My BRM Quiz_07.03

1) ________ is undertaken to help identify problems that are perhaps not apparent on the surface

and yet exist or are likely to arise in the future.

A) Problem identification research

B) Segmentation research

C) Problem solving research

D) Marketing information systems

Answer: A

Diff: 2 Page Ref: 7

LO : 2

2) ________ is a type of problem identification research.

A) Distribution research

B) Pricing research

C) Market characteristics research

D) Promotion research

Answer: C

Diff: 3 Page Ref: 8

LO : 2

3) Which of the issues listed below would be addressed using problem-solving research?

A) the need to understand market potential

B) the need to understand current cultural trends

C) the need to understand changes in consumer behavior

D) the need to determine where to locate retail outlets

Answer: D

Diff: 3 Page Ref: 8

LO : 2

4) According to the problem definition and approach development process as shown in Figure

2.1 in the text, the tasks involved in problem definition consist of all of the following except

________.

A) discussions with the decision makers

B) interviews with industry experts

C) analysis of project costs

D) analysis of secondary data

Answer: C

Diff: 3 Page Ref: 38

LO : 1

5) The components of the ________ consist of: objective/theoretical foundations, analytical

models, research questions, hypotheses, and specification of the information needed.

A) approach to the problem

B) management decision problem

C) marketing research problem

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D) environmental context of the problem

Answer: A


LO : 1

6) Which of the following statements about secondary data is true?

A) Secondary data are originated by the researcher for the specific purpose of addressing the

research problem at hand.

B) Secondary data are an economical and quick source of background information.

C) Primary data should not be collected until the available secondary data have been fully

analyzed.

D) Both B and C are true.

Answer: D


LO : 2

7) ________ is an unstructured, exploratory research methodology based on small samples

intended to provide insight and understanding of the problem setting.

A) Primary research

B) Qualitative research

C) Secondary research

D) Quantitative research

Answer: B

Diff: 2 Page Ref: 41-42

LO : 2

8) ________ is not a qualitative research technique.

A) Depth interview

B) Word association

C) Focus group

D) Conclusive research

Answer: D


LO : 2

9) ________ consists of the factors that have an impact on the definition of the marketing

research problem, including past information and forecasts, resources and constraints of the firm,

objectives of the decision maker, buyer behavior, legal environment, economic environment, and

marketing and technological skills of the firm.

A) The approach to the problem

B) Research design

C) The environmental context of the problem

D) Problem definition

Answer: C


LO : 3

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10) ________ is the problem confronting the decision maker. It asks what the decision maker

needs to do.

A) The environmental context of the problem

B) The management decision problem

C) The marketing research problem


Answer: B


AACSB: Reflective Thinking

LO : 4

11) ________ is a problem that entails determining what information is needed and how it can be

obtained in the most feasible way.

A) The environmental context of the problem

B) The management decision problem

C) The marketing research problem


Answer: C



LO : 4

12) The management decision problem focuses on ________, while the marketing research

problem focuses on ________.

A) symptoms; solutions

B) symptoms; underlying causes

C) solutions; underlying causes

D) none of the above

Answer: B



LO : 4

13) Based on Table 2.1 in the text, which statement is true about the management decision

problem?

A) It asks what information is needed and how it should be obtained.

B) It is information oriented.

C) It asks what the decision maker needs to do.

D) It focuses on the underlying causes.

Answer: C



LO : 4

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14) Based on Table 2.1 in the text, which statement is true about the marketing research

problem?

A) It focuses on underlying causes.

B) It focuses on symptoms.

C) It is information oriented.

D) Both A and C are correct.

Answer: D



LO : 4

15) Which statement is true concerning defining the marketing research problem?

A) The definition should allow the researcher to obtain all the information needed to address the

management decision problem.

B) The definition should guide the researcher in proceeding with the project.

C) The marketing research problem should be stated in broad, general terms with specific

components identified.

D) All of the above are correct.

Answer: D



LO : 5

16) ________ are refined statements of the specific components of the problem.

A) Hypotheses

B) Research questions

C) Marketing research problems

D) Analytical models

Answer: B


AACSB: Analytic Skills

LO : 6

17) Which statement about hypotheses is not true?

A) A hypothesis is an unproven statement or proposition about a factor or phenomenon that is of

interest to the researcher.

B) Hypotheses are declarative and can be tested empirically.

