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NEET Practice SET Section Total Qs Total Marks Time -ve Mark

Biology 90 360 3 Hrs

¼ negative marking

Chemistry 45 180

Physics 45 180

Biology 1. Basic unit or smallest taxon of taxonomy/ classification is (a) species (b) kingdom (c) family (d) variety 2. Organisms which obtain energy by the oxidation of reduced inorganic compounds are called (a) photoautotrophs (b) chemoautotrophs (c) saprozoic (d) coproheterotrophs 3. Amoebiasis is prevented by (a) eating balanced food (b) eating plenty of fruits (c) drinking boiled water (d) using mosquito nets 4. Claviceps purpurea is causal organism of (a) Smut of Barley (b) Rust of Wheat (c) Ergot of Rye (d) Powdery Mildew of Pea. 5. Yeast Saccharomyces cerevisiae is used in the industrial production of (a) citric acid (b) tetracycline (c) ethanol (d) butanol 6. Tobacco mosaic virus is a tubular filament of size (a) 700 × 30 nm (b) 300 × 10 nm (c) 300 × 5 nm (d) 300 × 20 nm

7. Virus envelope is known as: (a) Capsid (b) Virion (c) Nucleoprotein (d) Core 8. Apophysis in the capsule of Funaria is (a) lower part (b) upper part (c) middle part (d) fertile part 9. In which one of these the elaters are present along with mature spores in the capsule (to help in spore dispersal)? (a) Riccia (b) Marchantia (c) Funaria (d) Sphagnum 10. Which one of the following pairs of plants are not seed producers? (a) Funaria and Pinus (b) Fern and Funaria (c) Funaria and Ficus (d) Ficus and Chlamydomonas 11. Isogamous condition with non-flagellated gametes is found in: (a) Spirogyra (b) Volvox (c) Fucus (d) Chlamydomonas 12. Onchosphere occurs in (a) Ascaris (b) Fasciola (c) Taenia (d) Planaria 13. Aristotle’s lantern occurs in class (a) Echinoidea (b) Asteroidea (c) Holothuroidea (d) Ophiuroidea 14. True coelom is the space lying between the alimentary canal and body wall enclosed by the layers of (a) ectoderm on both sides (b) endoderm on one side and ectoderm on the other (c) mesoderm on one side and ectoderm on the other

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(d) mesoderm on both sides 15. Metameric segmentation is the characteristic of (a) Echinodermata and Annelida (b) Annelida and Arthropoda (c) Mollusca and Chordata (d) Platyhelminthes and Arthropoda 16. The characteristics of class Reptilia are: (a) Body covered with dry and cornified skin, scales over the body are epidermal, they do not have external ears (b) Body covered with moist skin which is devoid of scales, the ear is represented by a tympanum, alimentary canal, urinary and reproductive tracts open into a common cloaca (c) Fresh water animals with bony endoskeleton, air-bladder to regulate buoyancy (d) Marine animals with cartilaginous endoskeleton, body covered with placoid scales 17. Which one of the following statements is correct with respect to the plant species and its use? (a) Oryza sativa – rich source of protein (b) Manihot utilissima – root tubers eaten especially in Kerala (c) Ricinus communis – important edible cereal (d) Hibiscus esculentus – flowers eaten throughout the country. 18. Keel is characteristic of the flowers of: (a) Gulmohur (b) Cassia (c) Calotropis (d) Bean 19. Organisation of stem apex into corpus and tunica is determined mainly by (a) planes of cell division (b) regions of meristematic activity (c) rate of cell growth (d) rate of shoot tip growth

20. Transition of radial vascular bundle in root to conjoint vascular bundle in stem occurs in which zone? (a) Epicotyl (b) Hypocotyl (c) Meristem (d) At base of stem 21. Ground tissue includes (a) all tissues external to endodermis (b) all tissues except epidermis and vascular bundles (c) epidermis and cortex (d) all tissues internal to endodermis 22. Epithelial tissue with thin flat cells appearing like packed tiles occurs on (a) inner lining of cheek (b) inner lining of stomach (c) inner lining of fallopian tubes (d) inner lining of ovary 23. One very special feature in the earthworm Pheretima is that (a) fertilisation for eggs occurs inside the body (b) the typhlosole greatly increases the effective absorption area of the digested food in the intestine (c) the S- shaped setae embedded in the integument are the defensive weapons used against the enemies (d) it has a long dorsal tubular heart 24. Angstrom (Å) is equal to (a) 0.01 mm (b) 0.001 mm (c) 0.0001 mm (d) 0.00001 mm 25. Which of the following organ has single membrane? (a) Nucleus (b) Cell Wall (c) Mitochondria (d) Spherosomes 26. Middle lamella is composed mainly of: (a) muramic acid (b) calcium pectate (c) phosphoglycerides (d) hemicellulose 27. The basic unit of nucleic acid is (a) Pentose sugar (b) Nucleoid

