Examination Report

December 2004 (0100)

FCEFirst Certificate in English

© UCLES 2005 0100

First Certificate in English Examination Report Syllabus 0100 December 2004 CONTENTS Page Introduction 1 Paper 1 - Reading 3 Paper 2 - Writing 7 Paper 3 - Use of English 13 Paper 4 - Listening 17 Paper 5 - Speaking 23 Feedback Form 30 WEBSITE REFERENCE This report can be accessed through the Cambridge ESOL Website at: www.CambridgeESOL.org

© UCLES 2005 0100 1

INTRODUCTION This report is intended to provide a general view of how candidates performed on each paper in the December 2004 session, and to offer guidance on the preparation of candidates. The overall pass rate for Syllabus 0100 was 74.98%. The following table gives details of the percentage of candidates at each grade.

0100 GRADE PERCENTAGE

A 8.40 B 23.42 C 43.16 D 9.63 E 15.39

• Grading

Grading took place during January 2005 (approximately six weeks after the examination). The five FCE papers total 200 marks, after weighting. Papers 1-5 are each weighted to 40 marks. The candidate’s overall FCE grade is based on the total score gained by the candidate in all five papers. Candidates do not ‘pass’ or ‘fail’ in a particular paper, but rather in the examination as a whole. The overall grades (A, B, C, D and E) are set according to the following information:

• statistics on the candidature • statistics on the overall candidate performance • statistics on individual questions, for those parts of the examination for which this is

appropriate (Papers 1, 3 and 4) • the advice of the Principal Examiners, based on the performance of candidates, and on

the recommendation of examiners where this is relevant (Papers 2 and 5) • comparison with statistics from previous years’ examination performance and

candidature. Results are reported as three passing grades (A, B and C) and two failing grades (D and E). The minimum successful performance which a candidate typically requires in order to achieve a grade C corresponds to about 60% of the total marks. Every candidate is provided with a Statement of Results which includes a graphical display of the candidate’s performance in each component. These are shown against the scale Exceptional – Good – Borderline – Weak and indicate the candidate’s relative performance in each paper. • Special Consideration Special Consideration can be given to candidates affected by adverse circumstances immediately before or during an examination. Examples of acceptable reasons for giving Special Consideration include illness and bereavement. All applications for Special Consideration must be made through the local Centre as soon as possible after the examination affected.

© UCLES 2005 0100 2

• Irregular Conduct The cases of candidates who are suspected of copying, collusion or breaking the examination regulations in some other way will be considered by the Cambridge ESOL Malpractice Committee. Results may be withheld because further investigation is needed or because of infringement of the regulations. • Notification of Results Candidates’ Statements of Results are issued through their local Centre approximately two months after the examination has been taken. Certificates are issued about six weeks after the issue of Statements of Results. Requests for a check on results may be made through the local Centre within one month of the issue of Statements of Results. Cambridge ESOL produces the following documents which may be of use in preparing candidates for FCE: • Regulations (produced annually, for information on dates, etc.) • FCE Handbook (for detailed information on the examination and sample materials) • Examination Report (produced twice a year) • Past Paper Pack (available approximately 10 weeks after each examination session,

including question papers for Papers 1-4, sample Speaking test materials, answer keys, tape/CD, and Paper 2 mark schemes and sample scripts).

Users of this Examination Report may find it useful to refer simultaneously to the relevant Past Paper Pack. This, together with further copies of this report, is available from the Centre through which candidates entered, or can be purchased using the order form on-line at www.CambridgeESOL.org If you do not have access to the Internet, you can obtain an order form from: Cambridge ESOL Information 1 Hills Road Cambridge CB1 2EU United Kingdom Tel: +44 1223 553355

Fax: +44 1223 553068

e-mail: ESOLinfo@ucles.org.uk

website: www.CambridgeESOL.org

Feedback on this report is very welcome and should be sent to the Reports Co-ordinator, Cambridge ESOL, at the above address. Please use the feedback form at the end of this report.

© UCLES 2005 0100 3

PAPER 1 – READING Part Task Type and Focus Number of

Questions Task Format

1 Multiple matching Main focus: main points

7 A text preceded by multiple-matching questions.

Candidates must match prompts to elements in the text.

2 Multiple choice Main focus: detail, opinion, gist, deducing meaning

7 A text followed by four-option multiple-choice questions.

3 Gapped text Main focus: text structure

6 A text from which paragraphs or sentences have been removed and placed in jumbled order after the text. Candidates must decide from where in the text the paragraphs or sentences have been removed.

4 Multiple matching, Multiple choice Main focus: specific information, detail

15 As Part 1.

• Marking Candidates record their answers on a separate answer sheet, which is scanned by computer. Questions in Parts 1, 2 and 3 carry two marks each. Questions in Part 4 carry one mark each. The total score is adjusted to give a mark out of 40. • Candidate Performance In general, candidates coped competently with the four task formats of the paper. Statistical evidence showed that the questions in all four parts provided a reliable assessment of candidates’ relative ability levels. Part 1, Questions 1-7: Funny faces This headings task, focusing on the understanding of the main points in the text, discriminated well between stronger and weaker candidates, with the best performance on Question 4. Candidates matched the heading ‘Increasing popularity’ with Mattie’s statement, ‘It has become a place people love to visit’. Some of the weaker candidates were attracted by option B, ‘Overcoming a setback’, but although there is a notion of improvement in the paragraph, there is no mention of a setback. Question 7 proved the most challenging in the task. Nearly all the stronger candidates chose option H correctly, matching the question ‘Is it worth it?’ with the idea expressed in the paragraph that the eggs are not legal copyright and ‘you can’t stop anyone else using your face or your character’. The weaker candidates were fairly evenly spread over a number of options. Some went for option C, ‘A difference of opinion’. The paragraph suggests that some people do not respect the egg system but not that there is a difference of opinion. Others chose option G, ‘Encouraging the differences’.

© UCLES 2005 0100 4

This was a strange choice as the paragraph shows that Mattie is obviously not in favour of the people who ignore the egg system, as her word ‘unfortunately’ suggests. It is important to stress to candidates that they should be aware of the ‘tone’ of the headings and try to match a positive heading with the positive message conveyed by the paragraph. Nevertheless, this question discriminated well, as did the task as a whole. Part 2, Questions 8-14: Growing up with the violin This four-option multiple-choice task focused on candidates’ detailed comprehension. This was the task on the paper in which candidates performed particularly well, especially on Question 13. Here, most candidates chose option A, correctly deciding that Hahn’s first teacher was honest about her teaching ability because she said, ‘It was time to look for a better-qualified teacher’. Some of the weaker candidates, however, chose options C and D. They may have selected C because they were picking up on Hahn saying she did her first recital at the age of ten. However, there is no mention of the teacher only teaching pupils up to that age. Candidates should be warned not to assume that identical figures, dates, etc. automatically signal the correct answer. They need to check that the information surrounding the figures is correct, too. As far as option D is concerned, there is no mention of Hahn’s disappointment at losing her first teacher in the text. Candidates may have assumed that she would feel like this, perhaps basing this thought on personal experience, but any such assumption must be supported by evidence in the text. The most challenging question proved to be number 10. The majority of the stronger candidates correctly chose option B, matching Hahn’s statement, ‘I know there’s still so much to discover about music in general’ with ‘It’s a continuous learning process’ in the option. A large number of the weaker candidates, however, selected option C. They may have been drawn to the word ‘audience’ in the text. Hahn says she tries to play music ‘in the way I would like to hear it if I were in the audience’, which refers to her playing style rather than the choice of pieces. It is always risky for candidates to pin their choice on matching one word in the text and question. They need to look carefully at the context and the ideas expressed in the text as a whole. Part 3, Questions 15-20: Taking care of bears This gapped-paragraph task, focusing on text structure, proved to be the most difficult task on the paper. Questions 17 and 20 were the most challenging. Most of the stronger candidates correctly chose option A for Question 17. They realised that the paragraph needed to include the ‘warning’ mentioned at the end of the previous paragraph. Option A contains a warning – a mother bear with a cub would chase people if they came too close. Weaker candidates were spread fairly evenly over all the options, possibly because they misunderstood Option A and did not realise it was a warning. In Question 20, candidates needed to connect the idea of situations which are harmful to bears in the preceding paragraph with the situation of traffic jams which ‘is dangerous for the bear’. Nearly all the stronger candidates made this connection, while the weaker candidates went for a variety of options, including option G. This highlights an important issue. Option G begins ‘Perhaps this is what happened when two walkers were injured recently’. ‘This’ needs to refer back to the previous paragraph, but does not sit comfortably with the noun phrase in the previous main clause ‘a project called Living with Wildlife’. However it does fit in gap 19 because it refers back to bears remaining hidden ‘unless their private space is invaded’. Work on referencing skills might help candidates cope better with this type of task and with understanding the structure of texts in general. Question 16 proved to be the easiest question in this task, with all the stronger candidates choosing option F which, incidentally, contains another ‘this’ in the first sentence. Some of the weaker candidates went for options B and C.

