¹AiÀÄ®èzÀ)
III. £Á£ï gɹqÉAmï (¤ªÁ¹AiÀÄ®èzÀ)
¸ÀjAiÀiÁzÀ GvÀÛgÀªÀ£ÀÄß PɼÀV£À DAiÉÄÌUÀ¼À£ÁßzsÀj¹ GvÀÛj¹
(1) I ªÀiÁvÀæ
(2) II ªÀiÁvÀæ
(3) III ªÀiÁvÀæ
(4) I ªÀÄvÀÄÛ II JgÀqÀÆ
51. vÀAiÀiÁjPÁ PÀA¥É¤AiÉÆAzÀgÀ CAwªÀÄ ¯ÉPÀÌ¥ÀvÀæªÀÅ ¸ÁªÀiÁ£ÀåªÁV PɼÀPÀAqÀ ºÉýPÉUÀ¼À£ÀÄß ºÉÆA¢gÀÄvÀÛzÉ I. ¨Á宣ïì ²Ãmï
II. vÀAiÀiÁjPÁ ¯ÉPÀÌ
III. ¯Á¨sÀ ªÀÄvÀÄÛ £ÀµÀÖzÀ ¯ÉPÀÌ
IV. ÊݱÝÃÜ ÇæPÜR
V. ¯Á¨sÀ ªÀÄvÀÄÛ £ÀµÀÖ ºÉÆAzÁtÂPÁ ¯ÉPÀÌ
ºÉýPÉUÀ¼À£ÀÄß vÀAiÀiÁgÀÄ ªÀiÁqÀĪÀ ¸ÀjAiÀiÁzÀ C£ÀÄPÀæªÀĪÀÅ »ÃVzÉ.
(1) I, II, III, IV, V
(2) II, IV, III, V, I
(3) V, II, IV, III, I
(4) I, IV, III, II, V
-
234 (29 – A )
48. The Objective(s) of Accounting Standards
is/are to
I. Harmonise different accounting
policies and used in a country
II. Reduce the accounting alternatives
in the preparation of financial statements
III. Ensure comparability of financial
statements of different enterprises
IV. Call for disclosures beyond that
required by the law.
Select the correct answer using the
codes given below
(1) (I) Only
(2) (II) Only
(3) Both (I) and (II)
(4) All of the above
49. Income tax in India is charged at the rate
prescribed by
(1) The Finance Act
(2) The Income Tax Act
(3) The Central Board of Direct Taxes
(4) The Ministry of Finance
50. In case of which of the following person(s)
foreign income received out of India during
the previous year is/are not taxable
I. Resident
II. Not-ordinarily resident
III. Non-resident
Select the correct answer using the
codes given below
(1) (I) Only
(2) (II) Only
(3) (III) Only
(4) Both (I) and (II)
51. The final accounts of a manufacturing
company generally include the following
statements:
i. Balance sheet
ii. Manufacturing account
iii. Profit and loss account
iv. Trading account.
v. Profit and Loss Appropriation
Account
The correct sequence in which the
statements are prepared is:
(1) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv), (v)
(2) (ii), (iv), (iii), (v), (i)
(3) (v), (ii), (iv), (iii), (i)
(4) (i), (iv), (iii), (ii), (v)
-
234 (30 – A )
52. §AqÀªÁ¼À DzÁAiÀÄ ªÀVÃðPÀgÀtzÀ°è AiÀiÁªÀ vÀvÀéªÀÅ ºÉZÀÄÑ ¥ÀjuÁªÀÄPÁjAiÀiÁVzÉ.