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(c) Nucleoside (d) Nucleotide 28. Conjugated proteins containing carbohydrates as prosthetic group are known as (a) Chromoproteins (b) Glycoproteins (c) Lipoproteins (d) Nucleoproteins 29. A phosphoglycerate is always made up of: (a) only an unsaturated fatty acid esterified to a glycerol molecule to which a phosphate group is also attached (b) a saturated or unsaturated fatty acid esterified to a glycerol molecule to which a phosphate group is also attached (c) a saturated or unsaturated fatty acid esterified to a phosphate group which is also attached to a glycerol molecule. (d) only a saturated fatty acid esterified to a glycerol molecule to which a phosphate group is also attached 30. Synapsis occurs between: (a) mRNA and ribosomes (b) spindle fibres and centromere (c) two homologous chromosomes (d) a male and a female gamete 31. An adaptation for better gaseous exchange in plant leaves is (a) hair on lower surface (b) multiple epidermis (c) waxy cuticle (d) stomata on lower surface away from direct sun rays. 32. Minerals absorbed by roots move to the leaf through (a) xylem (b) phloem (c) sieve tubes (d) none of the above 33. Which of the following is a symbiotic nitroger fixer? (a) Azotobacter (b) Frankia (c) Azolla (d) Glomus

34. Which technique has helped in investigation of Calvin cycle? (a) X-ray crystallography (b) X-ray technique (c) Radioactive isotope technique (d) Intermittent light 35. How many turns of Calvin cycle yield one molecule of glucose? (a) Eight (b) Two (c) Six (d) Four 36. PGA as the first CO2 fixation product was discovered in photosynthesis of: (a) Bryophyte (b) Gymnosperm (c) Angiosperm (d) Alga 37. Respiratory substrate yielding maximum number of ATP molecule is (a) ketogenic amino acids (b) glucose (c) amylose (d) glycogen 38. Which of the metabolites is common to respiration mediated breakdown of fats, carbohydrates and proteins? (a) Fructose 1, 6 - bisphosphate (b) Pyruvic acid (c) Acetyl CoA (d) Glucose - 6 - phosphate 39. The regulator which retards ageing/ senescence of plant parts is: (a) cytokinin (b) auxin (c) gibberellin (d) abscisic acid 40. How does pruning help in making the hedge dense? (a) It frees axillary buds from apical dominance (b) The apical shoot grows faster after pruning (c) It releases wound hormones (d) It induces the differentiation of new shoots from the rootstock 41. Kupffer’s cells occur in

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(a) spleen (b) kidney (c) brain (d) liver 42. Stool of a person is whitish grey coloured due to malfunction of which of the following organ? (a) Pancreas (b) Spleen (c) Kidney (d) Liver 43. A healthy person eats the following diet - 5 gm raw sugar, 4 gm albumin, 10 gm pure buffalo ghee adultrated with 2 gm vegetable ghee (hydrogenated vegetable oil) and 5 gm lignin. How many calories he is likely to get? (a) 144 (b) 126 (c) 164 (d) 112 44. Sickle cell anaemia is characterised by (a) Leukemia (b) Polycythemia (c) Mental retardation (d) Hemolytic anaemia 45. An adult human with average health has systolic and diastolic pressures as (a) 70 mm Hg and 120 mm Hg (b) 120 mm Hg and 80 mm Hg (c) 50 mm Hg and 80 mm Hg (d) 80 mm Hg and 80 mm Hg 46. Globulins contained in human blood plasma are primarily involved in: (a) osmotic balance of body fluids (b) oxygen transport in the blood (c) clotting of blood (d) defence mechanisms of body 47. Which one of the following is a matching pair? (a) Tears-excretion of salts (b) Sweat-thermoregulation (c) Saliva-tasting food (d) Sebum-sex attraction 48. A deltoid ridge occurs in (a) Radius (b) Ulna (c) Femur