© UCLES 2005 0100 5

Part 4, Questions 21-35: My attitude to work This multiple-matching task focused on candidates’ ability to retrieve specific information from the texts. Most candidates performed well on this task. Question 21 was particularly well handled. Candidates matched the phrase ‘I was made redundant’ in text E with the question ‘Which person lost their job?’. Some of the weaker candidates, however, chose option D, possibly because they thought that when Tim says ‘Eventually I resigned’, it means that he lost his job instead of giving it up voluntarily. Question 29 was the most challenging in this task. Candidates needed to match ‘work with people they look up to’ with ‘working with people I liked and admired’ in text B. Many weaker candidates failed to do this and chose A or C instead. In text A, they may have been tempted by the final sentence in which Mary mentions socialising with colleagues because she enjoys their company. This does not express the idea of admiration or respect. A possible reason for candidates choosing text C is that they matched ‘look up to’ in the question with ‘lived up to my expectations’ in the text. Practice with prepositions and common phrasal verbs might help to avoid such errors. Once again, it is worth stressing the risk of matching individual words without checking the context. Candidates were more successful in identifying ‘musicians I had always dreamed of meeting’ in option E as the second answer for Questions 29/30. • RECOMMENDATIONS FOR CANDIDATE PREPARATION Teachers and students should note that no single FCE 1 paper includes all possible tasks or question types. The FCE Handbook lists all the task types which may appear on the paper. In addition to specific examination practice, students should be advised to read as widely as they can, with a range of reading purposes reflecting those sampled in the paper (retrieving relevant information, getting the ‘gist’, understanding detail, etc.). Many of the texts for the Reading paper are drawn from magazines and newspapers, rather than books, and students will benefit from being familiar with these types of text. Specific work on the identification, location and presentation of main ideas would benefit candidates in Parts 1 and 3. Focusing on the sequence of tenses in continuous text and the use of pronouns for referencing would also be beneficial, particularly in Part 3.

© UCLES 2005 0100 6

• DOs and DON’Ts for FCE PAPER 1 READING

DO make sure that you choose the correct option(s) when you find similar information in different sections of the text in Parts 1 and 4.

DO read and re-read your answers in Parts 1 and 3, and be prepared to change

your mind. If you find that none of the choices you have left fits, you may need to think again about the choices you have already made. Always be prepared to go back and check.

DO read through the main text in Part 3 so you have a good idea of what it is

about before you look at the extracts and choose any answers. DO think about the text before and after each gap in Part 3 and try to guess what

is missing. DO pay careful attention to references to places, people and things (pronouns) in

the extracts in Part 3. They must refer correctly to the nouns in the text before and after the gap.

DO fill what you think are the easy gaps first in Part 3, and leave the problem

areas until last. DO read through Part 3 after making your choices to check that everything makes

sense. Check that linking words, tenses and time references all fit with the choices you have made.

DO prepare for the FCE Reading paper by reading as widely as you can in

English, both fiction and non-fiction. DO remember, in your personal reading as well as in the exam, you will not need

to know the exact meaning of every word. Use clues like the title or any pictures to help you understand what a text is about, and then try to read for the main idea. Getting into this habit will help you to read quickly and effectively.

DON’T choose an answer just because you see the same word in the text and in the

question option (‘word-spotting’). In all parts of the paper, seeing the same (or similar) word in both text and question is no guarantee that you have found the correct answer.

DON’T forget that in Part 3, introductory adverbs or phrases in the extracts must be

connected with the ideas which go before the gap (e.g. ‘However’ must be preceded by a contrasting idea; ‘Another mistake we made...’ must be preceded by a previous mistake, etc.).

DON’T forget that, if a Part 2 multiple-choice question is an incomplete sentence, the

whole sentence must match the text, not just the phrase presented as A, B, C or D. The information in these options may be true in itself, but not work with the sentence beginning you are given.

DON’T choose your answers too quickly in Part 3. Only start to look at the extracts

when you have a good idea of what the main text is about.

© UCLES 2005 0100 7

PAPER 2 – WRITING

Part Task Type and Focus Number of Tasks and Length

Task Format

1 Question 1

Writing a transactional letter (formal/informal)

1 compulsory task

120-180 words

Candidates are required to deal with input material of up to 250 words, which may include graphic and pictorial material. Texts may include advertisements, letters, postcards, diaries, short articles, etc.

2

Questions 2-4

Writing one of the following: • an article • a non-transactional

informal letter • a report • a discursive

composition • a descriptive/narrative

short story

4 tasks from which the candidates choose 1

120-180 words

A situationally-based writing task specified in no more than 70 words.

Question 5

Writing a composition, article, report or an informal letter on a prescribed background reading text

Question 5 has 2 options

• Marking

All scripts are marked by experienced examiners, who must attend a training and standardisation day before they commence any marking. Examiners award marks according to a General Mark Scheme, which has detailed Performance Bands from 0-5, where Band 3 describes a ‘satisfactory’ level. Within the bands, examiners place the script more exactly at bottom, mid or top of the band range, e.g. 3·1, 3·2, 3·3. These scores are converted to provide a mark out of 20 for each piece of writing. Examiners also use a Task-specific Mark Scheme for each question. This describes satisfactory Band 3 performance and covers content, organisation, range, register and format, and effect on target reader. Examples of the mark schemes are included in the FCE Past Paper Pack. Examiners work in small teams and are monitored and advised by Team Leaders, who in turn are monitored by the Principal Examiner.

