MPSC 2018 Prelims Questions and Answers with explanations€¦ · MPSC 2018 Prelims Questions and...
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Transcript of MPSC 2018 Prelims Questions and Answers with explanations€¦ · MPSC 2018 Prelims Questions and...
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MPSC 2018 Prelims
Questions and Answers
with explanations
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MPSC 2018 Prelims Question Paper 1 – SET A
Q.1) Match List I with List II and select the correct answer from the options given :
List I
1. Erdkunde
2. Anthropo-Geographie
C.Cosmos
List II
1. Alexander von Humboldt
2. Jean Brunhes
III. Carl Ritter
1. Friedrich Ratzel
A B C D
1) II III I IV
2) IV II III I
3) III IV II I
4) I III IV II
Source : https://www.britannica.com/biography/Carl-Ritter,
https://www.amazon.in/Humboldts-Cosmos-Alexander-Humboldt-
American/dp/1531810438,
https://books.google.co.in/books/about/Geograf%C3%ADa_humana.html?i
d=0tQvtQEACAAJ&redir_esc=y
Q.2) Examine the following statements and identify the correct statement/s :
Statement ‘A’ : Within 24 hours the Earth rotates in 360o longitudes.
Statement ‘B’ : The Earth requires four minutes to cross the one degree longitude.
1) Statements ‘A’ and ‘B’ are correct
2) Statements ‘A’ and ‘B’ are incorrect
3) Statement ‘A’ is correct but statement ‘B’ is incorrect
4) Statement ‘A’ is incorrect but statement ‘B’ is correct
Source: https://www.universetoday.com/47181/earths-rotation/
Q.3) Which of the following relief features is not an effect of internal forces of the Earth?
1) Graben
2) Horst
3) Residual Mountain
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4) Rift Valley
Source: https://geographicalalmanac.wordpress.com/2015/11/05/98/
Q.4) Select the proper option from the following figures of ‘Relief Features’ created by
the volcanic eruption:
Ans: 4
Source: https://owlcation.com/stem/4-Different-Types-of-Volcanoes-Cinder-
Cones-Lava-Domes-Shield-and-Composite-Volcanoes
Q.5) Find out the correct sequence of planetary winds found from the equator to pole.
1) Westerlies, Trade Winds, Polar Winds
2) Trade winds, Westerlies, Polar winds
3) Trade winds, Polar winds, Westerlies
4) Polar winds, Westerlies, Trade winds
Source : https://www.eoas.ubc.ca/courses/atsc113/sailing/met_concepts/09-
met-winds/9a-global-wind-circulations/
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Q.6) Given below are two statements, one labeled as Assertion [A] and the other labeled
as Reason [R], Select your answer from the following options.
Assertion [A] : Oceanic salinity is low in the equatorial region.
Reason [R] : Equatorial region is characterized by heavy rainfall, cloudiness and
humidity.
1) Both [A] and [R] are true and [R] is the correct explanation of [A]
2) Both [A] and [R] are true but [R] is not the correct explanation of [A]
3) [A] is true but [R] is false
4) [A] is false but [R] is true
Source: https://science.nasa.gov/earth-science/oceanography/physical-
ocean/salinity
Q.7) Which of the following is not a type of chemical weathering ?
1) Solution
2) Oxidation
3) Carbonation
4) Corrosion
Source : http://www.agriinfo.in/?page=topic&superid=4&topicid=249
Q.8) Identify the correct statement/s from the following :
Statement ‘A’ : The weight of water vapour per unit volume of air in specific
temperature is called relative humidity.
Statement ‘B’ : Specific humidity is the ratio of air water vapour conent to its water
vapour capacity at a given temperature.
1) Statements ‘A’ and ‘B’ both are correct
2) Statements ‘A’ and ‘B’ both are incorrect
3) Statement ‘A’ is correct but statement ‘B’ is incorrect
4) Statement ‘A’ is incorrect but statement ‘B’ is correct
Source :https://graphical.weather.gov/definitions/defineRH.html,
https://www.britannica.com/science/specific-humidity
Q.9) Identify the correct statement/s from the following :
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Assertion [A] : The isotherm lines remain almost parallel to one another and parallel
to latitudes on oceanic surfaces.
Reason [R] : Temperatures at maritime locations are free from effect of elevation.
1) Both [A] and [R] are true and [R] is the correct explanation of [A]
2) Both [A] and [R] are true but [R] is not the correct explanation of [A]
3) [A] is true but [R] is false
4) [A] is false but [R] is true
Source:
https://www.earthonlinemedia.com/ebooks/tpe_3e/temperature/explaini
ng_global_patterns_temperature.html
Q.10) Consider the following statements and select the correct option from the following
:
1. Most of the fishing grounds occur in areas where the continental shelf is wide
2. Fishing activity is well developed in warm tropical waters.
3. Mixing of warm and cold currents brings plant nutrients for fish.
4. Inland fisheries are more significant than other types in India.
Answer Options :
1) Statements a and b are correct
2) Statements a and c are correct
3) Statements b,c and d are correct
4) Statements a,b and c are correct
Source: http://world-of-the-animals.blogspot.in/2009/11/major-fishing-
grounds-of-world.html
Q.11) In developing countries the population pyramid has a
1) Narrow base and wide top
2) Wide base and wide top
3) Wide base and narrow top
4) Narrow base and narrow top
Source : https://opinionfront.com/different-types-of-population-pyramids-
explained
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Q.12) Examine the following statements and select the correct option :
Statement ‘A’ : Some land area of India is situated in the northern hemisphere and
some in the southern hemisphere.
