Module 11A

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Raju Poulose Kuwait Airways Module 11

Module 11A

TURBINE AEROPLANE AERODYNAMICS,

STRUCTURES AND SYSTEMS

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Theory of Flight - Aeroplane Aerodynamics and Flight Controls

1. Slats are used to

change the wing camber

decrease the stalling angle

ensure the boundary layer does not separate from the wing surface too soon

2. As a subsonic aircraft speeds-up, its Centre of Pressure

moves forward

is unaffected

moves aft

3. Wing spoilers, when used asymmetrically, are associated with

ailerons

elevators

rudder

4. Which tab's movement is directly from the control column?

Balance tab

Servo tab

Anti-balance tab

5. Deploying a secondary flight control surface will

not affect the angle of attack

decrease the angle of attack of the aerofoil

increase the angle of attack of the aerofoil

6. If an aircraft is yawing to the left, where would you position the trim tab on the rudder to correct?

To the right

To the centre

To the left

7. A plain flap

when retracted forms the lower surface of the wing

when extended provides a slot between the wing and the flap

when extended rotates on a simple hinge as if to bend the trailing edge of the wing down

8. If an aircraft is flying with a left wing low, where would you move the left aileron trim tab to correct?

Assuming that the aircraft is to remain at constant altitude, it must reduce its angle of attack as it speeds-up. This alone will move the CofP rearwards, in accordance with the sub-sonic angle of attack change theory.

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Up

Moving the aileron trim tab will not correct the situation

Down

9. When a leading edge flap is fully extended, what is the slot in the wing for?

To allow the flap to retract into it when it retracts

To increase the lift

To re-energise the boundary layer

10. Sweepback on the wing will

cause stall to occur at lower angles of attack

reduce tendency to tip stall

increase tendency to tip stall

11. A wing has a span of 50 feet and an area of 200 square feet. Its mean chord would be

7.5 feet

10 feet

4 feet

12. With respect to differential aileron control, which of the following is true?

The up-going and down-going ailerons both deflect to the same angle

The up-going aileron moves through a smaller angle than the down-going aileron

The down-going aileron moves through a smaller angle than the up-going aileron

13. The aeroplane fin is of symmetrical aerofoil section and will therefore provide a side-load

only if a suitable angle of attack develops due to yaw

only when the rudder is moved

if a suitable angle of attack develops due either yaw or rudder movement

14. An aircraft left wing is flying low. The aileron trimmer control to the left aileron trim tab in the cockpit would be

moved-down causing the left aileron to move down

moved-up causing the left aileron to move up

moved-up causing the left aileron to move down

15. What is true regarding deployment of Slats / Krueger flaps?

Krueger flaps increase the critical angle of attack, Slats do not

Slats form a slot, Krueger flaps do not

Slats increase the critical angle of attack, Krueger flaps do not

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16. On a swept back wing, in which of the following locations would Krueger Flaps be fitted?

Outboard leading edge

Inboard leading edge

The trailing edge

17. An aeroplane performs a straight and level horizontal flight at the same angle of attack at two different altitudes: (all other factors of importance being constant, assume ISA conditions and no compressibility effects)

the TAS at the higher altitude is higher

the TAS at the higher altitude is lower

the TAS at both altitudes is the same

18. Extending the flaps while maintaining a constant angle of attack (all other factors constant)

the aircraft will climb

the aircraft will yaw

the aircraft will sink suddenly

19. What pitching moment will be generated when Fowler flaps are deployed on an aircraft with a high mounted (T-tail) tailplane?

An aircraft nose down pitching moment

The nose up pitching moment will be balanced by the nose down pitching moment

An aircraft nose up pitching moment

20. An increase in aspect ratio will

cause VMD to be increased

cause induced drag to increase

cause VMD to be reduced

21. Geometric washout means that

the tip of the wing has more angle of attack than the root

there is an airflow along the wing that keeps it clean

the tip of the wing has less angle of attack than the root

22. The purpose of a slot in a wing is to

speed up the airflow and increase lift

provide housing for the slat

act as venturi, accelerate the air and re-energise boundary layer

23. Large flap deployment

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has no effect on spanwise flow

causes increased spanwise flow towards tips on wing lower surface

causes increased spanwise flow towards tips on wing upper surface

24. How do vortex generators work?

Reduce the adverse pressure gradient

Take energy from free stream and introduce it into the boundary layer

Re-direct slantwise flow

25. Winglets

decrease the static lateral stability

create an elliptical lift distribution

decrease the induced drag

26. Which part of the wing of a swept-wing aircraft stalls first?

Both stall together

Root stalls first

Tip stalls first

27. A function of vortex generators in the transonic regime is to

reduce boundary layer separation drag when shockwaves form

prevent the rearward shift of CP on swept wing stalls

reduce wing root compression effects

28. During flight, an aircraft is yawing to the right. The aircraft would have a tendency to fly

right wing low

left wing low

nose up

29. During acceleration in level flight

the transition point on the wing moves forward

the lift coefficient reduces

the wing stagnation point moves aft

30. As altitude increases, the equivalent airspeed at which an aeroplane stalls in a particular configuration will

remain the same regardless of altitude

remain equal to the calibrated airspeed

decrease as the true airspeed decreases

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31. With a drop in ambient temperature, an aircraft service ceiling will

not be affected

lower

rise

32. When an aeroplane is flying at an airspeed which is 1.3 times its basic stalling speed, the coefficient of lift as a percentage of the maximum lift coefficient (CLmax) would be

59%

130%

77%

33. To maintain level flight, if the angle of attack is increased the speed must be

increased in the same ratio as the lift/drag ratio decreases

reduced

increased

34. Flap selection at constant IAS in straight and level flight will increase the

maximum lift coefficient (CLmax) and the drag

lift and the drag

lift coefficient and the drag

35. In straight and level flight, if airspeed ... the angle of attack ... and the incidence angle...

increases; decreases; decreases

increases; increases; decreases

decreases; increases; remains constant

36. What must happen to the CL when flaps are deployed while maintaining a constant IAS in straight and level flight?

Remain constant

Decrease

Increase

37. If VS is 100 kt in straight and level flight, during a 45 bank turn VS will be

119 kts

100 kts

140 kts

38. What is the effect on TAS if altitude is increased to 35,000 ft while flying at a constant Mach number?

Remain the same

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Increase then remain constant

Decrease

39. If IAS is doubled, by which of the following factors should the original CL be multiplied to maintain level flight?

4.0

0.5

0.25

40. When an aircraft is in a steady climb, how will the wing stalling angle be affected?

The stalling angle will remain the same, regardless of altitude

The stalling angle will increase with increasing altitude

The stalling angle will reduce with increasing altitude

41. The centre of pressure is in its most forward position

when the angle of attack is equal to the stalling angle of attack

when the angle of attack exceeds the stalling angle of attack

when the angle of attack is smaller than the stalling angle of attack

42. The angle of attack at which an aircraft stalls

increases with an increase in gross weight

remains constant regardless of gross weight

varies with gross weight and density altitude

43. The following factors increase stall speed:

A higher weight, selecting a higher flap setting, a forward c .g. shift

An increase in load factor, a forward c.g. shift, decrease in thrust

A lower weight, decreasing bank angle, a smaller flap setting

44. Stall speed in a turn is proportional to

weight

the square root of the load factor

lift

45. An aeroplane has a stalling speed of 100 kt in a steady level flight. When the aeroplane is flying a level turn with a load factor of 1.5, the stalling speed is

122 kt

141 kt

82 kt

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46. A wing stalling angle is

decreased in a turn

unaffected by a turn

increased in a turn

47. What effect does an increased load have on an aircraft?

The aircraft will suffer immediate structural failure

The aircraft will have a tendency to roll and yaw

The aircraft will stall at a higher speed

48. Which stall has the greatest angle of attack?

Deep stall

Low speed stall

High speed stall (shock stall)

49. A jet aeroplane cruises buffet free at high constant altitude in significant turbulence. Which type of stall can occur if this aeroplane decelerates?

Shock stall

Low speed stall

Accelerated stall

50. On a swept wing aeroplane at low airspeed, the pitch-up phenomenon

is caused by wingtip stall

never occurs, since a swept wing is a remedy to pitch up

is caused by extension of trailing edge lift augmentation devices

51. Which of the following statements about stall speed is correct?

Increasing the angle of sweep of the wing will decrease the stall speed

Use of a T-tail will decrease the stall speed

Decreasing the angle of sweep of the wing will decrease the stall speed

52. How are the wing stalling angle and the lift coefficient affected when altitude increases and EAS is held constant?

The lift coefficient remains constant and the wing stalling angle will reduce

The lift coefficient and the wing stalling angle both decrease

The lift coefficient and the wing stalling angle both remain constant

53. The stall speed

does not depend on weight

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increases with an increased weight

decreases with an increased weight

54. Increase of wing loading will

decrease the minimum gliding angle

increase the stall speed

decrease take off speeds

55. The most common stall sensing devices are normally located

on the upper surface of the wing

at or near the wing leading edge

on the lower surface of the wing

56. If angle of attack is increased beyond the critical angle of attack, the lift coefficient ... and the stagnation point moves...

decreases; rearward

increases; rearward

decreases; forward

57. In a turn, the wing stalling angle

remains unchanged

decreases

increases

58. As the angle of attack of a wing is increased, the centre of pressure will reach its most forward position on the wing

just before the wing stalls

when the aircraft is stalling

after stall recovery

59. Which kind of boundary layer has the strongest change in velocity close to the surface?

Turbulent boundary layer

No difference

Laminar boundary layer

60. One disadvantage of the swept back wing is it is stalling characteristics. At the stall

tip stall will occur first, which produces a nose-down moment

tip stall will occur first, which produces a pitch-up moment

wing root stall will occur first, which produces a rolling moment

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61. Which of the following aircraft designs would be most prone to super stall?

T-tail

Swept forward wing

Swept back wing

62. The stall speed in a 60° banked turn increases by the following factor

1

1.41

2.00

63. The speed range between high and low speed buffet

increases during descent at a constant IAS

decreases during a descent at a constant Mach number

increases during climb

64. The boundary layer of a wing is caused by

a layer on the wing in which the stream velocity is lower than the free stream velocity, due to friction

suction at the upper wing side

a turbulent stream pattern around the wing

65. The stalling speed in IAS will change according to the following factors?

May increase with altitude, especially high altitude, will increase during icing conditions and will increase when the c.g. moves forward

Will increase in a turn, higher temperature and will increase when the c.g. moves aft.

Will increase with increased load factor, more flaps and increased bank angle in a turn

66. The pitch-up effect of an aeroplane with swept wing in a stall is due to the

forward movement of the centre of gravity

wing root stalling first

wing tip stalling first

67. When an aircraft with a typical aerofoil is in level flight at low speed and high angle of attack, the normal axis is

horizontal from side to side

nearly vertical

vertica

68. An aeroplane has a stall speed of 78 KCAS at its gross weight of 6.850 lbs. What is the stall speed when the weight is 5.000 lbs?

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67 KCAS

91 KCAS

78 KCAS

69. What causes a swept wing aircraft to pitch-up at the stall?

Rearward movement of the CP

Spanwise flow

Separated airflow at the root

70. Load factors has the following meaning:

The ratio of a specified load to the weight of the aircraft, the former being expressed in terms of aerodynamic forces, inertia forces and ground reactions

The ratio of a specified load to the mass of the aircraft, the former being expressed in terms of aerodynamic forces, inertia forces and ground reactions

The ratio of a specified load to the mass or the aircraft the former being expressed in terms of aerodynamic and inertia forces

71. When all other factors of importance are constant, the stall speed increases when

spoilers are retracted

pulling out of a dive

weight decreases

72. Which of the following is the correct order of configuration to give an increasing critical angle of attack?

Trailing edge flaps extended, clean wing, slats extended

Slats extended, clean wing, trailing edge flaps extended

Clean wing, trailing edge flaps extended, slats extended

73. What is the percentage increase in stall speed in a 45o bank turn

19%

10%

45%

74. When an aircraft wing stalls

a wing which is not swept back will stall from the root and the CP will move forwards

a swept back wing will stall from the tip and the CP will move forward

a swept back wing will stall from the root and the CP will move aft

75. At the same weight, with the CG at its forward limit

VS is higher, the stalling angle is unchanged

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VS is lower, the stalling angle is unchanged

VS is higher, the stalling angle is greater

76. Two identical aeroplanes A and B are flying horizontal steady turns. Further data is: A: W=1500 kg Bank= 20° TAS= 130 kt, B: W= 1500 kg Bank= 20° TAS= 200 kt. Which of the following statements is correct?

The rate of turn A is larger than the rate of turn B

The turn radius A is larger than the turn radius B

The load factor A is larger than the load factor B

77. Which of the following situations leads to a decreasing stall speed (IAS)?

Increasing air density

Increasing load factor

Decreasing weight

78. The purpose of a fixed spoiler on the leading edge of a wing at the root is to

ensure that the root of the wing stalls before the tip does

prevent the wing from stalling at the root

reduce the landing distance required

79. In a level turn with 60° lateral bank, the load factor is 2.0 and the stall speed increases by

10 %

50 %

40 %

80. The critical angle of attack

increases if the CG is moved forward

changes with an increase in gross weight

remains unchanged regardless of gross weight

81. An aeroplane has been loaded in such a manner that the centre of gravity is located behind the aft centre of gravity limit. One undesirable flight characteristic a pilot might experience with this aeroplane would be

difficulty in recovering from a stalled condition

a longer takeoff run

stalling at higher-than-normal airspeed

82. Vso is defined as the

stalling speed or minimum takeoff safety speed

stalling speed or minimum steady flight speed in a specified configuration

stalling speed or minimum steady flight speed in the landing configuration

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83. The stalling speed in IAS will change according to the following factors:

Decrease in a forward c.g. location, higher altitude and due to the slip stream from a propeller on an engine located forward of the wing

Increase with increased load factor, icing conditions and an aft c.g. location

Increase during turn, increased mass and forward c.g. location

84. With the centre of gravity on the forward limit, the stalling speed would be

lower than with the centre of gravity on the aft limit

the same as with the centre of gravity on the aft limit

higher than with the centre of gravity on the aft limit

85. The following takes place at the transition point on a wing:

The airflow separates completely from the wing surface

The boundary layer makes the transition from laminar flow to the turbulent boundary layer

The total dynamic and static pressure comes to a standstill

86. A low wing loading (aircraft weight has been reduced)

decreases stalling speed and landing speed

increases take-off run, stalling speed and landing speed

increases stalling speed

87. Stalling speed in a 15° bank level turn is 60kt. The stalling speed in a 45° bank level turn will be

60 kts

70 kts

50 kts

88. How does stalling speed (IAS) vary with altitude?

It remains constant at lower altitudes but decreases at higher altitudes due to compressibility effects

It remains constant

It increases with increasing altitude, because the density decreases

89. Extending a leading edge slat will have what effect on the angle of attack of a wing?

Decrease the angle of attack

No effect on angle of attack

Increase the angle of attack

90. As the centre of gravity is changed, recovery from a stall becomes progressively

becomes progressively more difficult as the centre of gravity moves aft.

is unaffected by centre of gravity position

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becomes progressively more difficult as the centre of gravity moves forward

91. To ensure that a wing stalls at the root first, stall wedges are

installed at the wing trailing edge at the wing root

installed on the wing leading edge at the wing root

installed on the wing leading edge at the wing tip

92. Which of the following statements about boundary layers is correct?

The turbulent boundary layer gives a lower skin friction than the laminar boundary layer

The turbulent boundary layer is thinner than the laminar boundary layer

The turbulent boundary layer has more kinetic energy than the laminar boundary layer

93. The angle of attack at which a wing stalls will

remain the same regardless of centre of gravity position

increase if the centre of gravity is moved aft

increase if the centre of gravity is moved forward

94. Entering the stall the centre of pressure of a straight (1) wing and of a strongly swept back wing (2) will

(1) move aft, (2) move forward

(1) not move (2) move forward

(1) move aft, (2) not move

95. Compared with stalling airspeed (VS) in a given configuration, the airspeed at which stick shaker will be triggered is

greater than VS

VS

less than VS

96. A boundary layer fence on a swept wing will

increase the critical Mach Number

improve the low speed characteristics

improve the high speed characteristics

97. If the straight and level stall speed is 100 kt, what will be the stall speed in a 1.5g turn?

81 kts

122 kts

150 kts

98. How does stalling speed vary with load factor?

It increases proportionally with the square root of the load factor

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It decreases inversely with the load factor

It decreases inversely with the square root of the load factor

99. When entering a stall, the CG of a straight wing will (i) and of a strongly swept wing will (ii)

(i) move aft, (ii) move aft

(i) not move, (ii) not move

(i) move aft, (ii) not move

100. After the transition point between the laminar and turbulent boundary layer

the mean speed increases and the friction drag decreases

the boundary layer gets thicker and the speed decreases

the mean speed and friction drag increases

101. The wing of an aeroplane will never stall at low subsonic speeds as long as

there is a nose-down attitude

the IAS exceeds the power-on stall speed

the angle of attack is smaller than the value at which the stall occurs

102. The load factor is

the ratio of thrust to weight

the ratio of lift to weight

the ratio of lift to drag

103. Which type of stall has the largest associated angle of attack?

Deep stall

Shock stall

Low speed stall

104. Which statement is correct about the laminar and turbulent boundary layer?

Friction drag is lower in the laminar layer

Friction drag is lower in the turbulent layer

Separation point will occur earlier in the turbulent layer

105. A slotted flap will increase the CLmax by

increasing only the camber of the aerofoil

increasing the critical angle of attack

increasing the camber of the aerofoil and improving the boundary layer

106. When a trailing edge flap is lowered fully

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the C of P moves to the rear and lift/drag ratio is unaffected

the C of P moves to the rear and lift/drag ratio is decreased

the C of P moves to the rear and lift/drag ratio is increased

107. Which statement is correct?

Extension of flaps will increase (CL/CD)max, causing the minimum rate of descent to decrease

Extension of flaps causes a reduction of the stall speed, the maximum glide distance also reduces

Spoiler extension decreases the stall speed and the minimum rate of descent, but increases the minimum descent angle

108. When the angle of attack of an aircraft is progressively increased, the wing centre of pressure will reach its most forward position

when the aircraft has stalled

at the optimum angle of attack of the wing

at the maximum lift coefficient (Clmax)

109. What is the most effective flap system?

Split flap

Single slotted flap

Fowler flap

110. An aeroplane with swept back wings is equipped with slats and/or leading edge (L.E.) flaps. One possible efficient way to arrange the leading edge devices on the wings is

Wing roots: L.E. flaps Wing tips: no devices

Wing roots: L.E. flaps Wing tips: slats

Wing roots: slats Wing tips: L.E. flaps

111. Which of the following statements about the difference between Krueger flaps and slats is correct?

Deploying a slat will form a slot deploying a Krueger flap does not

Deploying a Krueger flap will increase critical angle of attack, deploying a slat does not

Deploying a slat will increase critical angle of attack, deploying a Krueger flap does not

112. Vortex generators

change the turbulent boundary layer into a laminar boundary layer

reduce the span wise flow on swept wing

transfer energy from the free airflow into the boundary layer

113. When vortex generators are fitted they will normally be found

towards the wing trailing edge

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towards the wing root to act as a stall inducer

near the wing leading edge in front of control surfaces

114. During the extension of the flaps at a constant angle of attack the aeroplane starts to: (all other factors of importance being constant)

bank

sink suddenly.

climb

115. Deploying a Fowler flap, the flap will

turn down, then move aft

move aft, then turn down

just move aft

116. An aeroplane has the following flap settings: 0°, 15°, 30° and 45°. Slats can be selected too. Which of the above selections will produce the greatest negative influence on the CL/CD ratio?

Flaps from 0° to 15°



177. The effect of Winglets is

reduction in induced drag

elliptical pressure distribution increases

decrease in stall speed

118. When flaps are extended in a straight and level flight at constant IAS, the lift coefficient will eventually

increase

decrease

remain the same

119. When spoilers are used as speed brakes

they do not affect wheel braking action during landing

at same angle of attack, CD is increased and CL is decreased

at same angle of attack, CL remains unaffected

120. When a trailing edge flap is lowered during flight from take-off position to fully down position, one will experience

a large increase in lift and a small increase in drag

a small increase in lift and a large increase in drag

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a large increase in lift and a large increase in drag

121. What is the purpose of an auto-slat system?

Extend automatically when a certain value of angle of attack is exceeded

Provide automatically slat IN selection after take-off

Ensures that the slats are always extended when the ground/flight system is in the ground position

122. Which of the following series of configurations has an increasing critical angle of attack?

flaps only extended, clean wing, slats only extended

slats only extended, flaps only extended, clean wing

clean wing, flaps only extended, slats only extended

123. Where on the surface of a typical aerofoil will flow separation normally start at high angles of attack?

upper side leading edge

lower side leading edge

upper side trailing edge

124. If the flaps are lowered but the airspeed is kept constant, to maintain level flight

the nose must be pitched down

the altitude must be held constant

the nose must be pitched up

125. The effects of leading edge slats

increase camber, increase suction peak on main wing, increase effective angle of attack and move CLmax to higher angle of attack

increase boundary layer energy, increase suction peak on main wing section, move CLmax to a higher angle of attack

increase boundary layer energy, move suction peak on to slat and increase CLmax angle of attack

126. Flaps are used in order to

increase max lift coefficient by increasing max angle of attack

increase max L/D

decrease stalling speed and reduce max angle of attack thereby achieving a more nose down attitude near and at stalling speed

127. Deflection of leading edge flaps will

increase critical angle of attack

decrease CLmax

decrease drag

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128. During flap down selection in a continuous straight and level flight at constant IAS and weight

the lift coefficient and the drag coefficient increase

the stall speed increases

the centre of pressure moves aft

129. CLmax may be increased by the use of

both flaps and slats

flaps

slats

130. Compared with the flap up configuration the maximum angle of attack for the flaps down configuration is

unchanged

larger

smaller

131. Compared with the flap down configuration the maximum angle of attack for the flaps up configuration is

smaller

larger

unchanged

132. How is the pitching moment affected if flaps are deployed in straight and level flight?

Depends on wing position

Pitch up

Pitch down

133. What is the effect of lowering leading edge and trailing edge flaps in flight?

Cl decreases, Cd increases and the stalling angle of attack reduces

Cl increases, Cd increases and the stalling angle of attack increases

Cl increases, Cd remains the same and the stalling angle of attack increases.

134. Lowering the inboard flaps causes the wing Centre of Pressure

to move outboard towards the wing tips

to move forward

to move inboard towards the wing root

135. Slats

re-energise the boundary layer thereby increasing the stalling angle of attack

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re-energise the boundary layer thereby decreasing the stalling angle of attack

de-energise the boundary layer, thereby decreasing the stalling angle of attack

136. When deploying the flaps the effective angle of attack

remains the same

increases

decreases

137. Vortex generators mounted on the upper wing surface will

increase the interference drag of the trailing edge flaps

decrease the shock wave induced separation

decrease the stalling speed by increase of the tangential velocity of the swept wing

138. Vortex generators mounted on the upper wing surface will

decrease the stalling speed by increase of the tangential velocity of the swept wing

increase the shock wave induced separation

decrease the interference drag of the trailing edge flaps

139. It is possible to reduce the span wise airflow over swept wings, due to adverse pressure gradients, by

wing fences

trailing edge vortex generators

increased anhedral

140. After take-off the slats (when installed) are always retracted later than the flaps. Why?

Because SLATS EXTENDED provides a better view from the cockpit than FLAPS EXTENDED

Because SLATS EXTENDED gives a large decrease in stall speed with relatively less drag

Because FLAPS EXTENDED gives a large decrease in stall speed with relatively less drag

141. In order to maintain straight and level flight at a constant airspeed, whilst the flaps are being retracted, the angle of attack will

remain constant

decrease

increase

142. If flaps are deployed at constant IAS in straight and level flight, the magnitude of tip vortices will eventually: (flap span less than wing span)

increase

remain the same

decrease

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143. The trailing edge flaps, when extended

worsen the best angle of glide

significantly increase the angle of attack for maximum lift

improve the best angle of glide

144. One of the main purposes of using flaps during approach and landing is to

increase the angle of descent without increasing the airspeed

shift the centre of gravity aft

decrease the angle of descent without increasing the airspeed

145. The use of a slot in the leading edge of the wing enables the aeroplane to fly at a slower speed because

the laminar part of the boundary layer gets thicker

it delays the stall to a higher angle of attack

it changes the camber of the wing

146. What is the effect of deploying leading edge flaps?

Decrease the critical angle of attack

Not affect the critical angle of attack

Increase the critical angle of attack

147. The lift coefficient CL of a wing at a given angle of attack

is increased by the use of high lift devices

is constant and not affected by high lift devices

is dependent on the surface area of the wing

148. The optimum angle of attack for a typical aerofoil is about______________, and the actual angle of attack will be close to this optimum angle during________________________

4°, cruise

4°, a stall

16°, a stall

149. Upon extension of a spoiler on a wing

CD is increased and CL is decreased

CL is increased, while CD remains unaffected

only CL is decreased (CD remains unaffected)

150. If the weight of an aircraft is increased, the maximum lift-to-drag ratio will

increase

not be affected

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decrease

151. With reference to differential aileron control

drag decreases on the outer wing

drag increases on the outer wing

drag increases on the inner wing

152. Why are vortex generators often fitted on aircraft with straight wings?

To delay boundary layer separation

To reduce span wise airflow towards the wing root on the intrados

To reduce span wise airflow towards the wing tips on the extrados

153. The boundary layer of a body in a moving airstream is

a layer of air over the surface where the airspeed is changing from free stream velocity to zero velocity

a layer of air which is moving at free stream speed

a thin layer of air over the surface where the air is stationary

154. The transition point located on the wing is the point where

the boundary layer changes from laminar flow to turbulent flow

airflow starts separating from the wing

the airflow changes from subsonic to supersonic flow

155. The boundary layer is considered to be turbulent

between the transition and separation points

just in front of the transition point

just aft of the separation point

156. The advantage of a turbulent boundary layer over a laminar boundary layer is

thinner

less tendency to separate

decreases energy

157. A laminar boundary layer is_______________ and has______________drag than a turbulent layer.

thicker; more

thinner; less

thicker; less

158. When pulling out of a dive (e.g. looping) the angle of attack

remains the same

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increases

decreases

159. Dutch roll is movement in

yaw and roll

pitch and roll

yaw and pitch

160. If an aircraft is aerodynamically stable

aircraft returns to trimmed attitude

aircraft becomes too sensitive

C of P moves back

161. Ailerons control the aircraft in the

longitudinal plane

lateral plane

directional plane

162. An anti-balance tab is used

to relieve stick loads

to give more feel to the controls

for trimming the aircraft

163. Slats

keep the boundary layer from separating for longer

increase the overall surface area and lift effect of wing

act as an air brake

164. Due to the change of lift forces resulting from the extension of flaps in flight

nose should be raised, increasing AoA

nose should be lowered, reducing AoA

nose should remain in the same position, maintaining same AoA

165. Flight spoilers

can be deployed on the down going wing in a turn to increase lift on that wing

can be used to decrease lift to allow controlled descent without reduction of airspeed

can be used with differential ailerons to reduce adverse yaw in a turn

166. If the aircraft is flying nose heavy, which direction would you move the elevator trim tab?

24


Up to move elevator down

Up to move elevator up

Down to move elevator up

167. Wing tip vortices are strongest when

flying slowly at high angles of attack

flying high speed straight and level flight

flying into a headwind

168. An example of a secondary flight control is a

flap

elevator

spoiler

169. A balance tab

assists the pilot to move the controls

effectively increases the area of the control surface

is used to trim the appropriate axis of the aircraft

170. Which wing increases drag when the ailerons are moved?

Both wings have an equal increase in drag

Both wings increase drag but the wing with the down-going aileron increases more

Both wings increase drag but the wing with the up-going aileron increases more

171. Which flap will increase wing area and camber?

Slot

Split

Fowler

172. An automatic slat will lift by itself when the angle of attack is

high

high or low

low

173. On aircraft fitted with spoilers for lateral control, roll to the right is caused by

left spoilers extending, right spoilers remaining retracted

left and right spoilers extending

right spoilers extending, left spoilers remaining retracted

25


174. A split flap increases lift by increasing

the camber of the top surface

the surface area

the angle of attachment of the lower hinged portion

175. When the trailing edge flaps are lowered, the aircraft will

sink

pitch nose up

pitch nose down

176. Dutch roll is

a combined yawing and rolling motion

primarily a pitching instability

a type of slow roll

177. On an aircraft with an all-moving tailplane, pitch up is caused by

decreasing tailplane incidence

increasing tailplane incidence

up movement of the elevator trim tab

178. A leading edge slat is a device for

decreasing the stalling angle of the wing

increasing the stalling angle of the wing

decreasing wing drag

179. A Krueger flap is

a leading edge slat which extends forward

a leading edge flap which hinges forward

a flap which extends rearwards but does not lower

180. The layer of air over the surface of an aerofoil which is slower moving, in relation to the rest of the airflow, is known as

camber layer

boundary layer

none of the above are correct

181. When airflow velocity over an upper cambered surface of an aerofoil decreases, what takes place?

Pressure decreases, lift increases

Pressure increases, lift decreases

26


Pressure increases, lift increases

182. What is a controlling factor of turbulence and skin friction?

Aspect ratio

Fineness ratio

Countersunk rivets used on skin exterior

183. Changes in aircraft weight

will only affect total drag if the lift is kept constant

will not affect total drag since it is dependant only upon speed

cause corresponding changes in total drag due to the associated lift change

184. When an aircraft stalls

lift decreases and drag increases

lift increases and drag decreases

lift and drag increase

185. The aircraft stalling speed will

only change if the MTWA were changed

be unaffected by aircraft weight changes since it is dependant upon the angle of attack

increase with an increase in weight

186. In a bank and turn

extra lift is required

extra lift is not required

extra lift is not required if thrust is increased

187. The angle of attack at which stall occurs

cannot be varied, it is always constant

depends on the weight of the aircraft

can be varied by using flaps and slats

188. The primary function of a flap is

to trim the aircraft longitudinally

to alter the position of the centre of gravity

to alter the lift of an aerofoil

189. The stalling speed of an aircraft

is increased when it is lighter

27


does not change

is increased when it is heavier

190. A wing flap which has 'dropped' or partially extended on one wing in flight will lead to

a pitching moment which would be corrected by used of the elevators

a fixed banked attitude which would be corrected by use of the rudder

a steady rolling tendency which would be corrected by use of the ailerons

191. With an increase in the amount of flap deployment, the stalling angle of a wing

decreases

remains the same

increases

192. Downward displacement of an aileron

has no effect on its wing stalling angle, it only affects the stalling speed on that wing

decreases the angle at which its wing will stall

increases the angle at which its wing stalls

193. Due to the tailplane angle of attack change, the flap-induced downwash on the tailplane

will tend to cause an aircraft nose down pitch

may cause a nose-down or nose-up pitch depending upon the initial tailplane load

will tend to cause an aircraft nose-up pitch

194. Due to the change in lift coefficient accompanying extension of the flaps, to maintain the lift constant it would be necessary to

keep the pitch attitude constant

raise the nose

lower the nose

195. Which leading edge device improves the laminar flow over the wing?

Flap

Flap and slat

Slat

196. The tropopause exists at about

36,000 ft.

30,000 ft.

18,000 ft.

197. Induced drag curve characteristics of a slender delta wing are such that there is

28


decrease in gradient with wing speed

an increase in gradient with wing speed

no change in gradient with wing speed

198. If an aircraft is yawing left, to correct, the trim tab on the rudder would need to be positioned

to the left, moving the rudder right

to the centre

to the right, moving the rudder left

199. Instability giving roll and yaw

is longitudinal stability

is lateral stability

is dutch roll

200. Vortex generators are fitted to

move transition point rearwards

advance the onset of flow separation

move transition point forwards

201. Leading edge flaps

increase stalling angle of the wing

decrease stalling angle of the wing

do not change the stalling angle

202. Krueger flaps are on

either the leading or training edge

the trailing edge

the leading edge

203. Sweepback will

decrease lateral stability

increase lateral stability

not affect lateral stability

204. A plain flap

is attached to the leading edge of the wing

forms part of lower trailing edge

does not increase the wing area on deployment

29


205. A split flap, when deployed

is used only on high speed aircraft

increases drag with little lift coefficient increase, from intermediate to fully down

increases lift without a corresponding increase in drag

Theory of Flight - High Speed Flight

1. Air above approximately Mach 0.7 is

compressible

compressible only when above the speed of sound

incompressible

2. Supersonic air passing through a divergent duct causes the

pressure to increase, velocity to increase

pressure to increase, velocity to decrease

pressure to decrease, velocity to increase

3. An aircraft flying below the tropopause descends at a constant True Airspeed. Its Mach. No. will

not change

increase

decrease

4. Mach trim operation is enabled by

an autopilot trim motor

an electric Motor

a mach trim actuator

5. A shock wave is a very thin region in which there is a sudden decrease of

pressure

temperature

velocity

6. For a wing of low thickness-chord ratio the critical mach number will be

higher than wing of high thickness-chord ratio

the same as a wing of high thickness-chord ratio

lower than wing of high thickness-chord ratio

7. High speed buffet is caused by

30


airflow being detached by shock wave and flow striking the tail

high speed airflow striking the leading edge

the shock wave striking the tail

8. A nose down change of trim (tuck-under) occurs due to shock induced

tip stall on a straight wing aircraft

tip stall on a delta wing aircraft

root stall on a delta wing aircraft

9. A symmetrical aerofoil is accelerating through Mach 1 with an angle of attack of 0°. A shock wave will form

on the upper surface only and move aft

on the upper and lower surface and will move aft until the point of maximum camber

on the upper and lower surface and will move aft

10. At speeds greater than mach 1, airflow in the boundary layer is

supersonic

subsonic

stationary

11. Total Drag at high Mach numbers is a combination of

profile drag, form drag, induced drag and wave drag

wave drag, interference drag, form drag, and induced drag

induced drag, wave drag, form drag, skin friction drag and interference drag

12. What is a high speed stall?

Separation of the airflow due to shockwave formation

A stall caused by increasing the load factor (g) during a manoeuvre

A stall due to exceeding the critical angle of attack at high speed during a manoeuvre

13. Before an aircraft reaches critical mach

the nose pitches down because the CP moves rear

the nose pitches up because the CP moves Forward

the aircraft buffets because the CP moves to the shock wave

14. On a standard day, at which altitude will the speed of sound be the greatest?

Sea level

10,000 ft

20,000 ft

31


15. Which of the following will increase the Critical Mach Number of an aerofoil?

Increasing the aspect ratio of the wings

Using a thin airfoil and sweeping the wings back

Decreasing the fineness ratio of the wings

16. As an aircraft accelerates through the transonic region, the centre of pressure tends to

move forward

turn into a shock wave

move rearward

17. Supersonic air going through an incipient shock wave will decrease its speed and

increase temperature and decrease density

decrease temperature and increase density

increase temperature and increase density

18. On an aircraft travelling at speeds greater than Mach 1 the boundary layer is

stationary

thicker than if the aircraft were travelling slower than Mach 1

supersonic

19. At speeds above Mach 1, shockwaves will form above and below the wing

at the leading edge

at the trailing edge

at both the leading edge and the trailing edge

20. A high speed aircraft with MACH warning will

warn when Mach 1 has been exceeded

warn when coming to limits of upper envelope

warn when Mcrit is reached

21. Above the critical mach number, the drag coefficient

decreases

remains the same

increases

22. At high Mach Numbers above Mach 2.2, some aircraft metals

such as aluminium, become brittle

lose their strength due to the kinetic heating effect

32


will shrink due to the extreme pressures involved

23. Mach trim operates

along the longitudinal axis

along the lateral axis

to reduce Dutch roll

24. To increase critical mach number

the wings are swept

elevons are fitted

tailerons are fitted

25. An aircraft experiences a large loss of lift and a big increase in drag in straight and level flight, what would be the most probable cause?