© UCLES 2005 0100 8

• Candidate Performance Part 1, Question 1 For this compulsory question, candidates were asked to write a formal letter to their school principal, giving comments on the previous month’s social programme and making suggestions about future events. Most candidates found the question accessible and engaged well with the task, showing a clear understanding of what was required in terms of content and the need for formal language. They used a range of functions, and were appropriately courteous in commenting positively and negatively on different issues. There were very few examples of complete misinterpretation of task, although a number of candidates failed to register the fact that the task referred to an English language school in Britain, and wrote about their own schools, and cities in their own country. It was clear from the way candidates addressed the points in the task and attempted to link them together with an appropriate range of functions that they were well trained in what was expected. However, teachers should always emphasise very strongly to the candidates that they need to read the task, which means both rubric and input material (in this case the principal’s letter), with great care. Doing this would prevent candidates from misinterpreting the location of the task and also the time reference, which in this task was an important element. The majority of candidates had little difficulty in including all five points in the letter. The strong candidates expanded appropriately on the various points and used a consistently formal register throughout the letter. Weaker candidates occasionally mixed the register of the letter, starting with a formal opening, but finishing with something far too casual. The first point offered candidates good scope for expansion, and most seized the opportunity. Nearly all candidates understood that a positive comment was required, and some good and varied descriptions were given of the city tour and why they enjoyed it. However, a significant number of candidates failed to notice that this point referred to last month, and wrote as if this was a proposed visit for next month. The majority of candidates covered the second point well, realising that a negative comment was required, and in the case of stronger candidates, introducing a good contrast with the first point (e.g. ‘I am afraid that I cannot say the same about the Museum of Modern Art’). Unfortunately, the candidates who failed to notice that the first point referred to last month also misinterpreted the time reference for point 2, and wrote as if the museum visit was a proposal for next month, often suggesting that a more exciting alternative should be chosen, which was not appropriate. For the third point, candidates generally agreed with the change of day (to a Thursday) for the disco, justifying their opinion with plausible reasons such as the fact that they always went away at weekends. Others disagreed with the change, saying that it was a bad idea having a Thursday disco because there were classes next day. In fact, since the prompt simply said ‘give opinion’, almost any view was acceptable, as long as the candidate made it clear which day the disco should be held. However, a few completely misunderstood the point, interpreting it to mean that discos should be introduced as a new social event, with no reference to the day when they would be held. This was not accepted. Most candidates dealt with the fourth point well. Many offered to cook a dish for the International Food Evening, but there were also a wide range of offers to help with the Games Day, including setting up sports matches and organising chess matches. Some candidates interpreted ‘you’ to mean all the students, and suggested what all the students could do, which was accepted. Others agreed to help at both events, or asked the principal to tell them what to do (e.g. ‘Tell me what to do and I will be pleased to do it’), and both these

© UCLES 2005 0100 9

interpretations were accepted. However, candidates who did not make the link with the specific events were not considered to have covered the task satisfactorily. The final point proved very straightforward for most candidates, although there was often little expansion. The most common suggestion was to have a big party, but any other group event was accepted and these included dinners and special day trips. Part 2 The most popular task was Question 4, the informal letter, chosen by just under 59% of candidates. Question 2, the composition, was answered by 31% of candidates and Question 3, the article, was chosen by around 7% of candidates. A minimal number of candidates (about 1%) responded to Question 5, the set text question. Question 2 Candidates who answered this question well often drew on personal experience or plans. Stronger candidates organised their compositions well, demonstrating a range of structure and vocabulary, and reached a clear conclusion in their final paragraph. Weaker candidates tended to produce rather repetitive answers, with phrases from the title used a number of times, and linking words and phrases used inappropriately. On the whole, answers were very satisfactory, and the task was directly addressed. Question 3 The article question was less popular than the composition or letter tasks, but there were some very good answers. Some candidates demonstrated an excellent grasp of article style, selecting an eye-catching title and attempting to engage the reader, often using ‘a sales pitch’ to entice the reader to visit the shop described. Most answers described a single shop, as intended, but a few answers which described a chain of shops, or type of shop were accepted. However, those articles which described in general terms how a shop could become successful without reference to a specific example were penalised. Question 4 Candidates obviously liked the central topic of the informal letter, and most addressed the task well, writing about all kinds of cinema work from selling tickets and popcorn to doing market research and projecting the films. However, those candidates who failed to describe the work and wrote only about the social side and watching free films did not address the task adequately and were penalised. There was a clearly-defined task in this question, and candidates needed to read it very carefully to see what was required. This would have prevented other misinterpretations, such as writing about a theatre or film studio, or an ongoing permanent job rather than a temporary summer one. Questions 5a and 5b The small number of candidates who answered these questions were well prepared, and clearly knew the book they had chosen well. They addressed the questions directly, rather than attempting simply to retell the story. The most popular book for candidates attempting Question 5a was Pride and Prejudice, which provided ample scope for describing relationships. Candidates attempting Question 5b mostly selected Round the World in Eighty Days.

© UCLES 2005 0100 10

• RECOMMENDATIONS FOR CANDIDATE PREPARATION As always stated in these reports, candidates must read each question carefully and carry out what is required, including all the necessary points and keeping to the task set. Information about the target reader and the reason for writing is given in each question to help the candidate, and this should be borne in mind during classroom preparation. Working with past papers in pairs or groups, where students spend time identifying the reader, the text type, and the important content points, is very useful in planning what to write. It is often very instructive for students to work on a second draft of a homework answer. In this way, the teacher, or fellow students, can make useful suggestions regarding organisation, language, and content omissions. The second draft can then be compared to the first; an activity which is not only instructive regarding weaknesses, but also builds confidence. Students should be encouraged to experiment with a wider range of language in the second draft, for example replacing any repeated words with near synonyms. Candidates who use a variety of adjectives rather than repeating the word ‘nice’ several times will usually score a higher mark. Classroom brainstorming of relevant adjectives and verbs with similar meanings can be useful preparation immediately prior to a homework assignment. Part 1 In this type of task especially, students need to consider the ‘bigger picture’ of why they are writing, and be sensitive to the type of scenario described and whether a formal or informal register is required. They should also be prepared to express their ideas using a range of functions within each letter, such as expressing enthusiasm, suggesting, giving information and opinions, offering, etc. Students should be encouraged to make a plan before they start writing, and should then think carefully about how to organise their ideas and what they can say on each point. It is good to explain to students how a content point can be developed, perhaps by the use of obviously contrasting sample answers, where one is only minimally expanded and the other includes good development. In class, paired discussion can often lead to more ideas for expansion. Where candidates expand the points, they generally score higher marks. Students should also be encouraged to make sensible use of paragraphing and use a variety of linkers. This is another reason for developing a plan prior to writing. In class, students could be given a text without paragraphs and asked to suggest paragraphs for it, or add appropriate linkers to it. They also need to be taught which linking words and phrases are appropriate to formal and informal letters; many errors identified by markers involved the incorrect use of linking words and phrases. Finally, students should be aware of the need to write in a consistent register throughout the letter, using formal or informal language, as appropriate. Part 2 Students may be unfamiliar with composition as a type of writing, and may need to be shown examples written in a suitable style. Work can be done in class on how to organise and present an argument, and on the kind of linkers which are appropriate to introducing opinions and ideas and drawing conclusions in this context.

© UCLES 2005 0100 11

The special style and layout used in articles, which usually have catchy titles, rhetorical questions and a lively tone, can be taught in class with the help of real material (coursebooks usually contain examples of them). The register of articles is generally less formal than that of compositions, and it is worth exploring in class colourful adjectives, adverbs and expressions that can be used in this kind of task. Many students are clearly at ease with the tone and register of informal letters, and the openings and endings appropriate to them. It is also important to point out to them that they must maintain an informal tone throughout the letter, and that care should be taken not to use inappropriately formal phrases and links. There is usually a clear central topic to an informal letter, and teachers should remind their students to look carefully at the task, rather than just writing a letter full of personal news and views. There are many ways to incorporate a set text into classroom work, and parts of it can be assigned for homework. Students will benefit from reading on their own, both in terms of new vocabulary and the reinforcement of structures already learnt. Early examination in class of past papers will allow students to practise questions regularly, in relation to different parts of the book.