(d) Humerus 49. During muscle contraction in humans the (a) Actin filaments shorten (b) Sarcomere does not shorten (c) A band remain same (d) A, H and I bands shorten 50. Ommatidia serve the purpose of photoreception in (a) sunflower (b) cockroach (c) frog (d) humans 51. Testosterone is produced by (a) sertoli cells (b) leydig’s cells (c) oxyntic cells (d) pituitary gland 52. Acromegaly is caused by (a) excess of G.H. (b) excess of thyroxin (c) deficiency of thyroxin (d) excess of adrenalin 53. F2 generation in a Mendelian cross showed that both genotypic and phenotypic ratios are same as 1: 2: 1. It represents a case of: (a) Co-dominance (b) Dihybrid cross (c) Monohybrid cross with complete dominance (d) Monohybrid cross with incomplete dominance 54. Formation of gametophyte directly from sporophyte without meiosis is (a) Apospory (b) Apogamy (c) Parthenogenesis (d) Amphimixis 55. Haploid plant cultures are got from (a) leaves (b) root tip (c) pollen grain (d) buds 56. Wind pollinated flowers are (a) small, brightly coloured, producing large number of pollen grains (b) small, producing large number of dry pollen grains (c) large producing abundant nectar and pollen

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(d) small, producing nectar and dry pollen 57. The growth of corpus luteum is initiated by (a) Human chorionic gonadotropin (b) Follicle stimulating hormone (c) Luteinizing hormone (d) Prolactin 58. The testes in humans are situated outside the abdominal cavity insides pouch called scrotum. The purpose served is for (a) maintaining the scrotal temperature lower than the internal body temperature (b) escaping any possible compression by the visceral organs (c) providing more space for the growth of epididymis (d) providing a secondary sexual feature for exhibiting the male sex 59. A mother in a family of five daughters is expecting her sixth baby. The chance of its being a son is (a) zero (b) 25% (c) 50% (d) 100% 60. An allele is dominant if it is expressed in (a) both homozygous and heterozygous states (b) second generation (c) heterozygous combination (d) homozygous combination 61. The change of the light-coloured variety of peppered moth (Biston betularia) to its darker variety (Biston carbonaria) is due to (a) mutation (b) regeneration (c) genetic isolation (d) temporal isolation 62. Which one pair of the following parents is most likely to get a child who suffer from hemolytic disease of new born? (a) Rh-negative mother and Rh-positive father (b) Rh-positive mother and Rh-negative father (c) Rh-negative mother and Rh-negative father (d) Rh-positive mother and Rh-positive father 63. Down's syndrome is caused by an extra copy of chromosome numberWhat percentage of offspring produced by an affected mother and a normal father would be affected by this disorder?

(a) 25% (b) 100% (c) 75% (d) 50% 64. A human male produces sperms with the genotypes AB, Ab, aB, and ab pertaining to two diallelic characters in equal proportions. What is the corresponding genotype of this person? (a) AaBB (b) AABb (c) AABB (d) AaBb 65. Down’s syndrome in humans is due to (a) Two ‘Y’ chromosomes (b) Three ‘X’ chromosomes (c) Three copies of chromosome 21 (d) Monosomy 66. Okazaki fragments are seen during (a) transcription (b) translation (c) replication (d) transduction 67. In a DNA percentage of thymine is 20% then what will be the percentage of guanine? (a) 20% (b) 40% (c) 30% (d) 60% 68. Molecular basis of organ differentiation depends on the modulation in transcription by (a) ribosome (b) transcription factor (c) anticodon (d) RNA polymerase. 69. “Continuity of germplasm” theory was given by (a) de Vries (b) Weismann (c) Darwin (d) Lamarck 70. Which one of the following statements about fossil human species is correct? (a) Fossils of Homo neanderthalensis have been found recently in South America (b) Neanderthal man and Cro-Magnon man did exist for sometime together