Statement ‘B’ : The extension of India from north to south is approximately more than
7500 km
1) Statement ‘A’ and ‘B’ both are correct
2) Statements ‘A’ and ‘B’ both are incorrect
3) Statements ‘A’ is correct but statement ‘B’ is incorrect
4) Statement ‘A’ is incorrect but statement ‘B’ is correct
Source:
https://www.worldatlas.com/webimage/countrys/asia/in.htmhttps://www.
mapsofindia.com/geography/
Q.13) Examine the following statements and select the correct option :
Statement ‘A’ : Himalayan rivers cross many Himalayan ranges and the Shivalik Hills
and enter into the plain area.
Statement ‘B’ : Peninsular rivers flow through the rift valleys created by faults.
1) Statements ‘A’ and ‘B’ both are correct
2) Statements ‘A’ and ‘B’ both are incorrect
3) Statements ‘A’ is correct but statement ‘B’ is incorrect
4) Statement ‘A’ is incorrect but statement ‘B’ is correct
Source : https://www.importantindia.com/10100/major-rivers-originating-
from-the-himalayas/
Q.14) The rainfed and rain shadow areas are the characteristics of
1) Cyclonic rainfall
2) Conventional rainfall
3) Orographic rainfall
4) Thermal rainfall
Source : https://www.worldatlas.com/articles/what-is-orographic-
precipitation.html
Q.15) Which region has the following characteristics?
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1. Useful for water transport
2. Production of coconut is taken up
3. Favourable for fishing
4. Attraction for tourists
Answer Options :
1) North-Indian Plain Region
2) Peninsular Plateau
3) Coastal Plains
4) Himalayan Region
Source :https://19january2017snapshot.epa.gov/climate-impacts/climate-
impacts-coastal-areas_.html
Q.16) Match the following Pollutants and their Mediums as per the UNEP documents :
Pollutant Medium
1. Nitrogen oxides I. Sea
2. Petroleum hydrocarbons II. Food
3. Fluroides III. Air
4. Mycotoxins IV. Fresh water
Answer Options :
a b c d
1) I II III IV
2) IV III II I
3) III I IV II
4) III I II IV
Source:
Q.17) Which of the following days is designated as World Ozone Day by the U.N. General
Assembly?
1) 1st June
2) 5th June
3) 1st September
4) 16th September
Source : http://www.un.org/en/events/ozoneday/
Q.18) Which of the following greenhouse gases is entirely produced by human activities?
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1) Methane
2) Carbon dioxide
3) Nitrous oxide
4) Chlorofluorocarbons
Source : https://helpsavenature.com/causes-greenhouse-effect
Q.19) The transitional area between two living organisms is known as
1) Ecozone
2) Ecophos
3) Ecotone
4) Ecotype
Source 19: https://www.britannica.com/science/ecotone
Q.20) The impact of humans on global climate has been induced by which of the
following ?
1. Deforestation since 8000 years
2. Use of fire and overgrazing
3. Wet paddy cultivation since 5000 years
4. Industrial revolution
Answer Options :
1) Only d
2) Only c and d
3) Only b, c and d
4) All of the above
Source: http://planetsave.com/2009/06/07/global-warming-effects-and-
causes-a-top-10-list/
Q.21) At which of the following places was an iron and steel factory not started during
the Second Five Year Plan?
1. Rourkela [Orissa]
2. Bhilai [Chhattisgarh]
3. Durgapur [West Bengal]
4. Bokaro [Jharkhand]
Answer Options :
1) Only a and b
2) Only c
3) Only d
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4) Only a and d
Source :
http://planningcommission.gov.in/plans/planrel/fiveyr/2nd/2planch19.ht
ml
Q.22) Which of the following is/are not the supply-side factor/s responsible for
inflation?
1. Increase in export
2. Store
3. Increase in credit creation
4. Famine
Answer Options :
1) Only a and b
2) Only c and d
3) Only d
Source : https://www.economicshelp.org/blog/2006/economics/cost-push-
inflation-2/
Q.23) Which of the following factors are not responsible for poverty ?
1. Inflation
2. Increase in Government expenditure
3. Deficit Financing
4. Short savings and Capital formation
Answer Options :
1) Only a and c
2) Only a, c and d
3) Only b and d
4) Only b and c
Source :Logical question
Q.24) “Absence of minimum income to get the minimum needs of life” is concerned with
which of the following types of poverty?
1) Absolute poverty
2) Relative poverty
3) Both the above
4) None of the above
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Source :http://www.unesco.org/new/en/social-and-human-
sciences/themes/international-migration/glossary/poverty/
Q.25) Identify the correct statement/s in context of the Food Security Act, 2013.
1. It gives legal entitlement of food security to 75% rural and 50% urban population.
2. A beneficiary will be entitled rice, coarse cereals and wheat @ * 3, * 2 and * 1 per
kg per month respectively
Answer Options
1)Both a and b are correct
2) Both a and b are incorrect
3) Only a is correct
4) Only b is correct
Source :http://dfpd.nic.in/Salient-features-National-Food-Security-Act.htm
Q.26) What is the percentage of Indian population in the population of the world
according to the Indian Census Report, 2011?