(1) ¸ÁªÀÄVæ (¨sËwPÀvÉ)AiÀÄ vÀvÀé (2) ¸ÀAgÀPÀëuÉAiÀÄ vÀvÀé (3) ¹ÜgÀvÉAiÀÄ vÀvÀé (4) ¸ÀA¥ÀÆt𠤪ÉÃzÀ£ÉAiÀÄ vÀvÀé
53. PɼÀUÉ PÉÆnÖgÀĪÀ ¸ÀAPÉÃvÀUÀ¼À£ÀÄß §¼À¹ ¥ÀnÖ II gÉÆA¢UÉ ¥ÀnÖ I £ÀÄß ºÉÆAzÁtÂPÉ ªÀiÁrj
¥ÀnÖ - I ¥ÀnÖ -II a AS-2 I ¤UÀ¢vÀ D¹ÛUÀ¼À ªÉÄïÉ
¯ÉPÁÌZÁgÀzÀ ªÀiÁ£ÀzÀAqÀ b AS-6 II DzÁAiÀÄ UÀt£ÉAiÀÄ ªÉÄïÉ
¯ÉPÁÌZÁgÀzÀ ªÀiÁ£ÀzÀAqÀ c AS-9 III ªÀiË®å E½PÉ ¯ÉPÁÌZÁgÀzÀ
ªÉÄÃ¯É ¯ÉPÁÌZÁgÀzÀ ªÀiÁ£ÀzÀAqÀ d AS-10 IV vÀ¥À²Ã®Ä ¥ÀnÖ ªÀiË°åÃPÀgÀtzÀ
ªÉÄÃ¯É ¯ÉPÁÌZÁgÀzÀ ªÀiÁ£ÀzÀAqÀ F PɼÀUÉ PÉÆnÖgÀĪÀ ¸ÀAPÉÃvÀUÀ¼À°è ¸ÀjAiÀiÁzÀ DAiÉÄÌAiÀÄ£ÀÄß UÀÄgÀÄw¹
a b c d 1) IV III II I 2) I II III IV 3) II I IV III 4) III II I IV
54. “UÉæÃ¥ïªÉÊ£ï” §UÉÎ PɼÀV£À AiÀiÁªÀÅzÀÄ ¸ÀjAiÀiÁzÀÄzÀÄ?
(1) O¥ÀZÁjPÀ UÀÄA¦£À ¸ÀzÀ¸ÀågÀÄ M§âgÀ£ÉÆߧâgÀÄ ZÉ£ÁßV §®èªÀgÁVzÀÝgÉ CzÀÄ C¹ÛvÀézÀ°ègÀ®Ä ¥ÀæAiÀÄw߸ÀĪÀÅzÀÄ
(2) EzÀÄ PÉ®¸À ªÀiÁqÀĪÀ eÁUÀzÀ°ègÀĪÀ ¸ÁªÀiÁfPÀ ±ÀQÛUÀ¼À ¥sÀ°vÀªÁVgÀĪÀÅzÀÄ
(3) ºÉaÑ£À ¸ÁA¹ÜPÀ §zÀÞvÉUÀ¼À ¸ÀªÀÄAiÀÄUÀ¼À°è EzÀÄ ºÉZÀÄÑ ¸ÀªÉÃð ¸ÁªÀiÁ£ÀåªÁVgÀĪÀÅzÀÄ
(4) ªÉÄð£À J®èªÀÇ
55. ¤ªÀðºÀuÁ ¤ÃwUÀ¼ÀÄ ªÀÄÆ® vÀvÀéªÀÅ AiÀiÁªÀÅzÀÄ?
(1) ¸ÁªÀÄÆ»PÀ PÁAiÀÄðzÀ°è vÉÆqÀVgÀĪÀ AiÀiÁªÀÅzÉà ¸ÀA¸ÉÜAiÀÄ°èAiÀÄÆ ¸ÀºÀPÁgÀªÀÅ vÀAqÀPÁAiÀÄð ªÀÄvÀÄÛ AiÀıÀ¹ìUÉ MAzÀÄ ±ÀQÛ±Á° ¸ÁzsÀ£ÀªÁVzÉ.
(2) zÉʪÀvÉ, ªÀåQÛ ªÀÄvÀÄÛ «±ÀézÀ°è£À KPÀvÉAiÀÄ£ÀÄß ¸ÀÆa¸ÀĪÀ ¸ÀªÀÄUÀævÁ ªÀiÁUÀð
(3) CUÁzsÀªÁzÀ ¸Àé±ÀQÛ ªÀÄvÀÄÛ ªÀiÁ£ÀªÀ£ÁV ¥Àj¥ÀÆtðvÉUÁV£À ¥Àæw¨sÉUÀ¼ÀÄ CªÀ£À ºÀÈzÀAiÀÄzÀ°è GvÁìºÀ ¨sÀjvÀªÁVzÉ.