C) It is possible to formulate hypotheses in all situations.

D) An important role of a hypothesis is to suggest variables to be included in the research design.

Answer: C



LO : 6

18) Which statement is not true about research design?

A) Research design is a framework for conducting the marketing research project.

B) Research design specifies the measurement and scaling procedures.

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C) Research design is undertaken before developing the approach to the problem.

D) Research design is undertaken after the marketing research problem is defined.

Answer: C



LO : 1

19) Typically, a ________ involves the tasks of designing the information needed, specifying the

measurement and scaling procedures, and developing a plan of data analysis.

A) research classification

B) research design

C) design formulation


Answer: B


LO : 1

20) Which of the following tasks is not a component of research design?

A) Design the exploratory, descriptive, and/or causal phases of the research.

B) Construct and pretest a questionnaire (interviewing form) or an appropriate form for data

collection.

C) Specify the sampling process and sample size.

D) Develop hypotheses.

Answer: D


LO : 1

21) Exploratory research is used in all of the following cases except ________.

A) selecting the course of action to take in a given situation

B) when you must define the problem more precisely

C) when you must identify relevant courses of action

D) when you must gain additional insights before an approach can be developed

Answer: A


LO : 1

22) The primary objective of ________ is to provide insights into, and an understanding of, the

problem confronting the researcher.

A) exploratory research

B) conclusive research

C) causal research

D) descriptive research

Answer: A

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LO : 1

23) ________ is research designed to assist the decision maker in determining, evaluating, and

selecting the best course of action to take in a given situation.

A) Exploratory research

B) Conclusive research

C) Complex research

D) Problem-identification research

Answer: B



LO : 1

24) Joan needs to determine which variables and relationships she should examine further as part

of the research she is conducting for the Flager Truck Company. Joan is about to embark on

what type of research?

A) simple research

B) exploratory research

C) descriptive research

D) causal research

Answer: B



LO : 1

25) Which of the objectives below would best represent exploratory research?

A) Describe market characteristics or functions.

B) Determine cause and effect relationships.

C) Provide insights and understanding.

D) Test specific hypotheses and examine relationships.

Answer: C


LO : 1

26) Which of the objectives below would best represent conclusive research?

A) Describe market characteristics or functions.

B) Determine cause and effect relationships.

C) Provide insights and understanding.

D) A and B are correct.

Answer: D


LO : 1

27) Which data collection method is used in causal research?

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A) experiments

B) surveys

C) expert surveys

D) panels

Answer: A



LO : 2

28) Jerry and the team working on the Roger Tire Company marketing research project are

developing ways to test their hypothesis that drivers of larger trucks prefer dual belted radial

tires. What type of research are they conducting?

A) simple research

B) exploratory research

C) descriptive research

D) causal research

Answer: C



LO : 2

29) Descriptive research is conducted for all of the following reasons except ________.

A) to describe the characteristics of relevant groups, such as consumers, salespeople,

organizations, or market areas

B) to determine the degree to which marketing variables are associated

C) to understand which variables are the cause and which variables are the effect of a

phenomenon

D) to determine the perceptions of product characteristics

Answer: C



LO : 2

30) Descriptive research, in contrast to exploratory research, is marked by all of the following

except ________.

A) a clear statement of the problem

B) specific hypotheses

C) detailed information needs

D) flexibility

Answer: D



LO : 2

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31) ________ designs involve the collection of information from any given sample of population

elements only once.

A) Exploratory

B) Causal

C) Cross-sectional

D) None of the above

Answer: C


LO : 2

32) When trying to determine which research design is best to choose, it is best to begin with

exploratory research if the objective of the research is to ________.

A) test hypotheses

B) conduct an annual customer satisfaction survey

C) define the problem more precisely

D) quantify the relative salience of social causes that businesses should be concerned about

Answer: C


LO : 2

33) Scores assigned to continuous rating scales by the researcher are typically treated as

________ data.

A) nominal

B) ordinal

C) ratio

D) interval

Answer: D


LO : 1

34) ________ is the extent to which a scale produces consistent results if repeated measurements

are made on the characteristic.

A) Validity

B) Generalizability

C) Reliability


Answer: C


LO : 3

35) ________ is the degree to which a study based on a sample applies to a universe of

generalizations.

A) Validity

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B) Generalizability

C) Reliability


Answer: B


LO : 3

36) Which statement about generalizability is not true?