1) 16.5 percent
2) 17.3 percent
3) 17.5 percent
4) 17.7 percent
Source:
https://economictimes.indiatimes.com/news/economy/indicators/census-
of-india-2011-indias-population-rises-to-1-21-billion-sex-ratio-lowest-since-
independence/articleshow/7832472.cms
Q.27) Which of the following population policies decide the minimum marriage age as
21 years for males and 18 years for females?
1) National Population Policy, 1976
2) National Population Policy, 1977
3) National Population Policy, 2000
4) Population Projections [2001 – 2026]
Source : http://paa2010.princeton.edu/papers/101217
Q.28) Which of the following programmes is/are started by the Government of India for
the purpose of ‘Social Security’?
1. Aam Aadmi Bima Yojana
2. Rashtriya Swasthya Bima Yojana
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3. National Social Assistance Programme
Answer Options :
1) Only a and b
2) Only b and c
3) Only c
4) All of the above
Source :http://vikaspedia.in/social-welfare/unorganised-sector-1/schemes-
unorganised-sector/aam-admi-bima-yojana
Q.29) Which of the following factors is/are concerned in the calculation of Green
National Income [GNI]?
1. National Income
2. Depletion of Natural Resources
3. Environmental Degradation
Answer Options :
1) Only a and c
2) Only a
3) Only a and b
4) All of the above
Source: https://www.annualreviews.org/doi/abs/10.1146/annurev-resource-
083110-120032
Q.30) Which of the following are measured in Millennium Development Goals [MDGs]
?
1. Poverty and Hunger
2. Women’s Empowerment
3. Environmental Sustainability
4. Global Partnerships for Development
Answer Options :
1) Only a and b
2) Only c and
3) Only a, b and c
4) All of the above
Source :
http://www.who.int/topics/millennium_development_goals/about/en/
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Q.31) Which of the following schemes are included in women and child development
schemes?
1. Angawadi Services Scheme
2. Pradhan Mantri Matru Vandana Scheme
3. National Nutrition Mission
4. Child Protection Scheme
Answer Options :
1) Only a and b
2) Only c and d
3) Only a, b and c
4) All of the above
Source: http://www.wcd.nic.in/schemes-listing/2404
Q.32) In any poverty reduction strategy there is a need to incorporate both self-
employment and wage employment , because
1. Self – employment is a major form of employment in rural areas.
2. Dependence on wage employment will lead to total dependence on the employer.
3. Otherwise, it will increase the gap between the rich and the poor.
4. It will strengthen the asset base of the rich.
Answer Options :
1) Only a and b
2) Only b and c
3) Only c and d
4) All of the above
Source :
Q.33) The concept of Human Poverty Index [HPI] was introduced in the
1) Human Development Report, 1990
2) Human Development Report, 1997
3) Human Development Report, 2001
4) Human Development Report, 2014
Source
:http://www.economicsonline.co.uk/Managing_the_economy/Poverty.htm
l
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Q.34) The phenomenal growth of ‘census towns’ is a challenge as these towns
1. Do not have urban governance structure
2. Do not have the requisites urban infrastructure
3. Result out of rapid population growth
Answer Options :
1) a, b and c
2) Only a and b
3) Only b and c
4) Only a and c
Source
:https://www.livemint.com/Politics/LgofiSt7ImonVMBZgoXUNI/Indias-
census-towns-face-a-governance-deficit.html
Q.35) Which of the following was the aim of the Twelfth Five Year Plan [2012 – 17]?
1) To achieve economic growth and stable development
2) To achieve faster growth and development
3) To achieve faster and more inclusive growth
4) To achieve faster, sustainable and more inclusive growth
Source
:http://planningcommission.gov.in/plans/planrel/12thplan/pdf/12fyp_vol1.
Q.36) Which of the following describes the Geostationary Orbit [GEO] correctly?
1) Altitude of 20,000 km above the sea level and the orbital period is 12 hours.
2) Altitude of 36,000 km above the sea level and the orbital period is 24
hours
3) Altitude of 400 km above the sea level and the orbital period is 90 minutes.
4) None of the above
Source: http://www.radio-electronics.com/info/satellite/satellite-
orbits/geostationary-earth-orbit.php
Q.37) In Fresnel’s Biprism, the value of wavelength (λ) depends upon
1) The distance between two coherent sources
2) The fringe width
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3) The distance between slit and eyepiece of telescope
4) All of the above
Source :https://iitbhu.ac.in/institute-repository/db/2016/ir-2016-
372/Manual%20_%20Fresnel%20Biprism.pdf
Q.38) What focal length should the spectacles have for a person for whom the least
distance of distinct vision is 50 cm?
1) 50cm, concave
2) 50 cm, convex
3) 25 cm, concave
4) 25 cm, convex
Source : https://clay6.com/qa/69306/what-focal-length-should-the-reading-
spectacles-have-for-a-person-whose-nea
Q.39) A resistor of 10Ω connected across a cell of emf 12V, draws the current of 1.1 A .
Find the internal resistance of the cell.
1) 10 Ω
2) 0.1 Ω
3) 10.9 Ω
4) 0.91 Ω
Source : http://physicsnet.co.uk/a-level-physics-as-a2/current-
electricity/electromotive-force-and-internal-resistance/
Q.40) Two parallel slits 1 millimeter apart are placed 1 metre away from the screen.