(4) ªÉÄð£À J®èªÀÇ
56. PɼÀV£ÀªÀÅUÀ¼À£ÀÄß ºÉÆA¢¹:
PÉÆqÀÄUÉPÁgÀgÀÄ ¸ÁA¹ÜPÀ ¹zÁÞAvÀ a ZɸÀÖgï
§£Áðqïð -1 I ¥sÀAPÀë£À¯ï ¥sÉÆÃgïªÀÄ£ï ²¥ï
b ªÀiÁåPïì ªÉ§gï II CPÉé¥ÉÖ£ïì yAiÀÄj D¥sï CxÁjn
c J¥sï.§qÀÆèöå. mÉîgï
III N¥À£ï ¹¸ÀÖA yAiÀÄj
d PÀmïÓ CAqï PÀ£ï
IV §ÆågÉÆÃPÀæ¹
F PɼÀUÉ PÉÆnÖgÀĪÀ ¸ÀAPÉÃvÀUÀ¼À°è ¸ÀjAiÀiÁzÀ DAiÉÄÌAiÀÄ£ÀÄß UÀÄgÀÄw¹
a b c d
(1) II IV III I
(2) III IV II I
(3) IV III I II
(4) II IV I III
-
234 (31 – A )
52. Which principle has important bearing on
the capital-revenue classification?
(1) Principle of materiality
(2) Principle of conservatism
(3) Principle of consistency
(4) Principle of full disclosure
53. Match List I with List II and select correct
answer using codes given below:
List I List II
a. AS-2
I. Accounting standard
on fixed assets
b. AS-6
II. Accounting standard
on revenue recognition
c. AS-9
III. Accounting
standard on
depreciation accounting
d.AS-10
IV Accounting standard
on valuation of
inventory
Select the correct answer using the
codes given below
a b c d
(1) IV III II I
(2) I II III IV
(3) II I IV III
(4) III II I IV
54. Which of the following is correct about
"GRAPEVINE"?
(1) It tends to exist when members of formal group know one another well
(2) It is the result of the social forces at workplace
(3) It is more common in times of high organizational commitment
(4) All of the above
55. Which is the basic principle of ethos for
management?
(1) Co-operation is powerful instrument for teamwork and success in any
enterprise involving collective work
(2) Holistic approach indicating unity between the Divine, individual self
and the Universe
(3) Immense potential energy and talents for perfection as human being has the
spirit within his heart
(4) All of the above
56. Match the following
Contributor Organization
theory
(a) Chester I
Bernard
(i)Functional
foremanship
(b) Max Weber (ii)Acceptance
theory of authority
(c)F.W. Taylor (iii)Open system
theory
(d) Katz &Kahn (iv)Bureaucracy
Select the correct answer using the
codes given below
a b c d (1) (ii) (iv) (iii) (i) (2) (iii) (iv) (ii) (i) (3) (iv) (iii) (i) (ii) (4) (ii) (iv) (i) (iii)
-
234 (32 – A )
57. PɼÀV£ÀzÀgÀ°è AiÀiÁªÀÅzÀÄ ªÀiÁPÉðnAUï ªÀiÁå£ÉÃeïªÉÄAmï£À ¤AiÀÄAwæ¸À§ºÀÄzÁzÀ Kj½PÉ (ZÀgÀ) C®è?
(1) ¸ÀàzsÁðvÀäPÀ ¥Àj¸ÀgÀ (2) vÁAwæPÀ ¥Àj¸ÀgÀ (3) ªÉÊeÁÕ¤PÀ ¥Àj¸ÀgÀ (4) DyðPÀ ¥Àj¸ÀgÀ
58. CAvÀeÁð®zÀ ªÀiÁgÀÄPÀmÉÖAiÀÄÄ EzÀgÉÆqÀ£É ªÀåªÀºÀj¸ÀĪÀÅ¢®è.
(1) eÁ»ÃgÁvÀÄ (2) ¥Àæw¸ÀàAzÀ£Á ªÀiÁPÉðnAUï (3) E-ªÉÄÃ¯ï ªÀiÁPÉðnAUï ªÀÄvÀÄÛ ªÉ¨ï
eÁ»ÃgÁvÀÄ (4) ¥ÀæzÀ±ÀðPÀ eÁ»ÃgÁvÀÄ
59. ¥Àæw¥ÁzÀ£É (A) : ªÀåªÀºÁgÀ¸ÀÜgÀ ¯Á¨sÀªÀ£ÀÄß ºÉaŅ̃ ÀĪÀÅzÀÄ ªÀiÁvÀæªÀ®èzÉ ªÀ¸ÀÄÛUÀ¼À£ÀÄß ªÀÄvÀÄÛ ¸ÉêÉUÀ¼À£ÀÄß ¸ÀªÀiÁdzÀ°ègÀĪÀ UÁæºÀPÀjUÉ G¥À®§ÞªÁUÀĪÀAvÉ ªÀiÁqÀĪÀÅzÀPÁÌV ªÀiÁgÁlªÀÅ ªÀÄÄRåªÁUÀÄvÀÛzÉ.