© UCLES 2005 0100 12

• DOs and DON’Ts for FCE PAPER 2 WRITING

DO read the whole question thoroughly and highlight or underline important parts. DO make a plan for each answer, including ALL the points. DO expand the points in Part 1 if you can, using relevant ideas and information. DO write in paragraphs, whenever appropriate. DO use a range of vocabulary, even if you are unsure of the correct spelling. DO check tense endings, plural forms and word order in sentences. DO check irregular past tenses and question formation. DO use language that is appropriately formal or informal for the task. DO choose a Part 2 question that you feel confident you can write about. DO write clearly, so that the examiner can read your answer. DON’T misspell key words which appear on the question paper. DON’T ‘lift’ too much language from the question paper. DON’T mix formal and informal language. DON’T use formal linkers in an informal letter. DON’T waste time writing addresses for a letter, as they are not required. DON’T answer Question 5 if you haven’t read one of the books. DON’T worry if you run slightly over the 180-word limit.

© UCLES 2005 0100 13

PAPER 3 – USE OF ENGLISH Part Task Type and Focus Number of

Questions Task Format

1 Multiple-choice cloze Focus: Vocabulary

15 A modified cloze text containing 15 gaps and followed by 15 four-option multiple-choice questions.

2 Open cloze Focus: Grammar and vocabulary

15 A modified cloze text containing 15 gaps.

3 ‘Key’ word transformations Focus: Grammar and vocabulary

10 Discrete questions with a lead-in sentence and a gapped response to complete using a given word.

4 Error correction Focus: Grammar

15 A text containing errors. Some lines of the text are correct. Other lines contain an extra and unnecessary word which must be identified.

5 Word formation Focus: Vocabulary

10 A text containing 10 gaps. Each gap corresponds to a word. The ‘stems’ of the missing words are given beside the text and must be transformed to provide the missing word.

• Marking Candidates write their answers on a separate answer sheet, which is marked according to a mark scheme and then scanned by computer. Questions 1-30 and 41-65 carry one mark each. Questions 31-40 are marked on a scale 0-1-2. The total score is adjusted to give a mark out of 40. • Candidate Performance Part 1, Questions 1-15: The Spirit of Adventure

Multiple-choice Cloze Candidates performed well on this part of the paper, especially on Questions 3, 9 and 12, which were all testing fairly common fixed language at phrasal level. The majority of questions tested language at sentence level; candidates coped well with these questions too, showing their ability to consider and appreciate the whole text. Candidates had most difficulty with Questions 5 and 14, somewhat surprisingly in the case of Question 5, as the phrasal verb ‘set out’ reflects its most common use. In Question 5, option C (‘set up’) was very attractive to weaker candidates, while in Question 14 a significant proportion of candidates chose option A (‘search’). One other question produced a common wrong

© UCLES 2005 0100 14

answer – a fairly high percentage of candidates went for option A (‘points’) in Question 13. Strong candidates were able to make the connection back to the three goals in the previous sentence which ‘these’ refers to. Part 2, Questions 16-30: The First English Dictionaries

Open Cloze Candidates found the first two questions (16 and 17) challenging, but went on to perform very well on Part 2. Interestingly, Questions 16 and 17 both tested prepositions as part of longer fixed phrases. Question 16 saw a significant number of candidates put ‘from’, while ‘by’ was a common wrong answer for Question 17. Question 19 was well answered, but some candidates continue to misspell the word as ‘wich’. The rest of the text posed few problems to candidates, with Questions 21, 22, 23, 24, 26 and 28 producing a high percentage of correct answers. Among these, candidates coped particularly well with questions testing tenses and verb forms. To do this task well, they must be able to follow clearly the line of argument in the text as it develops through the sentences. It is pleasing, therefore, that candidates were able to engage with the meaning of the whole text. Candidates performed least well on Question 27, where weaker candidates tended to write ‘that’. Other common wrong answers included ‘from’ in Question 20, ‘of’ in Question 22, ‘In’ in Question 25, while the last question produced considerable variation in responses from weaker candidates. ‘First’ was an interesting answer, but is, of course, wrong as it does not fit with the verb ‘remained’. Part 3, Questions 31-40

‘Key’ Word Transformations Candidates performed very consistently on this part of the paper, both with the more grammatical and the more lexical questions. In Question 31, a considerable proportion of candidates were successful with the first half of the answer, but failed to spot the need for the following infinitive, putting prepositions such as ‘about’ instead. Question 33 saw another common error: omission of the word ‘it’ from the answer. In Question 34, some candidates needlessly lost marks for misspelling the given prompt word: ‘wheter’ being the most common of these spelling errors. Other candidates failed to adjust the tense of the verb in reported speech, putting ‘had’ instead of ‘had had’ in their answer. Question 35 was another in which candidates tended to perform less well on the second half of the answer – a relatively common error was to substitute other words for ‘fault’, such as ‘responsibility’, ‘problem’ and ‘blame’. Often such lexical substitutions can be made in Part 3, but with this question they change the meaning of the first sentence. With Question 37, a significant number of candidates added an extra ‘as’ to the answer – this is not needed, as the second ‘as’ appears after the gap. Another common wrong answer was ‘much’ instead of ‘many’. Part 4, Questions 41-55: My Homestay Family

Error Correction Candidates coped very well with this task; Questions 47, 49 and 50, in particular, were answered correctly by a very high proportion of candidates. As with Part 3, performance was highly consistent, with no question giving candidates particular problems. This was pleasing given that the task required careful reading – with questions such as 46 and 48 it is important to remember that one is looking for extra words. It may look like a word is actually missing (‘We play a tennis match’; ‘I can manage to help’), but this is not the testing focus. Some interesting observations can be made from candidates’ wrong answers. In Question 41, weaker candidates put ‘welcome’ as the extra word, failing to spot that the verb ‘waiting’

© UCLES 2005 0100 15

requires the preposition ‘for’. With Question 44, some weaker candidates did not read ahead to the time reference ‘last week’, and therefore thought that the line was correct. With Question 45, many of the weaker candidates did not know the polite expression ‘is good enough to’, and with Question 54 did not recognise ‘as’ in the sense of ‘because’. Part 5, Questions 56-65: Keeping Well

Word Formation This part of the paper was also well answered. In spite of a large number of different misspellings from weaker candidates, Question 58 proved particularly straightforward, as did Question 56, although here a significant number of weaker candidates put ‘limitated’. Of course, spelling must be correct here, as in all parts of the paper. Thus candidates who wrote ‘healty’ for Question 60 and ‘encouragment’ for Question 62 could not be awarded a mark. Spelling was also an issue with Questions 61 and 63, which tested the ‘-ful’ suffix in different parts of speech. Common misspellings were ‘helpfull’ and ‘carefuly’, respectively. Two questions, 60 and 65, tested negative prefixes. Such questions can prove challenging as they require a particularly careful reading of the text in order to pick up the negative context. Both questions were well answered, although weaker candidates had more difficulty in spotting the negative context provided by ‘avoid’ in Question 60. A very small minority of candidates mistakenly treated the task as a gapfill exercise, attempting to place the words in bold in the correct gap. • RECOMMENDATIONS FOR CANDIDATE PREPARATION In all the text-based parts of the paper, candidates should attempt as far as possible to engage with the whole text. The choice of correct answer often depends upon understanding of the surrounding context. Weaker candidates can focus so hard on individual items of language that they overlook the clues which a reading of the whole text would give them. As a result they come up with something which does not make sense in the context. In Part 3, candidates sometimes lose marks for ‘over-transforming’ – that is, they change elements from the lead-in sentence needlessly and make mistakes in doing so. Alternatively, they introduce new ideas and write a new sentence that is too far in meaning from the lead-in sentence. In view of this, the best way for candidates to approach this part is always to get as close to the meaning of the lead-in sentence as possible. The task is simply to rewrite the lead-in sentence using different words. In Part 3, candidates should be discouraged from adding any comments or alternate answers, even if these are put in brackets. Candidates who do so run the risk of producing more than five words in their response, and losing marks unnecessarily. This administration of the exam has produced comments on the poor quality of some students’ handwriting, including the scripts of strong candidates. Candidates should not underestimate the importance of this aspect of their work. Illegible answers cannot be marked correctly.