What is the fringe separation due to interference effect, when a beam of wavelength 500
nanometres is incident on them ?
1) 5.0 mm
2) 0.5 mm
3) 5.0 cm
4) 0.05 mm
Source : https://clay6.com/qa/69726/two-slits-are-1-mm-apart-and-the-
screen-is-placed-1-m-away-what-is-the-frin
Q.41) A steam engine delivers 5.4 x 108 J of work per minute by taking 3.6 x 109 J of
heat from its source. What is the efficiency of the engine?
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1) 15%
2) 12.5%
3) 85%
4) 87.5%
Source: https://www.e-education.psu.edu/egee102/node/1942
Q.42) In some trees, copper deficiency may cause blisters and deep slits in the bark from
which exudes gum. This disease is known as
1) Exanthema
2) White bud
3) Dieback
4) Necrosis
Source :http://www.thehindu.com/2000/11/23/stories/08230029.htm
Q.43) The maximum yield of ATP from the complete oxidation of sucrose via aerobic
respiration is
1) 37
2) 44
3) 60
4) 50
Source :https://www.saylor.org/site/wp-content/uploads/2013/04/BIO101A-
6.2.3-CellularRespiration.pdf
Q.44) The binomial system of classification was given by
1) Carolus Linnaeus
2) Bentham and Hooker
3) Theophrastus
4) Hutchinson
Source :http://www.scienceprofonline.com/biology-general/biological-
classification-binomial-nomenclature.html
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Q.45) According to Sir J.C Bose, an Indian Scientist , ascent of sap takes place due to the
_______ of living cells of the innermost cortical layer.
1) pulsatory activity
2) transpiration pull theory
3) cohesion theory
4) root pressure theory
Source: http://www.biologydiscussion.com/plants/ascent-of-sap/ascent-of-
sap-path-mechanism-and-theories/22736
Q.46) Which of the following theories are related to evolution of life?
1. a) The theory of natural selection
2. b) Mutation theory of evolution
3. c) Theory of inheritance of acquired characteristics
4. d) Theory of segregation
Answer Options :
1) a, b and d
2) a, b and c
3) a, c and d
4) All of the above
Source : http://www.yourarticlelibrary.com/biology/4-main-theories-of-
evolution-explained-with-diagram-and-tables-biology/27220
Q.47) Which of the following are hormones of the pituitary gland?
1. TSH
2. STH
3. HCG
4. ADH
Answer Options :
1) a and b
2) b and c
3) a, b and d
4) a, b and c
Source : https://www.pituitary.org.uk/information/hormones/
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Q.48) The skeletal system performs which of the following functions?
1. Protection
2. Hematopoiesis
3. Movement facilitation
4. Mineral storage
Answer Options :
1) a, b and c
2) b, c and d
3) a, c and d
4) All of the above
Source: http://oerpub.github.io/epubjs-demo-book/content/m46341.xhtml
Q.49) Gregor Mendel is often referred to as the Father of Genetics , since he first
enunciated the principles of heredity .His experimental material was
1) Fruit Fly
2) Bread mould
3) Pea Plant
4) Rhesus monkey
Source : https://www2.palomar.edu/anthro/mendel/mendel_1.htm
Q.50) Wood grain alcohol is nothing but
1) Methanol
2) Ethanol
3) Benzyl alcohol
4) Isopropyl alcohol
Source https://books.google.co.in/books?id=UyTHgJTRFhcC&pg=RA1-SA4-
PA1&lpg=RA1-SA4-
PA1&dq=The+element+M+in+the+Dobereiner+triad+Ca,+M+and+Ba+is+S
r&source=bl&ots=js0dm8B0yA&sig=_otIH4w-
wffrhD24yQMmGaDca_Q&hl=en&sa=X&ved=0ahUKEwi1v__xpqraAhXMP
48KHVDZDJQQ6AEILzAB#v=onepage&q=The%20element%20M%20in%2
0the%20Dobereiner%20triad%20Ca%2C%20M%20and%20Ba%20is%20Sr
&f=false:
Q.51) Wood grain alcohol is nothing but
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1) Methanol
2) Ethanol
3) Benzyl alcohol
4) Isopropyl alcohol
Source
:http://web.anl.gov/PCS/acsfuel/preprint%20archive/Files/41_3_ORLAND
O_08-96_0880.pdf
Q.52) Water is often treated with chlorine to
1) Increase oxygen content
2) Kill germs
3) Remove sedimentation
4) Remove insoluble impurities
Source :https://www.cdc.gov/healthywater/drinking/public/chlorine-
disinfection.html
Q.53) Corrosion takes place as a result of
1) Only physical reactions
2) Only chemical reactions
3) Both [1] and [2]
4) None of the above
Source :http://www.chemistryexplained.com/Co-Di/Corrosion.html
Q.54) Natural gas mainly consists of
1) Butane
2) Propane
3) Methane
4) Ethane
Source :https://economictimes.indiatimes.com/definition/Natural-gas
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Q.55) Fats and oils belong to the naturally occurring group of compounds called
1) Carbohydrates
2) Lipids
3) Proteins
4) Terpenes
Source
:https://www2.chemistry.msu.edu/faculty/reusch/virttxtjml/lipids.htm
Q.56) On 26th November, 1949, which of the following provisions of the Constitution of
India came into effect?