A) The set of all conditions of measurement over which the investigator wishes to generalize is

the universe of generalizations.

B) In generalizability studies, measurement procedures are designed to investigate the universes

of interest by sampling conditions of measurement from each of them.

C) To generalize to other universes, facet theory procedures must be employed.

D) Traditional reliability methods can be viewed as single-facet generalizability studies.

Answer: C



LO : 3

37) "Do you think Coca-Cola is a tasty and refreshing soft drink?" is an example of a ________.

A) structured question

B) dichotomous question

C) double-barreled question

D) branching question

Answer: C


LO : 2

38) Which of the following statements is not an advantage of unstructured questions?

A) Unstructured questions are good as first questions on a topic.

B) Implicitly, unstructured questions give extra weight to respondents who are more articulate.

C) Unstructured questions have a much less biasing influence on response than structured

questions.

D) Unstructured questions are useful in exploratory research.

Answer: B



LO : 2

39) Which of the following is not a type of structured question?

A) multiple choice

B) dichotomous

C) scale


Answer: D

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LO : 2

40) A ________ is a question that gives the respondent a clue as to what answer is desired or

leads the respondent to answer in a certain way.

A) leading question

B) implicit alternative

C) filter question

D) structured question

Answer: A


LO : 2

41) Which of the following statements is correct about implicit alternatives?

A) Making an implied alternative explicit may increase the percentage of people selecting that

alternative.

B) When alternatives are close in preference or large in number, the alternatives at the end of the

list have a greater chance of being selected.

C) The split ballot technique should be used to rotate the order in which a list of alternatives

appear.

D) All of the above are correct.

Answer: D



LO : 2

42) Which statement is not true about pretests?

A) To the extent possible, a pretest should involve administering the questionnaire in an

environment and context similar to that of the actual survey.

B) A variety of interviewers should be used for pretests.

C) The project director, the researcher who developed the questionnaire, and other key members

of the research team should conduct some pretest interviews.

D) It is a good practice to employ only experienced interviewers to conduct pretests.

Answer: D



LO : 2

43) Whenever a new marketing research problem is being addressed, ________ research must be

preceded by appropriate ________ research.

A) qualitative; quantitative

B) observational; experimental

C) quantitative; qualitative

D) experimental; observational

Answer: C


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LO : 1

44) According to Table 5.1 in the text, which of the following does not apply to qualitative

research?

A) a small number of nonrepresentative cases

B) non-statistical data analysis

C) unstructured form of data collection

D) outcome is used to recommend a final course of action

Answer: D



LO : 1

45) Depth interviews suffer from many of the disadvantages of focus groups and often to a

greater extent. Which of the following disadvantages is not shared with focus groups?

A) Skilled interviewers capable of conducting depth interviews are expensive and difficult to

find.

B) The lack of structure makes the results susceptible to the interviewer's influence.

C) The data obtained are difficult to analyze and interpret.

D) All of the above are shared with focus groups.

Answer: D



LO : 4

46) Projective techniques are used less frequently than unstructured direct methods (focus groups

and depth interviews). A possible exception may be ________, which is used commonly to test

brand names and occasionally to measure attitudes about particular products, brands, packages,

or advertisements.

A) story completion

B) word association

C) sentence completion

D) cartoon tests

Answer: B


LO : 5

47) Categorical independent variables are ________. The independent variables must all be

categorical (nonmetric) to use ________.

A) factors; ANOVA

B) covariates; ANOVA

C) parameters; regression

D) items; ANOVA

Answer: A


LO : 1

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48) An advanced analysis of variance procedure in which the effects of one or more metric-

scaled extraneous variables are removed from the dependent variable before conducting the

ANOVA is called ________.

A) analysis of covariance (ANCOVA)

B) one-way analysis of variance

C) n-way analysis of variance

D) decomposition of the total variation

Answer: A



LO : 1

49) A covariate is a ________ independent variable used in ________.

A) metric; ANOVA

B) categorical; ANCOVA

C) metric; ANCOVA

D) categorical; ANOVA

Answer: C



LO : 1

50) The strength of the effects of X (independent variable or factor) on Y (dependent variable) in

one way ANOVA is measured by ________.

A) eta2 (2)

B) SSx

C) SSy

D) SSwithin

Answer: A



LO : 2

51) Which statement is correct concerning the decomposition of the total variation?