© UCLES 2005 0100 16

• DOs and DON’Ts for FCE PAPER 3 USE OF ENGLISH

DO use a pencil to write your answers on the answer sheet. DO make sure in all parts that you put your answer by the correct number on your

answer sheet.

DO be careful to spell the prompt word correctly in your answer for Part 3. DO read the lines in Part 4 carefully; sometimes a missing word may make

another word wrong. DO make sure that an answer in Part 5 is based on the word at the end of the

same line. DON’T use a pen to write your answers on the answer sheet. DON’T decide on an answer without reading the whole of a sentence. DON’T write more than five words in your answer in Part 3. DON’T leave blanks in Part 4 when you think a line is correct. Put a tick (√). DON’T leave the word which is in capitals in Part 5 unchanged.

© UCLES 2005 0100 17

PAPER 4 – LISTENING

Part Task Type and Focus Number of Questions

Task Format

1 Multiple choice

Understanding gist, main points, detail, function, location, roles and relationships, mood, attitude, intention, feeling or opinion

8 A series of short unrelated extracts, of approximately 30 seconds each, from monologues or exchanges between interacting speakers. The multiple-choice questions have three options.

2 Sentence completion, note completion or blank filling

Understanding gist, main points, detail or specific information, or deducing meaning

10 A monologue or text involving interacting speakers and lasting approximately 3 minutes.

3 Multiple matching

As for Part 1

5 A series of short related extracts, of approximately 30 seconds each, from monologues or exchanges between interacting speakers. The multiple-matching questions require selection of the correct option from a list of 6.

4

Selection from 2 or 3 possible answers

As for Part 2

7 A monologue or text involving interacting speakers and lasting approximately 3 minutes. The questions require candidates to select between 2 or 3 possible answers, e.g. true/false; yes/no; three-option multiple-choice; which speaker said what, etc.

• Marking Candidates write their answers on a separate answer sheet, which is marked according to a detailed mark scheme and then scanned by computer. Each question carries one mark. The total score is adjusted to give a mark out of 40. For security reasons, more than one version of the Paper 4 Listening test is made available at each session. As with all other FCE papers, rigorous checks are built into the question paper production process to ensure that all versions of the test are of comparable content and difficulty. In addition, for Paper 4, the marks are adjusted to ensure that there is no advantage or disadvantage to candidates taking one particular version. All texts and tasks were representative of what can be expected in future versions of the paper. In Part 4, three-way matching tasks and two-option tasks, as outlined in the FCE Handbook, may appear in future versions.

© UCLES 2005 0100 18

• Candidate Performance Candidates performed well on all versions of the paper. In each version, no one part was significantly more difficult overall than another. This report is based on results from candidates who took version B of the Listening test. Part 1, Questions 1-8 The eight short listening texts in Part 1 provide a range of text types and voices as well as a range of focuses across the eight questions. Candidates found these questions fairly accessible; they are intended to provide a gentle lead-in to the test, although some did prove more challenging than others. The majority of candidates tackled the first question well, and Questions 6 and 7 were very well tackled by most candidates. The most challenging questions in this part of the test were Questions 2, 5 and 8. Question 2 was based on a radio phone-in programme about a new traffic scheme. Many of the weaker candidates chose option A, presumably making a false connection between the man’s comment about ‘callers moaning’ and the option ‘to complain about the traffic scheme’. However, the man goes on to comment on the details of the scheme to remark ‘and it’s working’. The correct option B, ‘to express his support for the traffic scheme’ is further underlined by his comment when he says, ‘I recommend everyone to have a walk in the city centre and see for themselves’. Stronger candidates who had waited to hear everything the man said before deciding on an option, performed very well. Question 5 was the most challenging question in Part 1. Many of the weaker candidates opted for B, as did some of the stronger candidates. Those who made the wrong choice overlooked the force of the man's comment ‘much to my relief’. This made it clear that he was bored by his father's insistence on climbing (option A), and was relieved to have the opportunity to go rowing when the weather prevented them from climbing. Question 7 was particularly well done by most candidates. Although some of the weaker candidates were tempted by option C, presumably by the man’s reference to ‘a flat’, and option B, by hearing mention of ‘Australia’, the majority of candidates understood the man’s reference to his ‘personal experience of having to find somewhere to live’ and chose the correct option, A. Part 2, Questions 9-18 This was a sentence-completion task based on a talk by a man who makes small models of buildings. Candidates sometimes perceive Part 2 as being the most difficult section of the test, but their performance does not necessarily support this view. Certainly, there was a range of performances, but overall candidates coped very well with both the topic and tasks, with stronger candidates performing consistently better than weaker candidates. Of the ten questions, only two questions, 11 and 15, caused any problems. Question 11 required an answer in the plural as this is what was heard on the recording. Despite the fact that the misspellings ‘photoes’, ‘fotos’ and ‘fotographs’ were accepted, some candidates still lost the mark by writing ‘photo’ in the singular; so by overlooking ‘some’ in the question prompt, they failed to fit their answer into the context. Question 15 attracted a large number of incorrect answers from weaker candidates. In talking about Marney House, the speaker says, ‘…I had to reduce the original to a model of

© UCLES 2005 0100 19

just one hundred and forty centimetres high, which is seventy-six times smaller than the real building…’. Some candidates who had heard the figure correctly forfeited the mark by writing ‘metres’. This suggests carelessness given the fact that the topic is about making models of buildings, and candidates have the opportunity to check their answers during a second listening. As this is the only productive part of the test, it is worth noting the comments made in the Co-ordinating Examiner’s report about candidates’ handwriting. Poor handwriting in writing the vowels ‘a’, ‘e’ and ‘o’ and the consonants ‘r’, ‘n’ and ‘m’ can affect a candidate’s performance, especially, if the letter ‘a’ resembles the letter ‘o’. Candidates who fare best in this regard are those who either write neatly and unambiguously, or who print their answers in capitals. Question 13 required the answer ‘Japan / Canada’ (in either order), so candidates could jeopardise their mark in such a question by not forming the letters clearly. Part 3, Questions 19-23 This was a multiple-matching task based on five short texts in which five different people talk about hotels they have recently stayed in with their children. The topic and the texts were credible, and results suggest that candidates were able to relate to them without much difficulty. Part 3 proved the easiest part of the test. The most noticeable feature of candidates’ performance in this part of the test is the contrast between the performance of stronger candidates and that of the weaker ones. In the case of the former, from the first question onwards there is virtually no distraction towards ‘wrong’ options, whereas weaker candidates were consistently attracted to a spread of options in each question. The most challenging question, Question 19, reveals that weaker candidates were attracted to all the ‘wrong’ options, but most notably option B. It is possible that these candidates did not correctly hear ‘inexpensive’ and so opted for B, ‘The hotel was quite expensive’ by relying on a wordspot. Consequently, the speaker’s next comment, ‘They provided an early supper if you told them in good time…’ was overlooked, as was the correct option D, ‘The hotel needed to know if you wanted your children to eat early’. Question 21 proved the easiest question. Strong candidates understood the speaker’s comment, ‘But if you wanted to swim, you had to go to the local leisure centre…’ and correctly chose option E, ‘There was no swimming pool available in the hotel’. Weaker candidates appeared to be tempted by hearing the word ‘playground’ and matched it with ‘playground’ in option C. It is essential that candidates make effective use of the second listening in all the tasks, but especially so in this task. If they make the wrong choice in the first question, they also lose the potential use of that option in another question. In extreme cases, a couple of incorrect choices can produce a domino effect and result in five wrong answers. Part 4, Questions 24-30 This was a three-way multiple-choice task based on a girl talking at a public meeting about a plan to create a nature reserve in the centre of a large city. The task was generally successfully attempted, and only two questions stand out from the others as worthy of comment: Question 26, because it was so well answered – few candidates had any problems – and Question 27 for the opposite reason. However, all the questions showed once again the contrast in performance between the weaker and the stronger candidates, especially Questions 27 and 30. Question 27 asked what the girl says about the problems created by trees. The girl talks about the various problems but concludes by saying, ‘…we think these problems are not as