1. Citizenship
2. Elections [Article -324]
3. Provisional Parliament
4. Fundamental Rights
Answer Options:
1) a,b and c
2) b, c and d
3) a and c
4) a and b
Source :http://www.thehansindia.com/posts/index/Civil-Services/2017-01-
04/The-making-of-the-Constitution/271807
Q.57) In which of the following cases did the Supreme Court of India pronounce the
verdict that the basic structure of the Constitution cannot be amended by the
Parliament?
1) Shankari Prasad vs Union of India
2) Golaknath vs State of Punjab
3) Kesavananda Bharti vs State of Kerala
4) Minerva Mills Ltd. Vs Union of India
Source
:http://www.supremecourtcases.com/index2.php?option=com_content&it
emid=1&do_pdf=1&id=401
Q.58) Which one of the following statements about the Vice-President of India is
incorrect?
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1. The electoral college for election to this office consists of the elected members of
both the Houses of Parliament.
2. He can hold the office of the President for a period not exceeding six months in
the absence of the President.
3. For election to this office a candidate’s nomination paper must be subscribed by
at least 20 electors as proposers and 20 electors as seconders.
1) a
2) b
3) c
4) None of the above
Source :http://vicepresidentofindia.nic.in/election-vice-president
Q.59) Consider the following statements :
1. Zonal Councils are the constitutional bodies.
2. The Prime Minister acts as the Chairman of all Zonal Councils
3. Each Chief Minister acts as the Vice-Chairman of the Zonal Council by rotation.
4. Joint meetings of two or more Zonal Councils are presided over by the Union
Home Minister.
1) Statements a, b and c are correct
2) Statements b, c and d are correct
3) Statements a, c and d are correct
4) Statements c and d are correct
Source :https://mha.gov.in/zonal_council
Q.60) Recommendations of the Sixth Report of Second Administrative Reforms
Commission on Local Government are
1. Set up unified metropolitan transport authority in all cities of one million plus
population.
2. Constitute a local body ombudsman.
3. Direct election of the Mayors
4. Set up District Councils and the Collector would work as the Chief Secretary
Answer Options :
1) a, b and c
2) b, c and d
3) a, c and d
4) a, b , c and d
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Source :https://darpg.gov.in/sites/default/files/local_governance6.pdf
Q.61) Which of the following directive principles did not form part of the original
Constitution and were added through constitutional amendments?
1. To minimise inequality in income
2. To protect and improve the environment and to safeguard forests and wildlife
3. Equal pay for equal work for both men and women
4. To ensure equal justice and free legal aid to the poor.
5. To secure adequate means of livelihood for all citizens.
1. a,b and c
2. b,c and d
3. c,d and e
4. a,b and d
Sources: Indian Polity by M. Laxmikanth Chapter 8 Page 8.3
Q.62) Which of the following statements are correct?
a) Parliament can increase a tax.
b) Parliament cannot reduce a tax
c) Parliament cannot increase a tax
d) Parliament can reduce a tax.
1. a, c and e
2. b, c and d
3. c, d and e
4. c and d
Sources: http://www.arthapedia.in/index.php?title=Finance_Bill_or_Finance_Act
Q.63) Which of the following regarding Zero Hour are correct?
a) Zero hour is an indian innovation in the field of Parliamentary Procedure
b) The time gap between the question hour and the agenda of house is known as
Zero Hour
c) The device has been in existence since 1962
d) It is an informal device available to the members of the parliament
1. a, b and c
2. a, c and d
3. b and c
4. All of the above
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Source: Indian Polity by M. Laxmikanth Chapter 22 Parliament Page 22.14
Q.64) Consider the following statements
1. The provisions of part IX of the constitution relating to the panchayats are not
applicable to the Fifth Schedule Areas.
2. At present seven states have fifth schedule areas.
3. The parliament has enacted PESA act in 1996 for such areas.
Which of the following is/are correct?
1. a and b
2. a and c
3. Only a
4. All of the above
Source: http://vle.du.ac.in/mod/book/print.php?id=12256&chapterid=25073
Q.65) Which article of the constitution provides that it shall be the duty of the Union to
promote the spread of the Hindi language, to develop it so that it may become the
‘Lingua Franca’ of the composite culture of India?
1. Article 343
2. Article 348
3. Article 350
4. Article 351
Source: http://mhrd.gov.in/article-351
Q.66) The second schedule of the Indian Constitution mentions salary, allowances and
other privileges of certain officials. Which one of the following is not among those
officials?
1. Deputy speaker of legislative assembly
2. Deputy chairman of legislative assembly
3. The Attorney general of India
4. The Comptroller and Auditor General of India
Source: https://www.mea.gov.in/Images/pdf1/S2.pdf
Q.67) Which one of the following statements is/are correct?
a) Only the Rajya Sabha not Lok Sabha can have nominated members
b) There is a constitutional provisions for nominating two members belonging to
the Anglo-Indian community to the Rajya Sabha.