PÁgÀt (R) : ¸ÁªÀÄVæUÀ¼ÀÄ ªÀÄvÀÄÛ ¸ÉêÉUÀ¼ÀÄ CAwªÀĪÁV CªÀÅUÀ¼À CªÀ±ÀåPÀvɬÄgÀĪÀ UÁæºÀPÀgÀvÀÛ ZÀ°¸ÀÄvÀÛªÉ ªÀÄvÀÄÛ UÁæºÀPÀjUÉ vÀ£Àß GvÀà£ÀßUÀ¼À£ÀÄß «vÀj¸ÀĪÀ PÁAiÀÄðUÀ¼À£ÀÄß ¸ÀA¸ÉÜAiÀÄÄ ¤ªÀð»¸ÀÄvÀÛzÉ. (1) ¥Àæw¥ÁzÀ£É A ªÀÄvÀÄÛ PÁgÀt R JgÀqÀÆ
¸ÀjAiÀiÁzÀªÀÅ (2) ¥Àæw¥ÁzÀ£É A ¸Àj DzÀgÉ PÁgÀt R
¸ÀjAiÀiÁzÀÄzÀ®è (3) ¥Àæw¥ÁzÀ£É A ¸Àj C®è DzÀgÉ PÁgÀt R
¸ÀjAiÀiÁzÀÄzÀÄ (4) ¥Àæw¥ÁzÀ£É A ªÀÄvÀÄÛ PÁgÀt R ¸Àj ªÀÄvÀÄÛ
¥Àæw¥ÁzÀ£É A UÉ PÁgÀt R DVzÉ.
60. GvÀÛªÀÄ ¸ÀAzÀ±Àð£À «zsÁ£ÀªÀ£ÀÄß vÉUÉzÀÄPÉƼÀî®Ä 7 CA±ÀUÀ¼À AiÉÆÃd£ÉAiÀÄ£ÀÄß ¥ÀjZÀ¬Ä¹zÀªÀgÀÄ AiÀiÁgÀÄ?
(1) «Ä®Ö£ï J¯ï §èªÀiï
(2) J¥sï.E.§mïð
(3) ¥ÉÆæ J. gÉÆÃd¸ïð
(4) ¦ü°¥ï
61. GvÀà£ÀßvÉ JAzÀgÉ
(1) MAzÀÄ ¤¢ðµÀÖ PÉ®¸ÀªÀ£ÀÄß ªÀiÁqÀ®Ä GzÉÆåÃVUÉ ¨ÉÃPÁzÀ eÁÕ£À ªÀÄvÀÄÛ P˱À®åªÀ£ÀÄß ºÉaŅ̃ ÀĪÀ PÀæªÀÄ
(2) ¸ÁªÀÄVæUÀ¼ÀÄ ªÀÄvÀÄÛ ¸ÉêÉUÀ¼À£ÀÄß GvÁࢸÀ®Ä PÀ¤µÀÖ ¸ÀA¥À£ÀÆä®UÀ¼À£ÀÄß §¼À¸ÀĪÀÅzÀÄ
(3) ¥Àæ¸ÀÄÛvÀ ºÉÆA¢gÀĪÀ PÉ®¸ÀPÉÌ C£ÀÄUÀÄtªÁzÀ P˱À®åªÀ£ÀÄß ¥ÀqÉ¢gÀĪÀÅzÀÄ
(4) ¸ÀA¸ÉÜAiÀÄ GvÀà£ÀßzÀ JzÀÄgÀÄ CzÀgÀ M¼ÀºÀjªÀÅUÀ¼À C£ÀÄ¥ÁvÀ
62. ªÀiÁ£ÀªÀ ¸ÀA¥À£ÀÆ䮪À£ÀÄß »ÃUÉ
D¯ÉÆÃa¸À§ºÀÄzÀÄ “¸ÀA¸ÉÜAiÀÄ PÁ«ÄðPÀgÀ
eÁÕ£À P˱À®å, ¸ÀÈd£ÁvÀäPÀ PÀëªÀÄvÉUÀ¼ÀÄ,
¥Àæw¨sÉUÀ¼ÀÄ ªÀÄvÀÄÛ ªÀÄ£ÉÆà ¨sÁªÀUÀ¼ÀÄ, eÉÆvÉUÉ
ªÀiË®åUÀ¼À ªÀÄ£ÉÆÃz sÀªÀÄð ªÀÄvÀÄÛ £ÀA©PÉUÀ¼ÀÄ”. F ºÉýPÉAiÀÄ£ÀÄß PÉÆlÖªÀgÀÄ AiÀiÁgÀÄ?