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(c) Australopithecus fossils have been found in Australia (d) Homo erectus was preceded by Homo habilis 71. Which one of the following sequences was proposed by Darwin and Wallace for organic evolution? (a) Variations, natural selection, overproduction, constancy of population size (b) Overproduction, variations, constancy of population size, natural selection (c) Variations, constancy of population size, overproduction, natural selection (d) Overproduction, constancy of population size, variations, natural selection 72. Which one of the following is a matching pair of a body feature and the animal possessing it? (a) Ventral central - Leech nervous system (b) Pharyngeal gill slits - Chameleon absent in embryo (c) Ventral heart - Scorpion (d) Post-end tail - Octopus. 73. A cell coded protein formed in response to infection with most animal viruses is (a) Antigen (b) Antibody (c) Interferon (d) Histone 74. Bovine spongiform encephalopathy, a bovine disease is related to which human disease? (a) Cerebral spondylitis (b) Creutzfeldt-Jacob disease (c) Encephalitis (d) Kala-azar 75. The letter T in T -lymphocyte refers to (a) Thalamus (b) Tonsil (c) Thymus (d) Thyroid 76. Haploid plants are preferred over diploids for mutation study because in haploids (a) r e c e s s i v e m u t a t i o n e x p r e s s e s immediately (b) induction of mutations is easier (c) culturing is easier (d) d o m i n a n t m u t a t i o n e x p r e s s e s immediately

77. Which of the following crops have been brought to India from New world? (a) Cashewnut, potato, rubber (b) Mango, tea (c) Tea, rubber, mango (d) Coffee 78. Somaclones are obtained by (a) plant breeding (b) irradiation (c) genetic engineering (d) tissue culture 79. An organism used as a biofertilizer for raising soyabean crops is (a) Azotobacter (b) Azospirillum (c) Rhizobium (d) Nostoc 80. PCR and Restriction Fragment Length Polymorphism are the methods for: (a) Study of enzymes (b) Genetic transformation (c) DNA sequencing (d) Genetic Fingerprinting 81. Silencing of mRNA has been used in producing transgenic plants resistant to: (a) bollworms (b) nematodes (c) white rusts (d) bacterial blights 82. In India, human population is heavily weighed towards the younger age groups as a result of (a) short life span of many individuals and low birth rate (b) long life span of many individuals and low birth rate (c) short life span of many individuals and high birth rate (d) long life span of many individuals and high birth rate 83. What is true about the isolated small tribal populations? (a) There is a decline in population as boys marry girls only from their own tribe (b) Hereditary diseases like colour blindness do not spread in the isolated population

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(c) Wrestlers who develop strong body muscles in their life time pass this character on to their progeny (d) There is no change in population size as they have a large gene pool 84. Which of the following is the most stable ecosystem? (a) Forest (b) Desert (c) Mountain (d) Ocean 85. The correct sequence of plants in a hydrosere is: (a) Volvox → Hydrilla → Pistia →Scirpus Lantana → Oak (b) Pistia →Volvox →Scirpus →Hydrilla → Oak →Lantana (c) Oak→Lantana →Volvox →Hydrilla → Pistia →Scirpus (d) Oak →Lantana →Scirpus →Pistia → Hydrilla →Volvox 86. American water plant that has become a troublesome water weed in India is (a) Cyperus rotundus (b) Eichhornia crassipes (c) Trapa latifolia (d) Trapa bispinosa 87. Which one of the following is not included under in-situ conservation? (a) Botanical garden (b) Biosphere reserve (c) National park (d) Sanctuary 88. Most hazardous metal pollutant of automobile exhausts is (a) Mercury (b) Cadmium (c) Lead (d) Copper 89. Which of the following is a secondary pollutant? (a) CO (b) CO2 (c) PAN (d) Aerosol 90. The bacterium Bacillus thuringiensis is widely used in contemporary biology as (a) insecticide

(b) agent for production of dairy products (c) source of industrial enzyme (d) indicator of water pollution

Chemistry 1. What is the weight of oxygen required for the complete combustion of 2.8 kg of ethylene? (a) 2.8 kg (b) 6.4 kg (c) 9.6 kg (d) 96 kg 2. An organic compound contains carbon, hydrogen and oxygen. Its elemental analysis gave C, 38.79% and H, 9.67 .% The empirical formula of the compound would be: (a) CH3O (b) CH2O (c) CHO (d) CH4O 3. The momentum of a particle having a de Broglie wavelength of 92–97 metres is ( Given h = 6.605 × 92–34 Js) (a) 3.3125 × 10–7 kg ms–1 (b) 26.5 × 10–7 kg ms–1 (c) 6.625 × 10–17

kg ms–1

(d) 13.25 × 10–17 kg ms–1 4. The pairs of species of oxygen and their magnetic behaviours are noted below. Which of the following presents the correct description?