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c) There is no constitutional bar for nominated members to be appointed as
nominated members
d) A nominated member can vote for both in Presidential and vice-presidential
elections
1. a and b
2. c and d
3. Only b
4. Only c
Source:
https://books.google.co.in/books?id=ueZIDwAAQBAJ&pg=PA1964&lpg=PA1964&dq=
there+is+no+constitutional+bar+for+nominated+members+to+be+appointed+as+uni
on+minister&source=bl&ots=OKhpEbFOpe&sig=mZWY_l4IYPzsz3XLm46YcGRudl4&
hl=en&sa=X&ved=0ahUKEwiGpIGGqqraAhXJQo8KHeWxCh04ChDoAQgqMAE#v=on
epage&q=there%20is%20no%20constitutional%20bar%20for%20nominated%20mem
bers%20to%20be%20appointed%20as%20union%20minister&f=false
Q.68) Select the correct statement/s
1. Some democratic countries are republic
2. Some democratic countries are not republics
Answer Options:
1. Only a
2. Only b
3. Both a and b
4. Neither a nor b
Source: https://blogs.timesofindia.indiatimes.com/aakarvani/yes-india-is-a-
democracy-but-its-not-really-a-republic/
Q.69) Select the correct statement/s
a) A citizen enjoys all the civil rights in the state
b) A citizen enjoys all the political rights in the state
c) An alien enjoys all the civil rights in the state
d) An aline enjoys all the political rights in the state
Answer Options:
1. Only a, b and c
2. Only a, b and d
3. Only a and b
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4. Only a, c and d
Source: http://www.politicalsciencenotes.com/essay/citizenship-meaning-definition-
and-other-details/270
Q.70) Arrange in appropriate order (formation of the states)
1. Mizoram
2. Nagaland
3. Meghalaya
4. Maharashtra
Answer Options:
1. a, d, b, d
2. d, b, c, a
3. c, d, b, a
4. d, b, a, c
Source: http://india.code2care.org/india-states-formation-dates/
Q.71) Out of the following statements about the regulatory body in the field of higher
education, which is not correct?
1. National Knowledge Commission under the leadership of Sam Pitroda in 2005
had proposed independent regulatory authority for higher education insitutions.
2. Yashpal Committee recommended single independent regulatory authority for
higher education institutions
3. Central Government has proposed to replace present regulatories body in the
field of higher education with a single regulatory body called Higher Education
Empowerment Regulation Authority (HEERA)
4. University Grants Commission (UGC) is the only existing regulatory
body in higher education at present.
Source: There are other regulatory institutions as well. eg- AICTE. Other statements are
correct. http://www.thehindu.com/education/the-heera-
conundrum/article19384415.ece
Q.72) Choose the correct statement/s from the following
1. India has less than one doctor per thousand population
2. The World Health Organization prescribes minimum one doctor - population
ratio of 3:1000. (3 doctors for 1000 people)
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Answer Options:
1. Only a
2. Only b
3. Both a and b
4. Neither a nor b
Source: http://indianexpress.com/article/india/less-than-one-doctor-for-1000-
population-in-india-government-tells-lok-sabha-4760892/
Q.73) Which of the following statements is incorrect about India’s ‘Act East Policy’?
1. This policy focuses on the extended neighbourhood in the Asia-Pacific region
2. This policy was originally conceived as an economic initiative.
3. The policy promoted enhanced connectivity to Asia-Pacific region through North-
East region
4. The policy promotes proactive diplomacy with political and military
intervention to curb insurgency in the Asia-Pacific and Indian Ocean
Region
Source: http://pib.nic.in/newsite/PrintRelease.aspx?relid=133837
Q.74) Consider the following statements about ‘Jnanpith (Gyanpith)’ Awards:
1. Sponsored by the Government of India since 1952
2. Prior to 1982 it was given to a single worker of a writer
3. Now it is given for the lifetime contribution of the writer
4. Award for the year 2017 has been declared to Krishna Sobti
Which of the above statements are correct?
1. a, b and c
2. b, c and d
3. a and d
4. a, b, c and d
Source: http://jobprostuti.com/jnanpith-award-list-of-jnanpith-award-winners-for-all-
literature-1965-2016jnanpith-gk/
Q.75) Who is the Chairman of the 15th Finance Commission?
1. N.K. Singh
2. N.K. Mishra
3. N.K. Rajan
4. N.K. Tyagi
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Source: https://economictimes.indiatimes.com/news/economy/policy/former-
bureaucrat-n-k-singh-appointed-as-15th-finance-commission-
chairman/articleshow/61823541.cms
Q.76) Which of the following statements about Mumbai Metropolitan Region
Development Authority (MMRDA) is false?
1. Chief Minister is the chairman of the authority.
2. The agency was established in the year 1975.
3. Metropolitan Governor is an appointee by the Government of India.
4. The agency brings about improvement in sectors like transport, housing, water
supply and environment in the region.
Source: https://mmrda.maharashtra.gov.in/who-we-are
Q.77) Dr. Dhriendra Pal Singh was recently in the news. What is not true about him?
1. He was the director of NAAC (National Assessment and Accreditation Council).
2. He was the vice-chancellor of Banaras Hindu University.
3. He was the director of Indian Institute of Science.
4. He has been appointed as the chairman of UGC.
Source: https://timesofindia.indiatimes.com/india/prof-dhirendra-pal-singh-
appointed-ugc-chairman/articleshow/62210914.cms
Q.78) In Maharashtra, Dr. Abdul Kalam Ahar Yojana is related with?
1. Providing square meal in the higher education institutes of the tribal region.
2. Providing square meal to the needy students in the secondary schools in the tribal
region.