(1) °AiÉÆÃ£ï ¹. ªÉÄVΣï¸À£ï (2) ªÉÄlð£ï (3) ¦ü°¥ï PÉÆlègï (4) r. ¦ü¯ÉÆÃ¥ÉÆ
-
234 (33 – A )
57. Which of the following is not controllable
variable of marketing management?
(1) Competitive Environment
(2) Technological Environment
(3) Science Environment
(4) Economic environment
58. Internet Marketing does not deal
(1) Advertising
(2) Interactive marketing
(3) E-mail Marketing and Web Advertising
(4) Display Advertising
59. Assertion (A). Selling is important not
merely for increasing the profits of
business-men, but also for making goods
and services available to the consumers in
society.
Reason(R). It is the process whereby goods
and services finally flow to the consumers
who need them and the firm performs its
functions of distributing its products among
consumers.
Codes :
(1) Assertion (A) and Reason(R) both are true
(2) Assertion (A)is true but Reason (R) is not true
(3) Assertion (A)is not true but the Reason(R) is true
(4) Assertion(A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason(R) is the reason of
Assertion (A)
60. Who has introduced the 'seven point plan'
for taking the best interview method?
(1) Milton L. Blum
(2) F. E. Burt
(3) Prof. A. Rozars
(4) Fillip
61. Productivity means
(1) An act of increasing the knowledge and skill of an employee for doing a
particular job.
(2) Using the minimum amount of resources need to produce goods and
services.
(3) One's skill abilities in meeting the needs of the job which one is holding
currently.
(4) The ratio of an organization's output to its inputs.
62. Human resource can be thought of as "the
total knowledge, skill, creative abilities,
talents and attitudes of an organization's
workforce as well as the value attitudes and
beliefs of the individuals involved". who
gave this statement?
(1) Leon C. Megginson
(2) Merton
(3) Philip Kotler
(4) D. Philopho
-
234 (34 – A )
63. ‘zÉñÀªÀÅ gÀPÀëuÉ, ªÀÄ£ÀĵÀågÀÄ PÉ®¸À ªÀiÁqÀĪÀ ¥Àj¹Üw ªÀÄvÀÄÛ ºÉjUÉ ¥ÀjºÁgÀ’ EªÀÅUÀ¼À ªÀåªÀ¸ÉÜ ªÀiÁqÀ¨ÉÃPÀÄ.
EzÀÄ AiÀiÁªÀÅzÀgÀrAiÀÄ°è §gÀÄvÀÛzÉ?
(1) DnðPÀ¯ï 39
(2) DnðPÀ¯ï 42
(3) DnðPÀ¯ï 45
(4) ªÉÄð£À J®èªÀÇ
64. “¸ÀÄ¢ÃWÀð PÁ®zÀ (DUÀvÀ) ¯Á¨sÀzÀ PÀæªÀÄUÀ¼À£ÀÄß ¥ÀqÉzÀÄPÉƼÀÄîªÀÅzÀÄ PÁå¦l¯ï §eÉnAUï” EzÀ£ÀÄß AiÀiÁgÀÄ ºÉýzÀgÀÄ?