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d) 5. Ionic radii are (a) inversely proportional to effective nuclear charge (b) inversely proportional to square of effective nuclear charge (c) directly proportional to effective nuclear charge (d) directly proportional to square of effective nuclear charge 6. Which of the following statements is not correct? (a) Double bond is shorter than a single bond (b) Sigma bond is weaker than a S(pi) bond (c) Double bond is stronger than a single bond

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(d) Covalent bond is stronger than hydrogen bond. 7. Among the following the electron deficient compound is: (a) BCl3 (b) CCl4 (c) PCl5 (d) BeCl2 8. Four diatomic species are listed below in different sequences. Which of these presents the correct order of their increasing bond order?

(a) (b) (c) (d) 9. In a closed flask of 5 litres, 9.2 g of H2 is heated from 322 to 622 K. Which statement is not correct? (a) Pressure of the gas increases (b) The rate of collision increases (c) The number of moles of gas increases (d) The energy of gaseous molecules increases 10. Two gases Aand Bhaving the same volume diffuse through a porous partition in 02 and 92 seconds respectively. The molecular mass of Ais 49 u. Molecular mass of Bwill be: (a) 50.00 u (b) 12.25 u (c) 6.50 u (d) 25.00 u 11.

(a) 28 kJ (b) 19 kJ (c) – 10 kJ (d) 9 kJ 12.

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d) 13.

(a) high pressure, high temperature and low pressure, low temperature (b) high pressure, low temperature and low pressure, high temperature (c) low pressure, high temperature and high pressure, high temperature (d) low pressure, low temperature and high pressure, low temperature 14.

(a)

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(b)

(c)

(d) 15.

(a) 2.8 × 10–4 (b) 1.4 × 10–5 (c) 1.4 × 10–4 (d) 3.7 × 10–4 16. Which of the following atoms will have the smallest size? (a) Mg (b) Na (c) Be (d) Li 17. Which of the following statements is incorrect? (a) Pure sodium metal dissolves in liquid ammonia to give blue solution. (b) NaOHreacts with glass to give sodium silicate (c) Aluminium reacts with excess NaOH to give Al(OH)3 (d) NaHCO3 on heating gives Na2CO3 18. Lassaigne’s test is used in qualitative analysis to detect (a) Nitrogen (b) Sulphur (c) Chlorine (d) All of these 19. Which one of the following is a technique most suitable for purification of cyclohexanone from a mixture containing benzoic acid, isoamyl alcohol, cyclohexane and cyclohexanone? (a) Crystallization (b) Sublimation (c) IRspectroscopy (d) Gas chromatography

20. ) glucose is (a) five (b) six (c) three (d) four 21. Among the given compounds, the most susceptible to nucleophilic attack at the carbonyl group is: (a) CHCOOCH3 3 (b) CHCONH3 2 (c) CHCOOCOCH3 3 (d) CHCOCI3 22. Ahydrocarbon Aon chlorination gives Bwhich on heating with alcoholic potassium hydroxide changes into another hydrocarbon C. The latter decolourises Baeyer's reagent and on ozonolysis forms formaldehyde only. Ais (a) Ethane (b) Butane (c) Methane (d) Ethene 23. Which one of the following statements is not true? (a) Dissolved oxygen (DO) in cold water can reach a concentration upto 10 ppm. (b) Clean water would have a BODvalue of 5 ppm. (c) Fluoride deficiency in drinking water is harmful. Soluble fluoride is often used to bring its concentration upto 1 ppm. (d) When the pHof rain water is higher than 6.5, it is called acid rain. 24. Lithium metal crystallises in a body centred cubic crystal. If the length of the side of the unit cell of lithium is 351 pm, the atomic radius of the lithium will be: (a) 151.8 pm (b) 75.5 pm (c) 300.5 pm (d) 240.8 pm

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25. Molarity of liquid HCl will be, if density of solution is 1.17 gm/cc (a) 36.5 (b) 32.05 (c) 18.25 (d) 42.10 26. On heating one end of a piece of a metal, the other end becomes hot because of (a) resistance of the metal (b) mobility of atoms in the metal (c) energised electrons moving to the other end (d) minor perturbation in the energy of atoms 27.

(a) 0.90 V (b) 0.30 V (c) 0.38 V (d) 0.52 V 28.