3. Providing square meals to the pregnant and the lactating mothers in
the tribal areas.
4. Providing square meals to the Aanganwadi Sevikas.
Source: https://govinfo.me/apj-abdul-kalam-amrut-yojn/
Q.79) Match the Pairs:
Author Books
A Shashi Tharoor I Ghachar Ghochar
B Raghuram Rajan II The End of Karma
C Somini Sengupta III I do What I do
D Vivek Shanbhag IV An Era of Darkness
A B C D
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1. IV III II I
2. IV II III I
3. III IV II I
4. III IV I II
Source: https://www.goodreads.com/book/show/36065279-i-do-what-i-do
https://www.goodreads.com/book/show/32618967-an-era-of-darkness
https://www.goodreads.com/book/show/30231800-the-end-of-karma
https://www.goodreads.com/book/show/30267604-ghachar-ghochar
Q.80) Kazuo Ishiguro is awarded with nobel prize in literature in 2017. Which of the
following are not his works?
1. The Remains of the Day
2. A Pale view of Hills
3. An artist of the Floating World
4. Norwegian Wood
5. Kafka on the Shore
Answer Options:
1. a, b, c, d, e
2. b,c and d
3. b,c and e
4. d and e
Source: https://www.goodreads.com/book/show/4929.Kafka_on_the_Shore
https://www.goodreads.com/book/show/11297.Norwegian_Wood
Q.81) Select the incorrect statement.
a) The first global conference on Cyber Space was held in London in 2011.
b) The fourth global conference on Cyber Space was held in Budapest in 2015.
c) The fifth global conference on Cyber Space was held in New Delhi in 2017.
1. a
2. b
3. c
4. None of the above
Source: http://pib.nic.in/newsite/PrintRelease.aspx?relid=173571
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Q.82) Choose the incorrect statement.
a) The World Mental Health day is observed on 10th October every year.
b) The theme of 2017 World Mental Health Day was ‘Mental Health at the
Workplace’.
c) The World Mental Health Day is celebrated on April 7th every year.
d) The theme of 2017 World Health Day was ‘Depression’.
1. b
2. d
3. c
4. None of the above
Source: http://www.who.int/campaigns/world-health-day/2017/campaign-
essentials/en/ http://www.who.int/mental_health/world-mental-health-day/2017/en/
Q.83) From 5th October to 25th October 2017 - this period of 21 days was celebrated by
Government of India as
1. Paryatan Parv
2. Swachhata Pakhwada
3. National Integration Parv
4. Mental Health Awareness Abhiyan
Source: http://pib.nic.in/newsite/PrintRelease.aspx?relid=171418
Q.84) ‘Bharat Net’ is the flagship programme of the Government of India
1. To provide broadband services and in rural and remote areas of
India.
2. To provide broadband services in all higher educational institutes of India.
3. To provide broadband services to all railway stations in India
4. To provide broadband services to all government hospitals in India.
Source: https://www.thehindubusinessline.com/economy/budget/bharatnet-project-
gets-10000cr-boost/article9515440.ece
Q.85) Government of Maharashatra’s Sumatibai Sukalikar Udyogini Mahila
Sakshamikaran Yojna is related to:
1. Interest Subvention to eligible women Self Help Groups.
2. Loan facilities to women entrepreneurs to buy land.
3. Tax waivers to women entrepreneurs in Mumbai and Nagpur.
4. Loan with 4% interest to women Self Help Groups in Maharashtra.
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Source:
https://mahades.maharashtra.gov.in/MPSIMS/ViewSchemeProfile.do?OWASP_CSRF
TOKEN=null&mode=printProfile&recordId=99214&planyearId=2016
Q.86) Who form the following Gupta kings took the title of Mahendraditya?
1. Chandragupta II
2. Samudragupta
3. Kumaragupta
4. Skandagupta
Source: https://www.importantindia.com/9491/gupta-empire/
Q.87) Match the following:
A Takshan I Carpenter
B Bhagadhuga II Collector of Taxes
C Kshattri III Chamberlain
D Vidhata IV An assembly in both men and women participated
Answer Options:
A B C D
1. IV III II I
2. II I IV III
3. I II III IV
4. III IV I II
Source: http://www.historydiscussion.net/politics/evolution-of-political-
institutions-in-india-during-vedic-period/555
Q.88) Consider the following statements and choose the correct answer option:
1. The relic of Chalcolithic Civilization were found at Jorwe, Nevasa, Daimabad,
Chandoli, Songaon, Inamgaon, Prakashe, Nasik, etc. in Maharashtra.
2. The relics of chalcolithic Civilization were found at Ahar and Gilund in Rajasthan
and Malwa, Kayatha, Eran, etc. in Madhya Pradesh.
Answer Options:
1. Both statements are correct
2. Both statements are incorrect
3. Statement a is correct but statement b is incorrect
4. Statement b is correct but statement a is incorrect
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Source: https://scholarspace.manoa.hawaii.edu/bitstream/10125/19138/1/AP-v14n1-
139-146.pdf
Q.89) Dasharadhanya Yuddha (war) was fought between whom from the following?