(1) jZÀqïð CAqï Væãï
(2) eÉ. ¨ÉnÖ
(3) ZÁ¯ïìð ÖÝ®ÜìVæãï
(4) °AZï
65. PÀA¥É¤AiÉÆAzÀÄ rªÉqÉAqï£ÀÄß ¥ÀæPÀn¹zÀgÉ CzÀ£ÀÄß ¥ÁªÀw¸ÀĪÀÅzÀÄ CªÀ±ÀåªÁUÀÄvÀÛzÉ.
(1) ¤¢ðµÀÖ ¸ÀªÀÄAiÀÄzÉƼÀUÉ
(2) K¼ÀÄ ªÀµÀðUÀÙæãÙÜWæ
(3) DgÀÄ ªÀµÀðUÀÙæãÙÜWæ
(4) LzÀÄ ªÀµÀðUÀÙæãÙÜWæ
66. PɼÀV£À AiÀiÁªÀÅzÀgÀ ¥ÀæPÁgÀ, ¸ÀA¸ÉÜAiÀÄ ªÀiÁgÀÄPÀmÉÖ ªÀiË®åªÀÅ §AqÀªÁ¼À ªÀiÁgÀÄPÀmÉÖ¬ÄAzÀ ¥Àæ¨sÁ«vÀªÁUÀĪÀÅ¢®è
(1) MM ¹zÁÞAvÀ
(2) ¤ªÀé¼À DzÁAiÀÄ ªÀiÁUÀð
(3) ¸ÁA¥ÀæzÁ¬ÄPÀ zÀȶÖPÉÆãÀ
(4) ªÉÄð£À AiÀiÁªÀÅzÀÆ C®è
67. PɼÀV£À ºÉýPÉAiÀÄ£ÀÄß N¢j
I. “PÁAiÀÄð¤gÀvÀ §AqÀªÁ¼ÀzÀ PÉÆgÀvÉAiÀÄ eÉÆvÉUÉ §AqÀªÁ¼ÀzÀ ªÉÄð£À ¯Á¨sÀzÀ zÀgÀªÀÅ ºÉZÁÑUÀÄvÀÛzÉ.
II. ¥Àæ¸ÀÄÛvÀ D¹ÛUÀ¼À ºÉZÀѼÀªÀÅ ªÀÄvÀÄÛ ¥Àæ¸ÀÄÛvÀ dªÁ¨ÁÝjUÀ½VAvÀ ºÉaÑ£ÀzÁVzÁÝUÀ ¤ªÀé¼À PÁAiÀÄð¤gÀvÀ §AqÀªÁ¼ÀªÁUÀÄvÀÛzÉ.
III. ªÀåªÀºÁgÀ ¸ÀA¸ÉÜAiÀÄ UÁvÀæ ºÉZÁÑzÀµÀÄÖ PÁAiÀÄð¤gÀvÀ §AqÀªÁ¼ÀzÀ CUÀvÀåªÀÇ ºÉZÁÑUÀÄvÀÛzÉ.
IV. PÁAiÀÄð¤gÀvÀ §AqÀªÁ¼ÀªÀÅ ¸ÀAZÀ°vÀ §AqÀªÁ¼ÀªÉ£À߯ÁUÀÄvÀÛzÉ.
PɼÀV£ÀzÀgÀ°è AiÀiÁªÀÅzÀÄ ¸ÀjAiÀiÁzÀ ºÉýPÉUÀ¼À£ÀÄß ºÉÆA¢zÉ.
¸ÀjAiÀiÁzÀ GvÀÛgÀªÀ£ÀÄß PɼÀV£À DAiÉÄÌUÀ¼À£ÁßzsÀj¹ GvÀÛj¹
(1) I, II ªÀÄvÀÄÛ III
(2) II, III ªÀÄvÀÄÛ IV
(3) III IV ªÀÄvÀÄÛ I
(4) I, II ªÀÄvÀÄÛ IV
68. Kj½PÉAiÀÄ «±ÉèõÀuÉAiÀÄ ¥ÀjPÀ®à£É (ANOVA) AiÀÄ£ÀÄß C©üªÀÈ¢Þ ¥Àr¹zÀªÀgÀÄ ________
(1) PÁ¯ïð ¦AiÀĸÀð£ï
(2) ¥ÉÆæ ¦ü±Àgï
(3) ¹àAiÀÄgïªÀÄ£ï
(4) F ªÉÄð£À AiÀiÁgÀÆ C®è
-
234 (35 – A )
63. "State shall make provision for securing
just & humane conditions of work & for
maternity relief"comes under.
(1) Article 39
(2) Article 42
(3) Article 45
(4) All of these
64. "Capital budgeting as acquiring inputs with
long run return". Who said this ?