Severe head winds

Atmospheric conditions

Aircraft reached its critical mach number

26. A Mach Trimmer is a device which

switches out trim control to prevent damage in the transonic speed range

prevents the aircraft from exceeding its critical Mach No

automatically compensates for trim changes in the transonic region

27. Critical Mach No. may be increased by

using more powerful engines

sweeping back the wing

using a higher thickness/chord ratio wing

28. Airflow either side of a normal shock wave is

sonic upstream and downstream

subsonic upstream, sonic downstream

sonic upstream, subsonic downstream

29. Mach Number is defined as

IAS divided by the local speed of sound

TAS divided by local speed of sound

speed of sound at sea level divided by local speed of sound

30. The reason for sharp leading edged wings on high speed aircraft is to

enable the shockwave to be accurately positioned

33


decrease wave drag

decrease boundary layer

31. Critical Mach Number is defined as

that number at which the airflow becomes supersonic

that free-stream Mach Number at which some part of the airflow over the aircraft becomes sonic

the minimum mach number at which the aircraft can go supersonic

32. The transonic region is a region of

all subsonic

mixed airflow

all supersonic

33. Immediately downstream of an oblique shockwave is always

subsonic

the same as upstream

supersonic

34. Wave drag

increases in the supersonic region

increases in the transonic region

increases at the low speed stall

35. For increased Mcrit

decrease sweepback

decrease thickness/chord ratio

decrease true airspeed

36. Symptoms of shock stall are

compressibility effects, buffet and loss of control

buffet, loss of control, and instability

decrease in speed, buffet and movement of the centre of pressure

37. Sweepback increases Mcrit by

decreasing the amount of airflow over the highest point on the aerofoil section

increasing the amount of airflow over the highest point on the aerofoil section

decreasing the amount of airflow over the lowest point on the aerofoil section

38. Mach number is

34


the ratio of the aircraft's TAS to the speed of sound at sea level

the ratio of the aircraft's IAS to the speed of sound at the same atmospheric conditions

the ratio of the aircraft's TAS to the speed of sound at the same atmospheric conditions

39. The critical Mach number is

the Mach No. when the aircraft reaches the speed of sound

the Mach No. when a shock wave forms at the leading edge

the aircraft Mach. No. when the airflow reaches the speed of sound at some point on the aircraft

40. Above the Critical Mach No. the drag coefficient will

start to increase

remain the same

start to decrease

41. A wing of low thickness/chord ratio, the Critical Mach No. will be

lower than a wing of high thickness/chord ratio

higher than a wing of high thickness/chord ratio

the same as a wing of high thickness/chord ratio

42. An aeroplane flying above the Critical Mach No. will usually experience

an oscillation in pitch

a nose up pitch

a nose down pitch

43. Tuck-under can be counteracted by

trim tabs

mach trim

aileron reversal

44. What causes tuck‑under?

Aileron reversal

Flap‑back effect

Shock stall

45. When does a shock stall occur?

When the aircraft forward speed is above Mach One

At the critical Mach number of the aeroplane

When the aircraft reaches speed of sound in a dive

35


46. With an increase in altitude under I.S.A. conditions, the temperature in the troposphere

decreases

remains constant

increases

47. Air either side of an oblique shockwave is generally

subsonic

sonic

supersonic

48. Downstream of a normal shock wave

pressure decreases temperature increases

pressure and temperature increase

pressure and temperature decrease

49. Speed of sound varies with

pressure

altitude

temperature

50. Immediately downstream of a normal shockwave, air is always

the same as upstream

supersonic

subsonic

51. Increased sweepback

raises Mcrit

decreases stability

improves tip stall characteristics

52. Aerodynamic heating

increases with skin friction

increases as a function of airspeed

decreases with altitude

53. To overcome ineffective control surface problems in the transonic region

Frise ailerons may be used

hydraulic powered elevators may be used

36


an all moving tailplane may be used

54. An aircraft flying below the tropopause descends at a constant True Airspeed, its Mach. No. will

decrease

increase

remain the same

55. To counter the effect of a shift of centre of pressure as an aircraft flies through the transonic region, fuel is pumped

backwards

forwards

sideways

56. To make flying controls more effective at high speed

vortex generators are used

area rule is used

wing fences are used

57. An aircraft flying above the tropopause descends at a constant True Airspeed, its Mach. No. will

increase

remain the same

decrease

58. The velocity of sound with an increase in altitude will

decrease

remain constant

increase

59. Mach number equals the ratio of

altitude to airspeed

true airspeed to local sonic speed

sonic speed to indicated airspeed

60. Tuck-under is caused by

tip stall on a swept wing aircraft

root stall on a swept wing aircraft

tip stall on a straight wing aircraft

61. The purpose of sweepback on an aerofoil is to

decrease drag

37


increase Mcrit

decrease Mcrit

62. As the airspeed over a cambered wing is increased, a shock wave will appear initially

near the point of maximum curvature

at the leading edge

at the trailing edge

63. In the transonic speed range

the position of the wing centre of pressure remains constant

the centre of pressure movement may become oscillatory

the centre of pressure initially moves forward, then back

Airframe Structures - General Concepts

1. ATA zone 500 is the

engine

right wing

left wing

2. ATA zone 330 is the

right horizontal stabiliser

vertical stabiliser

left horizontal stabiliser

3. A structure which, if it failed, would cause aircraft to crash is

primary

integral

essential

4. The method used on a work card to indicate the approximate location of a component is

stations

datum

zones

5. A loss of strength resulting from cyclic loading is known as

metal fatigue

age hardening

38


fail safe

6. Zone 320 under the ATA system is

vertical stabiliser

central fuselage

horizontal stabiliser

7. When doing a bonding check the maximum resistance between component and earth is

0.005ohms

1/50 ohms

50 milliohms

8. The fuel drain of a combustion heater must be protected from

ice build-up

lightning strike

accidental damage

9. Engine mounts provide for

longitudinal movement

torsional movement

lateral movement

10. Dyna engine mounts

reduce vibration from engine to airframe

prevent all vibration from engine to airframe

are constructed from plastic

11. How is damage to the nose cone of an aircraft prevented during a lightning strike?

Earthing Strap

Bonding Strip

Special paint

12. Tension is the stress of

elongating or stretch

crush or compression

twisting

13. A Fuselage Station is a

lateral point on aircraft fuse

39


longitudinal point on the aircraft fuselage

lateral point on aircraft wing

14. Composite materials are bonded by

special paint

copper wire

aluminium wire

15. ATA Zone 100 is

upper fuselage

lower fuselage

left-hand wing

16. The bonding lead to a remote aircraft component must be

0.25 in wide and 22 AWG

22 AWG

0.5 in wide

17. What force is an I-Beam subjected to?

Tension

Bending

Shear

18. A radome is protected from static electricity build-up by

special conductive grease

conductive paint

bonding strips

19. Precise points are located on an aircraft by a system of

frame stations, vertical lines and lateral lines

frame stations, water lines and buttock lines

longitudinal, vertical and lateral lines

20. Which of the following is an example of a fail safe structure?

Longeron

Stringer

Spar

21. Damage tolerant design

An I beam is subject to Bending, although different parts of it are subject to tension (upper boom) and shear (the web)

40


is applied only to secondary structure

allows for certain damage to the structure to go un-repaired between scheduled maintenance

allows for damage to structure by distributing loads to other structure

22. In the ATA 100 zonal system the passenger entry door will have a designation of

400

800

600

23. Which area of the aircraft is subject to hoop stress?

Wings

Pressure cabin

Control surfaces

24. Shear stress is described as

compressing forces

pulling forces

slip away under the action of forces

25. The ground cable must be

single strand copper wire 0.5 in. cross sectional area

single strand 18 AWG

copper stranded 0.5 in. cross sectional area

26. Where on the aircraft is FS245, RWS45?

245 inches from the nose of the aircraft and 45 inches from the centreline of the right wing

245 inches from the datum line of the aircraft and 45 inches from the centreline of the right wing

245 inches from the nose of the aircraft and 45 inches from the tip of the right wing

27. How is the radome protected from lightning strike?

Special paint

Special grease on the hinges

Diverter strips

28. If you short the two prongs with the single prong of a bonding tester together, what would the gauge read?

Centre scale

Zero

Full scale deflection

41


29. A condition after which a permanent deformation of a material is caused, is known as

strain

shear

bending

30. Semi-monocoque construction

is used only for the fuselage

utilizes the safe-life design concept

offers good damage resistance

31. Most radio aerials are

not bonded

bonded

insulated from the fuselage

32. Secondary bonding is usually provided with

18 AWG

single strand 0.25 inch

stranded copper 0.25 inch

33. Water Lines (WLs) are measured points on a

wing line

horizontal line

vertical line

34. The various parts of the aircraft airframe are maintained at the same potential by

earthing

bonding

static wicks

35. The cross sectional area of a secondary conductor must be not less than

22 SWG x 0.5

22 SWG x 0.25

18 SWG for a single wire

36. What governs the ultimate fatigue life of an aircraft?

Landings

Flying Hours

42


Pressure Cycles

37. The main forces on an aircraft structure are

tension, compression, torsion and shear

tension, compression, twisting and shear

tension, compression, torsion and strain

38. The life of the structure is counted by

flying hours

landings

pressurization cycle

39. What are buttock lines?

Vertical measurement lines

Horizontal measurement lines

Measurements from the centre line

40. Aircraft fibreglass panels are protected against lightning strikes, partially by

conductive paint

non-conductive paint

bonding

41. A member taking a compression load is called a

beam

strut

cable

42. Stringers are used in which of the following types of aircraft fuselage construction?

Semi-monocoque

Truss type

Monocoque

43. Wing stations are measured

outboard from the wing root

inboard from the wing upper surface

outboard from the fuselage centreline

44. What load is a tie rod designed to accept?

Bending

43


Tensile

Torsion

45. If a colour is used to identify primary structure, it will be

yellow

green

red

46. Which of the following is primary structure?

Stringer

Frame

Skin

47. Fuselage station numbers are measured from the front of the aircraft in

inches

feet

feet and inches

48. Which parts of the aircraft are classified secondary structures?

These parts of the airframe are highly stressed but if damaged will not cause failure of the aircraft

These parts of the airframe are highly stressed and if damaged may cause failure of the aircraft and loss of life

These are lightly stressed parts such as fairings, wheel shields and minor component brackets etc.

49. Structure with built‑in redundancy is called

failsafe

double safe

safe life

50. Stress

is the load per unit area acting on a material

is the deformation of a material caused by applied load

is the property of a material to resist fracture

51. A piece of structure which must be replaced at a specified number of cycles, flying hours or years, regardless of its physical condition is what type of item?

Fail-safe

Safe-life

Condition monitored

44


52. If you are unable to identify a structure 'classification' as either Primary or Secondary, what action should you adopt?

Grade it as secondary

Upgrade it to primary

Paint it red and stamp it as 'tertiary'

53. Safe-life is

the sharing of loads between adjacent members

the maximum number of flying hours that should elapse before a major structural failure occurs

the minimum number of flying hours that should elapse before a major structural failure occurs

54. Bending stresses are a combination of

tension and compression stresses

torsional and compression stresses

tension and shear stresses

55. The Airworthiness Notice that refers to structural surveys is

Notice 65

Notice 89

Notice 79

56. Structural survey inspections are normally called up by the

maintenance engineer

manufacturer

operator

57. Where are wing stations measured from?

Butt Line (BL)

Zone Line (ZL)

Water Line (WL)

58. Where is Zone 323?

Between rear spar and trailing edge

Tip of vertical stabiliser

Between front and rear spar

59. To prevent a system being affected by high current flows after a lightning strike to a composite aircraft, electricity is discharged through

electrically connected primary conductors

Airbus A320 AMM 06-20-00-00 shows zone 323 as between the front and rear spar of the vertical stab. Zone 324 is the tip of the vertical stab.

45


a sprayed coat of non-conductive paint

a sprayed coat of conductive paint

60. A structural member intended to resist compression is a

strut

tie

web

61. An aircraft structure, having multiple load paths, is known as a

fail-safe design

monocoque design

safe-life design

62. Wrinkling of the skin on the upper surface of the fuselage indicates

sagging

shedding

hogging

63. If a redundant structure fails it becomes

fatigued

safe-life

failsafe

64. A redundant structure is

on-condition structure

a safe-life structure

a failsafe structure

65. The measurement of the fuselage perpendicular to horizontal plane measured in inches from bottom of the fuselage is

water line

fuselage station

butt line

66. What are the four stresses to be considered when building an aircraft?

Compression, Torsion, Tension, Shear

Compression, Tension, Torsion, Stress

Compression, Torsion, Stress, Strain

67. A structure that has a high designed reserve strength would be classified as

46


primary

secondary

tertiary

68. An example of primary stress is

shear

tension

bending

69. What is the water line?

The datum from which vertical locations refer

The zero datum from which all lateral locations are measured

A line below which redux bonding can not be used

70. Lateral stations have station zero at the

centreline

left wing-tip

nose

71. Airworthiness requirements for large aircraft are found in

ANO 25

CS 25

JAR 25

72. An Anthropomorphic Test Dummy (ATD) is strapped into a large aircraft forward facing seat. It is put through a series of crash tests. This is to

to measure the amount of force applied to the abdomen of the ATD to ensure it is not above 236 kg.

test the aircraft structure and seating mount points for structural integrity

to determine whether or not the ATD's head comes into contact with any structure or seat, and if so to measure the force applied to the head in line with a specific Head Injury Criterion (HIC)

73. Diffusion bonding and superplastic forming provides

high stiffness and high ductility

high strength and high ductility

high strength and high stiffness

Airframe Structures - General Concepts II

1. When applying a doubler plate, what else could you use for extra strength?

47


Thicker material

A waffle plate

A tripler plate

2. Hi-lok fastener installation requires that

an interference fit hole is drilled

the shank is lubricated

the fastener is accurately torqued

3. Stringers

are attached to the frame

do not pass through bulkheads

run the full length on all aircraft

4. Contact between titanium and phosphate ester fluid should be avoided because

there is no effect

it makes the titanium soft

it makes the titanium brittle

5. The optimum atmospheric conditions for painting aircraft is

between 65oF and 75oF with less than 75% relative humidity

between 65oC and 75oC with more than 75% relative humidity

between 60oF and 77oF with less than 75% relative humidity

6. What kind of seal is used on firewall bulkheads?

None is required

Fire-proof grommets

Soft rubber

7. To remove a rivet you should

drill it all the way through

drill to the depth of the head

drill half way through

8. The two stages in a good adhesive bond are

wetting and Setting

wetting and gripping

spreading and setting

48


9. Prior to aluminium alloy bonding, we use

acid etch

alkaline etch

solvent etch

10. The purpose of a primer is to

help bonding of the topcoat

provide shiny surface for the topcoat

provide flexible surface for the top coat

11. In semi-monocoque construction, compression loads are taken by

frames

bulkheads

stringers

12. Most large transport aircraft skins are

7075

2024

5056

13. Which of the following statements is correct, in relation to PLI washers used in critical bolted joints?

PLI washers can be affected by thread or nut friction or by lubrication

PLI washers can only be used with self locking nuts and the washers should be used once

PLI washers can be used more than once, providing they are used in critical bolted joints

14. What opposes buckling in a semi-monocoque structure?

Stringers

Bulkheads

Frames

15. In a monocoque structure, which component carries the majority of the loads?

Stringers

Skin

Longerons

16. Which anti-corrosive treatment is found on alloy steels?

Zinc plating

Nickel plating

49


Cadmium plating

17. What material can be chromated as a protection against corrosion?

Alluminium alloys

Magnesium alloys

Ferros alloys

18. When carrying out a symmetry check on a large aircraft, what method of measurement is normally used?

Steel tape and spring balance

Longitudinal alignment method

Lateral alignment method

19. Paint remover substances

should only be used once

are not damaging to any aircraft parts

are damaging to some aircraft parts

20. Kevlar should be stored

horizontally

in moisture proof bags

vertically

21. To remove a rivet

chisel off the rivet head, and remove the shank with a metal punch

drill the head with a drill bit the same size as the rivet shank, chisel off the rivet head, and remove the shank with a metal punch

drill the head with a drill bit slightly smaller than the rivet shank, chisel off the rivet head, and remove the shank with a metal punch

22. Battery trays are

absorbent to soak up electrolyte

metal with PVC coating and anti corrosive paint

metal for earthing purposes

23. The primary purpose of sealant in use in pressurised aircraft is

to prevent corrosion

to provide external streamlining

to seal the cabin

24. When installing a 'Hi-lock' bolt, it is necessary to

50


simply fit the bolt as they are prelubricated

lubricate the collar

lubricate the shank and threads

25. Sealant or levelling compound is installed during structure repair:

according to separate manufacturer's documentations such as BAC

according to SB instructions

according to AMM and SRM chapter 51

26. A bonded waffle doubler, as well as acting as a skin strengthener, also acts as a

jury strut

tear stopper

shear tie

27. What are the faying surfaces of a repair?

Edges of repair metal

Middle of repair

Material under repair

28. Dissimilar metal fusion bonding is best for

low strength high toughness

high strength high toughness

high strength high stiffness

29. The ideal conditions for paint spraying an aircraft are

20°C to 30°C and humidity below 70%

15°C to 25°C and humidity below 75%

15°C to 25°C and humidity above 60%

30. What are the types of true bonded joints?

Mechanical and specific

Mechanical and cemented

Cemented and specific

31. Why is a joggle joint used?

To add strength

To provide a flush fit

To provide a smooth contour to surface

51


32. When both sides of a structural repair are not easily reached, which type of fastener would you use?

Hi lock bolt

Pop rivet

Blind rivet

33. With regard to extraneous spilt fluids

they may be harmful to the aircraft structure

they should only be cleaned up if they are on the external surface of the aircraft

they can be ignored, they provide extra protection

34. Skin panels may be strengthened by

struts

cleats

stringers

35. What is the normal form of construction of a spar?

One boom mounted under a web

Two webs separated by a boom

Two booms separated by a web

36. A crack stopper is fitted

before a crack starts, to slow its rate of propagation

before a crack starts, to prevent its initiation

after a crack starts, to slow its rate of propagation

37. Which of the following should be accomplished before jacking an aircraft?

Determine the fuel tanks are empty

Install critical stress panels or plates

Remove all optional equipment

38. Synthetic resins are made from nylon, vinyl and

asphalt

cellulose

acrylics

39. One of the advantages of the semi-monocoque construction is that it

is easier to manufacture

shares the loads

52


takes all the loads in the skin

40. In a fully monocoque fuselage, all the loads are carried by the

skin

frames

longerons

41. Intercostals are

longitudinal fuselage members attached at each end to adjacent frames

vertical struts joining the upper and lower wings of a biplane

compression ribs in cantilever wings

42. Joints that are designed to stop the propagation of cracks are known as

secondary joints

failsafe joints

crack limiting joints

43. If an aircraft has alkaline batteries, the battery compartment drain pipes will be

aluminium alloy

plastic

stainless steel

44. An overweight landing is one in which the aircraft has

a misplaced centre of gravity on landing

an excessive fuel load on take-off

too much kinetic energy on landing

45. Symmetry checks should be carried out

in the hanger with the aircraft on jacks

in the hangar with the aircraft on its wheels

on the ramp with the aircraft on its wheels

46. The purpose of a wash primer and primer is to

provide more aerodynamic finish for top-coat

provide a flexible surface for top-coat

help bonding for top-coat

47. Dents are generally not permitted in a tubular member

if the major axis of the dent is parallel to the tube axis irrespective of the location

53


if they are located in the middle third of the length of the member

if they are located in the end thirds of the length of the member

48. When an item is cocooned, the visual indicator will indicate

toxic gases

humidity

temperature

49. The maximum permissible bow in a steel tube is

1 in 400

1 in 200

1 in 600

50. Buckling in a semi-monocoque structure is prevented by

bulkheads

stringers

longerons

51. Which loads do longerons resist?

Bending, compression and tensile

Torsional only

Bending, compression, tensile and torsion

Airframe Structures - Aeroplanes – Fuselage

1. Blowout panels are fitted to floors of pressurised aircraft to

provide access for pressurising the cargo bays

provide access for pressurising the cabin

provide venting should a differential pressure build up across the floor

2. What are passenger windows normally made from?

Glass

Acrylic

Acrylic/glass laminate

3. A firewall bulkhead is usually made from

tungsten

titanium

54


steel

4. Acrylic windows must be able to flex in-situ because they have

slight shrinkage due to age

smaller coefficient of expansion than surrounding structure

larger coefficient of expansion than surrounding structure

5. A cargo bay must have signs stating

maximum loadings

maximum dimensions

no hazardous cargo

6. Zone D Cargo compartment windows

are made from fire retardant Perspex

must be blanked off

must have blinds pulled down

7. A fire zone in which a crew member could enter to fight a fire is

class B

class E

class A

8. Windscreen delamination is

separation of the glass from the vinyl interlayer

bubbling of the glass due to overheat

windscreen peeling away from the airframe

9. What is the ideal storage temperature for windscreen panels?

50°C to 70°C

30°C to 50°C

50°F to 70°F

10. What is the maximum temperature of warm water which is used to clean dirty aircraft acrylic panels?

104°F

125°F

40°F

11. How are passenger door pressure loads transmitted to the fuselage structure?

By door stops

Acrylic has a thermal expansion approximately 8x that of aluminium alloy

55


By the pressure seal

Through the latching mechanism

12. Passenger cabin windows are constructed with two panes and a seal between them. Under normal flight conditions which pane(s) take the differential pressure loads?

Inner

Both

Outer

13. How are passenger seats secured to the floor?

By the front legs while the back attachment provides anti rattle.

By both front and back legs

By the back legs while the front attachment provides anti rattle

14. A material commonly used for pressure bulkhead sealing is

soft rubber

aluminium

PTFE

15. When acrylic and sheet metal is joined together, allowance should be made for

galvanic corrosion of the metal

expansion of the acrylic due to heat

expansion of the metal due to heat

16. Which of the following is Perspex resistant to?

Acetone

MEK

Kerosene

17. In a pressurised aircraft cabin window, the differential pressure can be taken by

the scratch panel

the inner pane only

both main panes

18. The purpose of the vinyl interlayer in window construction is

to increase static strength

to improve on brittle behaviour

to enable inclusion of heater film

19. On passenger aircraft of two or more zones

Answer now changed in club,before it was outer and now Both. The inner panel has a small hole in it to let the pressure through to the outer panel

The back legs are secured as they have the upward load during a sudden stop.

56


there should be at least one exit per zone

the seat backs fold forward at over wing emergency exits

the emergency exits are to be clearly signed

20. Class D cargo bay windows require

double acrylic panels

the blind down for flight

fire proof coatings

21. Cargo bay panels are normally constructed from

monolithic Nomex

Fibreglass and resin

Kevlar

22. The fatigue life of a pressure hull is based on

the total number of pressurizations

the number of explosive decompressions

the number of negative differential pressure applications

23. In pressurized aircraft, undercarriage bays

are unpressurised

may be pressurized or unpressurised

are pressurized

24. The main longitudinal members in a fuselage are called

spars

frames

longerons

25. A partition within the aircraft's structure is called a

bulkhead

cleat

frame

26. When inspecting stowage doors, special attention should be given to the

catches

light microswitches

trim

57


27. Seat track cutouts provide for various seat spacings, usually in

half inch increments

one foot increments

one inch increments

28. Wall mounted flight attendant seats are fixed to

tracks

stanchions

rails

29. Windshields are heated to

maintain strength and toughness only

demist, ant-ice and maintain strength and toughness

prevent misting and icing only

30. The internal doors of an aircraft

only carry pressure loads when the aircraft is at cruise altitude

carry pressure loads

never carry pressure loads

31. A pressure door warning light illuminates only when the door is

not locked

locked

not fully opened

32. If an electrically operated cargo door lifting actuator fails, it may be operated

be electrical ground power

by alternate actuators

manually by winding

33. After installation of an acrylic window panel, protective paper and adhesive remaining on the panel may be removed by use of soap and water and

Cellulose thinners

Methylated spirits

MEK

34. If heat is applied to the vinyl interlayer of an aircraft windscreen, its ability to withstand impact will

increase

decrease

58


not change

35. When fitting a transparent plastic panel (acrylic) to a metal frame, provision must be made for the relative movement of the panel and the frame for the reason of

the known slight shrinkage of the panel due to ageing

the lower coefficient of expansion of the transparent panel when compared with the frame

the higher coefficient of expansion of the transparent panel when compared with the frame

36. Perspex is resistant to

Paraffin

C.T.C.

Acetone

37. Moisture drain valves in a pressurised fuselage

are open all the time to ensure the bilge areas are well drained

are open when the cabin is depressurised

are open when the cabin is pressurised

38. Wide body transport aircraft have cabin floor vents

to equalise pressures above and below the floor after the loss of a cargo compartment door

to ensure adequate ventilation of the underfloor areas

to provide access to class A cargo compartments in the event of fire

39. On an inspection, you are aware of vinyl bubbling. What action is required?

Replace the defective window

Only replace the window if the 'bubbling' affects vision

No action is required with this defect

40. Passenger windows in jet transport aircraft normally have

two structural panes

one structural pane

three structural panes

41. A plug type window is fitted

from the outside

from the inside

from either side

42. Air is used to seal the cabin door in pressure cabins. The source of this air is usually

cabin pressurised air

59


from storage bottles

ambient pressurised air

43. Drain valves are normally closed by

rubber strips

cabin air pressure

spring pressure

44. Drain holes in unpressurised areas are

always closed

always open

either open or closed

45. A cargo compartment in which there is a separate approved smoke or fire detector system to give warning and means to shut off the ventilating airflow to the compartment is a

Class 'E' compartment

Class 'B' compartment

Class 'C' compartment

46. Aircraft frames are constructed of

'U' section

'I' section

'Z' section

47. The life of a fuselage depends on

the pressurisation cycles excluding maximum differential

the pressurisation cycles not including ground cycles

all pressurisation cycles

48. Passenger cabin seat rails form part of the

longerons

stringers

frames

Airframe Structures - Aeroplanes – Wings

1. A false rib is usually used to

60


support and give aerodynamic shape to the wing leading edge

lose a torsion box structure

allow the fitment of aileron control tubes through a wing

2. The main undercarriage is attached to the

rear main spar

front main spar

aircraft structure

3. An aspect ratio of 8 could mean

mean chord 64 ft., span 8 ft.

span squared 64 ft., chord 8 ft.

span 64 ft., mean chord 8 ft.

4. A spar web will take loads in

shear

bending

tension

5. One purpose of a rib is to

maintain the correct contour of an aerofoils covering

support the bending loads on a fuselage

form the main lateral member in an aerofoil

6. What is a cantilever wing?

One that has external supporting struts

One that has no external supporting struts

One that folds for access to limited space

7. A wing's leading edge would have provisions and linkages for slats and

leading edge flaps

slots

trailing edge flaps

8. A spar web is

an area between two spar caps

a rib/spar joint

a member between the spar and wing/fuselage connection

61


9. A leading edge slat is attached to the

slat track

wing upper skin

front spar

10. A spar is tapered from root to tip because

shear forces are greatest at the root

bending moment is greatest at the root

centre of lift occurs close to the root

11. On a mono-spar wing, what gives the wing its profile contour?

Ribs

Milled stringers

The position of the spars

12. A cantilever wing is a

swept-back wing

usual airliner wing

top wing of a biplane

13. Aileron reversal is caused by a structure that has a low stiffness in

torsion

bending

shear

14. The final coat of sealing in a integral fuel tank is called

interfay

fillet

brush coat

15. The mid-spar is fitted in large aircraft to

provide redundant design

support fitting the engine mount & landing gear mount

assist the main spar with operational loads

16. Wing bending and shear loads are taken by

main spar

skin

B737 ANN 28-11-00 page 811, the 3 coats of sealant for repair fuel tanks leak are termed as fillet, injection and prepack. Fillet seal is the first coat

62


spar cap

17. The principle load bearing members of the wing are

struts

ribs

spars

18. Wing skin on a large transport aircraft is made from

7118

2024

7075

Airframe Structures - Aeroplanes – Stabilisers

1. On an aircraft with a variable incidence trimming tailplane, the tailplane incidence changes

if the trim wheel is turned back or forward

if the control column is moved back or forward

automatically if the elevator moves

2. Variable incidence tailplanes

move rapidly when trimming the aircraft during the landing approach and slowly at all other times

move rapidly when trimming the aircraft during climb out and landing approach and slowly during cruise

always move slowly

3. To correct for nose heaviness on an aircraft fitted with a variable incidence tailplane, the incidence of the tailplane would be

increased, which is done by lowering the leading edge

decreased, which is done by lowering the trailing edge

decreased, which is done by lowering the leading edge

4. An upward elevator deflection on the reverse camber tailplane

will increase tailplane download

may increase or decrease download depending upon the aircraft C of G position

will decrease tailplane download

5. The direction of travel of an electrically operated variable incidence tailplane is determined by

direction of rotation of the electric motor

solenoid operated clutches

63


a gearbox

6. The four main structural items making up a horizontal stabiliser are

spar, rib, stringers, skin panels

spar, rib, longerons, skin panels

spar, rib, bulkheads, skin panels

7. The web of an 'I' beam takes mainly which type of load?

Shear

Bending

Tension

8. The term 'empennage' incorporates

rudder, ailerons, spoilers

elevators, stabiliser, ailerons

elevators, stabiliser, rudder

Airframe Structures - Aeroplanes - Flight Control Surfaces

1. A 'frise' aileron is incorporated to

provide aerodynamic balancing so assisting the pilot to move the control

ensure aileron control is retained at high angles of attack

equalize aileron drag in a turn

2. Control surface flutter may be caused by

incorrect angular movement of trim tabs

high static friction in trim tab control tabs

excessive play in trim tab attachments

3. The outboard ailerons on some large aircraft

are isolated at high speeds

are isolated to improve sensitivity

are isolated at low speeds

4. The balance tab is an auxiliary surface fitted to a main control surface

operating automatically to assist the pilot in moving the controls

operated independently at which point in the length of cable the tensiometer is applied

64


operating automatically to provide 'feel' to the controls

5. An elevator controls the aircraft motion in

pitch

roll

yaw

6. Aerodynamic balance

will cause CP to move towards the trailing edge and cause instability

will reduce aerodynamic loading

will cause CP to move forward of hinge and cause overbalance

7. The extension to the rudder (shaded portion shown on the diagram), is provided to

make the pilot aware of the aerodynamic forces encountered when moving the control

provide aerodynamic assistance for the pilot when moving the rudder

prevent control surface flutter

8. Aerodynamic balancing of flight controls is achieved by

providing a portion of the control surface ahead of the hinge point

placing a weight ahead of the hinge point

placing a weight in the leading edge of the control surface

9. A horn balance is

a projection of the outer edge of the control surface forward of the hinge line

a rod projecting forward from the control surface with a weight on the end

a rod projecting upward from the main control surface to which the control cables are attached

10. A control surface is mass balanced by

the attachment of weights acting forward of the hinge line

the attachment of weights acting on the hinge line

fitting a balance tab

11. An excess of aerodynamic balance would move the control surface centre of pressure

65


rearwards, resulting in loss of assistance

forwards, resulting in an unstable overbalance

rearwards, resulting in too much assistance

12. Aerodynamic balance is used to

prevent flutter of the flying controls

reduce the control load to zero

make the flying controls easier to move

13. What is attached to the rear of the vertical stabilizer?

Elevator

Rudder

Aileron

14. A flying control mass balance weight

keeps the control surface C of G as close to the trailing edge as possible

tends to move the control surface C of G close to the hinge line

tends to move the control surface C of G forward of the hinge line

15. The method employed to mass balance control surfaces is to

attach weights forward of the hinge line

fit bias strips to the trailing edge of the surfaces

allow the leading edge of the surface to project into the airflow

16. A control surface is provided with aerodynamic balancing to

decrease the drag when the control is deflected

increase stability

assist the pilot in moving the control

17. Construction such as horn balance and inset hinge balance installed on control surface assembly

is meant to trim CG of control surfaces

serves as a 'servo' system of balance

has same effect of the balance tab

18. Flutter can be reduced by using

mass balancing

servo tabs

a horn balance

66


19. The fin helps to give

directional stability about the longitudinal axis

directional stability about the normal axis

longitudinal stability about the normal axis

20. An elevator provides control about the

longitudinal axis

lateral axis

horizontal stabilizer

21. A flying control mass balance weight



ensures that the C of G always acts to aid the pilot thus relieving control column load

22. The purpose of anti-balance tabs is to

trim the aircraft

relieve stick loads

give more feel to the control column

23. Aerodynamic balance of a control surface may be achieved

by weights added to the control surface aft of the hinge line

by a horn at the extremity of the surface forward of the hinge line

by a trimming strip at the trailing edge of the surface

24. Which of the following are primary control surfaces?

Elevators, ailerons, rudder

Roll spoilers, elevators, tabs

Elevators, roll spoilers, tabs

Airframe Structures - Aeroplanes - Nacelles/Pylons

1. A pylon structural member supports the

empennage

engine

centre section

2. ATA chapter for Nacelles/Pylons is

54

67


55

53

3. Wing mounted podded engines and integral fuel tanks

reduce tailplane download

provide increased safety if the undercarriage collapses on landing

provide wing bending relief

4. The mounting bolts are tightened so the engine can move

fore and aft

laterally, longitudinally, vertically

torsionally

5. Jet engines are usually mounted by

welded steel tubing

forged mounts and bolted to aircraft forged structure

aluminium castings

Air Conditioning and Cabin Pressurisation (ATA 21) - Air Supply

1. What is the minimum cabin air mass flow?

1 lbs per minute per person

0.5 lbs per minute per person

10 lbs per minute per person

2. Which of the following can be used on the ground?

Turbo fan

Turbo brake

Turbo compressor

3. The function of the mass airflow control valve is to

ensure system operating pressure is not exceeded

maintain a reasonable mass flow of air into the cabin irrespective of aircraft altitude

ensure that constant airflow out of the cabin is dictated by cabin altitude

4. Air supplied for pressurisation and conditioning is

hottest from a compressor driven by an engine gear box

the same for both the above sources

68


hottest from an engine compressor bleed

5. In most pressurization systems, the amount of compressed air delivered to the cabin is

variable, depending on the amount selected by the cabin rate of change selector

reasonably constant irrespective of altitude

constant at any particular altitude but varies for different altitudes

6. In a Bleed Air air-conditioning system, the warm air supply is provided by

the compressor of the gas turbine engine

the engine exhaust heat

the gas turbine exhaust

7. How much air is required for the Flight Deck?

10 cubic feet/minute

Whatever the captain sets

10 lbs/minute

8. The function of an air mass flow control valve is to

control the airflow out of the cabin

ensure that system differential pressure is not exceeded

maintain a reasonably constant air mass flow into the cabin at all altitudes

9. The function of spill valves is to control

the rate of pressurisation

cabin pressure differential

air supply to the cabin

10. The purpose of a mass flow controller is to

ensure the cabin altitude remains constant during cruise at all altitudes

allow pilot to select the desired cabin altitude

ensure that a constant mass of air is delivered to cabin at all times

11. The purpose of a 'Spill' valve in a cabin air supply system is

to relieve the pressure in the air supply ducting to atmosphere

to spill overboard excess air delivered at S.L. and lower altitudes

to give a heating effect

12. The mass flow delivery from engine driven blowers is controlled by

engine speed variations

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automatic control devices

spill valves

13. A spill valve opens

to prevent an excessive pressure difference

to control the flow to the cabin

to control the air from the cabin to outside

14. A pack valve controls

air flow

air temperature

trim air

Air Conditioning and Cabin Pressurisation (ATA 21) - Air Conditioning

1. In large air conditioning systems, the main fan is activated to

ensure conditioned air is distributed

ensure conditioned air is distributed and maintain positive duct pressure

ensure positive duct pressure is maintained

2. If a reduction in pack outlet temp is demanded, the temperature of the air at the outlet of the ACM compressor will

rise

fall

remain the same

3. Cockpit ventilation is required to be

10 litres per crew member per minute

10 cu/ft per crew member per minute

selected by the crew

4. A large aircraft air conditioning system's cabin temperature control

is selectable for each zone individually from the flight station

involves modulating the pack valve

all zone temperatures are controlled from one master switch

5. An advantage of using air cycle system over the vapour cycle system in aircraft is

both air conditioning and pressurization are obtained

Pack outlet temperature is determined by bypassing engine bleed air around the ACM (trim air). The ACM is unaffected

70


weight reduction by avoiding big tanks carrying freon gas

less hazardous than vapour cycle system

6. What is the maximum allowable concentration (by volume) of carbon monoxide in occupied aircraft compartment?

0.005% (50 p.p.m)

0.02 % (200 p.p.m)

0.01 % (100 p.p.m)

7. The first component that the charged air enters from the IP compressor is

the bleed valve

the check valve

the pre-cooler

8. The thermostatic valve sensing bulb is located just before

the evaporator

the compressor

the condenser

9. A refrigerant is used in which of the following?

Vapour cycle

Pneumatic pump

Air cycle machine

10. A water separator is located

upstream of the turbine

downstream of turbine

downstream of heat exchanger

11. The velocity of air from the cabin ventilation system should not exceed

120 feet per minute

40 feet per minute

20 feet per minute

12. In typical vapour cycle system, the sub-cooler

is a heat exchanger to superheat the vapour

cools the vapour further to prevent slugging

delivers extra cooling effect when the aircraft is on ground

13. In an air conditioning system, heat is added to air by

Best answer we can get to a bad question. Heat is added by varying the amount of compressor inlet air that bypasses the heat exchanger (Trim Air).