1. Purohit and Vishwamitra
2. Vishwamitra and Bharat tribe
3. Sudas and Vashishtha
4. Puru and Vishwamitra
Source: https://iskcondesiretree.com/profiles/blogs/incarnations-of-vishnu-in-7-
manu-epochs-development-of-human
Q.90) Which of the following edicts have information about Samrat Ashoka’s Dhamma?
1. Minor edict
2. Bhabru edicts
3. Kalinga edicts
4. Fourteen edicts
Source:
https://www.repository.cam.ac.uk/bitstream/handle/1810/242939/bot_1994_02_01.p
df?sequence=1
Q.91) Match the four provinces of Chandragupta Maurya’s kingdom with their capitals
a Uttarapatha I Patliputra
b Paschim Patha II Suvarnagiri
c Purva Path III Ujjayini
d Dakshin Path IV Takshashila
a b c d
1. II III IV I
2. I IV II III
3. IV III I II
4. III II IV I
Sources:
https://books.google.co.in/books?id=njYpsvmr2dsC&pg=PA8&lpg=PA8&dq=uttarapat
ha+capital&source=bl&ots=EYTgmr3pV0&sig=gpeQW5BcjPhsGl856Y0CEd5DtW8&hl
=en&sa=X&ved=0ahUKEwif77qrt6raAhUIRY8KHaTpCX0Q6AEIaDAG#v=onepage&q
=uttarapatha%20capital&f=false
Q.92) Identify the person from the following description:
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1. Founder of a great empire
2. Cultured, Scholar and poet
3. The famous poet Harisen was his court poet and buddhist scholar Vasubandhu
was in his court.
4. Vincent Smith praises him as the ‘Indian Napoleon’
Answer Options:
1. Harisen
2. Kanishek
3. Samudragupta
4. Chandragupta Maurya
Sources: http://www.historydiscussion.net/biography/biography-of-samudragupta-
and-his-rule-in-ancient-india/2489
Q.93) Identify the person from the description given below:
1. He destroyed the the dominance of Ulemas in the state
2. He was mighty warrior and the successful general
3. He was supposed to be the first Sultan to attack the southern kingdoms
4. The famous poet Amir Khusro was in his court
Answer Options
1. Altamash
2. Muhammad Tughlaq
3. Alauddin Khilji
4. Qutubuddin Aibak
Sources: https://www.thefamouspeople.com/profiles/alauddin-khilji-6242.php
Q.94) Identify the person form the description given below:
a) He was given the title Andhra Bhoj
b) There were 18 famous telugu poets in his court
c) He established the city called ‘Nagalapuram’
d) He was the only Hindu king to conquer to conquer the capitals of the Muslim
Kingdoms of Bidar and Gulbarga.
1. Ram Deva Raya
2. Pulakeshi I
3. Parantaka I
4. Krishnadeva Raya
Sources: https://www.thefamouspeople.com/profiles/krishnadevaraya-6287.php
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Q.95) Which of the following provisions was not involved in the treaty of
Shrirangapattana between Tipu Sultan and the British?
1. Tipu should give the war expenditure worth three and half crore rupees to the
British.
2. Tipu should give half of his state to the British
3. Tipu’s two sons will be the hostages of the British
4. Tipu should accept subsidiary Alliance
Source: https://www.revolvy.com/main/index.php?s=Treaty%20of%20Seringapatam
Q.96) ______ had also founded ‘Free India Centres’ in Rome and Paris.
1. Subhas chandra bose
2. Madam Cama
3. Annie Besant
4. Shyamji Krishna Varma
Sources: http://www.freeindianlegion.info/pag_subhas-chandra-bose.php
Q.97) Who is described in the following sentences?
a) She was Gandhiji's staunch disciple
b) She was the daughter of a british admiral
c) She was popularly known as Mira Behn
1. Sister Nivedita
2. Miss Carpenter
3. Miss slade
4. Miss Nightingale
Sources: https://www.britannica.com/biography/Mirabehn
Q.98) Consider the following statements, and choose the correct answer statements.
1. The new variety of activity in India therefore called for the transformation of a
traditionally and mentally subject society into receptive to democratic ideas and
responding to the call of agitation
2. It was an arduous and stupendous task
Answer Options:
1. Both the statements are correct and statement b is correct
explanation of statement a
2. Neither of the statements is correct
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3. Both the statements are correct but statement b is not the correct explanation of
statement a
4. Statement a is correct but statement b is incorrect
Sources:
Q.99) Name the social reformer described in following statements:
1. His family believed in the teaching of Kabir who condemned the Caste System
2. His father served in the army and retired as a Subedar-Major.
3. His satchel was untouchable for the lady peon in his school.
4. He could not study Sanskrit because he was an untouchable
Answer Options:
1. Mahatma Jyotiba Phule
2. Shri Javalkar
3. Dr. Babasaheb Ambedkar
4. Shri Gholap
Sources: https://www.culturalindia.net/reformers/br-ambedkar.html
Q.100) Name the social reformer described in the following sentences:
1. He was the recipient of American Unitarian Association Scholarship.
2. He had been to England for two years for the comparative study of many
religions
3. He attended the conference on religions in Amsterdam
4. He used to write for Subodh Patrika
Answer Options:
1. Dr. Babasaheb Ambedkar
2. Vitthal Saheb Shinde
3. Baburao Patil
4. Baburao Jedhe
Sources: https://iarf.net/wp-content/uploads/2012/04/Summary-IARF-history-
written-1999.pdf