A) Because it is not known that all the groups have the same mean, we cannot calculate the

variance of all the observations together.

B) If the population mean is the same in all the groups, then the variation in the sample means

and the sizes of the sample groups can be used to estimate the variance of Y.

C) By comparing the Y variance estimates based on between-group and within group variation,

we can test the null hypothesis.

D) All statements are correct.

Answer: D



LO : 2

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52) How consumers' intentions to buy a brand vary with different levels of price and different

levels of distribution is best analyzed via ________.

A) n-way ANOVA

B) one-way ANOVA

C) ANCOVA

D) regression

Answer: A



LO : 3

53) The strength of the joint effect of two (or more) factors or the overall effect is known as

________.

A) significance of the overall effect

B) significance of the main effect

C) multiple 2

D) significance of the interaction effect

Answer: C



LO : 3

54) In determining how different price levels will affect a household's cereal consumption, it

may be essential to take household size into account. This is best analyzed by ________.

A) n-way ANOVA

B) one-way ANOVA

C) ANCOVA

D) regression

Answer: C



LO : 4

55) Analysis of covariance includes at least one ________ independent variable and at least one

________ independent variable.

A) categorical; interval

B) ordinal; categorical

C) metric; interval

D) parametric; interval

Answer: A



LO : 4

56) Suppose that four groups, each consisting of 100 randomly selected individuals, were

exposed to four different commercials about Tide detergent. After seeing the commercial, each

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individual provided ratings on preference for Tide, preference for Proctor and Gamble (the

company making Tide), and preference for the commercial itself. Because these three preference

variables are correlated, ________ should be conducted to determine which commercial is the

most effective (produced the highest preferences across the three variables).

A) MANOVA

B) one-way ANOVA

C) n-way ANOVA

D) regression

Answer: A



LO : 6

57) Which statement about MANOVA is not true?

A) MANOVA examines group differences across multiple dependent variables simultaneously.

B) In MANOVA, the null hypothesis is that the vectors of means on multiple dependent

variables are equal across groups.

C) MANOVA is most appropriate if there are multiple dependent variables that are uncorrelated

or orthogonal.

D) Multivariate analysis of variance is appropriate when there are two or more dependent

variables that are correlated.

Answer: C



LO : 6

58) r2 measures in Regression analysis________.

A) the proportion of variation in one variable that is explained by the other

B) the proportion of error variation

C) the proportion of variation in Y related to the variation of the categories of X

D) the proportion of variation in Y due to the variation within each of the categories of X

Answer: A


LO : 1

59) The question of "How strongly are sales related to advertising expenditures when the effect

of price is controlled?" is best answered via ________.

A) bivariate regression analysis

B) partial correlation coefficient

C) ANOVA

D) product moment correlation

Answer: B


LO : 3

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60) The relationship between X and Y is spurious if ________.

A) Y increases exponentially with increases in X

B) the correlation between X and Y disappears when the effect of Z is controlled

C) Y decreases exponentially with decreases in X

D) both A and C are correct

Answer: B



LO : 1

61) Which of the following is a measure of nonmetric correlation?

A) Pearson product moment correlation

B) Spearman's rho

C) Kendall's tau

D) both B and C

Answer: D


LO : 5

62) When considering nonmetric correlation, as a rule of thumb, ________ is to be preferred

when a large number of cases fall into a relatively small number of categories (thereby leading to

a large number of ties).

A) Spearman's rho

B) Kendall's tau

C) chi-square

D) Pearson product moment correlation

Answer: B



LO : 5

63) Which of the following situations is best addressed by regression?

A) Is there an association between market share and the size of the sales force?

B) Is there an association between market share and size of the sales force after adjusting for the

effect of sales promotion?

C) Determine how much of the variation in the dependent variable (store sales) can be explained

by the independent variables (price and level of advertisement).

D) Are consumers' perceptions of quality related to their perceptions of prices when the effect of

brand image is controlled?

Answer: B


LO : 2

64) Which statement is not true about regression analysis?

A) The terms dependent or criterion variables, and independent or predictor variables in

regression analysis do not imply that the criterion variable is dependent on the independent

variables in a causal sense.

B) Regression analysis can be used to determine if color preference is related to product size and

price.

C) Regression can be used to predict the values of the dependent variable.

D) Regression analysis is a powerful and flexible procedure for analyzing associative

relationships between a metric dependent variable and one or more independent variables.