71


restricting compressor inlet

restricting compressor outlet

restricting duct outlets

14. Air conditioning systems

increase the temperature of air

decrease the temperature of air

increase and decrease the temperature of air

15. An air cycle machine turbine

drives compressor to decrease temperature

drives compressor to pressurise aircraft

drives compressor to increase temperature

16. Air exiting the compressor side of an ACM

will have decreased pressure and temperature

no change in temperature or pressure as it is a centrifugal compressor

will have increased pressure and temperature

17. Where is the water trap located in a bootstrap compressor?

At the inlet of the compressor

At the inlet of the turbine

At the outlet of the compressor

18. Where is the silencer located in a 'blower' air conditioning system?

At the inlet to the cabin

At the outlet of the blower

At the inlet of the blower

19. When does a 'blower' air conditioning system produce the most air?

At low altitudes

It is not affected by altitude

At high altitudes

20. In an air conditioning system, before distribution, the air goes through the

flow control valve

TCV and mixer valve

TCV

The source of air is usually the engine bleed, which is always far too hot to feed directly into the cabin, so the air conditioning system always cools, even if the 'trim air' bypasses a little more hot air around the ACM/refrigeration unit, the end result is still cooler than the input.

The compressor is to INCREASE the temperature to increase the rate at which heat energy can be extracted.

CAIP AL/3-24 para 4.2.2 mentions pre-cooled air is compressed by action of compressor impeller and diffuser assembly. Hence increase in pressure. Pressure laws says Temperature is proportional to Pressure.

b737-400 amm ref 21-00-00 para 5b mentions TCV is located before distribution for pack temperature control for amount of hot air bypassing the Air Cycle Machine. b737-300 name the same valve as mixer valve

72


21. In a cabin air recirculation system, recirculated air and fresh air are supplied in the proportions

50% of fresh air, 50% of recirculated air



22. An air-to-air heat exchanger is provided to

increase the air supply temperature

provide an emergency ram air supply

reduce the air supply temperature

23. Temperature control of cabin air is achieved by

varying the ambient airflow to the heat exchanger

controlling the water vapour in the supply

regulating the amount of air by-passing the cooling system

24. In pressurized aircraft, temperature conditioning is mainly achieved by

adding heat to the pressurising air

extracting heat from the pressurising air

varying cabin pressure

25. If pressurisation air supplies come from an engine compressor, an internal oil leak will

not affect the issue as it is automatically detected and vented overboard

not contaminate the air

contaminate the air

26. A cold air unit produces a drop in temperature by

driving the unit's compressor

reducing pressure

reducing pressure and driving the unit's compressor

27. Heating for pressure cabins is obtained from

driving the units compressor

air supply heated by the pressurising process

only by adding heat electrically to the air supplies

28. A cold air unit allows for cabin temperatures to be

lower than ambient air temperature despite compression heating

same as ambient temperature, despite compression heating

73


a little more than ambient air temperature

29. A cold air unit produces a drop in temperature by

directing compressed air into a heat exchanger

air supply to the cabin

expanding hot air across a turbine which is driving a compressor

30. When a 'muff' or air ducting is built around the engine exhaust system and air is directed around inside the muffler, this is an

thermal heater

exhaust heater

combustion heater

31. In a turbo fan cold air system, the heat exchanger cooling air is

ram air from ambient conditions

air bled directly from engine or through blower

bled from cabin air supply duct

32. Conditioned air is

temperature and pressure adjusted

moisture removed

oxygen added

33. Which of the following sometimes inhibits an air conditioning pack?

Flap position switches

Undercarriage switches

Throttle switches

34. When carrying out a ground pressure test, you should use

a G.P.U. and A.P.U. combination

ground trolley and clean air

the aircraft engines because you can test the whole system

35. The ventilation air in the aircraft cabin must have a minimum humidity of

60 percent

30 percent

20 percent

36. In a Boot-Strap Air Conditioning supply system the source of compressed air is from

gas turbine compressor bleed air

The ground pressure test is typically known as confidence check of airplane ability to maintain cabin pressure in flight on single pack operation for boeing term. The test involve both left and right engine. Ref AMM 21-00-05 page 201

B737 has the config where the air-conditioning air supply is taken from the pneumatic system which draw air from the 5th or 9th compressor stage of the gas turbine engine. Ref AMM 21-00-00 page 8

74


gas turbine intake ram air

ram air at the wing leading edge

37. The temperature within the cabin of the aircraft is normally maintained at

20ºC to 24ºC

18ºC to 24ºC

12ºC to 18ºC

38. In a 'bootstrap' cooling system the supply of air is first

passed across an expansion turbine, then compressed and passed through a heat exchanger

compressed then passed through a heat exchanger and across an expansion turbine

passes across an expansion turbine, then directly to the heat exchanger

39. The humidity within a passenger cabin should

not be less than 60%

be between 30% and 70%

not be greater than 40%

40. One of the principles of cooling employed in an air cycle system is

by surface heat exchange in the C.A.U.

by compression of ambient air across a turbine

conversion of heat energy to mechanical energy in the C.A.U.

41. Before filling a vapour cycle cooling system

pre-heat the system to 100°F

flush the system with a solvent

apply suction to remove air and moisture

42. The rate of flow of air from the punkha louvers should not be less than

25 ft/min.

300 ft/min.

200 ft/min.

43. An aircraft cabin is air conditioned and pressurized in order to

ensure that the pressure within the fuselage is always less than the ambient pressure, thus increasing the fatigue life of the fuselage

ensure that the air density within the cabin is maintained at a lower figure than outside the cabin in order to prevent moisture precipitation during rapid decompression

maintain human efficiency and comfort during flights at high altitudes

B737-400 AMM ref 21-61-00 page 11, the selectable range of temperature is between 18 and 29 deg C. For alternate operation when all selectors to OFF, the Left Pack operate at 24deg C and Right Pack at 18deg C.

CAIP AL/3-24 para 9.7(b) says, 'before charging a newly installed system, or recharging a system which has been partly disconnected, all air should be evacuated IAW MM.

75


44. In the case of a vapour cycle cooling, system heat is removed from the charge air by

changing a liquid into a vapour

reducing the pressure of a vapour

changing a vapour into a liquid

45. Subsequent to passing through the primary heat exchanger, the supply air in a turbo-fan cold air system flows to the

inter cooler or secondary heat exchanger

fan

turbine

46. The heat exchanger in a turbo-fan system is cooled by

air bled from the main cabin supply duct

ambient ram air

engine bleed air or blower ai

47. The effective temperature of a cabin is given by

temperature and humidity

temperature only

temperature, humidity, thermal inertia and heat load

48. When the refrigerant dissipates heat in a vapour cycle system

the vapour converts to a liquid

the liquid converts to a vapour

the liquid sublimates

49. International markings for air conditioning pipelines are

triangles

rectangles

dots

50. A cabin humidifier is operated

on the ground

at high altitudes

at low altitudes

51. A turbo fan CAU used for air cycle cooling will

not affect the charge air pressure

decrease pressure and temperature of the charge air

'Fan' is sometimes used to describe the compressor. CAIP AL/3-24 figure 2

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increase the pressure but decrease the temperature

Air Conditioning and Cabin Pressurisation (ATA 21) - Pressurisation

1. Pressurisation system operation may be inhibited by

air/ground microswitches

throttle microswitches

flap microswitches

2. Cabin outflow valves provide

outflow of cabin pressure and pressure warning

outflow of cabin pressure and ventilation

cabin positive pressure and negative (suction) pressure

3. On the ramp, the pre-cooler obtains its cooling action by

fan inducement

gas expansion

ram air

4. The electrical spill-valve operates on signals from

the venturi metering duct

the latching solenoid

the pressure controller

5. During taxiing, the cabin pressure in a large aircraft is

below atmospheric pressure

above atmospheric pressure

at atmospheric pressure

6. Cabin pressure is normally controlled by the rate of

air discharge

climb or decent

air supply

7. As an aircraft descends from cruising altitude (34,000ft), the cabin altitude must

increase

stay the same

decrease

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8. The signal line between the controller and discharge valve is leaking. This will cause

the cabin pressure to decrease

it will not effect on cabin pressure

the cabin pressure to increase

9. The basic system of cabin pressurisation is to arrange a constant

outlet and vary the inlet

inlet and vary the outlet

inlet and outlet

10. The purpose of the differential capsule in a pressure controller is to control

the rate of pressurisation

cabin differential pressure

cabin air flow

11. With a pressurised aircraft at maximum differential pressure and a cabin pressure increase occurs, the differential capsule in the pressure controller will

let pressurisation to be switched off until leaks cause a drop in pressure

have a constant mass flow

let all pressurising air to be spilled overboard

12. A comfortable rate of cabin altitude climb for passengers is

500 ft. per min.

100 ft. per min.

300 ft. per min.

13. Before carrying out a ground pressure check,

turn on all instruments

check all pitot and static lines are fitted

set altimeter to QNH

14. On touch-down of aircraft

the outflow valve will be shut

the cabin pressure will be zero

the outflow valve will be fully open

15. When pressurising the aircraft on the ground for test purposes, internal doors, cupboards etc. must be

all open

removed

The discharge valve is opened by vacuum in the signal line. If line leaks , valve will close, and cabin pressure will increase.

B737 Pressurization system senses the air-ground sw and the toggle sw FLT-GRD in the cockpit control. Before touch down, at GRD position, controller commands signal to close the discharge valve to 200ft below landing field elevation. Upon touch down, controller drives discharge fully open. Purpose to prevent rapid pressure bump

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all closed

16. Prior to conducting a ground pressurisation test, it is necessary to

reset/disable the pressure controller

disconnect the emergency pressure relief valve

set QFE

17. In the flightdeck of an unpressurised aircraft, there is a gauge that shows

aircraft altitude

cabin differential pressure

cabin pressure altitude

18. Cabin differential pressure is the pressure difference between

sea level air pressure and indicated dynamic pressure in the cabin

8,000ft and standard barometric pressure

the pressure inside the aircraft and the ambient air pressure

19. If the pressure controller is set to 0 ft.

maximum differential is reached immediately after take-off

cabin will not pressurise

cabin remains at sea level until maximum differential

20. During a pressurisation check at maximum differential, if the engines are shut-down

cabin ROC indicator gives indication of cabin seal efficiency

aircraft remains pressurised until the dump valve opens

outflow valve opens immediately

21. Cabin pressure is maintained by

controlling the output of the compressor

controlling the supply of air to the cabin

controlling the amount of air discharged from the cabi

22. Control of rate of change of cabin pressure is

equally important in descent and ascent

most important in descent

most important in ascent

23. Cabin rate of climb is shown by

warning lights

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a special instrument

a double scale on the aircraft

24. During normal pressurized climb following take-off

the cabin R.O.C. is more than ambient R.O.C.

the cabin R.O.C. is less than ambient R.O.C.

the differential pressure is constant

25. Cabin differential pressure is the difference between

8,000 ft and sea level

cabin pressure and ambient pressure

I.S.A. conditions and aircraft altitude

26. Cabin altitude in pressurized flight is the

pressure altitude of the cabin as corrected to mean sea level I.S.A. conditions

altitude at which cabin altitude equals outside air pressure

altitude corresponding to cabin pressure irrespective of the altitude for the aircraft

27. When an aircraft has reached max. diff. and is at constant level (altitude) the system allows for

constant mass flow

all pressurising air to be spilled overboard

pressurisation to be switched off until leaks cause a drop in pressure

28. The control of ventilating and pressurising air released to atmosphere is achieved by a

pressure controller/dump valve combination

discharge valve/inwards relief valve combination

pressure controller/discharge valve combination

29. Rate of change of cabin pressure is most noticeably shown on a

cabin pressure gauge

cabin altimeter

cabin V.S.I

30. Pressurisation control ensures that

the cabin is always maintained at sea level

pressurisation does not start before aircraft is above 8,000 ft.

at operational altitude the cabin altitude is below 10,000 ft

31. 'Pitot' and 'Static' lines during a cabin pressure test should be

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cross connected

connected

disconnected

32. If the cabin pressure fails to reach its maximum cabin pressure differential the

discharge valve should be adjusted

outward relief valve is inoperative

pressure controller should be adjusted

33. When the aircraft has reached its maximum cabin pressure differential the

discharge valve opens

mass flow ceases through the cabin

discharge valve closes

34. Would you operate the flying controls during a cabin pressure ground test?

Yes

Occasionally

No

35. Which component must be isolated when carrying out a ground cabin pressure test?

Pressure relief valve

Pressure discharge valve

Pressure regulator controller

36. A cabin pressure air leak from the front of the fuselage is

not effective in any way

most desirable because it increases the air-flow

most undesirable because of the drag created

37. The principle of cabin pressurisation is

cabin altitude climbs eventually to that of the aircraft

whilst the aircraft climbs to altitude, the cabin climbs to a lower altitude

cabin altitude will always maintain a constant differential to that of aircraft altitude

38. When the cabin differential pressure has reached the required value and the height is maintained

the pressure system ceases to function until the cabin pressure is reduced

constant mass airflow is permitted through the cabin

all pressurized air is spilled to atmosphere

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39. Cabin pressure controller maintains a pre-set cabin altitude by

regulating the position of the outflow valve

regulating the position of the inward relief valve

regulating the mass flow into the cabin

40. If cabin height is set lower than airfield height when the aircraft is on the ground with squat switches overridden, then the outflow valve will normally

not operate

remain closed

open

41. The cabin altitude is

the difference between cabin pressure and atmospheric pressure

the equivalent height of the aircraft above sea level

the actual height of the aircraft above sea level

42. The cabin differential pressure is




43. The outflow of air from the cabin is regulated by

the outflow valves

the dump control valves

the vent valves

44. When air is pressurized, the oxygen content

increases

remains constant

decreases

45. If an altitude of 8000 feet is selected on the cabin pressure controller and provided maximum cabin pressure differential is not exceeded

sea level cabin conditions will be maintained to 8000 feet aircraft altitude

8000 feet cabin conditions will be maintained at aircraft altitudes above 8000 feet

8000 feet cabin conditions will be maintained at all aircraft altitudes from sea level

46. If cabin pressure is increasing, the cabin rate of change indicator will show

zero, provided the rate of change is within the normally accepted limits

Oxygen content increases as mass per unit volume, but NOT as a percentage of the other gases in air. Your interpretation of the question may differ.

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a rate of climb

a rate of descent

47. During a normal climb from aerodrome level with the pressurization system 'ON'

the pressurization system does not control pressure until 10,000 ft is reached

the cabin differential pressure is maintained constant

the atmospheric pressure decreases more quickly than the cabin pressure

48. Rate of change of cabin pressure is

selected by the pilot and controlled by the pressure controller

automatic

selected by the pilot and controlled by the spill valve

49. An aircraft has a maximum differential pressure of 8.5 PSI at cruising altitude. If the ambient pressure is 2.9 PSI, the pressure inside the cabin at cruising altitude would be

8.5 PSI

11.4 PSI

5.6 PSI

50. Cabin differential is determined only by

the height at which the aircraft is flying

the selected cabin height

the height at which the aircraft is flying and by the selected cabin height

51. If the pilot selected a cabin height of 8000 ft. whilst taxiing and activated the pressurization system, the cabin pressure would

decrease to a pressure equivalent to about 500 ft.

remain at ground level pressure

decrease to a pressure equivalent to 8000 ft.

52. A silencer is installed in a pressurization system to reduce

engine noise coming through the ventilators

the noise from the high speed of airflow within the system

the noise from the blowers and/or compressors in the system

53. To avoid discomfort, the rate of change of pressure should be low, particularly

when cabin pressure is decreasing

during descent

during ascent

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54. If an aircraft is operating at 40,000 ft. the pressurization ensures that

sea level pressure is maintained in the cabin

the cabin pressure is progressively increased until the operational height is reached

the cabin pressure is equivalent to an altitude of less than 10,000 ft.

55. The pressure controller activates

the spill valve

the blower or compressor

the cabin discharge valve

56. When cruising near the operational ceiling, the flight altitude set on the pressurization control panel may be 500 ft. more than the actual flight altitude so as to prevent

inward relief valve operation

pressure controller hunting

safety valve operation

57. The cabin rate of climb is shown

on a specific indicator

as being inside or outside limits by green and red lights, a gauge being used

by a differential scale on the aircraft rate of climb indicator

58. A water separator would be installed in a pressurization system to

collect any rain accompanying the ram air

extract surplus water from the charge air

extract water from the cabin air before it is discharged to atmosphere

59. Cabin pressure controller maintains a particular cabin altitude by control of

cabin mass air flow

inward relief valve position

outflow valve position

60. Ditching control is used for

closing all valves and inlets

rapid aircraft depressurisation

deploying life rafts

Air Conditioning and Cabin Pressurisation (ATA 21) - Safety and warning devices

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1. Inwards relief valves usually open at a negative differential pressure not exceeding

0.16 p.s.i.

1.2 p.s.i.

0.5 p.s.i.

2. Failure of the normal maximum differential pressure control is catered for by

inwards relief valve

cabin safety relief valves

spill valves

3. A negative differential pressure is prevented by

a blow off valve

an inward relief valve

a spill valve

4. On an aircraft employing a heater system on the air conditioning system, after an overheat, how is the heater reset?

After cooling below 300°C it auto resets

On ground only by engineer

After it cools the pilot resets

5. Ditching control is used to

maintain cabin pressure at sea level

close the outflow valves

achieve rapid depressurisation

6. A safety valve will normally relieve at

lower differential pressure than the discharge valve

higher differential pressure than the discharge valve

negative differential pressure

7. Inward vent valves will operate when

depressurising after descent

cabin altitude exceeds aircraft altitude

aircraft altitude exceeds cabin altitude

8. An inward relief valve will operate

after an aircraft has landed, to restore ground level conditions is the cabin

when cabin pressure is lower than ambient pressure

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when climbing with pressurization 'OFF'

9. Inward vent valves are fitted to

limit positive differentials

increase ventilation

limit negative differentials

10. An inward relief valve is installed in a pressurization system to ensure that the pressure hull of an aircraft is not subjected to

too high an internal pressure

forces which would cause the aircraft to explode

a high negative differential pressure

11. Failure of the normal maximum pressure differential control is allowed for by fitting

inwards relief valves

airport altitude selectors

safety relief valve

12. A cabin altitude is protected against reaching an altitude of 13,000 ft. by

altitude sensor

cabin over pressure relief valve

bellows in the outflow valve

13. To what position is the inward relief valve spring loaded?

Open

Both position

Closed

14. If the cabin altitude increases above the normal maximum

an inward relief valve opens

a warning light comes on in the cockpit

compressor delivery is automatically boosted

15. Inward relief valves are interconnected in pressurized aircraft

to achieve maximum pressure differential

to relieve cabin pressure and allow outside pressure to be greater

to allow controlled pressure during descent

16. The inward relief valve is usually set to operate at a cabin differential of

-0.5 PSI

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+0.5 PSI

+9.25 PSI

Instruments/Avionic Systems - Instrument Systems (ATA 31)

1. Which of these barometric instruments uses a restrictor to compute its output?

VSI

Machmeter

ASI

2. A standby ADI uses

a vertical gyro

an earth gyro

a space gyro

3. Indicator glasses are 'bloomed' to

reduce reflections

minimise parallex error

render dust unable to settle

4. Slat asymmetry may be monitored by using

position pick-offs

spring actuators

torque sensors

5. A standby compass has a pair of magnets for adjustment. They are initially placed

parallel with each other

90 degrees to each other

45 degrees to each other

6. Component P affects

coefficient B

coefficient A

coefficient C

7. A vacuum mercury gauge reads 5 in. This pressure is

above zero pressure

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below ambient pressure

above ambient pressure

8. A gyro spinning on a vertical axis will detect the aircraft's

yaw and pitch

yaw only

roll and pitch

9. An artificial horizon uses

a directional gyro

a vertical gyro

a rate gyro

10. Vibration levels are indicated to the flight crew in

relative amplitude

phons

db

11. The rigging of a non magnetic proximity sensor requires

checking the target clearance in the FAR position against reference figures

checking the target clearance in the NEAR position against reference figures

ensuring the target contacts the sensor

12. How do you detect and locate a leak in a pitot-static system?

Isolate the component and perform a systematic check, starting from the instrument

Pressurize the system and use the soap bubble detection method

Disconnect each line in turn and perform a pressure leak test

13. Following replacement of a separately mounted compass corrector box, a compass calibration swing will be required

without exception

only if initial variation is greater than 5 degrees

onlyif the correctors are not matched to the ones being removed

14. A +/. symbol on a compass system indicates

magnetic deviation and compass card are in alignment

compass card and directional gyro are being synchronised

failure of the compass system

15. During climb the pressure in the VSI capsule will be

88


equal to the pressure in the case

greater than the pressure in the case

lower than the pressure in the case

16. Corrections to a mechanical ASI are for

square law and temperature

square law

square law error and temperature

17. Two fundamental properties of a gyro are

wander and rigidity

rigidity and precession

precession and wander

18. Vertical gyros are limited to 85 degrees movement in pitch to prevent

gyro topple

gimbal lock

pitch overshoot

19. A tacho generator pointer is moved by

a drag cup coupling

an AC servo motor

a torque synchro receiver

20. An altimeter in a pressurised aircraft at altitude has a case leak. The altimeter will

over read

not be affected

under read

21. Under what condition is indicated altitude the same as true altitude?

Never

At sea level in standard conditions (ISA)

When at 18,000 feet MSL with the altimeter set at 29.92

22. The earth's magnetic dip affects a standby compass

above its pivot only

equally above and below its pivot

below its pivot only

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23. An electrical gyro has usually a speed of

10,000 RPM

5,000 RPM

20,000 RPM

24. A flux valve is used to

align the directional gyro with the earth's magnetic field

align the standby compass with the earth's magnetic field

drive the HSI

25. The decision height light will illuminate when

the decision height is selected

the aircraft's indicated altitude is below decision height

the aircraft's indicated altitude is above decision height

26. In a Central Air Data Computer (CADC) system, Mach information is derived from

indicated air speed and total air temperature

indicated airspeed and altitude

pitot and static pressures

27. What instrument connects to pitot pressure?

Both the airspeed indicator and the vertical speed indicator

The vertical speed indicator

The airspeed indicator

28. In a Central Air Data Computer (ADC), the rate of climb of an aircraft is produced in the

Altitude Module

Mach Module

Indicated Airspeed Module

29. In a Central Air Data Computer, altitude is produced from

static air pressure

pitot air pressure

pitot air pressure and total air temperature

30. In a Central Air Data Computer (ADC), Indicated Air Speed (IAS) is produced from

pitot pressure only

static pressure only

90


pitot and static air pressure

31. The Tx and Rx rotors of a control synchro are 90 degrees shifted. The output is

zero

high

low

32. In a Central Air Data Computer (CADC) system, True Air Speed (TAS) is derived from the Mach information and

Static Air Pressure

Pitot Air Pressure

Total Air Temperature

33. Track altitude in a radio altimeter system begins at

2 500 ft radio alt.

10 000 ft radio alt.

1 000 ft radio alt.

34. On the HSI, the heading is 'valid' when the HDG flag is

in view

green

out of view

35. When testing using a thermocouple test set

no power is required

a serviceable battery is required

a 28 VDC supply is required

36. What is the maximum radio altimeter track altitude?

10,000 ft

2,500 ft

500 ft

37. A positive coefficient A adjustment of a compass will give a heading

increase on East/West headings

increase on all headings

decrease on all headings

38. A tacho generator has

its own independent electric system

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28 V applied

115 V applied

39. What could cause fluctuations in instruments?

Water in static line

Static blocked

Pitot blocked

40. A Compass swing would be required after replacing a

compass Amplifier

H.S.I.

compass sensing unit

41. On a turn and slip indicator, the needle points to the right, and the ball is to the left. The aircraft is

over-banked, slipping into the turn

over-banked, slipping out of the turn

under-banked, skidding out of the turn

42. True airspeed computed from IAS takes into account

radar altitude

temperature only

temperature and altitude

43. For a given IAS, with an increase in altitude, TAS will

increase

decrease

remain the same

44. Where is the attitude director gyro stator situated?

Inside the rotor

Underneath the rotor

Around the rotor

45. What is the error in the lubber line called?

Coefficiant B

Coefficiant P

Index error

46. An ECAM system is tested under the following conditions:-

The Lubber line is the vertical white line painted on the front of the compass. If there is an error in that, there is an error in the compass mounting position.

92


Aircraft on the ground with parking brake set/on

Aircraft in the air with both engines running

Aircraft on the ground with one engine running

47. Millibar is used to express what kind of pressure?

Pitot pressure

Ambient pressure

Barometric pressure

48. The maximum deviation on a standby magnetic compass must not be more than

5°

3°

1°

49. Compass base classification Class 2 is periodically re-surveyed every

1 year

5 years

2 years

50. The aircraft heading is 270°. The magnetic compass deviation is -1°. The pilot should fly

271°

270°

269°

51. Which instrument are most likely to damage if you have a rapid drop in pressure, when carrying out a pitot-static leak check?

Air speed indicator

Altimeter

vertical speed indicator

52. The operation of the Angle of Attack indicator is used to detect airflow direction relative to

the angle of attack of the aircraft

the pitch angle of the aircraft

the longitudinal axis of the aircraft

53. The runway heading is

QFU

QDM

QDR

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54. Apparent drift of a vertical gyro is a function of

sin of latitude

cos of latitude

tan of latitude

55. A machmeter works

always except on the ground

above 10,000 ft

always

56. Radio marker information is displayed on

ADI

EICAS

HSI

57. Angle of Attack alarm is sounding too close to stall. Rectification is to

move probe down

move probe laterally

move probe up

58. Where is alpha angle used?

Accelerometer

IRS

Angle of attack

59. Where is the spinup/rundown brake on a gyro instrument?

Inner gimbal

Rotating vane

Outer gimbal

60. On replacing a pre-indexed flux valve you would

fit the serviceable pre indexed flux valve into the same position as the unserviceable pre-indexed flux valve was removed from

carry out a check swing after fitment

align the aircraft onto its 'A' coefficient so that no error is induced

61. In Airways flying, what is the barometric scale of the altimeter set to?

1013.25

QFE

Move probe up, closer to the Leading Edge stagnation point, so it operates sooner

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QNH

62. Vibration monitoring signals are sent

via a signal conditioner to the gauge

via a half-wave rectifier to the gauge

direct to the gauge

63. The vacuum system gauge reads 5 inches of mercury. This is from

ambient and minus

zero and positive

zero and minu

64. A direct reading Bourdon gauge has a restriction in the inlet. This is to

prevent FOD ingestion

dampen sudden pressure changes

allow for calibration

65. The hot junction of thermocouple is

in the combustion chamber

aft of combustion chamber

in the instrument

66. When a rad. alt. reaches 2,500 ft. what happens to the display?

Rad. alt. goes out of view

Error warning in view

Rad. alt. flag in view

67. Pitot tubes are heated

by kinetic heating

by compressed bleed air

electrically

68. The suction gauge reads 5 inches of mercury. This is

above ambient pressure

below ambient pressure

above zero pressure

69. What are the primary colours for use in CRT displays?

Red, blue, yellow

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Yellow, cyan, magenta

Red, blue, green

70. Alpha vane signal could be fed to _________________ ________________ when close to stall.

thrust levers

flap position

fast/slow switch

71. When performing maintenance operations on an aircraft equipped with RVSM system, and a quick release disconnect connection is disturbed

a full test of the system should be carried out

the allowances for the system should be halved

a full test of the system should be carried out only if the aircraft manufacturer recommends to do so

72. For aircraft certificated after 1997 and with RVSM, the maximum tolerance for the system would be

+/- 500 feet for the system overall

+/- 300 feet plus +/- 50 feet for instrument errors

+/- 200 feet plus +/- 50 feet for instrument error

73. The HSI provides information on

VOR, plan, map, ILS, radar

VOR, ILS, plan, attitude

VOR, ILS, map, radar, attitude

74. The sensing element of the flux valve

remains in the same position attached to the aircraft structure

aligns itself to the new heading as the aircraft turns

aligns itself to the new heading of the aircraft after it has stabilised

75. In a compass swing: North error -2 degrees, South error - 2 degrees. The coefficient C is

+2 degrees

0 degrees

-2 degrees

76. When aligning an aircraft for a compass swing, the maximum allowable error is

1 degrees

3 degrees

5 degrees

77. The pitot head is fitted on the aircraft. The alignment of pitot head is carried out with

96


spirit level

an inclinometer

micrometer

78. What kind of gyro is a rate gyro?

Displacement

Tied down

Space

79. A radio altimeter system can be self tested

on the ground only

both on the ground only and in the air

in the air only

80. The apparent wander for directional gyros is

dependant on longitude

maximum at the pole

compensated by applying a constant torque

81. The Directional Gyro is checked every 15 minutes for

drift

toppling

erection

82. Random drift of a gyro is caused by

gyro friction and unbalance

error in roll when aircraft is turning

aircraft turning with an error in roll

83. Standby Compass adjusting magnets (Flinders Bars) exert the most amount of influence

when 90 degrees apart

when parallel to each other

when 45 degrees apart

84. With engine static and engine blanks fitted, EPR gauge reads just above 1.

Transmitter is unserviceable

This is normal

Gauge requires re-calibration

97


85. Coefficient A is adjusted

at 360 degrees

at 270 degrees

on any heading

86. With an aircraft which has more than one compass system

both are adjusted on each heading

master and slave adjusted, correction card for master only

master adjusted, slave adjusted, each having a corrected compass card

87. A DC electrical cable must be positioned how far away from a compass?

So as to give no more than 2 degrees deflection of compass

20 inches

24 inches

88. Which pitot probe provides information to the captains instruments?

Lower

Upper

Both

89. On the CWP, what does amber indicate?

Present status

Warning

Cautionary info

90. Which instrument shows Decision Height?

ECAM

ADI

HSI

91. Where does the HSI receive GND speed information from?

INS

EICAS

Pitot static probes

92. When power is switched off, the gimbal brake

stops outer gimbal

restricts outer gimbal

98


restricts inner gimbal

93. On an EADI the command bars show the

required flight path compared with horizon

required flight path compared with aircraft position

required flight path compared to planned flight path

94. The airdata computer inputs to

mach meter, standby altimeter, ASI

altimeter, FMC, secondary radar

cabin rate sensors, mach-meters, ASI, altimeter

95. What deviation is indicated by 2 dots in a VOR system?

2.5°

6°

10°

96. How may the basic principle of the radio altimeter be described?

As a comparison of radio altitude against a barometric altitude referenced to ISA sea level (1013.25mb)

As a series of radio pulses to the ground their frequency depending on the expansion or contraction of an evacuated capsule and the deflection of an E and I bar transducer

As a measure of the time between a RF pulse transmission and the reception of its echo from the ground directly below the aircraft

97. In a compass system, what senses the horizontal component of the earths magnetic field and where is it normally fitted?

A precession device mounted on the yaw axis of the aircraft

Flux detectors fitted in the wing tips

Directional gyro mounted on the roll axis of the aircraft

98. An RMI has inputs from VOR and

a remote compass input

an azimuth gyro

no other sources

99. In a modern HSI, the displays are

course and direction

direction and attitude

course and attitude

99


100. At what height does the rising runway appear?

300 ft.

200 ft.