(1) Richard and Green
(2) J. Betty
(3) Charles Horngreen
(4) Lynch
65. If the company announces dividend then it
is necessary to pay it
(1) Within certain time
(2) Within seven years
(3) Within six years
(4) Within five years
66. According to which of the following the
firms market value is not affected by capital
market ?
(1) M. M. Hypothesis
(2) Net Income Approach
(3) The Traditional View
(4) None of the above
67. Read the following statement
I. "The rate of return on investment increases with the shortage of
working capital".
II. "Net working capital is the excess of current assets over current
liabilities".
III. "Greater the size of the business unit larger will be the requirement of
working capital".
IV. "Working capital is also known as circulating capital".
Which one of the following consists of the
correct statements ?
Codes:
Select the correct answer using the codes given
below :
(1) (i), (ii) and (iii)
(2) (ii), (iii) and (iv)
(3) (iii), (iv) and (i)
(4) (i), (ii) and (iv)
68. The concept of Analysis of Variance
(ANOVA) was developed by
(1) Karl Pearson
(2) Prof. Fisher
(3) Spearman
(4) None of these
-
234 (36 – A )
69. PɼÀV£ÀzÀgÀ°è AiÀiÁªÀÅzÀÄ ¸ÀA¨sÁªÀåªÀ®èzÀ £ÀªÀÄÆ£Á «zsÁ£ÀªÁVzÉ
(1) C£ÀÄPÀÆ®PÀgÀ ªÀiÁzÀj
(2) PÉÆÃmÁ(»¸Éì) ªÀiÁzÀj
(3) ¤tðAiÀiÁvÀäPÀ ªÀiÁzÀj
(4) ªÀåªÀ¹ÜvÀªÁzÀ ªÀiÁzÀj
70. UÀÄuÁvÀäPÀ zÀvÁÛA±ÀPÁÌV ¸ÁªÀiÁ£ÀåªÁV AiÀiÁªÀ ¥ÀjÃPÉëAiÀÄ£ÀÄß ªÀiÁqÀÄvÉÛêÉ
(1) ‘t’ ¥ÀjÃPÉë
(2) ‘T’ ¥ÀjÃPÉë
(3) 2 chi–square ¥ÀjÃPÉë
(4) ‘v’ ¥ÀjÃPÉë
71. £À¨Áqïð£ÀÄß ¸Áܦ¹zÀÄÝ EzÀgÀ ²¥sÁgÀ¹ì£À ªÉÄïÉ
(1) vÀ®ªÁgï ¸À«Äw
(2) lAqÀ£ï ¸À«Äw
(3) £ÀgÀ¹AºÀ£ï ¸À«Äw
(4) ²ªÀgÁªÀÄ£ï ¸À«Äw
72. jÃmÉÊ¯ï ¨ÁåAQAUï£À CxÀð
(1) jÃmÉÊ¯ï ªÀvÀðPÀjUÉ ¤ÃqÀĪÀ ¸Á® ¸Ë®¨sÀåUÀ¼ÀÄ
(2) UÁæºÀPÀjUÉ £ÉÃgÀªÁV ªÉÊAiÀÄÄQÛPÀ ¨ÁåAQAUï ¸ÉêÉUÀ¼À£ÀÄß ¤ÃqÀĪÀÅzÀÄ
(3) §ºÀ¼ÀªÁzÀ r«qÉAqï/§rØ ªÁgÉAmïUÀ¼À£ÀÄß ¸ÀAUÀ滸ÀĪÀÅzÀÄ
(4) ªÉÄð£À J®èªÀÇ
73. E-banking £À AiÀıÀ¸ÀÄì EzÀgÀ ªÉÄÃ¯É CªÀ®A©vÀªÁVzÉ.
(1) §ºÀÄ¥ÀzÀgÀzÀ gÀPÀëuÁ ªÀåªÀ¸ÉÜ
(2) C¥ÁAiÀÄzÀ PÁªÀ®Ä ªÀåªÀ¸ÉÜ
(3) EwÛÃa£À zÉÆõÀgÀ»vÀ ¸Á¥sïÖ ªÉÃgïUÀ¼ÀÄ
(4) Cw PÀpt PÁ£ÀÆ£ÀÄ ZËPÀlÄÖ.