© UCLES 2005 0100 20

serious as they are made out to be, and there’s no need for all this destruction’. Candidates needed to process this information in order to select the correct option, A, ‘People exaggerate them’. Candidates possibly did not listen to her summary comment, and were distracted by the various reasons she mentions for cutting down trees. Question 30 relied on candidates understanding that the nature reserve should ‘go back to its natural condition’ so the correct option was C, ‘to let it go wild’. This part of the test includes questions which focus on understanding the expression of feelings rather than facts, and candidates need to be prepared to listen for a speaker’s attitude or point of view. • RECOMMENDATIONS FOR CANDIDATE PREPARATION The Listening test is based on recorded material taken from various authentic contexts and is designed to test a range of listening skills. The test lasts about 40 minutes and contains 30 questions. There are four parts to the test, and a range of text and task types is represented. All instructions, rubrics, repeats and pauses are included on the recording, as is the copying time at the end. Candidates record their answers in one of two ways: in Parts 1, 3 and 4, candidates must choose the appropriate answer from those provided and mark or write the appropriate letter (A, B, C etc.) on their answer sheet. No part of the wording of the chosen option should be copied onto the answer sheet. In Part 2, candidates must write a word, a number or a short phrase in response to a written prompt, and only the candidate’s answer should be copied onto the answer sheet. Part 1 This part of the paper is designed to enable candidates to settle into the Listening test in a relatively gentle way. Unlike the other parts of the paper, they both hear and read the questions. Candidates should be encouraged to use the information contained in the contextualising rubric for each question to help them focus on what they are about to hear and what they are listening for. Some texts may target points of detail in the question, others call for elements of gist understanding. Speakers’ attitudes, opinions or feelings may also be tested, or the focus may be on the topic, function or main point of what the speakers say. Candidates should listen carefully when the text is repeated, particularly when an option seems to be obviously correct, and is supported by an individual word or phrase used in the text. Careful listening to the surrounding text may reveal shades of meaning not appreciated at first. Additionally, teachers should give students plenty of practice in dealing with the range of text types and focuses, so that candidates are prepared for the varying character and pace of texts in Part 1. Part 2 In Part 2, candidates are required to produce written answers in response to various types of prompt. The task consists of 10 gaps in either a set of notes or a set of sentences. Texts may be either monologues or dialogues and a contextualising rubric sets the scene in terms of speaker(s), topic and context. Candidates should be reminded that questions are chronological, following the order of the information in the text. Adequate time is given for candidates to read the task before they hear the recording, and they should use this time to think about the type of information which is missing.

© UCLES 2005 0100 21

In preparing for this part of the test, candidates should be encouraged to practise writing the short answers which are required in a productive task. It is vital that candidates’ handwriting is legible, especially when writing vowels such as ‘a’ and ‘o’ which can be easily confused. It is also important that great care is taken to ensure that an answer fits and makes sense with what comes before and, if relevant, after the gap, and does not repeat information already included in the question stem. Most answers will be a single word, a number or a very short phrase, and candidates should be warned that writing unnecessarily wordy answers will almost certainly lose them marks. It is very unlikely that any answer will need more than four words and more often than not, questions can be answered using fewer. Where keys focus on numerical information, this may be written in number form and need not be written out in words. Candidates are not expected to rephrase what they hear and should therefore focus on writing down the key information as it is heard in the text. They are not asked to reformulate language in note form in note-completion tasks, or to make grammatical transformations from text to task in sentence-completion tasks. Some minor spelling mistakes are accepted if the meaning of the word is not changed, but the words and phrases tested are limited to those which candidates can reasonably be expected to spell correctly at this level. Whatever the task type (sentence completion or note completion), the keys usually focus on concrete items of information such as ‘detective’, ‘windows’ and ‘paper’ in Test B, for example. Both British and American spellings are accepted. Part 3 In Part 3, the focus is on gist listening skills. Candidates listen to five short texts on a topic which is indicated in the contextualising rubric, and the task is multiple matching. Candidates should be encouraged to think carefully about the context and should use the preparation time to read the options; this will help them to know what it is they are listening for. In Test B, for example, the task focused on the speakers’ opinion of hotels they had stayed at. Candidates should be encouraged to listen for the meaning of the whole text, and to focus on identifying each speaker’s opinion, which is expressed in the options listed. Candidates should be advised to make good use of the repetition of the texts, even if they have answered every question on the first listening. They may find that they need to change more than one answer if they discover a mistake, because one incorrect answer may have a knock-on effect on the other questions. Part 4 Candidates should be prepared to encounter any of the following task types: 3-option multiple choice, 3-way matching and 2-option tasks (TRUE/FALSE, YES/NO), as any of them could appear in any version. They should know that with all the task types, adequate time is given for them to read the questions before they hear the recording. In the multiple-choice task, candidates are given one minute to read through the questions. As in Part 2, the questions follow the order of the text. Each question focuses on one part of the text, and will generally test understanding of that whole section rather than isolated words and phrases. The questions may test points of detail, gist meaning and the understanding of opinions, feelings and attitudes. Candidates should be reminded that all three options in multiple-choice questions will include ideas and information from the text, but only one (the key) will combine with the question prompt to reflect the exact meaning expressed in the text.

© UCLES 2005 0100 22

• DOs and DON’Ts for FCE PAPER 4 LISTENING

DO listen to and read the rubric. Make sure you understand what you are listening for and what you have to do.

DO use the time allowed before hearing each recording to read through all the

questions carefully, so you are prepared for what you hear. DO use the information on the question paper to help you follow the listening text. DO look carefully at what is printed before and after the gap in Part 2 and think

about the kind of information that you are listening for. Write only the missing information on the answer sheet.

DO write your answers as clearly as possible in Part 2; if in doubt, use capital

letters. DO check that your idea of what the correct answer is when you first hear the

recording is confirmed when you hear it for the second time. DO remember that any wrong answer you discover in Part 3 when hearing the

recording for a second time may affect your other answers. DO concentrate on understanding in as much depth as possible what speakers

say, especially in Parts 1, 3 and 4; don’t be distracted by individual words and phrases.

DO answer all the questions – even if you’re not sure; you’ve probably understood

more than you think. DO make sure that you copy your answers accurately onto the answer sheet. DON’T rephrase what you hear in Part 2; do write down the figure(s) or word(s) that

you hear spoken. DON’T complicate an answer in Part 2 by writing extra, irrelevant information. DON’T spend too much time on a question you are having difficulty with, as you may

miss the next question.

© UCLES 2005 0100 23

PAPER 5 – SPEAKING

Part Task Type and Focus Length of Parts Task Format 1 Short exchanges between

each candidate and the Interlocutor

Giving personal information; socialising

3 minutes The Interlocutor encourages the candidates to give information about themselves.