500 ft

101. An H on the EHSI indicates

DME hold

VOR hold

ILS approach

102. Compared to air driven gyros, the electric gyro runs

slower

same speed

faster

103. A pneumatic indicator takes its indications from

compressor outlet

compressor inlet

reservoir

104. What is apparent drift due to?

Errors when aircraft banking

Earths rotation

Gyro pivot friction

105. An aircraft airspeed indicator has

pitot to the capsule

pitot to the capsule and static to the out side of the capsule

static to the capsule

106. Above 2500 ft. the rad. alt.

pointer is hidden behind a mask with off flag out of view

pointer goes to zero to show system is being monitored

continues to indicate but with a warning flag

107. How does a machmeter work?

True airspeed / indicated airspeed

True airspeed and speed of sound

100


Indicated airspeed / temperature

108. When changing a pitot static instrument with quick release couplings

a leak check is always required

a leak check is not required

a leak check is only required if stated by manufacturer

109. The flux detector element

changes heading with the heading of the aircraft

changes it position after the aircraft heading is changed

gives heading with respect to magnetic north

110. If rate feedback in a flight director goes open circuit, position indication will

oscillate

be sluggish

go hard over

111. The needle of a resolver is connected to

two coils and an electromagnet

two coils only

two coils and a permanent magnet

112. If the compass fluid has bubbles at low altitude

this has no influence on compass readings

this is due to excessive high cabin altitude flying

this is due to insufficient de-aeration

113. A remote compass compensator unit is replaced. Which of the following is correct?

No swing is required if the new heading is within 5 degrees of the old

A compass swing must be performed

The swing can be performed at a later date

114. A compass has a residual deviation of +1 degree. To fly a heading of 180 degrees the pilot must steer

181 degrees

180 degrees

179 degrees

115. How is a leading edge flap position indicated in the cockpit?

Servomotor

101


A measuring device

Torque synchro

116. In a Machmeter, what type of compensation is there?

Compensation is not required

Hair spring

Square-Law compensation

117. What effect on the rate of precession will a change of gyro rotor speed have?

No effect

Increase the rotor speed, decrease the rate of precession

Decrease the rotor speed, decrease the rate of precession

118. A gyroscopic body has its rigidity increased by

increasing the rotor speed

decreasing the mass of the rotor

decreasing the rotor speed

119. If a constant torque is applied to a gyroscope, the rate of precession

increases with a lower rotor speed

increases with a higher rotor speed

is unaffected by changes in rotor speed

120. Random drift of a gyro is caused by

unbalance and bearing friction in the gyro

aircraft turning with an error in roll

rotation of the earth

121. A pendulous vane type erection system fitted to a gyro horizon works on the principle of

increased reaction of the air from a bisected port

increased reaction of the air from a fully open port

decreased reaction of the air from a fully open port

122. During the normal straight and level flight, the gyro of an electrical artificial horizon is kept erect in pitch by a

mercury switch in the fore and aft axis controlling a torque motor fitted between the inner and outer gimbal rings

torque motor fitted between the outer gimbal ring and the case controlled by a mercury switch in the fore and aft axis

102


torque motor fitted between the outer gimbal ring and the case controlled by a mercury switch in the athwartships axis

123. The normal erection supply to the mercury switches of the artificial horizon is disconnected

when the fast erection button is pressed

during turns

for the first 40 seconds after initially switching 'ON'

124. The pitch/bank erection system is used in an electrical gyro horizon to

give full erection control to the roll switch during a turn

give full erection control to the pitch switch during a turn

to prevent the pitch switch giving a false indication due to centrifugal effects during a turn

125. The fast erection push on an electrical gyro horizon must not be used for a set period after switching on because

overheating of the gyro rotor windings will occur

the normal erection switch contact will burn out

excessive hunting will take place

126. Apparent drift of a directional gyro is due to

bearing friction

unbalance of the gimbals

the effect of the earth's rotation

127. The erection system on a directional gyroscope has

a switch on the inner gimbal controlling a motor on the outer gimbal

a switch on the outer gimbal controlling a motor on the inner gimbal

a switch on the inner gimbal controlling a motor on the inner gimbal

128. In a rate gyro used to detect movements about a vertical axis, the amount the gimbal ring moves would be increased if the

spring tension was increased

rotor speed decreases

angle through which the gyro moves in azimuth increases

129. The Turn and Slip indicator employs

an azimuth gyro

a vertical gyro

a rate gyro

103


130. In a Turn and Slip indicator, the effect of increasing the rotor speed would be

it would have no effect

it would under read

it would over read

131. How is the information on a directional gyro outer gimbal taken off?

By a flux take-off device

By a switch on the outer gimbal

By a switch on the inner gimbal

132. Why is a directional gyro inner gimbal restricted to +/- 85º?

To prevent outer gimbal rotating

To prevent gyro going into gimbal lock

To ensure outer gimbal erection system works correctly

133. The speed of the rotor in a Turn and Slip indicator is approximately

2,400 rpm

22,500 rpm

4,200 rpm

134. In a directional gyro, the inner/outer gimbal is corrected to

15 sine longitude

15 cosine latitude

15 sine latitude

135. The electrolyte switches used in gyro systems rely upon

change in inductance to operate

change in voltage applied to operate

change in resistance to operate

136. Precession of a gyro depends on

both moment of inertia AND angular velocity of the rotor

moment of inertia of the rotor only

angular velocity of the rotor only

137. Angular momentum of a gyro rotor depends on

angular velocity of the rotor

moment of inertia of the rotor

104


moment of inertia and angular velocity of the rotor

138. Air driven gyros, compared to electric gyros, generally rotate

faster

the same speed

slower

139. Gyro rigidity is proportional to

mass, and radius of mass from spin axis

mass and speed

mass, speed and radius of mass from spin axis

140. Gyro precessional force is

inversely proportional to the applied force

proportional to the square of the applied force

directly proportional to applied force

141. The speed of a vacuum driven gyro horizon rotor is approximately

15,000 rpm

4,200 rpm

22,000 rpm

142. A V.S.I. is connected to

vacuum

static pressure

pitot pressure

143. With a V.S.I. pointer at position 1 on the upper half of the scale it indicates

100 ft/minute rate of climb

1,000 ft/minute rate of climb

1,000 ft/minute rate of descent

144. After disconnecting the supply to an electrically operated gyro instrument it is recommended that, to allow the gyro rotor to stop, before moving the instrument

three minutes should elapse

fifteen minutes should elapse

seven minutes should elapse

145. The Port and Starboard static vents on an aircraft are inter-connected to

cancel errors caused in the static system when the aircraft yaws

105


reduce compressibility error

minimize errors caused by leaks in the system

146. Which of the following would cause a displacement gyro to topple?

Running gyro at high speed

Running gyro at low speed

Inverting the gyro

147. In level flight, a V.S.I. will indicate

horizontal to left

vertically up

vertically down

148. On descent, the pressure in a V.S.I. capsule

lags the case pressure

leads the case pressure

is the same as case pressure

149. A small constant leak in the case of V.S.I. fitted in a pressurized aircraft would, during level flight, cause the instrument to indicate

zero

a rate of descent

a rate of climb

150. When a force is applied to a horizontal gyro, the precession of the rotor will continue until

plane of rotation is in line with the precessional force

plane of rotation is in line with the plane of the applied force

as long as the force is applied

151. An artificial horizon has

the inner gimbal pivoted longitudinally

the inner gimbal pivoted laterally

the inner gimbal pivoted vertically

152. A pressure of one atmosphere is equal to

1 inch Hg

14.7 PSI

100 millibar

153. In the directional gyro

106


the outer gimbal is pivoted longitudinally

the outer gimbal is pivoted vertically

the outer gimbal is pivoted laterally

154. The millibar is a unit of

atmospheric temperature

pressure altitude

barometric pressure

155. In the Turn and Slip indicator

the spin axis is longitudinal

the spin axis is vertical

the spin axis is lateral

156. In an altimeter, the

capsule is evacuated and sealed

capsule and case are connected via a calibrated choke

inside of the capsule is connected to static pressure

157. The units on the calibrated scale of a V.S.I. are expressed in

hundreds of feet per minute

miles per hour (mph)

knots (kts)

158. A standby air supply for gyro operation could be obtained from

a pitot head

a tapping from the induction manifold

a venturi

159. A rate two turn is

180 degrees per minute



160. The rate of turn information from a turn coordinator (compared to a Turn and Slip) is

less accurate

more accurate

more instantaneous

107


161. Temperature correction in a sensitive altimeter mechanism is provided by a

U-spring acting on the capsule

bi-metal U-spring acting on the capsule

balance weight

162. The capsule in a vertical speed indicator will be expanded when the aircraft is

in level flight

climbing

descending

163. After replacing an instrument of the pitot-static group, it is necessary to

blow through the lines with a clean low pressure air supply

carry out a leak test on the appropriate system(s)

calibrate the instrument concerned

164. If the pitot and static pipe lines were cross connected at the instrument panel connection, application of pressure to the pitot head would cause the

altimeter reading to decrease, vertical speed indicator to indicate descent

altimeter reading to decrease, vertical speed indicator to indicate climb

altimeter reading to increase, vertical speed indicator to indicate descent

165. A constant force applied to the inner gimbal of a vertical gyro would cause

a pitch error and gyro topple

a continual precession in roll

a roll error and gyro topple

166. A rate of turn indicator dial marked '2 minutes' refers to a

rate 2 turn

rate 1 turn

rate 3 turn

167. A pitot or static leak check is carried out

whenever the pitot or static systems are disturbed

only when an instrument is changed

only when a leak is suspected

168. The temperature of boiling water at standard pressure on the Fahrenheit and Centigrade scale is

212 deg. and 100 deg. respectively


108



169. A temperature of 59°F is equivalent to

32°C

15°C

14.69°C

170. Aircraft heading (HDG) is

the angle between True North and the longitudinal axis of the aircraft

the angle between True North and the actual track

the angle between True North and the desired track

171. Wind angle is the direction of the wind measured

in degrees from the aircraft's heading

in degrees from the desired track

in degrees from True North

172. Limit stops are fitted in an artificial horizon to

reduce gimbal nutation

prevent gimbal lock

limit the outer gimbal movemen

173. The electrical output from a remote gyro to an attitude director indicator is

by a control synchro

by a differential synchro

by a torque synchro

174. Agonic lines link places of

equal variation

different variation

zero variation

175. Position error is caused by

pitot head position

instrument location in the instrument panel

mechanical imperfections in an instrument

176. To convert degrees Centigrade to degrees Kelvin

add 273 degrees

109


add 112 degrees

use the formula (deg C x 9/5) + 32

177. Damping on a RATE GYRO can be either

eddy current, variable spring or moving iron

viscous, eddy current or air dash pot

viscous, eddy current or variable spring

178. Electrical driven gyros are

rotated faster than air driven gyros

rotated at the same speed as air driven gyros

rotated slower than air driven gyros

179. In a ratiometer temperature indicating circuit, there is a break in the circuit to the bulb. This will give

full scale deflection

no scale deflection

mid scale deflection

180. With the gyro at normal running speed, a torque applied to the inner gimbal ring of a vertical gyro will cause the

inner ring to move

outer ring to move

outer and inner ring to move

181. When an aircraft is descending, the pressure in the altimeter case

will cause the aneroid capsule to contract

will cause the aneroid capsule to expand

will not affect the aneroid capsule

182. The supply of Desynn indicating system

is alternating current at 400 c/s

is alternating current at 50 c/s

is direct current

183. A sensitive altimeter reading 100 ft. when the millibar scale is set to the atmospheric pressure at airfield level (QFE)

indicates that the instrument is unserviceable

indicates that the aircraft is in a region of high pressure and the reading must be corrected to I.S.A. standards

110


indicates that the airfield is 100 ft. above sea leve

184. After using a pitot-static test set the pressure in the aircraft static system should be released to the atmosphere by

venting the static system via an internal bleed in the test set

removing the static connector from its static vent

removing the static connector from its static vent after waiting for a period of three minutes

185. An altimeter is operated

by the vacuum system

by the static system

by the pitot system

186. What is the purpose of the bimetallic strip in the altimeter?

Corrects for capsule elasticity

Compensates for non-linear tension in the hairspring

Compensates for change in density

187. Which axis does the directional gyro spin on?

Vertical

Horizontal

Both vertical and horizontal

188. The capsule in an altimeter responds to

differential pressure

gauge pressure

absolute pressure

189. The aeroplane monitor on the artificial horizon is fitted to the

inner gimbal

rotor

instrument case

190. True airspeed in an Air Data Computer is a function of

airspeed and temperature

airspeed and altitude

mach number and temperature

191. The advantage of an instantaneous V.S.I. over a conventional one is

it does not require pitot/static pressure

111


it has an accelerometer which prevents the lag of a conventional one

it does not require warming up

192. For a particular I.A.S. as the density decreases with altitude, the T.A.S.

remains the same

increases

decreases

193. The type of gyro used in a gyro compass is a

directional gyro

rate gyro

vertical gyro

194. A desiccant used in the storage of instruments

is sodium-bicarbonate

is silica-gel

is anti-freeze oil

195. What effect on the rate of precession will a change of gyro rotor speed have?

No effect

Increase the rotor speed, decrease the rate of precession

Decrease the rotor speed, decrease the rate of precession

196. Bourdon Tubes have

toroidal cross section

circular cross section

oval cross section

197. In a Bourdon tube

one end is sealed and the other end open to atmosphere

both ends sealed

one end is sealed and the other end open to the pressure source

198. Pressure gauge calibrators (Dead Weight Testers) use the

Boyle's Law

Brahm's press principle

Charle's Law

199. The fluid suitable for use in a Dead Weight Tester is

112


anti-freeze oil

kerosene

castor-oil

200. The distance readout on an HSI is

dialled in by the pilot

from the aircraft ATC system

from the aircraft DME system

201. A gyroscope having one plane of freedom at right angles to the plane of rotation, and its gimbal restrained either electrically or by a spring, is known as

a rate gyro

a tied gyro

an earth gyro

202. Pressure may be expressed in

force per unit area

force per unit volume

weight or mass

203. What is the purpose of the hair spring in a Bourdon tube pressure gauge?

To reduce 'backlash'

To act a controlling force

To return the pointer to zero

204. The ADIs attitude information is normally obtained from the aircraft's

attitude rate gyros

directional gyros

vertical gyros

205. One dot VOR deviation represents

5°

1¼°

2 miles

206. An instrument used for measuring negative pressures

has the Bourdon tube reversed within the case

cannot be of the Bourdon tube type

has anti-clockwise pointer movement if Bourdon tube operated

113


207. An absolute pressure gauge measures

the applied pressure referred to atmospheric pressure

pressures extremely accurately

the applied pressure referred to a perfect vacuum

208. Gauge pressure as indicated on a direct reading Bourdon Tube pressure gauge is equal to

absolute pressure plus atmospheric pressure

absolute pressure minus atmospheric pressure

atmospheric pressure minus absolute pressure

209. The to/from indicator on an HSI informs the pilot of which direction he is tracking relative to

an ILS station

a VOR station

an ADF station

210. A pressure gauge, such as a hydraulic brake pressure gauge, indicates 1,000 p.s.i. In terms of absolute pressure, this represents

1,014.7 p.s.i.

1,000 p.s.i.

985.3 p.s.i.

211. To fill a Dead Weight Tester

screw in hand wheel and fill reservoir

remove platform and fill cylinder

screw out hand wheel and fill reservoir

212. With an aircraft on the ground and QNH set on the millibar scale of the altimeter, the altimeter will read

the airfield height

off scale

zero

213. When checking a sensitive altimeter on a pre-flight inspection

the ambient air pressure is set on the millibar scale

the standard sea level barometric pressure is always set on the millibar scale

the ambient air pressure corrected for temperature is set on the millibar scale

214. The HSI compass card is positioned by the

compass system

heading select knob

114


aircraft ADF system

215. The applied pressure to an A.S.I. varies with the

cube root of the speed

square root of the speed

square of the speed

216. The supply to an A.S.I.

is static pressure only

is pitot pressure only

are pitot and static pressure

217. The capsule for an A.S.I. will be expanding when the aircraft is

accelerating

climbing

decelerating

218. The deflection of the ADI command bars when flying a localiser approach is proportional to

the difference between the amplitudes on the two modulations

the difference in amplitude of the two r.f. carriers

the sum of the amplitude of the two modulations

219. If an aircraft is flying straight and level in still air, airspeed will be

equal to the ground speed

greater than the ground speed

less than the ground speed

220. If an aircraft flying in still air at 400 knots, encounters a head wind of 50 knots, its ground speed is

450 knots

350 knots

400 knots

221. To provide a linear scale on an A.S.I., a

ranging bar and screws are fitted

bi-metal corrector is employed

10 to 1 gearing is used

222. A machmeter is an instrument which indicates the speed of

sound relative to the aircraft's altitude

115


the aircraft relative to the local sonic speed

the aircraft relative to the speed of sound at ground level

223. The moving element of a ratiometer has

one coil

three coils

two coils

224. When carrying out a pressure leak test on an altimeter, you are checking for leaks in the

instrument case

pressure chamber

capsule stack

225. If an altimeter millibar scale was set to 1013.25 and the barometric pressure at that time was 1020, the altimeter should read

positive altitude

below zero feet (negative altitude)

zero feet

226. An aircraft flying towards a VOR station shows indications of 120Â° and 'TO'. After passing over the station, on the same course, the indications will be

300Â° and TO

120Â° and FROM

300Â° and FROM

227. The command bars in a flight director system indicate

the required path with respect to actual path

true horizon

the actual path with respect to required path

228. When changing a windscreen panel which has a standby magnetic compass located in the vicinity

The attachment bolts should be tightened in an anti-clockwise direction around the window

precautions should be taken that the bonding tag is attached to the correct attachment bolt

precautions must be taken to ensure that the attachment bolts are of the specified type

229. On a conventional RMI the angle between the compass datum and the radio pointer arrow is

the magnetic bearing

the complimentary bearing

the relative bearing

116


230. A compass is made aperiodic by

using fluid

tying it to the case

locking

231. Isogonal lines link places of

different variation

equal variation

zero variation

232. In an artificial horizon Pendulosity Error is caused by

displacement of erection control device

bottom lightness of inner gimbals

bottom heaviness of inner gimbals

233. If True Airspeed is 470 knots, what is the Equivalent Air speed?

662 knots

550 knots

278 knots

234. If the Airspeed Indicator reading is 300 Knots, what is the Calibrated Airspeed?

293 knots

296 knots

304 knots

235. In an Artificial Horizon, Erection Error is caused by




236. A Vertical Speed indicator Metering Unit Consist of

an orifice

both an orifice and a capillary

a capillary

237. Flux Valve senses angle of horizontal component with respect to the aircraft's

both lateral and longitudinal axis

lateral axis

True airspeed is always higher than EAS (or IAS) at any altitude above Sea Level

117


longitudinal axis

238. The manual VOR input is for

the radio magnetic indicator

the course deviation bar

the ADI

239. After correction of the north-south heading reading on a compass swing, the resultant correction is known as

correct heading

residual deviation

magnetic heading

240. Apparent drift on directional gyro is corrected by

mercury switch on outer ring

series of balance holes drilled in gyro rotor

an adjustment nut on inner ring

241. If a micro adjuster is replaced in a compass system, you would

carry out a new compass swing

set it up the same as the one removed

set it to zero datum

242. In a compass swing: North error -2 degrees, South error + 2 degrees. The coefficient C is

-2 degrees

0 degrees

+2 degrees

243. Purpose of Altitude Alerting is to warn the pilot of

approach to or deviation from selected altitude

altitude information

selection of altitude

244. Aircraft certified before 1997 with RVSM, maximum tolerance for the system is

+/- 500ft system tolerance

+/- 200ft system, +/-50ft for instrument error

+/- 300ft system, +/-50ft for instrument error

245. Machmeters work on

static

118


pitot and static

pitot

246. An aircraft with Mach warning will warn

when Mcrit is reached

when Mach 1 is exceeded

when envelope limit is reached

247. An HSI provides what information?

VOR, plan, ILS, map, radar

VOR, map, attitude, ILS

VOR, ILS, plan, attitude

248. Compressibility error in a pitot head is caused by

misalignment of pitot head

compression of air in the tube at high speed

blockage in the pitot tube

249. The earth's magnetic field is

horizontal across the earth

vertical at the poles, horizontal at the magnetic equator

vertical across the earth

250. The magnets in a compass corrector micro-adjuster are

adjusted for coefficient A

always set to the neutral position

adjusted to obtain the neutral position

251. There is an air bubble in the compass:

The fluid is not aerated properly

It is due to high altitude

It is required, to compensate for expansion of the fluid

252. A flux detector output is a

A.C. voltage at the same frequency as the excitation voltage

rectified D.C. voltage

A.C. voltage at twice the frequency of the excitation voltage

119


Instruments/Avionic Systems - Avionic Systems

1. Primary Radar is

reflected signal from aircraft's own radar

for ground use only

interrogation of aircraft's transponder

2. The general function of the ATC is to

interrogate other aircraft which reply with an identification signal

interrogate the ground station which replies with an identification

reply with an identification signal after being interrogated by a ground station

3. ACARS is primarily used for communicating with

maintenance base

other aircraft

air traffic control

4. SELCAL is used to

alert ground stations

alert other aircraft

monitor ground signals

5. HF communication frequency is in the range

23 - 30 kHz

3-30 MHz

108 - 118 MHz

6. The polythene sleeving over a HF antenna is to stop

lightning strike

precipitation static

moisture ingress and corrosion

7. the term HIRF means

High Interference Radiated Fields

High Intensity Radiated Fields

High Intensity Radio Fields

8. When an autopilot is Fail Passive,

the aircraft reverts to fail operational autopilot

ATC is ground use, but the Wxr and TCAS are also 'primary radar'

120


the pilot must resume control and land the aircraft

the autoland can continue

9. The fundamental theory of operation of a ranging radar is

frequency of returns

percentage of emitted signal returned

time taken to receive returns

10. On an aircraft communication system, HIRF interference is most prominent

during transmissions only

at specific frequencies

across the whole frequency spectrum

11. What clock is used in a GPS satellite?

Clock with battery

Atomic

Quartz

12. With Control Wheel Steering (CWS), if the flight path is disturbed by the pilot, the course will be corrected by the

autopilot panel

flight director input

normal flight control

13. An HF coupling is used to match the

receiver

boom-set (headphones and mic)

aerial

14. On an aircraft's navigation display, distance measuring equipment gives

slant range to beacon

height and range to beacon

ground range to beacon

15. On a modern aircraft flight instrument display system, radio deviation is shown on the

EHSI

EADI

EHSI & EADI

16. On a flight management system, the database is updated every

121


1 Month

2 Months

3 Months

17. In a GPS system what type of clock is in the receiver?

Atomic

Quartz

Battery

18. What is the purpose of the autopilot?

To relieve the flight crew of their duties during long haul flights

To reduce the flight crew's workload

To enable the aircraft to land in bad weather

19. On the ATC radio readability scale, what is satisfactory reception?

3

5

1

20. An ADF system includes

a sense antenna

both a sense and loop antenna

a loop antenna

21. A category 2 landing RVR is

400 m

200 m

800 m

22. Autopilot servo brake is energised

to actuate on

to actuate off

at the same time as the clutch

23. Frequencies used for a Microwave Landing System are

5 - 5.1 KHz

5 - 5.1 GHz

5 - 5.1 MHz

122


24. Where is the antenna located for watching TV?

In the stabiliser tip

On the fuselage roof

Near the wingtips, away from the cabin

25. Which category are hand mikes considered essential?

Light aircraft

Aerial work aircraft

Heavy passenger aircraft

26. Emergency frequency is

121.5 MHz

123.5 MHz

125.5 MHz

27. In a servo loop, an LVDT provides

rate feedback

either rate or position feedback

position feedback

28. 121.5 MHz is what frequency?

ILS

VHF

VOR

29. Transmitter aerials radiate

electromagnetic energy only

electrostatic and electromagnetic energy

electrostatic energy only

30. 112.1 MHz is what frequency?

UHF

ILS

VOR

31. When turbulence mode is selected, which other mode will not be available?

Heading Hold

VOR

ANO Schedule 4 Scale N and Article 47, prohibit them on Transport Category aircraft. However, no direct reference to them being 'essential' on light aircraft is found

112-118 MHz is VOR frequency. Less than 112 MHz odd decimals are ILS.

123


ALT Hold

32. Priority messages in an aircraft centralised warning system, go in order of (lowest to highest):

TCAS, GPWS, windshear

GPWS, windshear, TCAS

TCAS, windshear, GPWS

33. On a fibreglass aerial, what paint should be used?

Polyurethane

Not cellulose

Cellulose only

34. Full scale deflection of the glideslope pointer from the centreline is

0.5o

2.5 o

3 o

35. 111.2 MHz is

VHF

VOR

ILS

36. IRS obtains basic position information by

integrating the accelerometer output

integrating twice the accelerometer output

differentiating the accelerometer output

37. TCAS antenna is a

omnidirectional blade type L-band

phased-array L-band

directional antenna

38. MLS frequency is

6000-6100 MHz

5050-6050 MHz

5000-6000 MHz

39. Which colour on the weather radar screen does the pilot avoid fly-through in order not to encounter strong thunderstorm and heavy rain?

Magenta

124


Yellow

Blue

40. GPWS is

W-band

L-band

X-band

41. When painting a neoprene coated radio antenna

do not use cellulose paint

use cellulose paint

use any paint

42. To minimize cross cable interference

place filter in power supply

run radiating and affected cables as separate bundles

run cables as single bundle

43. Which 30Hz signal from a VOR ground station is frequency modulated?

The reference signal, which is constant

The ident tone

The variable signal

44. How is the the glideslope frequency chosen on the navigation control panel?

It is not manually chosen. It is paired with the VOR frequency

Via the G/S selector knob

It is not manually chosen. It is paired with the localizer frequency

45. How many times does the INS (inertial navigation system) integrate the acceleration signal it receives from the accelerometers to get the distance the aircraft has flown?

Twice

Three times

Once

46. Radar altimeter uses what frequency?

1200 MHz

2300 MHz

4000 MHz

47. Alert and Decision Heights differ in that

125


the Alert height is based on ILS equipment and Decision height is based on the RVR

the Decision height is based on ILS equipment and Alert height is based on the RVR

the Alert height is based on aircraft characteristics and Decision height is based on the airport facilities

48. DME compares what for measurement of slant distance?

Pulse transmission and return echo

Pulse pairs

Aircraft range and height

49. A TCAS blade aerial is

a 1-band omnidirectional array

unidirectional

a 1-band directional array

50. FM improvements affect what system?

VHF, VOR and ILS

ADF, VOR and ILS

ADF, VHF and ILS

51. How many axis does the aircraft autopilot control?

Three

Four

Two

52. Digital weather radar is on map mode. What happens?

Display alters

Switches antennas

Antenna tilts down

53. ACARs sends information from base to aircraft via

printer

FMS

voice

54. What does 7700 indicate on an ATC control panel?

Hijack

Emergency

Radio Failure

126


55. The number of VHF frequency channels is

360

720

760

56. In VHF comms, with 8.33 kHz spacing, how many channels are used?

720

350

2280

57. In an INS, vertical acceleration is calculated by

an accelerometer and laser gyro

an accelerometer

a laser gyro

58. The autopilot is instructed by the

GPS

FMC

Flight Director

59. Inertia is

the result of a gyro running at normal speed

the plane of rotation of a gyro

the property that resists any force that tends to change the plane of rotation of a gyro

60. VOR signals are sent to the

Roll channel

Pitch channel

Yaw channel

61. ILS marker beacon lights are

blue, amber, white

green, blue, amber

blue, white, green

62. 111.1 MHz is

a VOR frequency

a HF frequency

127


an ILS frequency

63. An autopilot PFCU servo brake is

energised at the same time as the clutch

energised on

energised off

64. The aviation distress frequency is

121.5 MHz

121.5 kHZ

122.5 MHz

65. A radar altimeter in track mode is effective to

100 ft.

2000 ft.

2500 ft.

66. 112.1 MHz is

a VOR frequency

an ADF frequency

an ILS frequency

67. What does a Decca Navigation system operate on?

Low Frequency

High Frequency

Very High Frequency

68. Which of the following has a hyperbolic curve?

VOR

DME

Loran C

69. A GPS satellite will come into view

10° above the horizon with respect to the viewer



70. Restrictions to the use of hand held microphones apply to

private aircraft

Loran C is a type of LF Navigation

128


aerial work and transport category aircraft

transport category aircraft only

71. The purpose of the clutch in an autothrottle servo is

to allow the pilot to override

to protect the servo motor in the event of inadvertent runaway

to limit the range of control movement

72. Track mode of an RA is operational

from 0 to 2,500 feet

from 1.0 to 100 feet

above 10,000 feet

73. How many aerials are there in a TCAS system?

3

2

1

74. Wavelength of X band radar is

5 cm

3 cm

10 m

75. Precipitation static is caused by

HF radiation

skin to air particle collisions

lightning strikes

76. HF aerials have weak points designed at

both ends

the back end

the front end

77. What is the reply frequency of an aircraft transponder?

1030 MHz

1090 MHz

1000 MHz

78. CAT 2 RVR limit is

CAT II ILS Runway Visual Range (RVR) is 'not less than 1200ft'.

129


1200 ft

10,000 ft

1000 ft

79. With autopilot engaged, which control surface is inhibited?

Ailerons

THS

Elevators

80. When flaps are lowered, the automatic trim system will

not adjust the THS angle of incidence, it will remains the same

increase the angle of incidence of the THS

decrease the angle of incidence of the THS

81. In autopilot, the control column

moves in pitch and roll

does not move

moves in pitch

82. A 'hyperbolic' system is

ILS

LORAN C

VOR

83. When is autothrottle disengaged?

On landing

On selection of thrust reverse

After thrust reverser has deployed beyond 90% so that TO/GA can be selected in case of emergency

84. In aircraft with an autopilot and an auto trim, a pitch command input will cause

column to move and trim system to move

column will not move and trim system will move

column to move but trim system not to move

85. In regard to the aircraft transponder, what is the pulse frequency?

Amount of times reply signal is sent per second

Amount of times interrogating signal is sent per second

Number of pulses per signal

130


86. CAT 2 RVR limit is

800 m

200 m

400 m

87. How many programs can a FMC store?

Two. One active and one standby

Two. Both active

One current

88. EPR and speed for autothrottle is activated at

cruise

take off

approach

89. How does an IRS calculate velocity?

Differentiation of laser gyro

Integration of accelerometers

Double integration of accelerometers

90. In an autopilot, what controls pitch mode?

Localizer

Glideslope

VOR

91. Glideslope controls autopilot in

pitch

yaw

roll

92. Static dischargers help eliminate radio interference by dissipating static electricity into the atmosphere at

high voltage levels

low current levels

all voltage levels

93. What is B-RNAV?

Indicates bearing and airspeed until next active waypoint

Ability to store 6 waypoints

CAT II ILS Runway Visual Range (RVR) is 'not less than 1200ft'. 1200 ft = 400m

If the aircraft is equipped with static dischargers, the static discharge occurs at lower current and more frequently'.

131


Indicates true airspeed

94. An Automatic Flight Control System receives inputs from the following ground based transmitters

DME, ILS, ADF

VOR, ILS

RA, ADF, ILS

95. What is the wavelength of C band radar?

3 cm

17 m

7 cm

96. What is primary radar?

Land based

Radar that gives height and position

Radar that sends out pulse and receives reflected pulse

97. What is ILS marker beacon frequency?

50 MHz

75 MHz

100 MHz

98. TCAS is selected

by a switch, by pilot on selector panel

automatically

not available in cruise

99. The manual VOR input is for

course deviation bar

glideslope

RMI

100. The mach trim is initiated by

the autopilot motor

a PCU

an electric motor

101. What is the colour of the middle marker beacon?

White

C Band is 4 - 8 cm. Most aircraft systems use about 5.6cm.

132


Blue

Amber

102. A GPS system is formed from

satellites, processing unit, display unit

receiver, processing unit, interactive console

space, control, user

103. For aircraft with dual CMCs, when only one CMC is available, it

must be connected to the right side

can be connected to either side

must be connected to the left side

104. Laser gyros are

aligned to the aircraft structure

aligned to the true north

aligned to the magnetic north

105. Laser gyros

have rotational parts

do not have rotational parts

have no movable parts

106. A radio coupled approach is

localiser first, followed by glideslope

glideslope first, followed by localiser

in any order

107. Aileron signal is fed to the rudder channel

for turn command back-up

for turn coordination

for yaw damping compensation

108. The rate of G/S warning in GPWS

changes with radio altitude

does not change

changes with barometric altitude

109. What frequency are VOR and ILS?

133


VHF

HF

UHF

110. A radio frequency of 16 MHz would be used for

marker beacons

HF communications

weather radar

111. An aircraft lands in autoland. After touch down and thrust reversers are deployed. What happens to autothrottle?

Advances throttles

Stays armed for go around in an emergency

Automatically switches off

112. Pilot's instinctive cut-out buttons are positioned

on right side of control wheel

on left side of control wheel

on side of control wheel furthest from throttles

113. ILS and VOR operate in which range

UHF

VHF

HF

114. FMC secondary flight-plan is selected

in the air by the pilot

by calendar date monthly

on the ground by the pilot

115. GPWS operating in mode 1 and 2 when close to ground will give

amber warning

red caption and aural 'whoop whoop pull up'

red caption and aural 'pull up, undercarriage, flaps, throttle'

116. The components of an ILS are

a localizer and a glide slope

a localizer, a glide slope and the marker beacons

a localizer and the marker beacons

FMC has a primary (active) and a secondary (alternative) stored flight plan

134


117. In ILS, the glideslope provides

lateral steering

vertical steering

distance checks

118. If the 90 Hz tone modulation in a localizer receiver predominates, the deviation indicator will show

fly left

fly right

the flag

119. Autopilot will operate above what altitude?

500 ft.

1000 ft.

750 ft.

120. A radio coupled autopilot in pitch uses

glideslope

VOR

ADF

121. EPR and thrust modes in autothrottle are the only modes that can be selected in

take off

cruise

approach

122. An inertial navigation unit uses pin programming for

location

magnetic orientation

aircraft type

123. How can it be verified if FMC update is correct?

Dataplate on the FMC

BITE

FMC via CDU

124. GPWS will show a fault if the following fails:

Air speed indicator

Radio altimeter

Pin programming for IRU`s and INU`s are carried out on the aircraft rack mounted side. The purpose being to tell the installed unit which position it is serving within the aircraft i.e left, ctr or right side! The unit is universal for all

Of the three, GPWS has only connection to the RA. It does use barometric vertical speed however.