Answer: B



LO : 2

65) A technique for fitting a straight line to a scattergram by minimizing the square of the

vertical distances of all the points from the line is known as the ________.

A) least-square procedure

B) scatter diagram plot

C) sum of square errors procedure

D) maximum residual procedure

Answer: A


LO : 2

66) Which statistic is associated only with multiple regression and not with bivariate regression?

A) adjusted R2

B) partial F test

C) estimated or predicted value () D) both A and B

Answer: D



LO : 3

67) In multiple regression, if the overall null hypothesis is rejected, ________.

A) the mean value of the dependent variable will be different for different categories of the

independent variable

B) the means of the independent variables are not equal

C) there is an association between the independent variables

D) one or more population partial regression coefficients have a value different from 0

Answer: D



LO : 3

68) In multiple regression, if the overall null hypothesis is rejected, which statement is true?

A) We know which specific s are nonzero.

B) We can use t = b/SEb to determine which s are nonzero.

C) We do not know which s are nonzero.

D) Both B and C are correct.

Answer: D


LO : 3

69) ________ is a regression procedure in which the predictor variables enter or leave the

regression equation one at a time.

A) Multiple regression

B) Bivariate regression

C) Dummy variable regression

D) Stepwise regression

Answer: D


LO : 4

70) ________ is a state of very high intercorrelations among independent variables.

A) Hypercollinearity

B) Partial collinearity

C) Multicollinearity

D) Variable collinearity

Answer: C


LO : 4

71) Which of the following is not a problem associated with multicollinearity?

A) The partial regression coefficients may not be estimated precisely. The standard errors are

likely to be high.

B) It becomes difficult to assess the relative importance of the independent variables in

explaining the variation in the dependent variables.

C) Predictor variables may be incorrectly included or removed in stepwise regression.

D) It becomes difficult to compute the correct test statistic.

Answer: D



LO : 4

72) ________ is the extent to which a cause, X, and an effect, Y, occur together or vary together

in the way predicted by the hypothesis under consideration.

A) The time order of occurrence of variables

B) The role of evidence

C) Concomitant variation

D) The elimination of other possible factors

Answer: C



LO : 1

73) Experimental design is the set of experimental procedures specifying the test units and

sampling procedures and all of the following except ________.

A) specifying the independent variables

B) specifying the dependent variables

C) specifying the plan for data analysis

D) specifying how to control the extraneous variables

Answer: C


LO : 1

74) ________ is a measure of accuracy of an experiment. It measures whether the manipulation

of the independent variables, or treatments, actually caused the effects on the dependent

variable(s).

A) External validity

B) Extraneous validity

C) Internal validity


Answer: C


LO : 2

75) All of the following statements are true about external validity except ________.

A) threats to external validity arise when the specific experimental conditions do not realistically

take into account the interactions of other relevant variables in the real world.

B) external validity is the basic minimum that must be present in an experiment before any

conclusion about treatment effects can be made

C) factors that threaten internal validity may also threaten external validity, the most serious of

these being extraneous variables.

D) A and C are true

Answer: D



LO : 2

76) ________ is a determination of whether the cause-and-effect relationships found in the

experiment can be generalized. Can the results be generalized beyond the experimental situation

and if so, to what populations, settings, times, independent variables and dependent variables can

the results be projected?

A) External validity

B) Extraneous validity

C) Internal validity


Answer: A



LO : 2

77) ________ is a statistical experimental design that is used to measure the effects of two or

more independent variables at various levels and to allow for interactions between variables.

A) Randomized block design

B) Latin square design

C) Factorial design

D) Solomon four-group design

Answer: C


LO : 4

78) What is the main disadvantage of factorial designs?

A) They require an equal number of rows, columns, and treatment levels, which is sometimes

problematic.

B) They do not allow the researcher to examine interactions of the external variables with each

other or with the independent variable.

C) The researcher can control for only one external variable.

D) The number of treatment combinations increases multiplicatively with an increase in the

number of variables or levels.

Answer: D



LO : 4

79) Which of the following statements is true when considering experimental versus non-

experimental designs?

A) It is difficult in descriptive studies to establish the prior equivalence of the respondent groups

with respect to both the independent and dependent variables. However, experiments can

establish this equivalence.

B) Descriptive research offers little control over other possible causal factors.

C) In descriptive research, it is also difficult to establish time order of occurrence of variables.