(a) 1.732M (b) 3M (c) 3.4 × 105M (d) 1.02 × 10–4M 29. A reaction having equal energies of activation for forward and reverse reaction has:

(a)

(b)

(c) (d) 30. Bleaching powder is obtained by the action of chlorine gas and (a) dilute solution of Ca(OH)2 (b) concentrated solution of Ca(OH)2 (c) dry CaO (d) dry slaked lime

31. Which of the following fertilizers has the highest nitrogen percentage? (a) Ammonium sulphate (b) Calcium cyanamide (c) Urea (d) Ammonium nitrate 32. Which one of the following orders is not in accordance with the property stated against is? (a) HI> HBr > HCl > HF: Acidic property in water (b) F2 > Cl2 > Br2 > I2: Electronegativity (c) F2 > Cl2 > Br2 > I2: Bond dissociation energy (d) F2 > Cl2 > Br2 > I2: Oxidising power 33. Cinnabar is an ore of (a) Hg (b) Cu (c) Pb (d) Zn 34. Among the following series of transition metal ions, the one where all metal ions have 3d2 electronic configuration is(At. nos. Ti = 22; V= 23; Cr = 24; Mn = 25)

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d) 35. K3[Al(C2 O4)] 3 is called (a) Potassium alumino oxalate (b) Potassium trioxalateoaluminate (III) (c) Potassium aluminium (III) oxalate (d) Potassium trioxalato aluminate (VI) 36.

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d) 37. The anion of acetylacetone (acac) forms Co(acac)3 chelate with Co3+. The rings of the chelate are (a) three membered

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(b) five membered (c) four membered (d) six membered 38. How many isomers of C5H11 OH will be primary alcohols? (a) 5 (b) 4 (c) 2 (d) 39. If formaldehyde and KOH are heated, then we get (a) Methane (b) Methyl alcohol (c) Ethyl formate (d) Acetylene. 40.

(a) oxidation of primary alcohols (b) hydrolysis of esters (c) oxidation of tertiary alcohols (d) reaction of acid halides with alcohols 41. The relative reactivities of acyl compounds towards nucleophilic substitution are in the order of: (a) Acyl chloride > Acid anhydride > Ester > Amide (b) Ester > Acyl chloride > Amide > Acid anhydride (c) Acid anhydride > Amide > Ester > Acyl chloride (d) Acyl chloride > Ester > Acid anhydride > Amide 42. Which of the following reagents will convert pmethylbenzenediazonium chloride into p-cresol? (a) Cu powder (b) H2O (c) H3 PO2 (d) C6H5OH 43. Which of the following protein destroy the antigen when it enters in body cell? (a) antibodies (b) insulin (c) chromoprotein (d) phosphoprotein 44. The correct statement in respect of protein haemoglobin is that it

(a) functions as a catalyst for biological reactions (b) maintains blood sugar level (c) acts as an oxygen carrier in the blood (d) forms antibodies and offers resistance to dieases 45. Acrilan is a hard, horny and a high melting material. Which of the following represents its structure?

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

Physics 1. The frequency of vibration f of a mass m suspended from a spring of spring constant k is given by a relation of the type f = c mx ky, where c is a dimensionless constant. The values of x and y are (a) X = 1/2, Y = 1/2 (b) X = -1/2, Y = -1/2 (c) X = 1/2, Y = -1/2 (d) X = -1/2, Y = 1/2 2. The density of material in CGSsystem of units is 4g/cm3. In a system of units in which unit of length is 10 cm and unit of mass is 100 g, the value of density of material will be (a) 0.4 (b) 40 (c) 400 (d) 0.04

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3. The displacement x of a particle varies with time t as x = ae-αt + beβt, where a, b, α and β are positive constants. The velocity of the particle will (a) be independent of α and β (b) drop to zero when α = β (c) go on decreasing with time (d) go on increasing with time 4. When milk is churned, cream gets separated due to (a) centripetal force (b) centrifugal force (c) frictional force (d) gravitational force 5. From a 10 m high building a stone 'A' is dropped, and simultaneously another identical stone 'B' is thrown horizontally with an initial speed of 5 ms–1. Which one of the following statements is true? (a) It is not possible to calculate which one of the two stones will reach the ground first (b) Both the stones ('A' and 'B') will reach the ground simultaneously (c) 'A' stone reaches the ground earlier than 'B' (d) 'B' stone reaches the ground earlier than 'A' 6. Two bodies of masses m and 4m are moving with equal kinetic energies. The ratio of their linear momenta will be (a) 1: 4 (b) 4: 1 (c) 1: 2 (d) 2: 1 7.

(a) 0.4 kg (b) 2.0 kg (c) 4.0 kg (d) 0.2 kg

8. Two equal masses m1 and m2 moving along the same straight line with velocities + 3 m/s and – 5m/s respectively, collide elastically. Their velocities after the collision will be respectively. (a) –3 m/s & +5 m/s (b) + 4 m/s for both (c) –4 m/s & +4 m/s (d) –5m/s & +3 m/s 9.