135


Pressure altimeter

125. INS has mercury switches on

all gimbals

inner gimbal

outer gimbal

126. If the runway picture in the EADI moves down during an ILS approach, the aircraft must fly

down

nowhere - this is normal on an ILS approach

up

127. What modulation is used for the beams of a localiser in an ILS?

150 Hz right of runway centerline, 90 Hz left of runway centreline

90 Hz below the glide path, 150 Hz above the glide path

150 Hz left of runway centerline, 90 Hz right of runway centreline

128. In what frequency range does the automatic direction finding (ADF) system operate?

108.00 - 117.95 MHz

190 - 1759 KHz

1025 - 1150 KHz

129. How does an aircraft distinguish its own Distance Measuring Equipment reply from those for other aircraft?

By changing at random the time delay between the pulse pairs of the interrogation signal

By using an alternate frequency

By modulation of an audio tone

130. From where is bearing information received for display on the digital-distance radio-magnetic indicator (DDRMI)?

From ADF only

From VOR only

From VOR and ADF systems

131. Which frequency is used to achieve line of sight radio communication?

VHF and UHF

VHF

HF

132. Why is an aerial tuning unit used in a high frequency (HF) communication system?

136


To select the transmission/reception frequency in the HF band

To electrically lengthen or shorten the aerial for optimum matching of impedance

To extend or retract the aerial and so vary its physical length

133. What would be the purpose of an input from an inertial reference system being connected to a weather radar?

To place the weather radar target in azimuth and distance for the display

To ensure that there is no radar transmission with aircraft on ground

To provide stabilisation for the radar antenna

134. Which systems provide envelope modulation information for a Ground Proximity Warning System (GPWS)

Flaps/undercarriage

Rudder/ailerons

Autothrottle

135. The Time Reference Scanning Beam (TRSB) corresponds to ILS localiser and glidepath. How does it operate?

It operates in conjunction with DME at lower frequencies than ILS

It operates in the same manner as ILS but utilises higher frequencies

Azimuth and elevation transmitters produce a narrow beam which is rapidly scanned TO and FRO or UP and DOWN

136. The FMS navigation database is updated

after a B or C check has been completed

every 28 days

daily

137. In an IRS system you would expect to find

ring laser gyros

three strap down accelerometers

an azimuth gyro system

138. In an INS system the accelerometer is a mass

a remotely mounted mass on the airframe

a mass suspended in free air

suspended between two springs in a tube

139. In a modern aircraft the ACARS system is used primarily for

as part of the passenger telephone system

Assuming they mean a strapdown system. (Note: it is the system which is strapdown, not the accelerometers, azimuth gyro is not the only type of gyro involved).

137


communications between the aircraft and base

reporting defects on the aircraft automatically

140. What are the main areas of the autopilot?

Error, correction , demand, resolved

Error, correction, follow up, command

Error, correction, follow up, demand

141. VHF frequency is

108 - 112 MHz

108 - 136 MHz

108 - 118 MHz

142. The call system for the captain will have the audio signal of a

hi tone chime

horn

two tone chime

143. Channel 3 on a CVR records

first officer

flightdeck

captain

144. DME works on the frequency of

HF

VHF

UHF

145. A radial is referenced

from a beacon

to a VOR

on a compass

146. ADF works by using

both loop and sense aerial

loop aerial

sense aerial

147. How is the next database on the FMC activated?

138


Automatically by due date

Manually in the air

Manually, on the ground

148. What GPWS mode gives a 'Whoop Whoop, Pull-up' command?

Mode 2

Mode 6

Mode 3

149. A transponder that is compatible for use with a TCAS system would be

Mode C

Mode A

Mode S

150. GPS

uses 24 satellites equally spaced around 6 orbits



151. Random precession of the inner gimbal ring is detected by placing mercury switches

on inner gimbal ring

on outer gimbal ring

on both gimbal rings

152. The IRS laser gyro is a

rate gyro

displaced gyro

displacement gyro

153. What manoeuvre does TCAS II advise the pilot to make?

RA

either RA or TA

TA

154. What are the shapes of traffic shown on a TCAS display ?

White circles, red diamonds and amber squares

White squares, red diamonds and amber circles

White diamonds, red squares and amber circles

139


155. The laser ring gyro

does not have a gimbal

has a stabilized platform

does not have a gimbal but does have rotating parts

156. 3 autopilot computers are considered

Fail resistant

Fail Passive

Fail Operable

157. In autopilot with THS in motion, the

Mach trim is inhibited

elevator is inhibited

Auto Trim is inhibited

158. How can a pilot over-ride the auto-throttle?

It is not possible

Manually through a clutch on the throttle levers

By deselecting auto-throttle first

159. Where is the autothrottle disconnect switch?

Within reach of the Captain

Within reach of both pilots

Within reach of the First Officer

160. Decca navigation uses

HF

LF

VHF

161. There are two FMS installed on the aircraft. If one FMS fails during flight

the whole FMS system is unserviceable until the pilot switches over to standby

the failed FMS has a blank screen

it has no effect, because the second FMS was in the stand-by mode, now it is active.

162. Which of the following has priority over TCAS warnings?

Stall warning

Gear position warning

140


Resolution Advisories

163. The ILS marker beacon operates at a frequency of

75 MHz

50 MHz

100 MHz

164. The manual input for the VOR course corrector is related to

the CDI offset bar

the ILS system

the RMI

165. A flat plate antenna is a

parabolic antenna

a series of slots and wave guides

a Doppler antenna

166. To obtain an accurate GPS fix, the GPS receiver must be in line of sight of

4 satellites

3 satellites

6 satellites

167. Which of the following systems is inhibited when a test is performed of the rad. alt. system?

GPWS

TCAS

altitude alert

168. The GPS satellite system consists of

20 satellites and 5 standby satellite

21 satellites and 3 standby satellites


169. A Mode C transponder gives the following info:

Altitude and interrogation

Altitude

Interrogation

170. The autothrottle system at touchdown will

go to idle

4 satellites are required to provide height information as well as position.

141


apply reverse thrust

go to idle and disconnect

171. When will the decision height aural warning sound?

At decision height

Before decision height

After decision height

172. FMCS Pin Programming is allowed

for the database of aircraft landing altitudes

to compensate for FMC position on the aircraft

under CAA Rules

173. Before the aeroplane is moved from the loading pier, the pilot must

set the altitude to be fed into the INS

insert the latitude and longitude of the pier into the INS

insert the latitude and longitude of the first waypoint into the INS

174. A 'strap-down' inertial navigation system has

accelerometers and gyros fixed to the airframe

accelerometers on a stable platform and gyros fixed to the airframe

accelerometers fixed to the airframe and gyros on a stable platform

175. A force re-balance accelerometer in an IN system has the acceleration force balanced by a

constant force

non-linear force

linear force

176. An accelerometer in an IN system must be able to detect accelerations down to

10-6 g

10-3 g

10-2 g

177. A laser gyro output is

directly proportional to angular turning rate

directly proportional to frequency addition

inversely proportional to angular turning rate

178. In an IN system, Coriolis effect is the result of

142


gyro wander

platform misalignment

the effect of the earth's rotation on a stable platform

179. The Inertial Navigation System computes distance from acceleration by

two successive integrations

a differential followed by an integration

a single integration

180. Coriolis effect is corrected for by

re-aligning the stable platform

adding a correction term to the accelerometer outputs

torquing the gyros

181. In an IN system, the output of the accelerometer is linear because of a

linear spring

force balance system

pendulous suspension

182. The three accelerometers on a stable platform are mounted

parallel to each other

120 degrees apart

orthogonally

183. In an IN system, the purpose of the stable platform is to

stop the gyros from toppling

provide attitude reference

prevent unwanted acceleration affecting the accelerometers

184. The type of gyro generally used in an IN system is a

rate integrating gyro

rate gyro

displacement gyro

185. Earth rate is approximately

5 degrees per hour

84 degrees per hour

15 degrees per hour

143


186. In a gimbal system, the stable platform is the

azimuth gimbal

pitch gimbal

roll gimbal

187. To prevent gimbal lock on the stable platform it is normal to use

three gimbals

four gimbals

a pitch gimbal

188. When the inertial platform is torqued to perform like a Schuler pendulum

the platform rotates with respect to the aircraft

the platform remains fixed with respect to the local vertical

the platform oscillates with respect to the local vertical

189. A Schuler pendulum has a period of oscillation of

84.4 seconds

8.4 minutes

84.4 minutes

190. An IN system requires data from the

Doppler system

airdata computer

satellites

191. When in manual mode, the C.D.U. alert lamp of the IN system will flash

thirty seconds before a track change is required

when an error is detected

two minutes before the next waypoint

192. XTK (cross track) is the

angle in degrees that aircraft track is left or right of desired track

perpendicular distance from the desired track

actual track across the earth's surface

193. The output of an INS can be fed to

attitude indicators

altimeters

144


vertical speed indicators

194. The three accelerometers on a strapdown platform are mounted

90º to each other

parallel to each other

120º apart

195. A basic I.N.S. platform has

3 axis accelerometer

3 accelerometers and 2 gyros (pitch and roll)

2 accelerometers and 3 gyros

196. Using I.N.S. an aircraft flies

great circle arc

rhumb line

course directed by ground station

197. What must be entered in to the I.N.S. before the aircraft moves?

Waypoints

E.T.A.

Present position

198. Selection of the INS Mode Selector Unit (MSU) to ATT REF is made

to feed information to the Captain and 1st Officers ADI displays

when attitude information is lost

when navigation information is lost

199. For the INS, the Battery Unit provides

standby power when airborne, switched by weight-off switches in the undercarriage

both when airborne and on the ground

standby power only when on the ground, to maintain the alignment phase

200. Control Display Unit (CDU) selection of TKE displays

distance perpendicular from the selected track

difference in degrees that the aircraft track is to the right or left of the desired track

difference in degrees from True North in a clockwise direction from the desired track

201. The Earth Rate Compensation for an INU is computed from

the earth's rotational rate (15°/hour) times the sine of the longitude

145


the earth's rotational rate (15°/hour) times the cosine of the latitude

the earth's rotational rate (15°/hour) times the sine of the latitude

202. INS wind speed is calculated from

the vectorial addition of IAS and TAS

the vectorial addition of TAS and GS

the vectorial addition of IAS and GS

203. Centripetal error compensation is achieved by

allowing the platform to oscillate at a fixed rate

an additional signal is added to the N/S accelerometer to cancel the centripetal error

the platform is torqued to align the N/S accelerometer along its insensitive axis

204. Transport Rate compensation is achieved by

an additional signal added to the N/S accelerometer output depending on heading

allowing the platform to oscillate at a fixed rate

the platform being torqued by a computed torquing signal

205. If the battery fails on the ground (INS System)

an amber light appears on the MSU and a horn sounds

a red warning light appears on the MSU and a horn sounds

a red light appears on the CDU and a horn sounds

206. An IRS alignment

takes 10 minutes and present position must be entered before alignment

takes 10 minutes and present position can be entered any time during the alignment

takes 10 minutes and the previous flight shut down present position is used for the alignment

207. For an IRS system to pass the 'Alignment System Performance Test' the

the No. 1 and No.2 must both have the same latitude and longitude present position entered

entered present latitude and longitude must agree with the latitude and longitude at the last power own

latitude entered must be within given limits of the latitude computed by IRU

208. A laser gyro dither mechanism ensures that

the contra-rotating beams are synchronised together

optical 'backscatter' does not cause the contra-rotating beams to lock together

that the two contra-rotating beams each operate at different frequencies

209. The localiser deviation signal for the flight director comes from the

146


VHF nav system

VHF comm system

flight director compute

210. The heading error signal used in the heading select mode

is the difference between the desired heading and the actual heading

is the difference between the desired course and the actual course

comes direct from the compass system

211. The crab angle of the aircraft during VOR or LOC modes is displayed by the

difference between the course arrow and aircraft heading

difference between the selected heading and aircraft heading

selected course counter

212. VOR left-right deviation signals come from the

DME system

VLF nav system

VHF nav set

213. Above the glideslope, the ILS glideslope signal modulation is

90 Hz

150 Hz

90 KHZ

214. The localiser modulation signal to the left of the localiser centre line, as seen from the localiser transmitter, is

90 Hz

90 KHz

150 Hz

215. The correct sense demand generated for a selected heading 180°, when the aircraft heading is 150° is

turn left

straight ahead

turn right

216. When an aircraft is flying along the extended centre line of the runway it is in the

150 Hz modulation sector

90 Hz modulation sector

equi-signal sector

147


217. The localiser system offers approach guidance to the runway in terms of

the vertical plane

the horizontal plane

distance to touch down

218. The glideslope transmitter is located

at the end opposite to the approach end of the runway

adjacent to the touch-down point of the runway

at the approach end of the runway

219. The glideslope and localiser frequencies

are fixed and common to all runways therefore frequency selection is not necessary

have to be selected separately

are paired and one frequency selector suffices for both

220. The glideslope system offers approach guidance to runways in terms of

distance to touchdown

the vertical plane

the horizontal plane

221. The glideslope equipment operates in the

VHF band

UHF band

HF band

222. The localiser equipment operates in the

HF band

VHF band

UHF band

223. The aircraft equipment determines the bearing of a ground station by comparing

the amplitude of two 30 Hz modulations

the phase of two 30 Hz modulations

the phase of one 30 Hz modulation with that of a 9960 Hz modulation

224. The number of different radials provided by a ground station is

infinite

180 per quadrant, i.e. 720 in 360°

148


360

225. Which of the following frequencies is allocated to VOR?

114.3 MHz

127.2 MHz

103.9 MHz

226. Aerial masts may be damaged by

water

killfrost anti-icing fluid

Skydrol hydraulic fluids

227. Most radio aerial masts are

not bonded

bonded

insulated from the fuselage

228. When an aircraft is heading due north (magnetic) towards a VOR station the reference and variable signals will be

270° out of phase

in phase

180° out of phase

229. The middle marker modulation is keyed with

alternate dots and dashes

dashes

dots

230. The modulation of the outer marker is

3000 Hz

400 Hz

1300 Hz

231. The approximate distance of the middle marker from the runway threshold is

7 miles

3 miles

3500 ft.

232. Marker information is usually provided to the pilot

aurally

All frequencies between 112.00 and 117.95 MHz (High Power VORs) and all odd frequencies between 108.00 and 111.95 MHz (Terminal VORs)

149


both visually and aurally

visually

233. An over station sensor (OSS) detects

the rapid rate of the VOR signal over the cone of confusion

radio deviation signals proportional to distance from a localiser transmitter

radio deviation signals proportional to distance from a VOR transmitter

234. Incompatible Flight Director modes are

altitude hold and ILS

VRU and compass

VOR and glidepath

235. The VOR system comprises

reference phase signal

variable and reference phase signals

variable phase signal

236. The most sensitive system between ILS and VOR is

they both have the same sensitivity

ILS

VOR

237. If an aircraft is flying on a heading of 000 away from a VOR station, the TO/FROM indicator would show

to

from

no indication

238. How does the flight director computer differentiate between VOR and ILS frequencies?

Frequency discriminator in receiver

Trigger pulse from ground station

Discriminator on control panel

239. The glideslope transmitter operates on

the VHF band

frequencies of 108 to 118 MHZ

the UHF band

240. The pilots instinctive autopilot disengage button is on the

150


left of the control column

right of the control column

side of the controls away from the throttles

241. If the autopilot automatically disconnects in the autoland mode, the audible warning

switches off after a time interval

is switched off by the instinctive cut-out button

can only be switched off by re-engaging the autopilot

242. A category 3B aircraft using fail operational automatic landing equipment will have

a decision height depending on RVR

a decision height of 50ft

no decision height

243. For an aircraft to be certified for automatic landing, an autothrottle system is

mandatory

a matter of choice for the operator

dependent on the operation of the aircraft at slow speeds

244. With autothrottle engaged, the application of reverse thrust will

drive the throttles to the minimum thrust position

drive the throttles to the reverse thrust position

disconnect the autothrottle

245. During ATC transponder operation, side lobe suppression acts to

mute the DME operation during transmit phase

mute coms transmission during transponder operation

supply altitude readout

246. During operation of a twin HF radio system transceiver

#1 HF system operation is inhibited during #2 operation

both systems can be operated simultaneously

#1 HF system can transmit but not receive

247. Which L band frequency is not used by DME for transmitting?

2210 MHz

1090 MHz

4133 MHz

151


248. Function of ADF & VOR and DME in navigation system with reference to aircraft and beacon is;

the first provides distance between aircraft and beacon and latter provides bearing line from aircraft to beacon

the first provides bearing line from aircraft to beacon and latter provides distance between aircraft and beacon

None of above

249. Which two frequencies are paired?

DME and Glideslope

Glideslope and localizer

Localizer and DME

250. Localizer beam width is the angle where the two edges of beam are apart at the runway threshold by

7 ft

700 ft

70 ft

251. What happens if frequency decreases without altering the physical length of aerial?

The aerial becomes inductively capacitive

The aerial becomes capacitively reactive

The aerial becomes inductively reactive

252. What happens if frequency increases without altering the physical length of aerial?

The aerial becomes inductively reactive

The aerial becomes capacitively reactive

The aerial becomes inductively capacitive

253. Aerials provide optimum output at one particular frequency, when its load is purely

resistive

capacitive

inductive

254. The torque pre-set in an autopilot system is

to stop the motor overheating

to give control surface feel

to allow it to be overridden at a certain force

255. Most aerials are

not bonded

152


bonded

made from non-conductive material

256. The Middle Marker beacon is what colour?

Amber

White

Blue

257. Laser gyros have

no rotating parts

moving parts

a spinning rotor

258. Laser gyros are aligned to

magnetic north

true north

aircraft structure

259. Triplex autopilot is

fail passive

fail soft

fail operational

260. Flight management control system (FMCS) utilises

ILS, VOR, ADF

ILS, DME, ADC,

VOR, ADF, DME

261. ACARS is

a navigation system

a satellite communication system

a way of reporting defects to maintenance base in flight

262. Where is an ATC transponder mode 'A' selected ON?

The airspeed indicator

The ATC control panel

The altimeter

263. How many data bases are required in an FMS system?

153


2

1

3 (one is used for redundancy)

264. What channel of the autopilot does the glideslope control?

Pitch

Yaw

Roll

265. What is secondary radar?

Signal returned from a transponder

A backup radar on an airfield

Reflected radar bounce from an aircraft

266. In an autothrottle system, when is EPR or thrust mode used?

Approach

Cruise

Take-off

267. What is Mode 1 & 2 of GPWS used for?

Excessive descent rate, unsafe terrain clearance

Excessive descent rate, excessive terrain closure rate

Excessive terrain closure rate, altitude loss after take-off

268. For radio communication over a distance of over 250 miles we use

VHF

VLF

HF

269. Autopilot, when on approach to landing, how many axis are used?

3

2

4

Electrical Power

1. A lead-acid battery is considered to be fully charged when the

cells begin to gas freely

154


SG reaches 1.180

SG and voltage remain constant for specified period

2. A diode across a contactor

reduces contact bounce

enables it to be connected to either an AC or DC circuit

reduces contact arcing

3. The preferred method of battery charging a Ni-Cad battery is constant

voltage

power

current

4. A battery in situ on an aircraft

charges at a fairly constant rate because generator voltage remains constant

may charged at an excessive rate if initial battery voltage is low

may charge slowly if initial battery voltage is low

5. To parallel an alternating current generator with one or more other generators, phase A must be

90 degrees out-of-phase and ABC

in-phase with other generators and CBA only

in-phase with other generators and ABC

6. On an unparalleled twin generator alternating current system, the phase of the second generator to be brought on line

must be in-phase prior to paralleling

is unimportant

is important if the first generator fails

7. The power supply for aircraft is

28VDC, 115VAC, 400Hz



8. On the direct current short shunt generator circuit shown, output voltage at the load is 200V. What is the voltage across the shunt winding?

AC generators are paralleled for phase, voltage, frequency, load and phase rotation.

155


206V

200V

212V

9. On a Direct Current circuit, Current Limiters

prevent overheating by limiting current to load

limit generator field excitation

limit current to field circuit

10. On a direct current circuit, current limiters

allow excessive current to the load circuit

prevent excessive current to the load circuit

prevent excessive current to the field circuit

11. When a current transformer is disconnected from its load

a resistor should be placed across the terminals

the terminals should be shorted together

the terminals should be left disconnected

12. Ram Air Turbines have variable fan blades to

maintain a constant speed

provide a constant flow rate

produce maximun hydraulic pressure required by the system

13. On a direct current twin generator system, the paralleling relay contacts close when the oncoming generators voltage is

below bus voltage

the same as bus voltage

above bus voltage

14. Where is a commutator found?

An AC generator

The 100 ohm shunt, 0.06 ohm and the 0.04 ohm are the field windings. The generator output is split between the 0.06 ohm and the 100 ohm load, but only by 0.06/100 x 200V = 0.12V (across the 0.06 ohm). So the voltage across the shunt winding is closer to 200V than the other two answers

156


A DC generator

A DC alternator

15. Calculate the battery terminal voltage of a NiCad battery with 15 cells

18 V

15 V

30 V

16. Reactive electrical loads are adjusted by

adjustment of generator speed

adjustment of the regulator output

varying the frequency circuit

17. IDG oil is used for

internal hydraulic functions only

cooling, lubrication and internal hydraulic functions

cooling and lubrication only

18. A silver oxide cell has a voltage of

1.55 V

1.8 V

1.2 V

19. Lithium cells

are very efficient

have an unlimited re-charge cycle capacity

are not rechargeable

20. On a split bus electrical system, the bus tie breakers are

always closed in flight

always open in flight

only closed in an emergency

21. Parallel electrical system bus tie breakers are

closed in flight and open on ground

closed on ground and open in flight

always closed in flight

22. Whilst synchronising generators, frequency bias is adjusted on

15 x 1.2V = 18V

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the on-line generator

all generators

the on-coming generator

23. The GCR will trip during over-voltage

based upon a fixed time delay circuit

based upon the amplitude of the over-voltage

immediately

24. In a constant voltage AC generator, the voltage is regulated by

a 3-phase transformer

varying field voltage

varying field current

25. A vibrator type voltage regulator regulates field current by

just a pair of contact breaker points

a resistor in parallel with a pair of contact breaker points

a resistor in series with a pair of contact breaker points

26. When a current transformer is disconnected, what should be done?

Resistor placed across terminals

Left open circuit

Terminals shorted

27. What does the differential sensing coil sense?

Volts

Power

Current

28. Where does the GCU gets its power?

RAT

PMG

Battery

29. Galley loads are wired in

either series or parallel depending on the design

series

parallel so load shedding will lower current consumption All loads on an aircraft are wired in parallel

158


30. In a merz-price protection system of a single phase, if, when a fault occurs, only one relay contactor opens,

only the relay on the side which has the fault will energise

then it is probable that one of the relays has failed short circuit

then it is probable that one of the coils has failed open circuit

31. A fuse-type current limiter

can be used as a radio suppressor

limits current flow to a load

opens a circuit after a time/current condition has been exceeded

32. When a load is shed from a busbar, the

busbar voltage decreases

current consumption from the bar decreases

busbar voltage increases

33. In unparalleled AC generation systems, the phase rotation of one generator in relation to the others

must be synchronised prior to paralleling

is unimportant

must be BCA

34. In a multi-generator system, the generator which takes more than its reactive power share is protected by

over-voltage and under-voltage protection circuits

over-excitation and under-excitation protection circuits

over-current and under-current protection circuits

35. In a pulsed width modulating type voltage regulator, the generator output voltage is increased by

increasing the voltage sensed by the voltage regulator

increasing the mark to space ratio

decreasing the mark to space ratio

36. Sharing of electrical loads by paralleled DC generators is controlled by

automatic load shedding

equalising circuits which control the field excitation of the generators

equalising circuits which control the speed of the generators

37. Excessive commutator sparking can be caused by

rotating field diode failure

weak spring tension

159


brushes positioned on MNA

38. Before checking the SG of a battery recently removed from an aircraft

take the temperature of the electrolyte

carry out a capacity test

allow to stabilise for one hour

39. On an AC external power plug, the interlock circuit is controlled by pins

E and F

A and B

C and D

40. Over-voltage protection circuits are activated

after a fixed time delay

dependent on the magnitude of the overvoltage

before the over voltage limit is exceeded

41. A diode connected across a coil will

prevent the coil being fitted the wrong way

prevent back EMF and allow faster switching

suppress arcing when relay is opening and closing

42. Which fault does not always trip the GCR?

Over-frequency and under-frequency

Under-frequency and under-volts

Over-frequency and over-volts

43. Differential protection in a generating system

detects current difference between source and load

uses the volts coil to trip the GCR

detects voltage difference between source and load

44. Open phase sensing on a current transformer

is detected on generator neutral circuit

is detected using all phases

is detected using any phase

45. If the battery is switched off in flight, the

battery is disconnected from bus

Under-frequency and undervolts are caused by engine shutdown.

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captain's instruments will be powered from the standby bus

generator voltage falls to zero

46. To flash a generator field the

generator is on line and producing a voltage less than the flashing voltage

generator must be stationary

generator rotates but is not on line

47. Voltage is controlled by

the constant speed drive

the voltage regulator

the swashplate

48. Distilled water should be added to a ni-cad battery

only in the battery workshop

when fully charged

at any time

49. Overflowing electrolyte in a ni-cad battery indicates

not enough charging current

low electrolyte temperature

excessive charging current

50. During a normal engine shutdown, generator tripping is initiated by

underfrequency

undervoltage

overcurrent

51. What would you use to neutralise nicad battery spillage?

Boric acid

Distilled water

Bicarbonate of soda

52. Before operating generators in parallel, their voltages should be matched to prevent

overloading the generator drive and shearing of splines

voltage spikes of sufficient magnitude to trigger GCU overvoltage circuits

large circulating currents developing

53. Consumer loads are connected to a busbar

161


in series so when loads are shed voltage is reduced

in series so when loads are shed current is reduced

in parallel so when loads are shed current is reduced

54. A current transformer connected on the neutral star point of a generator is for

overload protection

differential current protection

negative sequence protection

55. Differential protection as applied to AC generation systems compares

ambient pressure to cabin pressure

generator voltage to busbar voltage

generator current to busbar current

56. In an AC generation system, the frequency and phase rotation

is of no consequence after paralleling

must be synchronised prior to paralleling

must be out of phase prior to paralleling

57. Diodes are placed across a contactor to

prevent contact bounce

ensure smooth contactor operation

speed up operation by reducing back EMF

58. Placing the battery master switch to off during flight will

shut down the APU

isolate the battery from the main busbar

disconnect all power to the main busbar

59. Whilst operating paralleled AC constant frequency generators, it is important to maintain generator outputs at the same voltage

to prevent a circulating current of considerable magnitude developing between two or more generators

to prevent a circulating current developing between two or more TRUs

to prevent CSD shock loading

60. A voltage regulator installed in series with a generator field

uses a current coil in parallel with generator output

uses a voltage coil in parallel with generator output

uses a voltage coil in series with generator output

The Battery master switch simply connects the battery to the main busbar, allowing it to be charged from the generator(s).

162


61. CSD warning lights on the flight deck normally indicate

low oil pressure, low oil temperature

high oil pressure, low oil temperature

low oil pressure, high oil temperature

62. The output frequency of a hydraulically driven standby generator is controlled by

an IDG

a CSD

an hydraulically actuated swash plate

63. An AC generator used with a CSD

does not need a voltage controller because current is kept constant

does not need a voltage controller because voltage is kept constant

needs a voltage controller to maintain voltage with increasing load

64. Power to a GCU is supplied

initially by a 'field tickling' supply and then PMG output

by the battery bus or rectified generator output

by the generator output only

65. Trip signals for a GCR are

underfrequency and overcurrent

overfrequency and undervoltage

differential protection and undervoltage

66. Abnormal CSD operation is monitored on the flight deck by observing indications of

high oil temperature / low oil pressure

low oil quantity / low oil temperature

High oil temperature / low oil quantity

67. Wires in hot temperature areas should be bound with

PVC

Teflon

Nomex

68. A heat gun should be operated at

100°C below the specified

the specified temperature A heat gun should be operated at the specified temperature, or 100°C (approx) above the heatshrink temperature.

163


100°C above the specified

69. High voltages on a generator in a parallel system should be prevented because

it will cause high circulating current in the bus / other generators

it will damage the drive shaft

it will trip the GCR

70. Over-voltage condition trips the generator. The time taken to trip the GCU depends on

time delay circuit

closing of fuel and hydraulic valves

amplitude of voltage

71. Speed of an HMG is controlled by a

ID unit

CSD unit

swashplate

72. A permanent magnet should have

high retentivity, low coercivity

low retentivity, high coercivity

low retentivity, low coercivity

73. What will happen if the aircraft battery becomes overheated?

The power supply to the battery charger will be interrupted

The hot battery bus will be disconnected from the battery

The battery charger will switch to trickle charge mode

74. When the temperature increases in a lead acid battery, the SG will

increase

decrease

remain the same

75. On testing a generator it is found to require adjusting, where would you adjust it?

By means of a remote trimmer

On the GCU

In the cockpit on the flight engineers panel

76. Control of hydraulically powered emergency electrical generator frequency is

by angle of swash plate

Inverse time delay - could also be considered correct

A permanent magnet should have a low coercivity (so it is easy to magnetise) and high retentivity (so it is difficult to demagnetise)

Since volume increases, but mass remains constant, with temperature, density decreases

164


by IDG

by CSU

77. When a ni-cad battery is fully charged

the electrolyte level is lower than normal

the electrolyte level is higher level than normal

the electrolyte level stays the same

78. Electrical load on aircraft is controlled by

a GCU

a BPCU

an IRS

79. A 4:1 step-up transformer receives 120VAC in its primary and has 1600 Ohms resistance in its secondary. What is the current drawn from the source?

3 A

1.2 A

0.3 A

80. After engine start using a Ni-Cad battery, the pilot observes on the battery charger indicator, an initial high current draw followed by a rapid decrease in current

no cause for concern

the battery is faulty

there is a problem with the charging circuit and he must shut-down the engines

81. Topping up a Ni-Cad battery in situ

is permitted

is not allowed

is only allowed in the shop

82. In a lead-acid battery after numerous checks, one cell has low reading.

It is defective

It must be replaced

It needs topping up

83. A short range passenger aircraft has complete electrical failure. What time duration would the battery be expected to power essential equipment?

60 minutes

Forever

B767 MM 42-41-00 quote: 'The BPCU shares status information with the GCU's. The BPCU controls all electrical buses and controls load shedding.'

Find current in secondary I = V/R = 480/1600 = 3/10A. Next find current in Primary = 4 x 3/10 = 12/10 = 1.2A

165


30 minute

84. An external power plug has two short pins. These are used for

a guide for correct alignment of the plug in the socket

the interlock circuit

ground handling bus

85. The purpose of a synchronising bus bar is

to enable two propeller systems to be synchronised

to allow monitoring and trimming from the flight deck

to monitor total current load

86. To confirm the state of charge of a ni-cad battery

subject the battery to load and check the voltage

measure the discharge time

subject the battery to load, check voltage and check the SG of each cell

87. Circulating currents are associated with

AC generators in parallel

DC generators in parallel

AC and DC generators in parallel

88. Generator brush bedding

can be done on the aircraft

should only be done if 50% of the width and 80% of the length is already being done

should not be done on the aircraft

89. What is the amperage at point 'X' to the nearest amp?

102 Amps

101 Amps

100 Amps

100 volts accross far right load, therefore 100 volts also accross 100ohm load (parallel circuit theory)

I = V/R = 100/100 = 1A through 100 ohm load. (Ohms Law)

Total current at 'X' is 100 + 1 = 101 Amps. (Kirkchoff's Law)

166


90. Pitot tubes are heated by

AC

AC or DC

DC

91. Paralleling is used for

DC electrical generators only

AC electrical generators only

AC and DC electrical generators

92. Battery charging procedures can be found in ATA

Chapter 24 Section 21



93. In a carbon pile regulator, the resistive element is

in parallel with the field and changes resistance with changing length

in series with the field and changes resistance with changing length

in series with the field and changes resistance with surface area contact

94. Maximum battery temperature on charging before protection circuit starts is

144 degrees C

71 degrees F

144 degrees F

95. If an aircraft has no battery charger, the battery is charged by

constant current until a predetermined limit when it automatically switches to constant voltage

constant current

constant voltage

96. The output of a carbon pile regulator with no variation of loading is

stationary

pulse width modulating

fluctuating

97. In a transistor voltage regulator, the voltage output is controlled by

zeners and transistors

diodes and transformers

167


transformers and transistors

98. A paralleled relay for a DC system is energised and connected by

voltage and current coil

current coil

voltage coil

99. Increasing the real load primarily

increases output voltage and increases frequency

decreases output voltage

decreases frequency

100. Inductive reactive load causes

increase in torque only

no effect on torque but produces extra heat dissipated

increase in torque and increase in heat dissipated

101. The power factor of an AC generator identifies the proportion of

apparent power from the generator that does work

real power from the generator that does work

reactive power from the generator that does work

102. Differential protection in an AC system protects against

a reverse current flowing from the battery

line-line, line-line-line, line-earth faults

short circuits

103. When resetting the CSD on the ground, the engine should be

rotating at idle

stationary

rotating at Nsync

104. One of the main purposes of a CSD is to

enable generators to be paralleled

maintain constant load on the generator

prevent engine overload

105. In an undervolt condition in an AC generator system, the most likely consequence is

activation of the time delay circuit

168


deactivation of the field regulatory TRs

energise the bus tie relay

106. If voltage and frequency of the generator drop to zero in flight, it would be an indication that the

bus tie interlock is inoperative

phase sequence detection circuit has operated

CSD driveshaft had sheared

107. Assuming all systems are operating normally, as aircraft electrical load increases, generator output voltage will

decrease and amperage output increases

increases and amperage output increases

remain constant and amperage output increases

108. When installing multiple batteries on aircraft, they are connected in

either parallel or series and switched between as an option

series

parallel

109. What is the small pin on the DC ground power connector?

Ground or earth

Positive to battery relay

Positive to external power relay

110. How is RAT driven?

Airstream

Compressor

Fan

111. How is an aircraft battery rated?

Ampere hours

Watts

Joules

112. A reduction in field strength of a DC shunt motor driving a constant load will result in

reduced torque and increased speed

increased torque and speed

increased torque and reduced speed

113. What are the 2 short prongs on an AC plug for?

169


Using AC current to pull on interlock circuit

To prevent arcing during plug connection / disconnection

To help plug location/fit

114. A vibration contact voltage regulator consists of a shunt winding and a

current regulation coil in series

voltage regulating coil in parallel

voltage regulating coil in series

115. What is the purpose of diode in a power GCR?

To allow flow in the event of failure of the relay

To speed up the operation

To prevent back-flow of current in the EMF coil

116. Eddy currents are

caused by heating effect of the coil

caused by resistance of the coil

circulating currents

117. The small pins in the power connector plug are

neutral

negative

positive

118. When an overvolt is present on an AC generator system, the tripping circuit

trips at a set level

trips after a time delay inversely proportional to overvolt amplitude

trips after a time delay

119. In an AC distribution system, the purpose of the synchronising bus-bar is to

provide a means of monitoring the load

provide interconnection between the generator load busbars

supply essential services

120. Vibrating contact voltage regulator sensing coil is

in parallel with the field windings

across the generator output

in series with the field windings

The diode is to prevent the high current flow in the coil due to induction as the relay switches off

170


121. A current transformer connected across the neutral of a 3 phase generator is for

differential protection

load monitoring

phase sequence monitoring

122. Zener diodes are for

voltage regulation

voltage stabilisation

rectification

123. AC generator output indications are measured in

KW & KVAR

KW

KVA & KW

124. Load shedding allows

more voltage to the busbar

less current to the busbar

more current to the busbar

125. How may the output of a transistorised voltage regulator be described?

Variable AC

Pulse width modulated DC

Slightly variable DC

126. In the event of complete AC generator failure in an AC split bus-bar generation system, how is power maintained to the essential AC bus-bar?