2

Long turn from each candidate, with a brief response from the other candidate

Exchanging personal and factual information; expressing attitudes and opinions; employing discourse functions related to managing a long turn

4 minutes The candidates are in turn given visual prompts (two colour photographs) which they each talk about for approximately 1 minute. They are also asked to comment briefly on each other’s photographs.

3 Candidates talk with one another

Exchanging information, expressing attitudes and opinions

3 minutes The candidates are given visual prompts (photographs, line drawings, diagrams, etc.) which generate discussion through engagement in tasks such as planning, problem solving, decision making, prioritising, speculating, etc.

4 Candidates talk with one another and the Interlocutor

Exchanging and justifying opinions

4 minutes The Interlocutor encourages a discussion of matters related to the theme of Part 3.

• Marking The Speaking tests are conducted by trained examiners, who attend annual co-ordination sessions to ensure that standards are maintained. The Assessor awards marks to each candidate for performance throughout the test according to the four Analytical Criteria (Grammar and Vocabulary, Discourse Management, Pronunciation and Interactive Communication). The Interlocutor awards marks according to the Global Achievement Scale, which assesses the candidates’ overall effectiveness in tackling the tasks. These scores are converted by computer to provide a mark out of 40. • Candidate Performance Candidate performance in this administration was consistent with that of June 2004 and historical norms. Feedback from Oral Examiners has been very positive and students, as always, were well prepared for this paper. Candidates who performed less well were those who did not listen carefully to the instructions, did not respond fully to questions asked, or

© UCLES 2005 0100 24

who dominated the interaction. To perform well, a candidate should answer the task set and therefore should not be afraid to ask for repetition of instructions before embarking on the task. Candidates should be made aware that asking for the instructions to be repeated will not affect their marks in any way, whereas redirection by the examiner once the task has begun may affect their performance. Part 1 This part of the test focuses on areas which deal directly with the candidates’ personal experience (e.g. work and education, leisure activities, travel and holidays, etc.). It gives the examiners their first impression of the candidates and it is therefore important that the candidates speak naturally and with appropriate detail. One-word responses are inadequate and will affect the score for Interactive Communication. Candidates should also be advised not to prepare long responses to questions they feel they may be asked as this often means that they do not answer appropriately. This tactic does not lead to effective Interactive Communication, and is noticed by examiners. Candidates who have not met prior to the test should not feel concerned, as feedback from examiners indicates that this does not affect performance in this or any other part of the test. Part 2 The tendency in this part of the test is for weaker candidates to focus on the pictures without listening carefully to the task set by the examiner. Simply describing the two pictures often results in the candidate producing a limited range of grammar and vocabulary, and is unlikely to provide enough to talk about for a full minute. Candidates will always be asked to compare, contrast ‘and say... (something specific about the photographs)...’. They should listen very carefully for the ‘and say...’ so that they complete the task and are able to continue for the full minute, using a range of language appropriate to this level. Candidates should not feel concerned if the examiner interrupts as this simply means that they have talked for the allotted time. It is important for candidates to start talking as soon as they can in order to make full use of their long turn. Comments on Released Test Materials Making Films As can be seen in the sample paper, the first picture shows deep sea divers filming sharks, and the second, a film being shot in an open air theatre. Candidates were asked to compare and contrast the pictures and say what they thought the films were about. A strong candidate will have used the pictures to answer the task along the following lines: ‘In the first picture I can see some people – they’re wearing diving suits and they are swimming underneath some sharks. They have cameras with them and they’re taking pictures of the sharks. The situation looks very dangerous and I wouldn’t like to be in that position. Maybe the people are making a documentary about wildlife to show on the television. It’s important for people to do this, so we can all find out about the world we live in. The second picture seems to be a theatre because I can see a place for the audience to sit – but there aren’t any people sitting there. I can also see something that looks like a stage, but it’s outside and next to the sea which seems very strange to me. Some people are taking pictures, but this time of a woman who’s wearing old fashioned clothes, so I think they’re making a film about the old days – maybe the story of this woman’s life – but I don’t really know. She’s standing on a rock very high up and in a very dangerous position and I wouldn’t like to do that either.’ Although on the surface the task seems quite challenging – asking candidates to speculate – at this level, candidates are not expected to go beyond very mild speculation from what can actually be seen in the pictures. It should also be noted that candidates were not expected

© UCLES 2005 0100 25

to come up with lexis above the level, for example naming the diving equipment. Tasks are not designed to test specific items of vocabulary; candidates should not simply tell the examiner that they don’t know certain words, but should employ tactics such as paraphrasing in order to complete the task. In fact, responses which were restricted to a description merely of what candidates could see in each picture were inadequate. Candidates who did this tended to have problems completing their long turn or ran into difficulties with lexis. Outdoor Parties Candidates were given pictures of people having parties in the open air in different circumstances. Again, candidates were not only expected to describe the two photographs, but to say what they thought were the advantages and disadvantages of having parties outside. Candidates who performed well produced answers along the following lines: ‘In the first picture we can see some people having lunch together. They’re older people and they are sitting at a table to eat. They are dressed up and look very smart and they must be disappointed because the party isn’t going very well because of the weather. It’s raining and they are trying to eat lunch under their umbrellas. This doesn’t look like good fun but they don’t look too sad about it and I think they have decided that the weather is not going to spoil their party. So in this picture, we see the big disadvantage of having parties outside – it can always rain and you never know what the weather will be like. The second picture shows a group of young people enjoying spending time together. It’s sunset and the people have lit a fire and they’re sitting on the beach talking together. I would like to be in this place – it looks really wonderful. This picture shows how lovely it can be to have a party outside. You can sit by the sea and look at the beautiful view and have plenty of space for your party. It’s very relaxing to have a party in a place like this and it looks much nicer than a party inside.’ Again, candidates who failed to move beyond a description of the two photographs performed less well. Part 3 The aim of this part of the test is for candidates to discuss the task outlined by the examiner as fully as possible, and to work towards a negotiated outcome in the time available. In this part of the test, candidates are always invited to do two things. They are required to respond to and give their views on a range of visual prompts, then to come to a negotiated decision. The wording of the rubric is: ‘First talk to each other about….. . Then decide….. .’ Candidates, presented with the visual stimulus, sometimes fail to hear the first part of the instructions, which is in fact the bulk of the task. Candidates who performed less well were therefore those who made their decisions very early on in the interaction, without first considering and discussing as fully as possible the range of suggestions presented to them and, as a result, ran out of things to say. Candidates should listen carefully for the words, ‘First talk to each other about...’ and to internalise the task set. As already mentioned in the section on candidate performance, candidates should be made aware that they will not lose marks if they need to ask the examiner to repeat the rubric. To perform well in this part of the test, candidates should be able to take a full and active part in the interaction, making use of the range of visual prompts available, expressing their own views clearly, listening to their partner and developing their partner’s comments. However, candidates should be aware of the importance of inviting their partner to respond, ensuring that both candidates take an equal part in the development of the interaction. Candidates are expected to negotiate an outcome and should not be concerned if they do not agree. Disagreeing in a friendly way can be an effective part of Interactive Communication. However, strong disagreement can undermine their partner’s confidence and an overbearing