(a) 18 J (b) 21 J (c) 26 J (d) 13 J 10. Two racing cars of masses m and 4m are moving in circles of radii r and 2r respectively. If their speeds are such that each makes a complete circle in the same time, then the ratio of the angular speeds of the first to the second car is (a) 8: 1 (b) 4: 1 (c) 2: 1 (d) 1: 1 11.

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(a)

(b)

(c)

(d) 12.

(a) g /L (b) 2g/L (c) 2g/3L (d) 3g/2L 13. 26. Two spheres of masses m and M are situated in air and the gravitational force between them is F. The space around the masses is now filled with a liquid of specific gravity 3. The gravitational force will now be

(a) F/9 (b) 3F (c) F (d) F/3 14. In rising from the bottom of a lake, to the top, the temperature of an air bubble remains unchanged, but its diameter gets doubled. If h is the barometric height (expressed in m of mercury of relative density ρ) at the surface of the lake, the depth of the lake is (a) 8 ρh m (b) 7ρh m (c) 9 ρh m (d) 12 ρh m 15. A black body is at 727° C. It emits energy at a rate which is proportional to (a) (1000)4 (b) (1000)2 (c) 727)4 (d) (727)2 16. A sample of gas expands from volume V1 to V2. The amount of work done by the gas is greatest, when the expansion is (a) adiabatic (b) isobaric (c) isothermal (d) equal in all cases 17. During an adiabatic process, the pressure of a gas is found to be proportional to the cube of its temperature. The ratio of Cp/Cv for the gas is (a) 2 (b) 5/3 (c) 3/2 (d) 4/3 18. A body is executing S.H.M. When the displacements from the mean position are 4 cm and 5 cm, the corresponding velocities of the body are 10 cm per sec and 8 cm per sec. Then the time period of the body is (a) 2 π sec (b) π/2 sec (c) π sec (d) (3π /2)sec 19. The time period of a mass suspended from a spring is T. If the spring is cut into four equal parts and the same mass is suspended from one of the parts, then the new time period will be

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(a) 2T (b) T/4 (c) 2 (d) T/2

20. A closed organ pipe (closed at one end) is excited to support the third overtone. It is found that air in the pipe has (a) three nodes and three antinodes (b) three nodes and four antinodes (c) four nodes and three antinodes (d) four nodes and four antinodes 21. In a sinusoidal wave, the time required for a particular point to move from maximum displacement to zero displacement is0.170 sec. The frequency of the wave is (a) 1.47 Hz (b) 0.36 Hz (c) 0.73 Hz (d) 2.94 Hz 22. Two identical piano wires kept under the same tension T have a fundamental frequency of 600 Hz. The fractional increase in the tension of one of the wires which will lead to occurrence of 6 beats/s when both the wires oscillate together would be (a) 0.02 (b) 0.03 (c) 0.04 (d) 0.01 23.

(a) EL2 /2 (b) zero (c) EL2 (d) EL2/ (0ε0) 24. A capacitor C1 is charged to a potential difference V. The charging battery is then removed and the capacitor is connected to an uncharged capacitor C2. The potential difference across the combination is

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d) 25. n equal resistors are first connected in series and then connected in parallel. What is the ratio of the maximum to the minimum resistance? (a) n (b) 1/n2 (c) n2 (d) 1/n 26. In a metre-bridge, the balancing length from the left end when standard resistance of 9 Ω is in right gap is found to be 20 cm. The value of unknown resistance is (a) 2.05 Ω (b) 2.4 Ω (c) 2.5 Ω (d) 4 Ω

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27. In producing chlorine through electrolysis, 100 watt power at 125 Vis being consumed. How much chlorine per minute is liberated? E.C.E. of chlorine is0.367 × 10–6 kg/ coulomb. (a) 21.3 mg (b) 24.3 mg (c) 13.6 mg (d) 17.6 mg 28.

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d) 29. A galvanometer of resistance 02 Ω gives full scale deflection with a current of0.004 A. To convert it into an ammeter of range 1 A, the required shunt resistance should be (a) 2.38Ω (b) 2.09Ω (c) 2.28Ω (d) 2.25Ω 30. An inductor may store energy in (a) its electric field (b) its coils

(c) its magnetic field (d) both in electric and magnetic fields 31.