By power fed from static inverter only

By power fed from a battery supplied static inverter

By power fed from a hot battery bus-bar only

127. Which components within a generator control unit connects the output of the field power supply to the generator exciter?

Generator control relay

Generator line contactor

Generator power pilot relay

128. In what units are static inverters rated?

kVAR

A voltage regulator has two outputs, one to the generator field (pulse width modulated on a transistorised regulator) and one to the busbar (constant voltage but variable current depending on load).

Load shedding is carried out to reduce current (voltage is constant).

An AC generator is rated in KVA and KW (or KVA and power factor, from which KW can be calculated). However, flightdeck indications are KVAR and KW.

Although Zener diodes can be used (back-to-back) to protect equipment from voltage spikes (voltage stabilisation) they are more commonly associated with voltage regulation.

171


kVA

kW

129. In a generator system, a stability winding is used

to control output current

in series with the field to prevent oscillations

to prevent voltage overshoot

130. On engine shutdown, what prevents GCR being tripped?

Under-current

Under-frequency

Under-volt

131. How is real and reactive load sharing achieved in an AC parallel generator system?

Real load by control of the constant speed drives, reactive load by adjustment of generator fields

Real load by control of generator fields, Reactive loads by adjustment of the constant speed drives

Real and reactive loads by control of the constant speed drives only. Output voltage is controlled by adjustment of generator fields

132. Other than when there is a fault in an aircraft battery or its charging system, when is the charger switched off automatically?

When there is a failure of one alternator in a split-bus bar system

When the battery is used for excessively high discharge currents such as in starting

When the alternators are fully loaded

133. The trimmer resister in a carbon pile volts regulator is

in parallel with the generator volts coil

in series with the generator field

in series with the generator volts coil

134. When a field relay trips the generator off-line, it can be reset

after the fault has been cleared

on the ground only

by cycling the generator switch

135. In a paralleled AC generator system both A phases must be in synchronisation and

CBA must equal ABC

phase rotation does not matter

CBA must equal CBA

Boeing opps manual states that you are allowed to attempt to reset the field after checking all parameters are now normal, as it may have been a transient fault Boe 747 classic 10.20.02

172


136. When loads are shed from a busbar automatically

bus bar voltage rises

bus bar current rises

bus bar current decreases

137. What controls output from the generator?

BPCU

ELCU

GCU

138. Specific Gravity in a lead acid battery should give an indication of

charge

electrolyte temperature

electrolyte level

139. During normal engine shut-down, the generator

breaker and control relay are both tripped

control relay is tripped only

breaker is tripped only

140. The generator warning light will come on when

voltage is too high

voltage is above battery voltage

voltage is below battery voltage

141. When replacing a current transformer

it can only be fitted one way round

it can be fitted any way round

voltage/current selection must be made prior to fitting

142. The economy coil on a relay

reduces current required to hold closed

reduces current required to close

makes it cheaper to make

143. What is the function of the generator control relay?

Bring the generator on-line

Connect the generator to the busbar

173


Control output voltage

144. The current consumed by a DC starter motor will

decrease as the engine speed increases

remain constant

increase as the engine speed increases

145. A neutralising agent for sulphuric acid is

sodium bicarbonate

citric acid

borax powder

146. In a split bus power distribution system

each generator supplies its own bus and distribution system in normal operation

power is split between 115V AC and 28V DC

generators are paralleled on connection to the tie bus

147. Flashing a generator field

restores magnetism

increases resistance

decreases resistance

148. When checking SG of electrolyte of lead acid battery, what should be taken into account?

Battery charge

Electrolyte temperature

Ambient temperature

149. How do you check condition of Ni-Cad battery in situ?

By voltmeter in the cockpit when battery is off load

By voltmeter connected to the battery terminal

By voltmeter in the cockpit, when battery is on load

150. The reactive load circuit in a multi-engined AC generator system

modifies generator field excitation current

modifies generator field excitation voltage

modifies generator drive speed

151. A vibrating type voltage regulator uses a volts coil

in parallel with the generator output

174


in series with the generator output

in series with the current coil

152. The purpose of the economy contacts in a relay is to

reduce the current required to hold the contacts closed

close the auxiliary contacts before the main contacts

prevent contact pitting and burning

153. A vibrating contact voltage regulator has

a volts coil in parallel with the points

a resistor in series with the points

a resister in parallel with the points

154. Brush bedding-in on a starter generator can be carried out

when 80 percent of the brush area has been previously bedded in, on the bench

only off the aircraft

during flight

155. What would be the cause of a low electrolyte level in a nicad battery?

Evaporation

Over charging current

Undercharging current

156. An AC generator connected to a CSD requires

no voltage regulator as the CSD will control the voltage

no voltage regulator as the CSD will control generator frequency

a separate voltage regulator

157. If electrolyte from a lead-acid battery is spilled in the battery compartment, which procedure should be followed?

Apply sodium bicarbonate solution to the affected area followed by a water rinse

Rinse the affected area thoroughly with clean water

Apply boric acid solution to the affected area followed by a water rinse

158. Which statement regarding the hydrometer reading of a lead-acid storage battery electrolyte is true?

The hydrometer reading will give a true indication of the capacity of the battery regardless of the electrolyte temperature

The hydrometer reading does not require a temperature correction if the electrolyte temperature is 60°F

175


A specific gravity correction should be subtracted from the hydrometer reading if the electrolyte temperature is above 20°C

159. An increase in the speed of a DC generator will cause the voltage to rise with the following resultant action in the voltage regulator:-

The volts coil to exert less pull thus increasing the resistance of the carbon pile

The volts coil to exert more pull thus increasing the current in the generator field

The volts coil to increase its magnetic field thus decreasing the field excitation

160. The equalizing coils on voltage regulators will

have current passing through them from the higher loaded generator to the lower

have current passing through them only when the generators are not paralleled

be connected to each other when the generators are paralleled

161. A fully charged lead-acid battery will not freeze until extremely low temperatures are reached because

the acid is in the plates, thereby increasing the specific gravity of the solution

increased internal resistance generates sufficient heat to prevent freezing

most of the acid is in the solution

162. What determines the amount of current which will flow through a battery while it is being charged by a constant voltage source?

The ampere-hour capacity of the battery

The total plate area of the battery

The state-of-charge of the battery

163. The method used to rapidly charge a nickel-cadmium battery utilizes

constant current and varying voltage

constant voltage and varying current

constant current and constant voltage

164. The presence of small amounts of potassium carbonate deposits on the top of nickel-cadmium battery cells that have been in service for time is an indication of

excessive gassing

normal operation

excessive plate sulphation

165. The servicing and charging of nickel-cadmium and lead-acid batteries together in the same service area is likely to result in

normal battery service life

increased explosion and/or fire hazard

176


contamination of both types of batteries

166. If the current drawn from No.1 generator of a twin generator DC system is less than that drawn from No.2 generator, the current in the No.2 generator equalizing coil will flow

in the same direction as the current flow in the voltage coil, reducing the output of No.2 generator

in the opposite direction to the current flow in the voltage coil, reducing the output of No.2 generator

in the same direction as the current flow in the voltage coil, increasing the output of No.2 generator

167. On a C.S. driven generator, operation of the Disconnect Solenoid will disconnect the generator drive and

it can only be reset when all loads are switched off

it will automatically reset itself when the fault is rectified

resetting can only be carried out on the ground

168. In a constant frequency AC system, real load sharing is achieved by regulating the

voltage regulator

generator drive torque

generator speed

169. A constant speed drive unit has a warning light indication

for low speed

for low oil pressure

for when it is disconnected from the generator

170. The electrolyte of a nickel-cadmium battery is the lowest when the battery is

being charged

in a discharged condition

under load condition

171. Nickel-cadmium batteries which are stored for a long period of time will show a low fluid level because the

fluid level was not periodically replenished

fluid evaporates through vents

electrolyte becomes absorbed in the plates

172. The purpose of 'field flashing' is to

change the polarity of residual magnetism in a field winding

test the insulation resistance of a field winding with a 1000V supply

measure the residual magnetism in a field winding 24 hours after the field supply is removed

173. How can the state-of-charge of a nickel-cadmium battery be determined?

177


By measuring discharge

By the level of the electrolyte

By measuring the specific gravity of the electrolyt

174. What may result if water is added to a nickel-cadmium battery when it is not fully charged?

No adverse results since water may be added anytime

The cell temperature will run too low for proper output

Excessive spewing will occur during the charging cycle

175. In nickel-cadmium batteries, a rise in cell temperature

causes an increase in internal resistance

causes a decrease in internal resistance

increases cell voltage

176. When a charging current is applied to a nickel-cadmium battery, the cells emit gas only

if they are defective

when the electrolyte level is low

toward the end of the charging cycle

177. The equalising coil in the carbon pile regulator

is connected in series with the carbon pile

becomes inoperative when the undervolt relay energises

modifies the effect of the voltage sensing coil

178. In a constant frequency AC system, reactive load sharing is achieved by regulating the

voltage regulator


generator speed

179. Under-frequency in an AC supply would cause

overspeeding of AC motors

overheating of inductive devices

overvoltage of capacitive devices

180. The electrolyte in a lead-acid battery contains

sulphuric acid

nitric acid

hydrochloric acid

Inductive devices will pass more current if it is lower frequency

178


181. In the procedure to be followed after spillage of battery acid, neutralizing may be carried out

by washing with distilled water

by applying a coating of petroleum jelly

with a dilute solution of sodium bicarbonate

182. Frequency (Hz) is the number of cycles per

minute

second

revolution

183. The three voltages of a three phase generator are

90 degrees apart

120 degrees apart

180 degrees apart

184. To restore the level of electrolyte which has been lost due to normal gassing during battery charging

sulphuric acid must be added

distilled water must be added

electrolyte of the same specific gravity as that contained in the battery must be added

185. A 12 volt lead-acid battery

has 24 cells

has 6 cells

has 12 cells

186. The active component of an A.C. circuit is 4 amps and the reactive is 3 amps. Ammeter reading will be

5 amps

7 amps

3.4 amps

187. In a delta connected generator

phase volts equals 1.73 line volts

line volts equals 1.73 phase volts

line volts equals phase volts

188. The only practical method of maintaining a constant voltage output from an aircraft generator under varying conditions of speed and load is to vary the

strength of the magnetic field

number of conductors in the armature

Total current is the vector sum of active (real) and reactive currents. 3, 4, 5 triangle in this case

179


speed at which the armature rotates

189. As the generator load is increased (within its rated capacity), the voltage will

remain constant and the amperage output will increase

remain constant and the amperage output will decrease

decrease and the amperage output will increase

190. When checking the specific gravity of the electrolyte in a battery

one cell only need be checked as the remainder will read the same

only the end cells need be checked as they contain the terminals

each cell should be checked as the readings may differ

191. A lead-acid battery is considered to be fully charged when the


S.G. reaches 1.180

S.G. and voltage remain constant for specified period

192. Which aircraft circuit would be most likely to use frequency wild 200V AC?

Hydraulic pump

Standby compass

Windscreen heating

193. To prevent corrosion at the terminals of a lead-acid battery

copper connectors are used

the connectors may be painted

petroleum jelly may be applied to the connections

194. Before taking S.G. readings of a lead-acid battery recently removed from an aircraft

the battery must be charged at the 10 hour rate for one hour

a period of 1 hour should have elapsed to allow the S.G. to stabilize

the electrolyte temperature must be noted

195. The output of a DC generator is controlled by varying the

engine speed

field current

armature current

196. A generator rated at 30 kVA power factor 0.8 has a maximum continuous power output of

37.5 kW

Assuming no voltage regulator is considered, otherwise 'remain constant and the amperage output will increase' is the answer

180


24 kW

30 kW

197. The specific gravity of the electrolyte in a lead-acid battery

remains constant with changes in the state of charge but is a useful guide to the amount of acid contained in the electrolyte

changes with the state of charge and is therefore a measure of the state of charge

remains substantially constant regardless of the state of charge and is not therefore a guide to the state of charge

198. A battery which is assumed to be 100% efficient and to have a capacity of 60 ampere-hours at the 10 hour rate will deliver

60 amps for 10 hours

60 amps for 10 hours or 6 amps for 10 hours depending upon the rate of demand

6 amps for 10 hours

199. Two 12V 25 ampere batteries connected in series will produce

12V with 25 ampere hour capacity



200. As an installed battery becomes fully charged by the aircraft generator

the battery contactor isolates the battery from the generator

the battery voltage nears its nominal level so the charging current decreases

the generator voltage decreases to supply the steadily decreasing current

201. On a DC shunt generator without a voltage regulator, if the load increases the generator output voltage will

decrease

increase

remain constant

202. For battery charging, the electrical supply connected to the battery must be

AC at 50 c.p.s.

DC

AC at 400 c.p.s

203. When using A.C. power on the bus bar you require 28V D.C. for battery charging

an A.C. transformer and rectifier would be required

a D.C. transformer and rectifier would be required

181


an A.C. inverter would be required

204. Two similar 12V batteries connected in parallel will produce

12V e.m.f. with twice the capacity of each battery

24V e.m.f. with the same capacity as each battery

24V e.m.f. with twice the capacity of each battery

205. If a nicad battery overheats, it is an indication of

the generator voltage regulator setting is too low

thermal runaway

the generator is not connected to the bus bar

206. When checking a nicad battery in situ for serviceability

a hydrometer must be used

a load is applied to the battery and the voltmeter reading noted

the electrical circuits must be isolated before installing shorting strips

207. The output from an AC generator is taken from

connections on the stator

slip rings

slip rings via commutator

208. Load sharing on a DC generation system is achieved by

circulating currents affecting the carbon pile for voltage trimming

the load differences causing torque signals to vary the engine speed

tachogenerators varying the generators outputs as the engine speed varies

209. If a nickel cadmium aircraft battery is not required for immediate service, it should be stored

in the fully discharged condition

in a totally dry condition

in the fully charged condition

210. The correct way to determine the state of charge of a nickel-cadmium battery is

by checking the specific gravity of each cell

by a complete discharge and a measured recharge

by checking the voltage of each cell under load

211. A DC generator will be connected to the busbar after the RCCO contacts close due to

increasing battery voltage

182


increasing generator voltage

a differential voltage of 0.5V battery voltage higher than generator

212. Spillage of a lead acid electrolyte is detected by

indicating paper that turns blue

litmus paper that turns black

indicating paper that turns red

213. To restore electrolyte after spillage

add distilled water only

add a mixture of acid and water of the same s.g. as that in the battery

add acid only

214. When a DC generator fails, the pilot will receive the following indications:-

Zero current on the ammeter and a red PFWL

Rising voltage and current discharge with a red PFWL

An audio bell and red PFWL

215. The purpose of an inverter is to convert

DC to AC

AC to a higher frequency AC

AC to DC

216. With a vibrating-contact type voltage regulator the adjustment of generator voltage is carried out by

adjustment of voltage coil resistance

alteration of the field resistance

alteration of contact spring tension

217. Battery SG is measured using a

hygrometer

hydrometer

hypsometer

218. A battery for use on aircraft must have a capacity of

90%

80%

50%

219. When connecting aircraft batteries, the last lead to connect is the

183


positive earth

positive

negative

220. Polarization in a cell is

the fact that hydrogen bubbles form on the -ve plate

the fact that as a battery discharges, the -ve plate's potential approaches that of the +ve plate's

the establishing of a potential across the cell

221. Battery capacity is checked by

discharging at a constant current and checking the time taken to reach the discharged state

measuring the terminal voltage whilst on load and multiplying by the current drawn

discharging while maintaining the voltage constant by varying a resistor in the circuit and checking the time to be discharged

222. The frequency of an AC generator is dependant on the

field strength and the speed of the generator

number of pairs of poles and the speed of the rotor

number of conductors and the field strength

223. To adjust the voltage output of an AC generator, whilst maintaining constant frequency, it is necessary to

alter the driving speed

alter the field current

alter the reactance of the stator winding circuit

224. In a paralleled AC generation system load sharing is for

reactive load only

real load only

real and reactive load

225. Single phase components in a 3 phase system may be connected between

any phase and earth or between any two phases

phases A and B only

the phase and earth only

226. A frequency wild supply would be suitable for

deicing loads

3-phase torque motors

instruments and navigation systems

184


227. Three 12V, 40Ah accumulators in series would give

36V 40Ah

12V 120Ah

36V 120Ah

228. Three 12V, 40Ah accumulators in parallel would give

36V 120Ah

12V 120Ah

12V 40Ah

229. An inverter can be an AC generator driven by

a DC motor

an AC motor

either an AC or DC motor

230. When mixing electrolyte for lead acid batteries

add water to acid

the method of mixing is unimportant

add acid to water

231. The RPM of a 6 pole, 400 Hz alternator is

6000

8000

4000

232. The ratio between apparent power and true power is the

power rating

efficiency

power factor

233. Apparent power is measured in

Volt Amps

Kilovolts

Watts

234. A Ni-Cad battery consists of 19, 1.2 volt cells. What will be the nominal battery output?

24V

22V

400/3 x 60

185


20V

235. The preferred method of battery charging a Ni-Cad battery is constant

voltage

speed

current

236. When operating two AC generators unparalleled, the phase of each

must be in opposition to one another

is unimportant

must be synchronized

237. When the GPU is connected to the aircraft

it is not paralleled with the aircraft generator

it is paralleled with the aircraft generator

it supplies essential services

238. A lead-acid battery with 12 cells connected in series (no-load voltage = 2.1 volts per cell) furnishes 10 amperes to a load of 2 ohms resistance. The internal resistance of the battery in this instance is

5.0 ohms

0.52 ohms

2.52 ohms

239. The rating of an aircraft alternator is 40 KVA at PF 0.8 lagging.

The maximum load under all conditions is 40KW.

The maximum load under all conditions is 40KVA.

The maximum load permitted is 32KW

240. An I.D.G (integrated drive generator)

incorporates the alternator and CSD as one unit

has separate CSDU

does not require a CSDU

241. A P.M.G (Permanent Magnet Generator) is a small built in generator which

provides initial excitation

only rotates during starting

only rotates after starting

242. To parallel an alternator with another alternator the alternators must have the same

frequency, RPM and phase relationship

OCV = 2.1 x 12 = 25.2 CCV = 10 x 2 = 20. Internal voltage drop = 5.2 V. Internal R=V/I = 5.2/10 = 0.52

PF = TP/AP 0.8 = TP/40 AP = 40 x 0.8 = 32 KW

186


frequency, voltage and phase relationship

frequency, RPM and speed

243. Speed of an alternator may be controlled by

keeping engine rpm constant

varying the field current

CSDU (constant speed drive unit)

244. 'Frequency wild' alternators supply

resistive circuits

inductive circuits

capacitive circuits

245. The real load of an alternator is directly related to

output shaft rpm

output voltage

output shaft torque

246. How is initial voltage build-up ensured in a brushless generating system, before full output is available from the voltage regulator?

Permanent magnets are mounted between the exciter field poles

A switch must be operated by the crew to provide excitation form the dc busbar to bring generator on line

Excitation from the DC busbars is automatically provided during the start sequence

247. Insulation resistance of electrical machines is

normally lower when the machine is hot

not affected by change of temperature of machine

normally higher when the machine is hot

248. The purpose of a thermistor in a brushless AC generator is to

keep the resistance of the rectifiers nearly constant at varying temperatures

compensate for temperature changes in the main AC stator windings

keep the exciter field resistance nearly constant at varying temperatures

249. The term 'random paralleling' means the incoming alternator's output voltage frequency and phase relationship is

the outputs are constant

the same

187


not the same

250. One lamp is connected across corresponding phases of two alternators. They will be synchronised when

the lamp is extinguished

the lamp is either at maximum brightness or is extinguished

the lamp is maximum brightness

251. Automatic synchronising means that the incoming alternator's voltage and frequency

can be synchronised using the two lamps provided at the system's panel

can be checked at the system's electrical panel by selecting the relevant alternator

cannot be checked

252. The danger of random paralleling is the possibility of

ground power disconnection

disconnection of the other alternators

crash engagement

253. What is monitored in a constant speed drive?

High oil temperature and low oil press

Low oil press and CSD speed

Low oil temperature and low oil press

254. The CSD or IDG speed governor setting

is not allowed to be adjusted

is adjusted with the engine stationary

is adjusted with the engine running

255. An external ground power supply can be used for

only the emergency busbar services

all normal services required by flight and ground crew

only the ground handling busbar services

256. The APU generator can normally be

connected in parallel with the aircraft's main generators

used during flight as a back up supply if the main aircraft supply fails

connected in parallel with the ground power supply

257. The impedance on a run of co-axial cable is

inversely proportional to the length of cable

188


proportional to the length of cable

not affected by length of cable

258. Galley loads are supplied from the

main bus bar

ground service bus

battery bus bar

259. A ni-cad battery is stored in the

dry condition

fully charged condition

fully discharged condition

260. A 6-diode Transformer Rectifier Unit (TRU) changes

single phase AC to direct current

direct current to AC

three phase AC to direct current

261. A frequency wild AC generator is used for

deicing loads

fluorescent lights

instruments

262. What should you do if the electrolyte is found to be low in one cell of a lead acid battery?

Replace the defective cell

Top-up the individual cell with distilled water

Cell is defective, replace the battery

263. What is the purpose of the diode on a contactor?

Prevent spikes

Prevent bounce

To prevent current going the wrong way

Equipment and Furnishings (ATA 25)

1. Megaphones must be stowed so they can withstand an inertia force of

9g

15g

It is known as a 'flywheel diode'

189


12g

2. The cylinder in a life jacket is inflated using

compressed air

CO2

nitrogen

3. Toilets must have a smoke detection system

that gives a warning light in the cockpit

connected to a pump to pump the smoke out

that gives a warning light in the cockpit and an aural warning in the main cabin

4. If seat belt stitching is worn, where are the replacement stitches placed?

Over the originals

Diagonally

Alongside the original

5. Type and Quantity of emergency equipment to be carried is specified in which document?

Schedule 4 of the ANO

CAAIPs Leaflet 5-7

Airworthiness Notice 79

6. Life jackets are inflated with cylinders of

Nitrogen

air

CO2

7. After a successful ditching, the liferafts deployment will

have detailed instructions in a booklet in a seat pocket

be briefed by the cabin crew

be rapid and obvious with easily and readily displayed instructions adjacent to the liferafts

8. Cargo and baggage compartments in which a fire is completely confined come under

Class B

Class C

Class D

9. How do you clean seat belts?

With MEK

190


With white spirit

With warm water with low alkalinity soap

10. A pilot's safety harness buckle and adjustment strap is

not allowed to slip under any forces

allowed to slip if vertical acceleration exceeds 5G

allowed to slip if side loads exceed 2.5 G

11. How often are life jackets inspected?

Every 12 months

In accordance with the AMM

In accordance with the manufacturers specification

12. Inspection proof testing of seat-belts is carried out to

4.5g

9g

0.5g

13. Where would you find information regarding galley equipment?

BCARs

ANO

AWN 99

14. Where the aircraft passenger seating capacity exceeds 149 but less than 200 then:

1 megaphone is required

3 megaphones are required

2 megaphones are required

15. Where would you find information on life-raft deployment?

Cabin safety on-board card

Cabin operations manual

JARs

16. When testing emergency slide bottles

any pin could be checked by connecting directly to ground

one pin must be grounded to the cartridge body at one time

all three pins must be shorted together and grounded to the cartridge body

17. The minimum passenger aisle width for an aircraft with a seating capacity of 20 or more is

Testing of the cartridges is the same procedure as testing fire bottle cartridges.

191


15 inches

dependant upon aircraft type

24 inches

18. Aircraft emergency escape slides are usually pressurised with

helium

CO2

oxygen

19. The CO2 in a life raft is released

manually

on contact with water

electrically

20. Vertical projected separation between seat rows must be

5 inches

4 inches

3 inches

Equipment and Furnishings (ATA 25) II

1. What is the minimum distance between a seat cushion and the seat in-front of it?

10 inches

7 inches

5 inches

2. A galley catering trolley with electrics is classed as

a controlled item

an uncontrolled item

neither, as it is removable

3. What placard must be visible above a waste paper bin in a toilet?

No Naked Flame

No Smoking

No Cigarettes

4. Attendant call is achieved by pressing a button on the passenger service unit (PSU). To reset the light

the button is pulled out

All inflatable emergency equipment are inflated with CO2

192


a reset switch on the attendants panel is operated

the button is pushed again

5. Hot fluids in an aircraft galley must have closed container lids at temperatures above

45°C

65°C

55°C

6. The 'fasten seatbelt' light switch should be in reach of the

captain

first officer

both the captain and the first officer

7. What is the EASA regulation of the minimum separation between a seat and another seat or structure?

10 inches

There is no EASA guideline

7 inches

8. What is the minimum separation between a seat back cushion and another seat or fixed structure?

26 inches

24 inches

28 inches

9. With regard to forward/rearward passenger seat installation

you can only fit seats as stated in the Declaration of Design and Performance (DPP)

you can fit seats facing forward or rearward

you can only fit seats facing forward

10. Where is information regarding flame resistant furnishing materials?

CAAIPs

AWN 58

CAP 747 Mandatory Requirements for Airworthiness

11. When loading a cargo aircraft

the CofG limits of the aircraft could be exceeded under careful monitored circumstances

the weight limits of the aircraft could be exceeded under careful monitored circumstances

the manufacturer specifies the maximum floor loads

12. The minimum vertical projected separation between seat rows is

193


5 inches

7 inches

3 inches

13. Cargo nets are manufactured from

polypropylene

hessian

nylon

14. Galley trolleys must have placards indicating

Must be stowed for take-off, landing and turbulence.

maximum weight, position, flight number

location, position, flight number

15. PTV type entertainment equipment

has no capacity for digital information processing and transmitting

is installed with seat electronic unit and multiplexing techniques

is not the part of maintenance schedule

16. What type of brakes are employed on a galley cart?

A brake on one wheel only

Two colour-coded pedals

A single pedal bar

17. On large aeroplanes, containerised cargo is held down by

side cart guides and fore and aft latches

rope

netting

18. Galley equipment which does not need electrical power is called

controlled equipment

uncontrolled equipment

minimum equipment

19. A galley trolley will be designed to

does not matter as the trolleys move

not exceed the floor limits more than 3 times in one hour

not exceed the floor loading limits

Cargo nets are made from nylon or polyester (not polypropylene).

194


20. Information on Galley equipment can be found in

BCAR Section L

Airworthiness Notice 99

CAAIPS

Fire Protection (ATA 26)

1. On pulling the fire handle, the aural warning

stays on, the light extinguishes, the generator goes off line

goes off, the light remains on, the generator goes off line

goes off, the light goes off, hydraulics, bleed air and generator goes off

2. Chemical fire extinguishers extinguish fires by

cools the material on fire below ignition point

releases oxygen to extinguish the fire

reacting with the oxygen in the air or the flame, rendering it inert

3. A fire test is carried out and the test button is released, but the light remains on. This is because

there is a fire

of a high resistance fire wire

of a broken fire wire

4. A fire detection system can pass through one zone to another providing

the system is duplicated

it is separated by steel

the system is protected

5. Toilet smoke detectors activate

a warning light and/or indication in cabin

an auto sprinkler system

an electric pump to auto vent smoke to atmosphere

6. Engine fire bottle pressure at 70°F is

1250 psi +/- 25

600psi +/- 25

1500 psi +/- 25

7. In the event of a fire being caused by the oxygen supply

195


oxygen supply must be stopped

a dry powder extinguisher is used

a carbon dioxide extinguisher is used

8. After a fire detection system test, the red light remains ON. This indicates

high resistance

a fire

a short circuit

9. First digit number of halogenated hydrocarbon extinguishers represents the number of

fluorine atoms

chlorine atoms

carbon atoms

10. What type of gas is used as a propellant for a high rate of discharge extinguishing system?

Carbon dioxide

Nitrogen

Hydrogen

11. A fire detection system should be

designed to withstand vibration & mechanical loads sustained during normal operation

designed to detect fires only

positioned in a location determined by the manufacture during the design

12. Which areas of a civil transport aircraft would have smoke detectors fitted?

Main wheel bays and engine bays

Passenger cabins and integral fuel tanks

Freight holds, baggage compartments and equipment bays

13. A short circuit on a fire detection element will result in

system does not work and no readings

red fire warning light

false alarm

14. In which of the following would you expect to find a smoke detector?

undercarriage bay

APU bay

Battery bay

196


15. You would expect to find a squib connected to

a fire suppression system

a fire detection system

a smoke detection system

16. Engine wing firebottles should be charged with nitrogen at 15°C to

1250 psi

600 psi

1500 psi

17. A fire that can be put out by a crew member in a cargo bay is in a

class B compartment

class D compartment

class A compartment

18. In a capacitive fire detection system, if

there is a break, the system will not work

there is a break, the system will work but not test satisfactory

there is a short to earth, the system will work but not test satisfactory

19. A fire detection zone wiring can pass through another fire zone when

the system is different but the extinguishant is the same

the system and the extinguishing system are the same

the system is the same but the extinguishant is different

20. When a fire test on a Systron Donor fire detector system is carried out

the signal passes through the centre and back through the outer to give warning

it checks the integrity of the contacts

a signal passes through the unbroken centre conductor to produce the warning

21. When inspecting lavatory installations

the ashtray must be made of a thermoplastic material

the ashtray should not be located close to the toilet paper holder

'No Smoking' sign should be fitted next to the ashtrays only

22. Lavatories must have, in the disposal container

water/glycol extinguisher with white ball markings indicating when discharged

Freon extinguisher with black ball markings indicating when discharged The temperature sensitive strip changes color from white to black at the indicated temp. B737 MM 26-24-00 pg1

197


Freon extinguisher with white ball markings indicating when discharged

23. A fire detection loop must be capable of

using master warning visual signals only

using master warning visual and aural signals

detecting fire/overheat condition within 5 seconds and extinguishing such that after 30 seconds the condition is no longer present

24. A Systron-Donner fire detection system uses

helium gas

oxygen gas

nitrogen gas

25. A toilet is fitted with thermal protection

to protect against continuous flushing

to protect against the dangers of smoke and fire in the event of an overheat

to protect against freezing at altitude

26. What external warning is there for an APU fire?

Aural

Red light

Both aural and a red light

27. Engine fire bottle pressure switches are operated by

AC or DC

DC

AC

28. Fire tests on aircraft internal furnishings must be carried out

only when equipment items fail random tests

every two years

every five years

29. A cockpit check on the engine firewire system is a

continuity check

calibration check

function check

30. When the fire handle is operated it

cuts off fuel and hydraulics. Generator remains on line to provide electrical power

198


cuts off field current, hydraulics and fuel and operates fire extinguishers

operates fire extinguisher only

31. What is the contamination monitor for, in a Systron Donner fire detection system?

Integrity comparator

Volts drop

Dirty contacts

32. Fireproofing of cabin material should be done

every 5 years

when a sample fails

every 2 years

33. What test is carried out to ensure serviceability of a squib?

Bottles are fired

Safety ohmmeter is used to check voltage

A continuity check

34. In a gas firewire system, what causes the firewire caption to come on when heat is applied?

Capacitance increase

Pressure

Continuity

35. Toilet fire detection issues can be found in

AWN 83

CAAIPs

AWN 80

36. The outside casing of a firewire has

same potential as ground

28VDC potential above ground

115VDC potential above ground

37. A cargo compartment which will contain a fire itself and ventilate is a class

D

A

C

38. Smoke detectors consist of a

199


photoelectric cell detecting 10% smoke

lamp detecting 2% smoke

photoelectric cell detecting 2% smoke

39. In a toilet smoke condition, what would be the indication?

Light in the cabin

Either a light or an audible warning in the cabin

Audible warning in the cabin

40. What do you check when carrying out an insulation check on a continuous firewire loop?

The outside of the firewire to earth

The firewire

The firewire, sensor & controlle

41. When the fire-handle switch is pulled, a

red warning light stays on. Generator, hydraulics & fuel stays on

red warning light stays on. Generator, hydraulics, & fuel is cut off

red warning light goes off. Generator goes offline

42. An indicator pin is protruding from a portable fire extinguisher. What does it indicate?

The bottle is still pressurized

Bottle is empty

Bottle is full

Fire Protection (ATA 26)II

1. A hand held fire extinguishers weight is stamped on the

base of container

head

support bracket

2. The weight of an extinguisher is stamped

on base of body

on bracket

on head fitting

3. How many fire extinguishers are required on an aircraft having 401 - 500 passengers?

8

5

200


6

4. What are the minimum number of fire bottles in a cabin with 201- 300 people?

4 Methyl Bromide

3 BCF

4 Fire Extinguishers

5. Portable fire extinguishers are operated by

turning upside down and squeeze button/trigger

breaking the tell tale/tamper-proof seal then operated by the handle

one single operation until fire extinguisher is empty

6. How many fire extinguishers are required on an aircraft with 501 passengers?

7

6

5

7. How can fire extinguisher be identified as being used?

Check the tell-tale wire

Weighed

Check the pressure

8. How often do hand-held extinguishers have to be weighed?

Bi-annually

Every 5 years

Annually

9. CO2 fire extinguishers are used on

engines only

all fires in fuselage

baggage holds only

10. Hand held fire extinguishers are weighed

in accordance with the approved maintenance schedule

every 24 months

every 5 years

Flight Controls (ATA 27)

201


1. In an aircraft flying control system employing servo-tabs, the installation of external ground locks to the main control surface

would also prevent movement of the control column

would not prevent movement of the control column

is unnecessary since the system is irreversible and therefore the control surface cannot be displaced by the wind

2. An artificial feel system is required with

proportional controls

power operated controls

power assisted controls

3. If aerodynamic balancing is increased, what is the effect on the centre of pressure of the control surface?

It moves forward

It is not effected

It moves back

4. A control system in the parallel mode,

when the rudder moves the control pedals stay in position

the pedals deflect with the rudder deflection

the control pedals moves only in the approach

5. What is a Bowden cable designed for?

Both pull and push operations

Push operations only

Pull operations only

6. A full time yaw damper system detects

all frequencies

only low frequencies

band pass frequencies

7. Fly-by-wire systems rely on inputs from

electrical signals

the pilot via control rods, and electrical signals

air-data and 'Q' feel

8. The yaw damper

disengages when an engine fails

202


augments aircraft stability

disengages during a coordinated turn

9. Operation of the stick shaker during landing means

the aircraft is about to land

the aircraft is approaching the stall speed

the aircraft has stalled

10. A static friction check is carried out during control surface rigging using

a spring balance to measure control 'break-out force'

a cable tensiometer to ensure cable tensions are correct

a spring balance to ensure there is a minimum amount of feel when the controls are moved

11. If flaps try to move asymmetrically on selection, they

drive to the up position and lock

drive to the down position and lock

stop moving and stay in the same position

12. A stick-shaker comes into operation when the aircraft

is approaching a stall

is approaching the 'critical mach number'

goes supersonic

13. Automatic trim systems on some aircraft installations are actuated with two speeds of operation. Operation at high speed is used during

aircraft at altitude and straight and level

flaps down

mach trim

14. With respect to flight spoilers, they

only operate in flight

only operate on the ground

can operate both on the ground and in flight

15. Considering an aileron to rudder crossfeed, in a left wing down turn, the

rudder moves left

rudder moves right

rudder remains in the centre

16. Flight control locks are used

Flight spoilers are used in flight and on the ground. However Ground spoilers can ONLY be used on the ground.