However, in an experiment, the researcher controls the timing of the measurements and the

introduction of the treatment.

D) All of the above statements are correct.

Answer: D



LO : 5

80) Which statement is not correct about the null hypothesis?

A) It is always the hypothesis tested.

B) Accepting the null hypothesis will lead to some changes in opinions or action.

C) It can never be accepted based on a single statistical test.

D) In marketing research, the null hypothesis is formulated in such a way that rejection leads to

the acceptance of the desired conclusion.

Answer: B


LO : 4

81) Which of the following statements is not correct about the alternative hypothesis?

A) There is no way to determine whether the alternative hypothesis is true.

B) The alternative hypothesis represents the conclusion for which evidence is sought.

C) The alternative hypothesis is the opposite of the null hypothesis.

D) None of the statements are correct.

Answer: A



LO : 4

82) The ________ is the probability of rejecting the null hypothesis when it is in fact false, and

should be rejected.

A) Type I error

B) level of significance

C) Type II error

D) power of a test

Answer: D


LO : 4

83) Which statement is not related to statistics associated with cross-tabulation?

A) The statistical significance of the observed association is commonly measured by the chi-

square statistic.

B) The t test could be conducted on the mean of one sample or two samples of observations.

C) Generally, the strength of association is of interest only if the association is statistically

significant.

D) The strength of association can be measured by the phi correlation coefficient, the

contingency coefficient, Cramer's V, and the lambda coefficient.

Answer: B



LO : 4

84) The ________ is used to test the statistical significance of the observed association in cross-

tabulation.

A) contingency coefficient

B) Cramer's V

C) phi coefficient

D) chi-square statistic

Answer: D


LO : 4

85) The ________ is used as a measure of the strength of association in the special case of a

table with two rows and two columns (a 2 2 table).


B) Cramer's V

C) phi coefficient

D) chi-square coefficient

Answer: C


LO : 4

86) The ________ can be used to assess the strength of association in a table of any size.


B) coefficient of variation

C) phi coefficient

D) chi-square coefficient

Answer: A


LO : 4

87) The ________ is a univariate hypothesis test using the t distribution, which is used when the

standard deviation is unknown and the sample size is small.

A) z test

B) t test

C) paired samples test

D) F test

Answer: B


LO : 4

88) Which of the following statements is not true about parametric tests?

A) Parametric tests are used when the independent variables are non-metric.

B) The t test is a commonly used parametric test.

C) The t statistic assumes that the variable is normally distributed and the mean is known (or

assumed to be known) and the population variance is estimated from the sample.

D) B and C are not correct.

Answer: A



LO : 4

89) A one-sample nonparametric goodness-of-fit test to determine whether the observations for a

particular variable could reasonably have come from a particular distribution is the ________.

A) Kolmogorov-Smirnov one-sample test

B) runs test

C) binomial test

D) Mann-Whitney U test

Answer: A


LO : 5

90) Which of the following tests is not a non-parametric one-sample test?


B) runs test

C) binomial test


Answer: D


LO : 5

91) When the difference in the location of two populations is to be compared based on

observations from two independent samples, and the variable is measured on an ordinal scale, the

________ can be used.


B) runs test

C) binomial test


Answer: D


LO : 5

92) A ________ is a test conducted by determining whether the order or sequence in which

observations are obtained is random.

A) Mann-Whitney U test

B) sign test

C) binomial test

D) runs test

Answer: D


LO : 5

93) The ________ tests the goodness of fit of the observed number of observations in each

category to the number expected under a specified binomial distribution.


B) sign test

C) binomial test

D) runs test

Answer: C


LO : 5

94) Which test is not an independent samples test?

A) Kolmogorov-Smirnov two-sample test

B) Wilcoxon matched-pairs signed-ranks test

C) Mann-Whitney U test

D) two-sample median test

Answer: B



LO : 5

95) A nonparametric test that analyzes the differences between the paired observations, taking

into account the magnitude of the differences is the ________.

A) Wilcoxon matched-pairs signed-ranks test

B) sign test

C) McNemar test

D) runs test

Answer: A


LO : 5

96) The ________ test is a nonparametric test for examining differences in the location of two

populations, based on paired observations, that compares only the signs of the differences

between pairs of variables without taking into account the magnitude of the differences.


B) sign test

C) binomial test

D) runs test

Answer: B


LO : 5

My BRM Quiz_07.03

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