74. IRDA zÀ ¥Àæ¸ÀÄÛvÀ CzsÀåPÀëgÀÄ
(1) CdAiÀiï vÁåV
(2) Gfðvï ¥ÀmÉïï
(3) n.J¸ï. «dAiÀÄ£ï
(4) AiÀÄÄ.PÉ. ¹£Áí
75. DrnAUï ªÀÄvÀÄÛ CPËAnAUï JgÀqÀÆ DyðPÀ ºÉýPÉUÀ½UÉ ¸ÀªÀħA¢ü¹ªÉ. PɼÀV£ÀzÀgÀ°è AiÀiÁªÀÅzÀÄ ¸Àj?
(1) ¸ÀA¸ÉÜAiÀÄ ¯ÉPÀÌ¥ÀvÀæªÀÅ MzÀV¹zÀ DyðPÀ ªÀiÁ»wAiÀÄ£ÀÄß zÀÈrüÃPÀj¸À®Ä DrnAUï ¥ÀÄgÁªÉAiÀÄ ¹zÁÞAvÀªÀ£ÀÄß G¥ÀAiÉÆÃV¸ÀÄvÀÛzÉ
(2) ¯ÉPÀÌ¥ÀvÀæ C¢üPÁjAiÀÄÄ vÀAiÀiÁgÀÄ ªÀiÁrzÀ DyðPÀ ºÉýPÉUÀ½UÉ DrnAUï ¤¨sÀðgÀvÉ ªÀÄvÀÄÛ UÀÄuÁvÀäPÀ DAiÀiÁªÀÄUÀ¼À£ÀÄß PÉÆqÀÄvÀÛzÉ.
(3) DyðPÀ ºÉýPÉUÀ½UÉ vÀ£Àß C©ü¥ÁæAiÀĪÀ£ÀÄß ¤ÃqÀ®Ä DrlgïUÉ ¯ÉPÀÌ¥ÀvÁæZÁgÀzÀ vÀvÀéUÀ¼ÀÄ ªÀÄvÀÄÛ ¸ÀA¥ÀæzÁAiÀÄUÀ¼À UÀºÀ£ÀªÁzÀ eÁÕ£À«gÀ¨ÉÃPÀÄ
(4) ªÉÄð£À J®èªÀÇ
-
234 (37 – A )
69. Among the following methods, which is not
the non-probability sampling method ?
(1) Convenient sampling
(2) Quota sampling
(3) Judgement sampling
(4) Systematic sampling
70. Which test we normally apply for
qualitative data?
(1) 't' test
(2) T test
(3) 2 Chi-square test
(4) 'V' test
71. NABARD has been established on the
recommendation of
(1) Talwar committee
(2) Tandon committee
(3) Narasimhan committee
(4) Shivaraman committee
72. Retail Banking means
(1) Credit facilities extended to retail traders
(2) Providing personal banking services directly to the consumers
(3) Collection of large number of dividend/interest warrants
(4) All of the above
73. The success of E-banking depends upon
(1) Multi-layer security system
(2) Risk surveillance system
(3) Updated flawless softwares
(4) Stringent legal framework
74. The present chairman of the IRDA is
(1) Ajay Tyagi
(2) Urjit Patel
(3) T.S. Vijayan
(4) U.K Sinha
75. Both auditing and accounting are concerned
with financial statements. Which of the
following is correct?
(1) Auditing uses the theory of evidence
to verify the financial information
made available by Accountancy
(2) Auditing lends credibility dimension
and quality dimension to the financial
statements prepared by the accountant.
(3) Auditor should have thorough
knowledge of accounting concepts and
convention to enable him to express an
opinion on financial statements
(4) All of the above
-
234 (38 – A )
76. __________ PÀA¥É¤AiÀÄ DrlgïUÉ PÀA¥É¤AiÀÄ «zÉòà ±ÁSÉUÀ¼À£ÀÄß ¨sÉÃn ªÀiÁqÀĪÀ ºÀQÌ®è
(1) C¹Ã«ÄvÀ dªÁ¨ÁÝj
(2) vÀAiÀiÁjPÁ
(3) ¨ÁåAQAUï
(4) £Á£ï-¥Áæ¦ümïªÉÄÃQAUï
77. Drmï ¥ÀÄgÁªÉAiÀÄ ¸Àj¥Àr¸ÀÄ«PÉAiÀÄ£ÀÄß ¤zsÀðj¸ÀĪÀ°è PɼÀV£À AiÀiÁªÀÅzÀÄ CvÀåAvÀ ¸ÀjAiÀiÁzÀ CA±ÀªÁVzÉ