203


when working with hydraulics

are only used in flight

during gusty weather conditions

17. A stick shaker acts

at stall

after stall

before stall

18. Dutch roll is eliminated by

differential ailerons

the Dutch Roll damper

the yaw damper

19. A mach trimmer counters

azimuth instability

lateral instability

longitudinal instability

20. The bearing used in a fibre pulley is

a plain bearing

a roller bearing

a ball bearing

21. When the primary stops fitted to a control run have been contacted

the secondary stops will just be in contact

a clearance exists at the secondary stops

the secondary stops have been over-ridden

22. Excessive wear on both sides of the control cable pulley groove is evidence of

pulley misalignment

excessive cable tension

cable misalignment

23. A universal protractor used to measure degrees of aileron travel should be zeroed

with the aileron in the neutral position

with the aileron in the down position

when the aircraft is in level flight attitude

Ball bearings are used in fibre pulleys

204


24. A flying control static friction check

demonstrates the force the pilot requires to overcome system inertia and move the controls

will demonstrate that a high force is always necessary to operate non-powered controls.

can only be carried out during flight

25. What is an aileron balance cable for?

To allow aircraft to fly hands off

To allow the cable to be tensioned

To correct for wing heaviness

26. The vane of a stall warning system with a flapper switch is activated by the change of the

stagnation point

point of lowest pressure

centre of pressure

27. With the elevator trim wheel adjusted fully aft. (nose up), range of movement of the elevator is restricted

for 'up' travel movement

neither up nor down, as movement of the trim tab would make no difference to the movement

for 'down' travel movement

28. On the ground, spoilers/speedbrakes deploy to

60°

30°

15°

29. Stick shaker stall warnings should be activated at

VS

1.2 VS

1.05 VS

30. Stick pusher is installed in aircraft when

the aircraft is directional unstable

the aircraft has failed to meet the stalling requirements by normal category

the aircraft has no yaw damper installed

31. A horn balance on a control will

increase degree of movement at high speed

decrease degree of movement at low speed

A static friction check demonstrates the force the pilot requires to overcome system inertia and move the controls

Use of trim reduces the associated control movement direction

In the air - 30 degrees and a further 15 degrees with ailerons.

For a given pilot effort, the horn balance increases movement.

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decrease degree of movement at high speed

32. In normal flight, if the control column is pulled back, a servo tab fitted to the elevator will

move up

move down

remain in line with the elevator

33. In normal flight, if the control wheel is moved to the left, then the aileron on the right wing will initially

decrease the angle of attack of the right hand wing

keep the angle of attack of the right wing constant

increase the angle of attack of the right hand wing

34. Which of the following is the speed in level flight that would activate the stall warning?

VS1G + 15kts

1.05VS1G

1.2VS1G

35. On an aircraft fitted with elevons in normal flight, if a column is moved forward, the elevons will

both move down

remain stationary

both move up

36. The function of the stick pusher is

to activate and push the stick forward prior to stick shaker

to vibrate the controls

to activate and push the stick forward at or beyond a certain value of angle of attack

37. The input to a stick shaker comes from

the airspeed, and sometimes the rate of change in airspeed

the angle of attack only

angle of attack, and sometimes the rate of change in angle of attack

38. Stick pushers must be installed in aeroplanes with dangerous stall characteristics. Dangerous stall characteristics include:

excessive wing drop and deep stall

pitch down and minor wing drop

pitch down and increase in speed

39. The sensor of a stall warning system can be activated by a change in the location of the

transition region

The downgoing aileron (the right one) has an increase in AoA locally.

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centre of lift

stagnation point

40. To avoid moments bending the root of the wing, the aircraft will be fitted with

integrated fuel monitoring system

symmetrical flight control trim

automatic trim control for controlled turns and rudder movements

41. A yaw damper gain could be fitted with

decreases sensitivity for decreased speed

increased sensitivity for increased speed

decreases sensitivity for increased speed

42. In an aircraft system employing balance tabs, the installation of external ground locks between the control surface and the balance tabs

is unnecessary since the system is irreversible

would prevent the movement of the control column

would not prevent the movement of the control column

43. The two switches for pitch trim are located

on the control column acting like an 'AND' switch

on the control column acting like an 'OR' switch

on the control column with the captain having priority over the First Officer.

44. If the flaps are sluggish or erratic on final approach, the possible cause may be

bearing seized

flap tracks out of rigging

flap motor internal leakage

45. Speed brakes are a device used on large transport category aircraft

to prevent aquaplaning

for speed reduction after landing

to increase drag in order to maintain a steeper gradient of descent

46. In fully Fly By Wire aircraft, wing root bending moments are reduced by

transfer of fuel from one wing tank to another

symmetrical application of ailerons

operation of the elevator

47. Yaw damping rate changes with

Probably referring to Load Alleviation Function

The 'split' trim switch has one half closing a relay to 'enable' power to the trim motor, and to engage the clutch. The other switch half is to supply the power to the motor. Both must be operated together, to operate the trim.

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altitude

airspeed

flap position

48. What is the main purpose of a frise aileron?

Increase drag on the up going wing

Decrease drag on the up going wing

Help pilot overcome aerodynamic loads

49. What happens to a hydraulically operated flight control surface when pressure is removed?

Droop

Remain in last position

Go to neutral

50. Oscillation and hunting of flight control surface are prevented by

feedback from control surface

fitting a tachogenerator

feedback from the servo motor

51. Stick shaker activates at a speed which is above the stalling speed by

7%

10.321%

4%

52. A wing mounted stall warning vane

moves up at impending stall

gives a visual indication of impending stall

moves down at impending stall

53. During an autopilot controlled turn

ailerons and rudder will move

ailerons, rudder and THS will move

ailerons, rudder and elevators will move

54. On a full fly-by-wire system, a speedbrake screwjack servomotor is controlled by the

flight control computer

flight management and guidance computer

flight augmentation computer

The Frise aileron increases drag on the up-going aileron, which is on the downgoing wing. And Vise versa on the other aileron

The drop in pressure releases a valve which lets the fluid pass easily from one side of actuator piston to the other. This is to prevent a hydraulic lock and permit manual reversion. Surfaces behave like manually controlled surfaces.

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55. In a fly-by-wire aircraft, what controls the roll spoilers?

Flight augmentation computer

Flight control computer

Flight management computer

56. Mass balance weights are used to

balance the tabs

balance the trailing edge of flying control surfaces

counteract flutter on control surfaces

57. Active load control involves

intervention & monitoring the human pilot

limiting the deflection of control surface with airspeed

varying lift force to control vertical movement of the aircraft

58. Active load control uses

elevator and stab

elevator and aileron

aileron and spoiler

59. The purpose of the autopilot servo-motor torque setting is to

protect the servo motor

prevent control surface runaway

damp the system oscillation

60. In a fully Fly By Wire Aircraft, ground spoilers are deployed automatically when the aircraft is on ground and

weight on ground switch is activated

brakes are deployed

thrust reversers are deployed

61. In a fully Fly By Wire aircraft, rudder trim is nulled by the

Flight Augmentation Computers

electric flight control unit

Flight Guidance and Management Compute

62. Aileron input is fed into the yaw damper system to

prevent nose pitching up

prevent nose pitching down

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prevent adverse yaw in a turn

63. Pitch trimming in autopilot is initiated by

continued pitch input

pitch of aircraft in cruise

C of G movement

64. Differential aileron control will

cause a nose up moment

cause a nose down moment

prevent yawing in conjunction with rudder input

65. On a fly-by-wire aircraft, what controls stabilizer trim?

ELAC and SEC

ELAC

SEC

66. In an automatic flight control system, when may the yaw damper be applied?

During either manual or automatic control

During automatic control only

During manual control only

67. Flutter can be prevented by

balance panels

trim tabs

mass balance

68. In a fully fly by wire system, if the elevator loses all electrical power

servos remain stationary and provide damping

servos move to neutral and lock

servos lock at last position

69. In an auto trim system, for the trim system to operate

operation of the trim controls is required

autopilot need not be engaged

autopilot must be engaged

70. In an autopilot coordinated turn, when the turn angle is reached

both ailerons are down

If the elevator is deflected over a long time, the AFCS trims the horizontal stabilizer to eliminate the elevator deflection load

Due to the aircraft's neutral lateral stability, the ailerons are neutralised (faired) and the aircraft will hold the turn

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the ailerons are faired

one is up one is down

71. How is automatic angle of attack protection provided?

Fast/Slow indication

Reduce flap deployment

Autothrottle applying more power

72. A single failure of fly by wire

will limit the flight profile

will reduce the operational height and speed

has no effect on the aircraft's operation

73. Fly-by-wire load alleviation function in turbulent weather conditions will result in

ailerons moving symmetrically upward

spoiler moving symmetrically upward

ailerons and spoiler moving symmetrically upward

74. Autotrim will switch to 'slow' when

flaps are retracted

landing gear up and locked

flaps are extended

75. How is the stabiliser automatically controlled in normal manual operation?

Mach/Speed Trim

Pitch Trim

Electric Trim

76. Spoiler position feedback is provided by a

an R.V.D.T.

a S.C.M.

a microswitch

77. Rudder 'Q' limiting

increases rudder movement with increase in airspeed

increases feel as airspeed increases

restricts rudder movement with increase in airspeed

78. Elevons combine the functions of both

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rudder and elevator

elevator and aileron

rudder and aileron

79. A differential aileron system is designed to

prevent adverse yaw

compensate for aileron reversal

minimise flutter

80. An artificial feel system is required

for power operated control systems

for proportional control systems

for power assisted control systems

81. A tandem P.F.C.U.

has the actuator rams co-axial

has two control surfaces under its control

has the actuator rams parallel

82. What is the purpose of a differential Frise aileron?

To decrease the drag and decrease the rate of yaw and turn

To increase the drag to increase the rate of yaw and turn

Has no effect on rate of yaw and turn

83. Active load control uses

elevator and stab

ailerons and spoilers

elevator and ailerons

84. An artificial feel system is necessary in a powered flying control system to

increasing the sensitivity of the control system

prevent overloading of the power control units

provide the pilot with simulated stick forces

85. In the event of hydraulic failure in a power control system, a requirement of the manual reversion is that it must be

possible, but not recommended

operated by the standby hydraulic system

automatic and instantaneous

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86. The purpose of control cable regulators is to

maintain preset cable tensions during flight

compensate for low temperature only

compensate for high temperature only

87. Range of movements of power operated flying control surfaces are limited by

travel of the jack ram

travel of the jack body

mechanical stops in the control system

88. The aircraft is controlled about the lateral axis by the

elevator

rudder

ailerons

89. The aircraft is controlled about the normal axis by the

elevator

rudder

ailerons

90. The purpose of the Servo Valve in a power operated control is

to revert the system to manual operation

to provide pressure to operate the control

to direct hydraulic fluid to the jack in response to the pilot's control in cockpit

91. A stick shaker is a device which

vibrates the control column near stalling speed

helps extricate an aircraft from soft ground

gives a short period of extra lift to assist take off

92. The aircraft is controlled about the longitudinal axis by the

rudder

elevator

ailerons

93. Ruddervators when moved, will move

together only

either opposite each other or together, depending on the selection

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opposite to each other only

94. As a consequence of the C of G being close to its aft limit

the stick forces will be high in fore and aft pitch, due to the high longitudinal stability

the stick forces when pitching the nose down will be very high

the stick forces to manoeuvre longitudinally will be low due to the low stability

95. An anti-balance tab is moved

hydraulically

when the C.G. changes

via a fixed linkage

96. A servo tab is operated

by a trim wheel and moves in the opposite direction to the main control surfaces when moved

automatically, and moves in the same direction as the main control surfaces

directly by the pilot to produce forces which in turn move the main control surfaces

97. When checking full range of control surface movement, they must be positioned by

operating the flightdeck/cockpit controls until the system is against the primary stops

moving them by hand directly until against the secondary stops

moving them by hand directly until against the primary stops

98. The higher speed of the high wing in a banked turn causes it to have more drag than the low wing, this may be compensated for by

increasing the 'nose up' pitch by use of the elevators

use of the rudder control

operating the ailerons into the opposite sense once the correct angle of bank has been reached

99. The type of flap which extends rearwards when lowered is called a

split flap

plain flap

Fowler flap

100. Which of the following trailing edge flaps give an increase in wing area?

Fowler flap

Slotted flap

Split flap

101. Which of the following is not a primary flying control?

Tailplane

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Elevator

Rudder

102. A tab which assists the pilot to move a flying control by moving automatically in the opposite direction to the control surface is called a

trim tab

geared balance tab

servo tab

103. What is fitted on the aircraft to enable the pilot to reduce his speed rapidly in event of severe turbulence, or speed tending to rise above the 'Never Exceed Limit'?

Wheel brakes

Lift dumpers

Air brakes

104. When spoilers are used asymmetrically, they combine with

rudder

ailerons

elevators

105. What is used to correct any tendency of the aircraft to move towards an undesirable flight attitude?

Balance tabs

Trim tabs

Spring tabs

106. With hydraulic ram operated flying controls, when the pressure is reduced to zero, the flying control surfaces

remain in the position they were when power was removed

droop

stay at neutral

107. Powered flying control actuators

are operated by the autopilot only

provide feedback to the pilot

transmit pilot input to the control surfaces

108. A stick shaker operates

after the stall

just before the stall

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at the onset of the stall

109. In a power assisted flight control system, the feel required is normally supplied by

air loads on the control surfaces

stretching springs

'Q' feel

110. Irreversibility of a fully powered control surface is provided by

air loads on the control surface

nulling of the servo valve

the jack ram being attached to structure

111. 'Q' feel units use

pitot pressure only

static pressure only

pitot and static pressures

112. Spoiler panels are positioned so that when deployed

no yaw takes place

roll will not occur

pitch trim is not affected

113. Powered flight control systems are used on transport aircraft

due to the increase in speed and size of aircraft

because at low level air density is high

because the pilot has too many tasks to perform

114. A differential aileron control system results in

aileron drag being reduced on the inner wing in a turn

aileron drag being reduced on the outer wing in a turn

aileron drag being compensated by small rudder movements

115. Spoiler panels are controlled by

the aileron control wheel and speed brake lever

the aileron control wheel only

a speed brake lever only

116. A lift transducer is normally fitted

to the nose area of the aircraft

Power 'assisted' controls have aerodynamic feedback. Power 'operated' controls use a Q feel system

Nulling the servo valve produces a hydraulic lock.

Lift transducer, also known as a stall sensor

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on the leading edge of the wing

on the elevator control system

117. If electrical power is removed from a fly by wire spoiler system, the spoiler panels

go to full up

go to down if any are not already down

remain where they are

118. In a fly-by-wire control system, the follow-up transducer is fitted to

the control system computer

the hydraulic actuator

the pilot's input

119. The down position of the speed brake lever is detented to

lock the speed brakes down during flight

allow the ground speed brakes to be used on touchdown

prevent inadvertent operation

120. Asymmetric flap operation is prevented to keep to a minimum the tendancy of

pitch changes

yawing

rolling

121. High thrust stall warning is activated when the thrust of opposite engine reads

greater than 50%

greater than 75%

greater than 90%

122. A differential aileron control is one which gives

a larger aileron up travel than down

equal aileron travel in each direction, but variable for stick movement

the down-going aileron more travel than the up-going one

123. When the control column is moved back and the hand-wheel turned to the left

the elevators move up and the left aileron moves down

the elevators move down and the left aileron moves down

the left aileron moves up and the elevators move up

124. A series type yaw damper

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moves the rudder and the ailerons to damp out Dutch roll

moves the rudder only

moves the rudder pedals and the rudder

125. A stick shaker

vibrates the elevators to cause buffeting of the airframe

is a linear actuator attached to the base of the control column

is an eccentric flywheel driven by an electric motor and mounted on the control column

126. If the control column is moved forward and to the left

left aileron moves down, right aileron up, elevator down

left aileron moves up, right aileron moves down, elevator up

left aileron moves up, right aileron down, elevator down

127. On an aircraft fitted with spoilers for lateral control, roll to the right is caused by

left spoiler extending, right spoiler remaining retracted

both spoilers extending

right spoiler extending, left spoiler remaining retracted

128. When an aileron trim control in the cockpit is moved to counteract a tendency to fly left wing low, an aileron trim tab fitted to the port aileron will

move up and this will cause the left aileron to move down and the right aileron to move up

move up and cause the left aileron to move down and the right aileron to move down to a lesser degree

move up and cause the left aileron to move down but the right aileron will remain neutral

129. You have adjusted the elevator trim tab to correct for nose heavy. What was the direction of travel of the trim tab?

The port elevator tab has moved up and starboard moved down

The elevator trim tab has moved down

The elevator trim tab has moved up

130. Pulleys in a flight control system are made from

brass

Tufnol or aluminium alloy

stainless steel

131. A tension regulator in the flight control cable system of a large all metal aircraft is used primarily to

increase cable tension in cold weather

decrease cable tension in cold weather

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retain a set tension

132. An interrupter arm incorporated in a flying control locking mechanism

dampens the rudder movement

locks the ailerons and elevators

restricts movement of the throttles

133. The yaw damper must be designed to allow the rudder to control in response to the aircraft's

dutch roll frequency

roll frequency

pitch Frequency

134. The alpha vane signal can be fed to __________ when the aircraft is close to stall

fast/slow switch

throttle lever

flap position

135. Moving the elevator trim wheel fully aft, then the

aircraft tends to roll to the right

aircraft tends to go nose up

aircraft tends to go nose down

136. Ground spoilers are used to

prevent FOD ingestion into the engines on landing and taxiing

decrease wing loading on landing

increase wing loading on take-off

137. The outboard ailerons on some aircraft

are isolated to prevent aileron reversal

are isolated to improve sensitivity

are isolated at slow speeds

138. The effect of the rudder on an aircraft can be increased by

decreasing the velocity of the aircraft

increasing the altitude of the aircraft

increasing the distance of the control surfaces from the aircraft's centre of gravity

Fuel Systems (ATA 28)

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1. Fuel tanks are numbered

aft to fwd

right to left

fwd to aft

2. The fuel surge tank

acts as a separate fuel supply tank

reduces wing bending moment

acts as a vent in the main tank

3. A fuel crossfeed valve is normally powered by

AC

Battery

DC

4. When refuelling, as the fuel level increases

capacitance increases

capacitive reactance increases

capacitance decreases

5. A fuel crossfeed valve is usually in

its last position

the open position

the closed position

6. Sliding couplings in fuel systems are used on

low pressure systems

air or vapour systems

high pressure systems

7. Fuel surge is prevented by

having baffles within the tank and supports on the outside to resist fuel surge

incorporation of an additional surge tank

having separate compartments within the tank

8. When carrying out an insulation check on a fuel probe, what is the Maximum voltage to use

500 V

220


30 V

250 V

9. A fuel cross-feed valve is lubricated

by air

by the fuel

by internal cooling

10. Fuel cross feed valves are operated by the

115 V AC

battery

28 V DC bus

11. Fuel systems that are interconnected must have

separate venting for each tank

no airspace

air spaces interconnected

12. As fuel level increases, system capacitance

no change

decreases

increases

13. When refuelling

it is important to fill the expansion space in the tank

it is important not to fill the expansion space in the tank

the fuel nozzle will automatically cut off the supply when the tank is full

14. When using Biopor microbial fuel growth treatment

it is added to the fuel and burnt

it is applied dry and left

it is applied wet and flushed out

15. Microbial growth is

red dots

brown black slime

green sludge

16. Bladder type fuel tanks are secured by

The fuel probe excitation is 115V AC. As a rule of thumb, use an insulation tester 2x the normal operating voltage.

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press type rivets

contact adhesive

bolts

17. A zero fuel test on a fuel quantity indicating system is carried out with

tanks completely empty

tanks empty apart from unusable fuel

tanks completely full

18. After a tank bag has been replaced, a fuel flow test should be carried out at

tank outlet

engine inlet

tank shut-off valve point

19. In biologically contaminated fuel, corrosion takes place

the top of the tank

the bottom 2 inches of the tank

below the fungal colonies

20. If an aircraft has ability to transfer fuel in flight, provision must be made to

shut off fuel before structural damage

stop engine from using tank during transfer

provide overflow facility to dump fuel

21. In a fuel system with interconnected vents

the expansion space must be 2% of the tank capacity

the expansion space must be 10% of the tank capacity

an expansion space is not required

22. Fuel tanks interconnected must have

vents to allow overfueling

protection against overfill for tanks and fuel system

tank where fuel is fed from both tanks to engine inlet

23. When a FADEC system loses air data input it goes to

hard reversion

soft reversion

mechanical reversion

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24. Pressure refuelling is carried out at

20 PSI

15 PSI

40 PSI

25. Cross feed valves permit fuel transfer from

left tank to right tank

tank to tank

any tank to any engine

26. What is fitted to the fuel jettison pipe to prevent vapour ignition?

A nozzle

A corona device

An anti-corona device

27. What happens to the capacitance in a fuel contents gauge as fuel is used?

Depends on altitude

Increases

Decreases

28. When an aircraft is put into storage for medium / long periods, the fuel tanks should

be full

have some fuel left in to prevent sealant from deteriorating/drying out

be empty

29. Integral fuel booster pumps

require no cooling

require ram air cooling

lets the fuel do the cooling

30. The purpose of a scavenge system within a fuel system is

to ensure that all available fuel can be used

to ensure that any water in the fuel is constantly dispersed thus reducing microbiological contamination

to ensure that all unused fuel is returned to the tanks efficiently

31. In a light fixed wing aircraft, the fuel warning light indicates

ice blockage, filter popped or pump fail

the tank does not pressurise

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pump failure

32. How is fuel supplied to a turbine engine?

By suction from the engine driven fuel pump

By a fuel boost pump

By a gravity feed pump

33. A fuel tank suction valve will open when

the engine driven pump fails

the booster pump fails

both the engine driven and booster pump fail

34. To prevent water condensation in a fuel tank

the tank should be filled as full as possible

the tank should be filled with the minimum fuel possible

the filler cap should be left open

35. At the lowest point of each vent line you would normally find a

self draining non-return valve

NACA duct

float valve

36. To protect the centre tank fuselage area from a vapour build up

ram air is circulated around the tank

cabin air is bled around the tank

a shroud vent and overboard drain is fitted

37. When a fuel jettison valve is in transit, the magnetic indicator would show

amber and cross line

green and in line

amber and in line

38. When considering the basic categories of fuel tank construction, which of the following is most prone to leaks?

Rigid

Flexible

Integral

39. On removal of a fuel tank booster pump, fuel is observed running out of the boost pump canister, this could be caused by

224


fuel leaking past the inlet screens

fuel draining out of the pressure switch bleed

the pressure outlet check valve is not correctly seated

40. Crossfeed valves are normally fitted with

two 28V DC motors

two single phase AC motors

two three-phase AC motors

41. To replace a water drain valve seal

the seal of the valve is replaceable without draining the tanks

the tank must be de-fuelled

the seal is not replaceable, the whole drain assembly must be replaced

42. A shroud vent and overload drain would normally be found on

fuel tank vent pipes

fuel jettison system

the APU fuel feed

43. To shut-off the LP fuel supply to the engine for the purpose of engine removal you would

close the cross bleed valve

pull the fire handle

close the HP fuel lock

44. A leak from a fuel tank which manifests as fuel dripping from the tank is classified as a

stain

seep

run

45. Calcium Chromate tablets can be fitted in integral tanks. Before installation the linen bag should be wetted with

Water

Methylated Spirit

Kerosene

46. A check valve is fitted to a fuel jettison system to

prevent the centre from being defuelled

prevent the dumping of the outer tanks

automatically stop the fuel jettison operation after a period of time

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47. The advantages of integral fuel tanks are that they

are easier to design and construct and use the maximum volume of fuel

are cheaper to manufacture, more durable and easier to maintain

use the maximum volume for fuel and have the minimum amount of weight

48. On Large transport aircraft fuel is delivered to each engine using

a separate system for each engine

the same system for each engine

a parallel system

Hydraulic Power (ATA 29)

1. In a constant volume hydraulic EDP, the short shaft which engages with the engine gearbox would have

2 female splined portions separated by a waisted section

an inner female splined portion and an outer male splined portion

2 male spline portions seperated by a waisted section designed to shear should the pump seize

2. What is the unit which transforms hydraulic pressure into linear motion?

A hydraulic pump

An actuating cylinder

An accumulator

3. What is the unit which transforms hydraulic pressure into rotary motion?

A hydraulic motor

An actuating cylinder

A hydraulic pump

4. Which device allows the free flow of fluid in one direction and no fluid flow in the other direction?

Shutoff valve

Metering piston

Check valve

5. A purpose of a 'cut-out' in a hydraulic system

is to prevent creep in jack operated services which have several selected positions

is to relieve the pump of load when the operation of services is complete and the accumulator charged with fluid

is to limit loss of fluid in the event of pipe fracture

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6. Hydraulic pressure can be restored by

compressing the air charge in an accumulator

the use of a pressure/heat exchanger

compressing the fluid in a reservoir

7. An hydraulic accumulator has low air/nitrogen pressure. What will be the indications?

Full pressure indicated

Zero pressure indicated

The cut-out valve chatters

8. To enable a hydraulic system to operate two components with different pressures, a

pressure reducing valve is used

pressure regulating valve is used

pressure relief valve is used

9. Restrictor valves are fitted in hydraulic systems to

control rate of system operation

limit the maximum pressure

restrict the rate of pressure build-up

10. What type of valve prevents pressure from building up until a demand is placed in an open-center hydraulic system?

An unloading valve

A selector valve

A bypass valve

11. In an open-centre hydraulic system, system pressure is provided

only when the selector valve is set to ON

only when the selector valve is set to OFF

continuously

12. In an open-centre hydraulic system, selector valves are positioned

in parallel

either in series or in parallel depending on the system design

in series

13. What is the colour of the band on a hydraulic seal?

White

Green

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Yellow

14. A maintainer valve in a hydraulic system will

maintain a high pressure to all systems

allow continued pressure to essential systems during times of reduced supply

dampen pressure inputs

15. Where is the temperature overheat switch located in a hydraulic pump?

In the suction line

In the case drain

In the pressure line

16. What happens if a component has an internal hydraulic leak?

Increase in fluid pressure

Increase in fluid temperature

Fluid loss

17. What happens to hydraulic fluid when it is overheated?

Increase alkalinity

Increase viscosity

Increase acidity

18. How is the hydraulic pump depressurising solenoid actuated?

Energised both open and closed depending on cockpit selection

Energised Closed for fail-safe

Energised Open

19. How do you prevent hydraulic fluid frothing?

By pressurising

Vent Reservoir to atmosphere

Pass over a tray

20. Accumulators as fitted to aircraft hydraulic systems

are only ever used in an emergency

store fluid under pressure

provide additional fluid if leaks occur

21. A Skydrol hydraulic fluid seal would be made of

natural rubber

Hi acidity is a common problem revealed after an oil system analysis

The depressurising valve (sometimes called an 'offloading valve') is energised closed, to fail-safe open

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synthetic rubber

butyl rubber, ethylene propylene or Teflon

22. Synthetic hydraulic fluid subjected to overheating is high in

alkalinity

acidity

viscosity

23. A normal hydraulic system will

show fluid temperature and quantity

show pressure and source of hydraulics

illuminate a light in the cockpit when the system is ready

24. A constant volume hydraulic system uses what to relieve pressure in system when no services are being used?

ACOV

Pressure relief valve

Return line back to pump

25. The control of hydraulically powered emergency electrical generator frequency is by

restriction valve

angle of swashplate

IDG

26. Hydraulic systems normally operate at

1800 PSI

3000 PSI

300 PSI

27. When flushing hydraulic systems

flush with any hydraulic oil

flush with same hydraulic oil

flush with methylated spirit

28. When replenishing a hydraulic system

use the same/correct hydraulic fluid

use any hydraulic fluid made by the same manufacturer

use any hydraulic fluid

29. When replacing a flexible pipe

Some systems show temperature, but they are not 'normal'.

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tighten only hand tight

do a bonding check

use two spanners to stop pipe from twisting

30. How do you remove air from hydraulic fluid?

Pass over a tray

Vent to atmosphere

Pass through a restriction

31. A pressure control relay in a hydraulic pump is

used to prevent anything happening until there is hydraulic pressure

de-energised to start the pump

energised to the run position

32. A constant delivery pump has its output varied with

regulators

gears

servo pressure

33. A variable angled pump starts at

half way position

maximum stroke

minimum stroke

34. A check flow valve in a hydraulic system prevents

overpressure

pump cavitation

reverse flow

35. A duplex seal consist of

a square section rubber ring within a steel washer

a rubber 'T' section ring sandwiched between two Teflon rings

a hard rubber square section ring with a soft rubber square section inner ring

36. When is a hydraulic de-pressurising valve energised?

When there is sufficient hydraulic pressure available

When selected off

When selected on

Constant delivery is constant flow rate

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37. A fixed volume axial pump contains the following rotating parts:

Drive Shaft, variable Swash Plate and Cylinder Block

Drive Shaft, fixed Swash Plate and Cylinder Block

Drive Shaft, fixed Swash Plate and Valve Block

38. An hydraulic closed system is one where

most of the major components of the system are included in a self contained unit

there is no pressure at the selector valves when no functions are required

pressure is maintained at the selector valves at all times

39. What constitutes a hydraulic power pack?

Hydraulic oil accumulator

Variable swashplate pump

Reservoir, pump, selector valve, filter

40. If an accumulator loses air pressure there will be

rapid fluctuations of instruments

rapid depressurisation of system

pump cavitation

41. A marker number on a pipe indicates

the specification of the pipe throughout the pipe run

the thickness of the wall on the pipe

the type of fluid used to pressure test the pipe

42. One reason for fitting an accumulator in a hydraulic system is to

minimize the possibility of pump cavitation

relieve excess pressure

absorb pressure surges

43. A thermal relief valve is fitted to a hydraulic system to

relieve excess pressure

prevent a leak back of pressure

prevent excess temperature

44. A component in a hydraulic system which ensures instantaneous action when a service is selected is

selector

engine driven pump

Thermal relief valves relieve the pressure build-up due to excessive temperature

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accumulator

45. A shuttle valve is used for

change over from main to auxiliary system in the case of failure

preventing fluid loss from a leaking jack

maintaining fluid press when the emergency system fails

46. Restrictor valves in a hydraulic system are used to

restrict the rate of pressure build up

control the rate of system operation


47. The purpose of a mechanical sequence valve is to ensure the operation of

landing gear and doors

safety switches

brake anti-skid units

48. The purpose of a non-return valve is to

isolate one component from another

restrict the movement of components

direct fluid to the hydraulic actuator

49. The end fittings on a NRV are normally different to

prevent incorrect installation

allow a full flow from the valve

facilitate bleeding of the system

50. A hydraulic accumulator is charged with initial nitrogen pressure of 1000 PSI . When the hydraulic system pressure of 3000 PSI is reached, the nitrogen pressure is

4000 PSI

3000 PSI

1000 PSI

51. Automatic cut-out valve hammering is caused by

low accumulator pressure

relief valve set too high

moisture in the fluid

52. Hand pumps are normally single cylinder double acting because of the

two NRVS fitted

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piston ram displacement

relief valve

53. During a leak test of a hydraulic system, system pressure

must be minimum working

is not important

must be at maximum

54. Constant delivery hydraulic pumps

require an automatic cut-out valve in the system

are self idling

require an automatic cut-out valve and accumulator in the system

55. Mechanical sequence valves are operated by

the operation of a NRV

the pilot

a striker pin

56. Pressure relay valves are fitted

before a pressure sequence valve

before a pressure gauge

before a pressure relief valve

57. Before checking the initial pressure in the hydraulic accumulator

the reservoir must be checked for correct level

the fluid pressure must be released

all air must be bled from the system

58. Hydraulic reservoirs are pressurized to

provide a reserve of stored energy

minimize the possibility of pump cavitation

maintain a constant fluid level

59. In aircraft hydraulic systems, it is permissible to use

any fluid of the same specific gravity

any hydraulic fluid available

only the specified fluid

60. The essential components of a hydraulic system of the constant delivery type are an

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accumulator and relay valve

accumulator and automatic cut-out valve

accumulator and shuttle valve

61. An automatic cut-out valve will

limit pump wear

prevent the hydraulic lock forming

raise fluid boiling point

62. A maintaining valve is fitted to a hydraulic system

relieve excessive pressure to return

to maintain a back pressure to the accumulator

to ensure a supply of fluid to essential services in the event of system failure

63. A thermal relief valve

senses fluid pressure

provides cooling for the fluid

senses fluid temperature change

64. Hydraulic systems are normally flushed with

any clean hydraulic fluid

methylated spirits

the same type of fluid as used in the system

65. Phosphate Ester hydraulic fluid requires which kind of seals?

Butyl Rubber

Natural Rubber

Synthetic Rubber

66. A RAT hydraulic pump is for

flying controls if hydraulic power lost

landing gear and auto-brake systems

nose wheel steering

67. Hydraulic hand-pump fluid supply is taken from

a tap into a convenient return line

the bottom of the reservoir

a stack pipe higher than the normal level

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68. Hand pumps in hydraulic systems are normally

double acting

low pressure

single acting

69. To enable a hydraulic system to operate two components requiring different pressures

a pressure reducing valve is used

a pressure relief valve is used

a pressure regulating valve is used

70. The force exerted by a hydraulic cylinder is equal to

pressure x stroke

area x pressure

area x volume

71. A tandem PFCU

has the rams parallel

has two control surfaces under its control

has the actuator rams co-axial

72. The reason why slack must be left in a flexible hose during installation, is a flexible hose under pressure

contracts in length and expands in diameter

contracts in length and diameter

expands in length and diameter

73. An automatic cut-out valve is necessary in a hydraulic system with

a fixed volume pump

pressures above 3000 PSI

a variable volume pump

Ice and Rain Protection (ATA 30)

1. When should rain repellent be applied to a windscreen?

When windscreen is wet

When windscreen is dry

When windscreen is either wet or dry

2. A pressure operated ice detector would

If applied when windscreen is dry, it smears, dries, and causes optical illusions

235


have a build up of ice that causes a torque switch to illuminate a flight deck annunciator

be completely covered in ice before causing an alarm to sound on the flight deck

have a build up of ice on the leading edge that causes a warning light to illuminate on the flight deck

3. The flow rate of anti-icing fluid is determined

by speed of pump

by flow control valve

by flow control tubes

4. Details entered in the operational log regarding the De-Icing is

area on which used

type of fluid used and its percentage dilution

volume of fluid used

5. The ice protection system that is manufactured on the aircraft skin is

heater mat

overshoe

spraymat

6. What are the chemicals used in modern chemical de-icing?

Isopropyl alcohol

A mixture of ethylene glycol and alcohol

Either Isopropyl alcohol or ethylene glycol

7. Where does ice form on the aircraft?

Leading edges only

Areas with larger curvature radius

Area with smaller curvature radius

8. Window anti-icing supply is

DC

AC or DC

AC

9. Ice formed on the object or surface will change its shape, this changes is more detrimental and vulnerable to a

fast moving object

large object

small object

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10. In which ice detection method, the activation of warning system is through accumulation of ice on a probe projected into the airstream?