© UCLES 2005 0100 26

candidate may lose marks. Candidates should make full use of the time available, starting promptly and finishing only when the examiner interjects. They should not feel concerned if they are asked to stop as this will simply mean that they have talked for the allotted time. Comments on Released Test Materials Community Event This task proved popular and candidates generally found plenty to say. The task required candidates to imagine that some new houses had been built and the people living in the houses wanted to get to know each other, so were organising a special event. Candidates were given seven pictures showing the possible events: an outdoor concert, a barbecue, decorating a wall together, a day trip by coach, a street party, a volleyball tournament and gardening together. Candidates were asked to talk about how these different ideas would help people to get to know each other, then had to decide which idea would be most successful. As in other tasks, some candidates were tempted to start with the second part of the task, e.g. ‘I think the street party is the best idea because...’. Candidates who did this often performed less well because they came to their final decision without having fully explored the alternatives. Candidates should not have felt concerned if they were unable to make use of the full range of visual prompts but they should have managed to discuss several pictures before making their decision. Candidates should discuss the different ideas offered as fully as possible in the available time and come to a negotiated decision towards the end of their three minutes, rather than making a decision at the outset, which may lead to them running out of things to say. In this case, candidates should have discussed each picture together saying how the different events would encourage people to get to know each other. For example, with the open air concert, candidates could have commented on the fact that a concert would encourage people to come and sit outside together but it might not be a very good idea because the people would have to sit and listen to the music and wouldn’t get the chance to talk to each other. Then, having discussed why each of the alternatives might be a good or bad idea, candidates should have attempted to come to a negotiated decision as to which of the ideas would be most successful. Candidates were not penalised if they ran out of time and failed to come to a final decision. Part 4 In this part of the test, candidates are given a further opportunity to demonstrate their language ability by engaging in a three-way discussion with their partner and the examiner. It also provides an opportunity for examiners to redress any imbalances in turn-taking that may have occurred in other parts of the test. It is therefore vital that candidates offer more than a minimal response and take the opportunity to initiate discussion as well as answer the examiner’s questions. Strong candidates were able to develop and illustrate the topic by giving their opinions and talking about the reasons behind them, thus demonstrating a range of vocabulary. Comments on Released Test Materials Candidates generally performed well and spoke fully on the task ‘Community Event’. They were able to discuss which events they thought would be most difficult to organise and whether people in their countries organised activities like those illustrated. They were also able to talk about the sort of jobs people do in their area. Candidates were then asked to speak more generally about the best way to get to know people, how they would improve the area where they lived and whether they thought it was better to live in an old or a new house. They found it harder to talk about whether or not they thought it was easier for children to make new friends than adults, and sometimes had less to say about this question.

© UCLES 2005 0100 27

Candidates should be reminded that there is no right or wrong answer and that they are being marked on the language they use, not on how well they justify their opinions. Candidates sometimes feel that the questions sound as if they merit a more sophisticated response than they feel able to give and are therefore reluctant to respond. They should be encouraged that this is not the case and that their contribution will be appropriate if it provides an appropriate response to the question asked. Candidates will find however, that there are certain questions that they are less familiar with or have not considered before, and these questions are likely to result in shorter answers. This is natural in any interaction and will not be penalised. Candidates should therefore try not to be thrown by an unfamiliar question but should give a short confident response and give fuller responses to other questions asked. • RECOMMENDATIONS FOR CANDIDATE PREPARATION Candidates are expected to take a full and active part in the test. It is important, therefore, that candidates seek as many opportunities to practise their spoken English as possible, inside and outside the classroom. ‘Exam training’ can help with nervousness, and candidates certainly benefit from being familiar with the different parts of the test, but this is no substitute for a genuine interest in the language. Candidates who put themselves in a position where they need to use English on a regular basis are likely to perform well. Part 1 For this part of the test, candidates will benefit from finding opportunities to practise talking about themselves (their likes and dislikes, personal/educational history, present circumstances, plans and hopes for the future, etc.). Part 2 Candidates can improve their performance in this part of the test by choosing pairs of thematically-linked photographs, practising comparing and contrasting them, and going on to talk about the theme in a more general way. Candidates should time themselves to check that they are able to keep going for a full minute. Without practice, candidates may find it difficult to speak for a full minute in the test. Candidates should attempt photographs with which they may be less familiar, and try to talk for a minute on a question related to the photographs. For example, in the 2004 materials there was a task entitled ‘Round the table’ where candidates were asked to compare and contrast a picture showing business people sitting round a table for a meeting, with one of young children sitting round a table to eat. They were asked to talk about why they thought the different groups of people were spending time together. Although candidates will probably not have compared and contrasted pictures like these when practising for the test, they should not be put off by this but should address the task set, in this case, talking about the differences between spending time together for reasons of work and spending free time together for enjoyment. As mentioned earlier, candidates are not expected to know lexis beyond the level of FCE, in this case vocabulary related to the business world, but need to learn strategies for coping when items of vocabulary are unknown. Part 3 The best preparation for this part of the test is for candidates to practise taking part in discussions in small groups, so that all candidates have the opportunity to take the floor. Candidates with a quieter disposition should be encouraged to develop strategies to ensure

© UCLES 2005 0100 28

they are able to take their turn. Stronger candidates should be encouraged to invite opinions from others. Suitable thematic areas for discussion can be found in FCE coursebooks and should relate to the candidate’s own experience rather than more abstract concepts (see the FCE Handbook for a list of topic areas). Part 4 As in Part 3, candidates will benefit from being given as many opportunities as possible to give their opinions on a range of issues, and to expand on their views while inviting opinions from others and responding to them. As with the more challenging questions in the task ‘Community Event’, candidates need to learn to respond confidently, even if answers are short, and should be discouraged from making responses such as ‘I don’t know’, ‘I’m not sure’ or ‘I haven’t thought about that’.

© UCLES 2005 0100 29

• DOs and DON’Ts FOR PAPER 5 SPEAKING

DO familiarise yourself with the focus, function and procedures of all parts of the test.

DO take every opportunity to practise your English in groups and pairs both inside

and outside the classroom before the test. DO listen carefully to instructions given and questions asked throughout the test

and focus your answers appropriately. DO ask for repetition of instructions if you are unclear about what you should do. DO speak clearly so that both the Assessor and the Interlocutor can hear you. DO make sure that you talk about the additional ‘and say...’ task in Part 2, when

comparing and contrasting the photographs. DO respond to your partner’s contributions and invite your partner to contribute in

Parts 3 and 4. DO make use of opportunities to speak in all parts of the test and give extended

contributions where you can. DON’T prepare long responses in advance. You are unlikely to answer questions

appropriately. DON’T try to give your views during your partner’s long turn. DON’T try to dominate your partner or to interrupt him or her in an abrupt way. DON’T make frequent pauses and hesitations during the interaction or during your

own turn. DON’T worry if you disagree with your partner in Parts 3 and 4. As long as you are

polite and not overbearing, this is all part of interactive communication. DON’T worry about being interrupted by the examiner. For administrative reasons, it

is important that tests do not overrun.

© UCLES 2005 0100 30

FEEDBACK FORM FCE Examination Report December 2004 – 0100 We are interested in hearing your views on how useful this report has been. We would be most grateful if you could briefly answer the following questions and return a photocopy of this page to the following address: University of Cambridge ESOL Examinations Reports Co-ordinator 1 Hills Road Cambridge CB1 2EU Fax: +44 1223 460278 1. Please describe your situation: (e.g. EFL/ESOL teacher, Director of Studies, Examinations Officer, Local Secretary, etc.) 2. Have you prepared candidates for FCE? YES/NO 3. Do you plan to prepare candidates for FCE in the future? YES/NO 4. How have you used this report? (e.g. to provide feedback to other teachers, for examination practice, etc.) 5. Which parts of this report did you find most useful? 6. Which parts are not so useful? 7. What extra information would you like to see included in this report? 8. Your name (optional) ......................................................................... Centre/School ...................................................................................

Thank you.

University of CambridgeESOL Examinations1 Hills RoadCambridgeCB1 2EUUnited Kingdom

Tel. +44 1223 553355Fax. +44 1223 460278e-mail ESOL@ucles.org.uk

www.CambridgeESOL.org

© UCLES 2005 EM

C/2

999/

5Y05