(a) contact is made or broken (b) contact is made (c) contact is broken (d) won't become bright at all 32. In an electrical circuit R, L, C and an a.c. voltage source are all connected in series. When L is removed from the circuit, the phase difference between the voltage the current in the circuit is π /3. If instead, C is removed from the circuit, the phase difference is again π /3. The power factor of the circuit is: (a) 1/2 (b) 1/√2 (c) 1 (d) 3/√2 33. The decreasing order of wavelength of infrared, microwave, ultraviolet and gamma rays is (a) microwave, infrared, ultraviolet, gamma rays (b) gamma rays, ultraviolet, infrared, microwaves (c) microwaves, gamma rays, infrared, ultraviolet (d) infrared, microwave, ultraviolet, gamma rays 34. The radius of curvature of a thin plano-convex lens is 10 cm (of curved surface) and the refractive index is 1.5. If the plane surface is silvered, then it behaves like a concave mirror of focal length (a) 10 cm (b) 15 cm [2000] (c) 20 cm (d) 5 cm 35. A plano convex lens fits exactly into a plano concave lens. Their plane surfaces are parallel to each other. If lenses are made of different materials of refractive indices u1 and u2 and R is the radius of curvature of the curved surface of the lenses, then the focal length of the combination is

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(a)

(b)

(c)

(d) 36. (a) (b) (c) (d) 37. According to Einstein’s photoelectric equation, the graph between the kinetic energy of photoelectrons ejected and the frequency of incident radiation is

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d) 38. For photoelectric emission from certain metal the cut-off frequency is ν. If radiation of frequency 2 ν impinges on the metal plate, the maximum possible

velocity of the emitted electron will be (m is the electron mass)

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d) 39. The total energy of an electron in the first excited state of hydrogen atom is about –3.4 eV. Its kinetic energy in this state is (a) 3.4 eV (b) 6.8 eV (c) –3.4 eV (d) –6.8 eV 40. The half-life of radium is 1600 years. The fraction of a sample of radium that would remain after 6400 years (a) 1/4 (b) 1/2 (c) 1/8 (d) 1/16 41. Alpha-particles are (a) protons (b) positron (c) neutrally charged (d) ionized helium atoms 42.

(a) 9.6 fm (b) 12.0 fm (c) 4.8 fm (d) 6.0 fm. 43. The depletion layer in the p-n junction region is caused by (a) drift of holes (b) diffusion of charge carriers (c) migration of impurity ions (d) drift of electrons 44. Which of the following when added acts as an impurity into silicon produced n-type semiconductor?

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(a) P (b) Al (c) B (d) Mg 45. A forward biased diode is

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d) 1. a 2. b 3. c 4. c 5. c 6. d 7. a 8. a 9. b 10. b 11. a 12. c 13. a 14. d 15. b 16. a 17. b 18. d 19. a 20. b 21. b 22. a 23. b 24. c 25. d 26. b 27. d 28. b 29. b 30. c 31. d 32. a 33. b 34. c 35. c 36. d 37. b 38. c 39. a 40. a 41. d 42. d 43. a 44. d 45. b 46. d 47. b 48. d 49. c 50. b 51. b 52. a 53. d 54. a 55. c 56. b 57. c 58. a 59. c 60. a 61. a 62. a 63. d 64. d 65. c 66. c 67. c 68. d 69. b 70. c 71. b 72. a 73. c 74. b 75. c 76. a 77. a 78. d 79. c 80. d 81. b 82. c 83. a 84. d 85. a 86. b 87. a 88. c 89. c 90. a 1. c 2. a 3. c 4. c 5. a 6. b 7. a 8. d 9. c 10. b 11. c 12. b 13. d 14. d 15. c 16. c 17. c 18. b 19. c 20. b 21. a 22. a 23. 24. a 25. b 26. c 27. d 28. b 29. b 30. d 31. c 32. c 33. a 34. d 35. b 36. b 37. d 38. b 39. b 40. c 41. a 42. b 43. a 44. b 45. b 1. d 2. b 3. d 4. b 5. b 6. c 7. a 8. d 9. d 10. d 11. d 12. d 13. c 14. b 15. a 16. b 17. c 18. c 19. d 20. d 21. a 22. a 23. b 24. a 25. c 26. a 27. d 28. d 29. c 30. c 31. c 32. c 33. a 34. a 35. b 36. b 37. a 38. b 39. a 40. d 41. d 42. d 43. b 44. a 45. c