Inferential method

Ice accretion method

Impingement method

11. The inflatable tube of the de-icer boots is made of

natural rubber

synthetic rubber

rubberised fabric

12. How is rain repellent stored on an aircraft?

Reservoir, pressurised by the pneumatic system

Self pressurised container

Remote container

13. When testing windshield wipers, you should

lift the wipers away from the windshield

use a continuous flow of water on the windshield

operate them on a dry windshield

14. What is the correct way of measuring the windshield wiper force prior to adjustment?

With a spring tension scale

By measuring the maximum total angle of sweep

With a torque screwdriver and light thumb pressure

15. How is a serrated rod ice detector bench tested?

Screwdriver torque test

Motor test and go/no-go gap measurement

By a motor load test

16. Windshield heating provides

thermal expansion for a tighter fit

impact resistance enhancement

increases strength to resist cabin pressure

17. At what pressure and temperature is anti ice fluid applied?

7°F at 100 PSI

70°C at 100 PSI

'Retard rotation [of the detector] with slight thumb pressure using a torque screwdriver.' Ref: CAIPs AL/11-6

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70°F at 10 PSI

18. The most important problem of ice accretion on an aeroplane during flight is

increase in drag

increase in weight

reduction in CLmax

19. The advantage of leading edge fluid de-icing is

less of a fire hazard

more efficient

aerodynamic shape is not disturbed

20. On large transport aircraft, the windshield wiper system is

independent on each side but with the same power source

one system for both sides but with the same power source

independent on each side with different power sources

21. In which phase of the take-off is the aerodynamic effect of ice located on the wing leading edge most critical?

The last part of the rotation

During climb with all engines operating

All phases of the take-off are equally critical

22. Prior to securing a cemented leading edge de-icing boot you must

paint the surface

shave rivet to prevent further abrasion

remove all paint

23. Prior to securing a screw-fastened leading edge de-icing boot you must

shave rivet to prevent further abrasion

paint the surface

remove all paint

24. On a 'hot rod' type of ice detector, it is switched on

when in the air

all the time

when selected by the crew

25. Ice formation on wings is due to

ice crystals forming layers on contact with the wing

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supercooled water changing state on contact with the wing

suspended ice crystals melting on contact with the wing and instantly re-freezing

26. When a vibrating rod ice detector has de-iced, the warning lamp on the flight deck

goes out after a set period of time

goes out after one more cycle

goes out immediately

27. De-misting of passenger windows is provided by

sealed window

air from the cabin

an electrical heating element

28. A deicer boot is completely bonded to the leading edge to

prevent electrical static build up

provide more efficient deicer cycles

provide smoother airflow over leading edge

29. In a cockpit window heater system, the autotransformer

supplies DC power for heating

supplies AC Power for heating

steps up output for severe weather conditions

30. Windshield rain repellent is applied

when in heavy rain so vision is unobscured

when rain is on windows and spread by wipers

before rain and spread on window surface by wipers

31. Pneumatic rain removal systems

use a pneumatic motor to drive windscreen wipers

use engine bleed air at high velocity to remove water droplets from windscreen

are not permitted on large transport aircraft

32. Windscreen wiper torque tests are carried out at

blade attachment end

the shaft end

centre point of the blade

33. Windscreen autotransformers

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step down voltage

are used to supply extra current under difficult conditions

step up voltage

34. An ice deposit formed when liquid water flows over the airframe before freezing, and which is dense, tough and sticks closely to the surface is called

rime Ice

hoar Frost

glaze Ice

35. When testing pitot head heaters

they must only be switched on for the minimum time required to check serviceability

they should be switched on for five minutes to allow to stabilise before taking ammeter readings

they can only be checked by noting the temperature rise of the probe

36. A rotary knife edge ice detector provides warning of ice by

increased torque caused by ice formation slowing the rotating wheel and illuminating a warning light in the cockpit

decreased torque caused by ice formation slowing the rotating wheel and illuminating a warning light in the cockpit

ice formation stopping the rotation of a rotary knife edge and illuminating a warning light in the cockpit

37. Windscreen heating is supplied from

frequency wild generator, via a rectifier

frequency wild generator, direct to the windscreen

DC generator, via a transformer

38. A wing thermal anti-ice annunciator is illuminated permanently in flight deck without selection being made. The most probable cause would be

normal

a short circuit

an open circuit

39. Air for anti-icing of the wings is obtained from

either engine compressors or a combustion heater

engine compressors

a combustion heater

40. The usual material for pipelines in a fluid deice system

nylon

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stainless steel

Monel

41. When operating a windscreen wiper on the ground, make sure to

place soft cloth between blade and window

use slow wiper only

use water as lubricant when operating

42. What is run-back ice?

Gleam ice

Glaze ice

Rime ice

Landing Gear (ATA 32)

1. What should be done if a tyre has creeped round the hub?

Remove tyre, reposition, then re-inflate

Remove tyre, reposition the opposite way round to prevent more creep

Remove from the hub for inspection

2. Brake temperature readings provide

separate brake indicator gauge indications

master and caution warning

coloured indications on a CRT display

3. Spongy brakes are usually a result of

external leakage

air in the system

internal leakage

4. Over inflated tyres may cause damage to the

brake drum

wheel hub

wheel flange

5. To check if a landing gear leg requires servicing

The aircraft must have an exact load onboard and air charge to give an exact leg extension

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The leg extension can vary with aircraft load. The leg pressure and extension should be checked against a chart in the AMM

The leg must be serviced to give an exact extension regardless of aircraft load

6. Landing gear comes down and goes up again. A likely cause is

leak in selector valve

leak in actuating cylinder

leak in reservoir

7. A tyre valve cap is used to

secure the valve by screwing up to the shoulder of the wheel

prevent a leak

secure the valve by screwing up to the valve base

8. The drag strut in the main landing gear is fitted to absorb

turning loads while taxiing

cross-wind loads on landing

braking and take-off acceleration loads

9. How is a wheel and tyre assembly stored?

Three quarters of full pressure

With full pressure

Inflated to 20-30 PSI

10. Anti skid

applies wheel torque at point of maximum efficiency

is a 3-option system

moderates braking with increasing wheel torque

11. The operational hydraulic pressure for the nose wheel steering system of large aircraft normally comes from

the landing gear up line

an independent hydraulic system

the landing gear down line

12. When removing the wheel with a multiple disks brake, the wheel brake should be

set OFF (released)

disconnected first

set ON (applied)

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13. A tyre blows a fusible plug. You would

just change the one with the blown plug

change the damaged one and the adjacent one

change all tyres on that truck

14. Twin contact tread tyres are fitted to the nose wheel to assist in

preventing nose wheel shimmy

deflecting water away from rear mounted engines

preventing aquaplaning

15. Whilst taxiing at low speed, a wheel skids. What is the likely cause?

There is no fault. Anti-skid system is disabled at low speed

Anti-skid system is unserviceable

Faulty wheel speed transducer

16. A brake debooster valve is provided for

increasing the pressure and applying the brakes rapidly

decreasing the pressure and slowly releasing the brakes

applying brake pressure slowly and releasing the the brakes quickly

17. Anti-skid systems become deactivated at

5-10 mph

10-15 mph

15-20 mph

18. The landing gear is in the down and locked position but the red light is still on. The most probable fault is

the landing gear down microswitch needs adjusting

the landing gear up microswitch needs adjusting

there is a short circuit in the microswitch

19. Tubeless tyres are stored

vertically

horizontally maximum of four high with smallest diameter tyre on top

at 15 to 20 P.S.I.

20. On a wheel bogie unit, positive camber is when the

top of the wheels are closer together

front of the wheels are closer together

243


bottom of the wheels are closer together

21. A badly corroded and pitted brake disk will

produce a loss of fluid

be serviceable, and provide better grip

wear brake pads too quickly, and should be replaced

22. How much oxygen is in a tyre (as a maximum)?

15% by volume

5% by pressure

5% by volume

23. A tyre specification 32 x 10.75 - 14. What does the 10.75 refer to?

Section Width

Overall diameter

Bead diameter

24. When servicing an oleo, fluid comes out of the air valve when the leg is depressurised?

Leaking air/oil seals

Separator plate stuck open

The leg is serviceable - the separator has bottomed

25. The type of fluid in an oleo strut will depend upon

the type of seal material

heat generated in operation of the system

type of fluid most readily available

26. A restrictor valve

restrict the extent of travel of the undercarriage

may be used to slow down undercarriage extension

speed up the flow in one direction

27. The function of the oil in a shock absorber is to

absorb the landing shock

ensure the separator does not bottom

damp the rebound

28. The purpose of the flutter plate in a shock absorber is to

restrict the compression of the air

244


permit free flow of oil during compression and restriction of oil during extension

separate the oil from the air

29. Made up wheels should be stored

horizontal no more than 4 high

vertical at working pressure

vertical at 20/30 PSI charge

30. After MLG down and securely locked, a red light is illuminated in the flight deck. The possible causes are

shorted sensor

out of adjustment sensor

wiring problem

31. When checking for alignment of a MLG, check

symmetry, tracking, camber

symmetry, splay, tracking

symmetry, twist, tracking

32. These markings are found on a tyre, 32 x 10.45 R 14. What does the number 32 mean?

Inner diameter

width

Outer diameter

33. A green/grey dot marking on aircraft tyre casing represents

breather points

military reference

the light part of the tyre

34. In detachable flange type wheels, the flange is secured by

a lock ring

a retainer plate

bolts

35. Fuse plugs in aircraft tyres are

for overtemperature protection

for overpressure protection

to deflate the tyre before removal

36. A breaker strip in an aircraft tyre is

245


to provide strength

to provide a wear indication

to indicate the position for tyre levers

37. If fluid leaks along with air whilst oleo charging, this is

normal

due to excessive charging pressure

caused by a leaky seal

38. A red dot / triangle mark on aircraft tyres means

military reference

breather points

the light part of the tyre

39. On selection of MLG down, the gear extends then begins to retract again. The cause is

a faulty actuator

gear lowered at too high an airspeed

a faulty selector valve

40. When fitting a tyre, the red dot should be positioned

opposite the charging valve

adjacent to the charging valve

on the other side of the wheel opposite to the charging valve

41. Composite brake units

have less weight than normal brake units and have increased efficiency at high temperatures

weigh the same as normal brake units and fade away at high temperatures

have less weight than normal brake units but fade away at high temperatures

42. A restrictor valve can be used

to increase the speed of the undercarriage extension

to reduce the speed of the undercarriage extension

to increase the speed of undercarriage retraction

43. When an undercarriage is lowered, it tends to creep back up. The fault could be

the emergency system

a leaky selector valve

a stuck relief valve

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44. Vents holes are found on

tubeless tyres

tubed tyres

tubed and tubeless tyres

45. At what temperature does a yellow fuse plug melt at?

250°C

200°C

150°C

46. The cam plate in a nose undercarriage is

for alignment of the nose wheel steering on nose undercarriage extension

part of the shimmy damper

to align for nose wheel on nose undercarriage retraction

47. What is tyre creep related to?

Tyre moving around the wheel

Horizontal movement of the tyre

Vertical movement of the tyre

48. 'Aquaplaning' can be reduced by

lowering slats

an anti-skid device

increased flaring

49. Why is a hydraulic damper fitted to a nose wheel steering system?

To centralise the nose leg assembly during an up selection

To centralise the nose wheel during an up selection

To reduce vibration and shimmy

50. What decides the type of oil used in an undercarriage leg?

The material of the leg

Neither, any oil can be used

The types of seals the leg uses

51. In an anti-skid system

brakes release on falling torque

brakes are modulated to give most efficient braking

247


brakes release on rising torque

52. If an undercarriage oleo has insufficient deflection, the likely cause is

oil level too high

loss of pressure/leakage

nitrogen pressure too high

53. A Maxaret is used in what system?

Self centring landing gear

Tyre inflation

Skid control

54. The pilot receives an audible warning on the flight deck as the aircraft is descending to land. The most likely reason for this warning is

the landing gear is not locked down

the airspeed is too high

the rate of descent is too high

55. A restrictor in the landing gear hydraulic retraction and lowering system is positioned in the

landing gear down line

return line from the landing gear selector

landing gear up line

56. Wheel speed information is used in auto speed brake systems

to stow the spoilers automatically when the aircraft has nearly stopped

to ensure the aircraft is still rolling

to ensure the aircraft has touched down and to give a slight time lapse before spoiler deployment

57. A fusible plug fitted to an aircraft wheel prevents

brakes seizure, if brake stators and rotors weld together under excessive temperatures

over inflation of tyres during servicing

tyre bursts due to high temperatures created by excessive braking

58. If the shuttle valve was stuck in the normal position

neither system will be available

normal braking will not be available

emergency braking will not be available

59. The breaker strip of a tyre is fitted

between the tread rubber and the casing piles

The restrictor is placed in the retraction line to slow the rate of exit of fluid from the jack on extension, to slow the rate of extension.

248


between the apex strip and the casing piles

between the bead and the casing piles

60. Nose wheel steering in a modern aircraft is by

rudder pedals

the control column

a separate pilot operated control

61. The fusible plugs installed in some aircraft wheel will

eliminate the need to check air pressure

melt at a specified elevated temperature

facilitate servicing of the wheel assembly

62. Excessive wear in the shoulder area of an aircraft tyre is an indication of

excessive toe-in

over-inflation

under-inflation

63. Ribbed tyres with marker tie bars may be worn to

the top of the tie bar

1 mm from the rib base

the base of the tie bar

64. On large aircraft, bogie type undercarriages are used to

spread the weight over a large area

absorb increased landing shock

prevent skidding

65. To position the bogie beam at a suitable angle for retraction and landing, a

snubber is used

castoring damper is used

hop damper is used

66. On large aircraft, braked wheel assemblies are normally inflated with

nitrogen and not more than 5% of air

an argon and CO2 mixture

nitrogen

67. Brake deboosters

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reduce the hydraulic pressure entering the brakes

increase the hydraulic pressure entering the brakes

assist the operation of the anti-skid unit

68. A modulator is fitted in conjunction with

non-return valve

brake control valves

anti-skid units

69. In the case of pressurized aircraft, the nose-wheel bay

is pressurized to a value higher than ambient but less than cabin pressure

is not pressurized

is subject to cabin pressure

70. An undercarriage that has the axle mounted directly onto the shock absorber is of which type

Direct Acting

Hydro Mechanical

Articulated

71. The minimum aquaplaning ground speed is

9.6 times the root square of the tyre pressure in psi

8.6 times the root square of the tyre pressure in psi

8.6 times the tyre pressure in bar

72. Tubed tyres are stored

horizontally, up to 4 in total with the smallest at the top

horizontally, up to 4 in total staggering them to prevent distortion of beads

horizontally, up to 4 in total in a rack with supporting tubes so each tyre is supported at 2 points

73. On a main landing gear, what is positive camber?

Bottom of wheels closer to fuselage centreline

Front of wheels closer to fuselage centreline

Top of wheels closer to fuselage centreline

74. When the landing gear is locked up, the cockpit indicator shows

no indication

green light

red light

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75. When checking the alignment of a main landing gear, check

symmetry, tracking, camber

symmetry, tracking, splay

symmetry, tracking, twist

76. Tyre creep could be caused by

excessive wear

under pressure

overpressure

77. When inflating a tyre and you notice ice in the valve stem

heat the valve stem gently with a blow torch

carry on inflating as ice in the valve stem is no problem

wait for ice to melt before carrying on with inflation

78. A method of helping to prevent aquaplaning is by fitting tyres which have

a plain tread

water dispersing treads

twin contact

79. Un-mounted tubeless tyres must be stored

in the manufactures boxes

horizontally

vertically

80. With a single oleo leg with a stub axle used, the torque links will

assist the wheel to castor

keep the wheel in track

allow the wheel to shimmy

81. When fitting a tyre to a hub, the red spot on the tyre should be in line with

maker's serial number

the valve assembly

opposite side to the valve assembly

82. A red or yellow line on an inner tube would indicate

balance indicator

heavy spot

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light spot

83. On a multi-brake unit with automatic adjusters, brake wear is checked by

application of the brakes and checking indicator pin protrusion

using a go-no go gauge to measure the gap between the cylinder and the thrust plate

measuring the protrusion of the indicator pins with the brakes released

Lights (ATA 33)

1. What colour is the strobe light on the PORT wing?

White

Green

Red

2. What is the arc of a landing light?

This is not covered in European legislation

20°

15°

3. With aircraft lights - which of the following is true?

Starboard light green, port light red, tail light white

Starboard light red, port light green, tail light Red

Starboard light red, port light green, tail light White

4. Emergency floor lighting system is inoperative, then

the aircraft is allowed to fly empty to a main base

the aircraft is not allowed to fly until repaired

the aircraft is allowed to fly in daylight conditions only

5. A white navigation light, as viewed in the horizontal plane, will be at least

20 candela

50 candela

240 candela

6. A fluorescent tube contains

phosphor coatings, rare gases and mercury vapour

orange coatings, rare gases and mercury vapour

iodine coatings and rare gases

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7. A white steady light is required

of at least 3 lumens, at the rear of the aircraft 110 degrees either side of dead astern

of at least 3 candelas, at the rear of the aircraft 110 degrees either side of dead astern

of at least 3 candelas, at the rear of the aircraft 70 degrees either side of dead astern

8. How many floor path lights can you fly with unserviceable?

15%

25%

20%

9. What is the arc of a landing light?

20°

15°

11°

10. The visible angle of a white tail navigation light is

110°

11°

140°

11. Wing navigation lights must be visible through which angle?

125°

180°

110°

12. Cockpit dome lighting is provided by the

battery bus and ground services bus

ground services bus

battery bus

13. Upper and lower strobe lights are coloured

green

white

red

14. Cargo bay lights on a modern aircraft are supplied by

the battery bus

DC handling bus

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AC handling bus

15. What will happen if the Master Dim and test switch is switched to the on position?

Dome lights will illuminate

All lights will illuminate

Rectangular indicator lights will illuminate

16. Escape route lighting must not have more than

20% obscured

15% obscured

10% obscured

17. How many escape path lights are allowed to be inoperative?

None

25%

10%

18. The angle of a runway turnoff light is

40°

60°

50°

19. Cabin fluorescent lighting circuits are supplied with

28 V AC

28 V DC

115 V AC

20. How are passenger reading lights normally tested?

By using a READ LIGHT TEST switch on the cabin attendant panel

Each one is switched on individually at passenger panel

By using a READ LIGHT TEST switch at any passenger panel

21. In what position should the selector switch be for a standby and emergency lighting system during flight?

Armed

OFF

ON

22. The emergency lighting system must be designed so that after any single transverse vertical separation of the fuselage during crash landing the maximum amount of emergency lighting that fails is

10%

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15%

25%

23. A rotating beacon must have a minimum light rating of

50 candelas

100 candelas

20 candelas

24. Service lights include

avionics bay lights, engine scanning lights, baggage compartment lights

baggage compartment lights, avionics bay lights, refuelling lights

refuelling lights, engine scanning lights, logo lights

25. If the 'blow-back' device on a landing lamp operates, how is it reset?

The linkage must be repositioned and latched when the aircraft is on the ground.

Select full 'RETRACT'

It cannot. The unit must be replaced because of the high stress loads experienced

26. Before touching or disconnecting a strobe light head, a time period must elapse to avoid electrical shock or burning. That time period is at least

1 minute

2 minutes

5 minutes

27. The rear light of an aircraft must be white and, in addition, must show through an inclusive angle of

110 degrees and be 5 candelas minimum



28. Self-illuminating signs

are self powered and contain phosphor and helium gas

are instantly seen in dark areas by persons who are not dark adapted

require a period of daylight, or intense artificial light to operate

29. When an annunciator light is selected to 'DIM', the resistor is in

parallel with the light and the transistor is not conducting

series with the light and the transistor is not conducting

series with the light and the transistor is conducting

30. Storm lights are usually fluorescent lights that are switched on

255


because lightning has less effect on fluorescent lamp units

to reduce the effect of lightning on the pilot's sight

and the glare-shield lights are automatically dimmed

31. Captain and First Officer's 'Dome' lights can be dimmed

individually

together

First Officer's only in emergency mode

32. In the CWS system, the caution light is coloured

amber

red

green

33. On a CWS, which has the highest priority?

Duct overheat

Hydraulic pump failure

Fire warning

34. What inert gas is used in a typical strobe light?

Halon

Freon

Xenon

35. Floor proximity lighting is a mandatory requirement and each light should be spaced

at 70 inch intervals



36. Tritium Gas is used in a

landing Light

self illuminating lights

strobe light

37. A strobe light is a light unit that takes form of glass tube filled with which gas and its light colour is what?

Neon gas and blue

Xenon Gas and blue-white

Helium gas and white

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38. The aircraft has a partial failure of its emergency lighting system

continue with reduced passenger load

ferry flight to main base for rectification

ground the aircraft

39. Navigation lights are supplied by the following circuit:

Single circuit

Individual circuits

Dual circuit

40. Automatic no smoking sign will illuminate

below 10,000ft and descending

when landing gear is down

unless switched off by the pilot

Oxygen (ATA 35)

1. To purge an unpleasant odour/moisture from an oxygen system, you must

completely empty and fill the system with nitrogen at least 3 times

completely empty and fill the system with oxygen at least 3 times

completely empty and fill the system with air at least 3 times

2. Oxygen bottles should not be left with less that 500 psi pressure because

it can damage the diluter demand regulator and would require maintenance

the oxygen becomes tainted causing anoxia

it can cause corrosion within the bottle

3. A dual demand regulator in oxygen system is for

fitting to either gaseous or chemical oxygen cylinders

altitude selection

allowing two people to breath from one cylider

4. The oxygen masks for the passengers drop down by

manual selection from cockpit and automatically by an altitude switch

automatically by an ltitude switch

manual selection from cockpit

5. How would you identify an American oxygen bottle?

It is painted the same colour as a British oxygen bottle (black)

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It is white with green wording

It is green

6. When charging an oxygen cylinder, the pressure goes to zero. Where is the likely fault?

In the pressure gauge

In the mask

In the temperature compensator

7. How many turns of teflon tape are you allowed on oxygen threads and how many threads should have no tape?

2 turns except first 2 threads

2 turns except first thread

1 turn except first thread

8. Anoxia is due to

release of nitrogen bubbles in the blood

lack of oxygen

low air pressure on the body

9. The dilutor demand regulator functions

only when the supply valve is opened by the user

when the user breathes in

all the time

10. To measure moisture in an oxygen system use

a hygrometer using the dew point method

litmus paper

a glass plate

11. Oxygen cylinder test dates

are painted in white on the cylinder

may be stencilled on the neck of the cylinder

are variable depending on discharge

12. O2 system pressure has leaked away after charging. What is the most probable cause?

Supernumerator regular

Breathing regulator

Temperature compensator

13. If an O2 system is leaking, where would you most likely find the cause?

Breathing masks are the most common cause of leaks. O2 systems being turned on during pilot pre flight checks.

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Breathing mask

Thermal Relief Valve

Loose connection

14. As the cabin altitude reaches 3042 metres

the 02 masks deploy automatically and hang half way extended

the 02 masks deploy automatically and the crew activates the system from the emergency panel

the 02 masks deploy automatically and the crew must activate the system from the cockpit

15. Oxygen cylinders are normally fitted with

oxygen purity gauge

temperature gauge

pressure and quantity gauges

16. A demand regulator in a portable oxygen bottle opens

all the time

when breathing

when 100% selected

17. Portable oxygen bottles are fitted with

an overpressure indicator

a demand regulator

an over temperature indicator

18. American made crew oxygen cylinders are

green in colour with a LH thread

green in colour with a RH thread

black in colour with a RH thread

19. Which connector has a left hand thread?

Freon

N2

O2

20. What is the principle of an O2 generator?

Sodium chlorate and iron mixed by an electronic detonator

Sodium chlorate and iron using a mechanical detonator producing O2 when mixed with air

Sodium chloride and iron mixed by an electronic detonator

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21. What pressure are oxygen cylinders usually pressurised to?

1800 PSI

300 PSI

3000 PSI

22. Oxygen storage cylinders, once charged should be

turned on by crew

turned on and safety wire-locked

turned off

23. A thermal compensator is used in

an hydraulic system

a fuel system

an oxygen system

24. When charging an oxygen bottle with gaseous oxygen, the oxygen is

passed into the bottle as quickly as possible to keep the temperature down

passed into the bottle slowly to keep the temperature at approximately ambient

passed into the bottle at any rate as this does not affect temperature

25. Where are the left handed threads found in an oxygen system?

Line valve

Charging connection

Shut-off valve

26. Portable O2 diluter demand valve works when

the user breathes in

100% is selected

less than 500 psi is in bottle

27. A double headed oxygen pressure regulator is used for

additional flightcrew

extra supply in case of emergency

changes in altitude

28. If an aircraft suddenly drops pressure at 14, 000 ft

attendant must drop masks

passenger must get mask from overhead stowage

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masks drop automatically

29. How do oxygen cylinders show over pressure?

Green rupturing disc

Audible warning

Red rupturing disc

30. The life of an aircraft oxygen cylinder is

4 years

10 years

2 years

31. A discharged chemical generator is indicated by

a broken tell-tale wire

a change in colour

a protruding pin

32. A chemical oxygen generator has a supply duration of at least

15 minutes

5 minutes

30 minutes

33. The oxygen line service valve must be

wire locked open

wire locked closed

only be wire locked with telltale wire

34. Oxygen equipment must be carried by aircraft capable of flying above

10,000ft

4,000 ft

8,000ft

35. The critical altitude for oxygen requirement is approximately

4,000 ft

25,000 ft

38,000 ft

36. If oxygen is not being supplied in normal flight conditions, the cabin altitude must be

at a maximum of 12,000 ft.

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below 10,000 ft.

at or below 8,000 ft.

37. Pressure breathing systems must be used at altitudes

below 40,000 ft.

above 30,000 ft.

above 40,000 ft.

38. In a diluter demand oxygen system

each member of the crew has a continuous oxygen supply

oxygen is supplied with a continuous pressure flow

each member of the crew has a regulator

39. In a continuous flow oxygen system, oxygen is supplied

on passenger inhaling into the mask

when the mask is plugged into the socket

only when the supply has been regulated by the pilot

40. In the diluter demand oxygen system, selection of emergency on this regulator will result in

100% oxygen supply as the user inhales

100% oxygen continuous flow at positive pressure

100% oxygen at positive pressure

41. The cylinder of a portable oxygen set is made of

aluminium

alloy steel

stainless steel

42. Portable oxygen cylinders are normally charged to

1,800 p.s.i.

2,000 p.s.i.

1,200 p.s.i.

43. Rate of flow of oxygen is given in

pounds/minute

litres/minute

litres/pounds

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44. Oxygen cylinders are removed for overhaul and tested

every 4 years

every 6 years

every 3 years

45. Oxygen bottle capacity varies between

100 - 3200 litres

200 - 2250 litres

80 - 2250 litres

46. Oxygen bottle test and working pressures can be found

stencilled on the bottle

stamped on the neck ring

stamped on a metal label

47. After installation, the oxygen bottle on/off valve is

left in the 'on' position

left in the 'off' position until required

wire locked in the 'on'

48. Dangerous pressure rise in oxygen cylinders

is relieved by a thermostat

is relieved by a bursting disc

is relieved by under pressurising the bottle

49. To avoid condensation forming in an oxygen cylinder

cylinder pressure is left at 200/300 p.s.i.



50. What determines the material used for oxygen pipe lines?

The pressure used in the system

The whims of the aircraft designer

The length of the pipe runs

51. The direction of flow in an oxygen non return valve is indicated

by colour coding

by an arrow

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by visual inspection

52. Oxygen filters are made of

carbon fibres

sintered bronze

steel wool

53. Satisfactory operation of the oxygen systems is indicated by

pressure indicators

flow indicators

lack of Anoxia

54. If a binding thread needs attention on an oxygen system

no lubricant may be used whatsoever

Teflon tape may be used

distilled water may be used sparingly

55. The international marking for a breathing oxygen pipeline is a series of

rectangles

dots

diamonds

56. Cylinders containing purified oxygen for breathing are painted

white with a black collar

black with a white collar

black

57. A suitable leak detecting solution for use on oxygen systems is

grease free medical soap

leak testing solution to Spec. MIL-L-25567B

soapy water

58. When charging an oxygen bottle with gaseous oxygen, the oxygen is

passed into the bottle slowly to keep temperature at approximately ambient

passed into the bottle at any rate as this does not affect temperature

passed into the bottle as quickly as possible to keep the temperature down

59. In areas closely associated with oxygen systems, particular care must be taken to avoid leaving

traces of oils or greases

264


magnesium particles

acrylic based plastic materials

60. When working in the vicinity of an oxygen system

the area must be well ventilated

no electrical power must be used

oil must not come into contact with the system

61. A chemical oxygen generator operates at

45°K at 10 psi for 15 minutes

45°C at 10 psi for 15 minutes

45°F at 10 psi for 15 minutes

62. When charging an oxygen bottle in situ

charge slowly through a water trap

charge in accordance with the temperature/pressure graph

slacken off the retaining straps first

63. The gauge fitted to an oxygen bottle indicates

purity

pressure

temperature

64. The application of thread lubrication tape in an oxygen system should be

applied to all except the first two threads and not more than one complete wrap of tape

applied to all the threads and not more than one complete wrap of tape

applied to all except the first two threads and not more than 3 complete wraps of tape.

65. High pressure lines in oxygen systems are made of

stainless steel

aluminium alloy

titanium

66. Lubricate oxygen connector threads using

WD40

Teflon tape

hellerene

67. How is an expended chemical oxygen generator indicated?

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A pressure seal would be broken

The indicator pin would be protruding

By a change in colour of heat sensitive paint

68. Oxygen purging is a process of

measuring the flow rate from the regulator

pressure testing the system

removing moisture from the system

69. To check an oxygen system for moisture

a sniff test is used

a hygrometer is used

pass 72 litres/min through a filter paper in a clean glass

Pneumatic/Vacuum (ATA 36)

1. Two compressors driven by separate engines use

PRVs

NRVs to prevent compressors driving each other

Interconnected to share loads

2. When the moisture separator is purged in a pneumatic system, it dumps

the whole system

just the moisture trap

the system between compressor and regulator valve

3. High pressure pneumatic pump is a

butterfly pump

spur gear

reciprocating pump

4. A silica gel desiccant is required to be replaced

when half pink and half blue

when all pink

when all blue

5. High pressure pneumatic source is a

centrifugal Compressor

266


butterfly pump

reciprocating pump

6. On a high pressure pneumatic system, if the drain plug for oil and water is left open for long periods of time, the system would

lose pneumatic pressure partially

lose pressure from the compressor side only

lose all pressure

7. In a pneumatic system, the maintainer valve will be fitted in supply lines to

essential equipment

all equipment

non-essential equipment

8. If the pneumatic water drain trap is left open for a long time it will drain

all the system

just the moisture trap

between the compressor and the PRV

9. What is important about the air entering a dry air pump?

It must be filtered

It must be pressure controlled

It must be temperature controlled

10. The pneumatic system pump is a

rotor vane type

piston type

centrifugal type

11. What type of compressor is used on a pneumatic system?

Rotary vane type

Positive displacement type

Spur gear type

Water/Waste (ATA 38)

1. What is the purpose of thermal protection on electric toilet motor?

Prevent motor overheating and become fire hazard

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Prevent toilet freezing

Stop motor running beyond 10 seconds if timer become unserviceable

2. The potable water is delivered to the galleys and toilets by

electrical pump

pneumatic pressure

gravity

3. Toilet flush motor is protected from overheat by

water cooling

thermal protection

cooling fan on timer switch

4. Drinking water pipes are prevented from freezing by

wrapping the pipes with heated tapes or ribbons

installation of neoprene foam insulation

placing the pipes adjacent to hot water piping

5. A toilet recirculation fan is unserviceable in flight.

Close toilet until landing

It can be overcome by thermal compensating device

You can use the toilet as the toxic chemical toilet

6. The process of hyperchlorination is to

fill the tank with potable water

decontaminate the potable system

decontaminate the soil tank

7. Waste water drain masts

are heated using low amperage with the aircraft on ground only

are not heated

are heated using low amperage in the Air and on ground

8. The heater used on a drain mast would be a

induction heater

ribbon heater

hot air blower

9. Toilet waste valves are

IAW B737-400 mmel/ddg item 38-2, the associate lavatory system may be inop. with lav door secured closed and placard 'INOPERATIVE- DO NOT ENTER'. Toilet recirc fan is part of the lav system

268


spring loaded open

spring loaded closed

not spring loaded

10. Toilets are the subject of

AWN 80

AWN 83

AWN 79

11. The centralised soil tank system is flushed by

recycled soil water

potable water

racasan

On Board Maintenance Systems

1. A modern aircraft CMC uses

a CRT screen

a magnetic fault indicator

an LED display

2. A Flight Data Recorder is activated when

the helicopter's engines are started

the helicopter takes off

when power is applied to the helicopter

3. An aircraft condition monitoring system

detects the source of a fault

stores information for long term error analysis

sends information to the central maintenance cell

4. In an autoland aircraft fitted with a CMC

all faults are recorded in Non-Volatile memory

only Primary Faults are recorded

all faults are recorded in Volatile memory

5. In a CMC system, where would you find a 'real time' fault?

In Fault

In Test

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In Fault History

6. In a CMC, warning signals are generated by

Warning computer

FMC

CMC

7. One of the inputs in a CMC is autopilot controls. The data will be stored in

erased only after end of sector

volatile memory

non-volatile memory

8. The real time on a CMC is when

ground test page is selected on the CDU

existing faults page is selected on the CDU

fault history page is selected on the CDU

9. A MCDU is

to transmit data to ground

to dialog with the central maintenance computer

to store fault data

10. With a ACMS quick access recorder

you must use digital tape

the tape can have been used previously if it is first bulk erased

the tape must not have been used before

270


TEST 1

1.Above the glideslope, the ILS glideslope signal modulation is

90 Hz

90 KHZ

150 Hz

2.In aircraft hydraulic systems, it is permissible to use

any fluid of the same specific gravity

any hydraulic fluid available

only the specified fluid

3.To check an oxygen system for moisture

pass 72 litres/min through a filter paper in a clean glass

a hygrometer is used

a sniff test is used

4.What is the purpose of diode in a power GCR?

To prevent back-flow of current in the EMF coil

To speed up the operation

To allow flow in the event of failure of the relay

5.How are passenger door pressure loads transmitted to the fuselage structure?

Through the latching mechanism

By door stops

By the pressure seal

6.To position the bogie beam at a suitable angle for retraction and landing, a

hop damper is used

snubber is used

castoring damper is used

7.A fire detection system can pass through one zone to another providing

it is separated by steel

the system is protected

the system is duplicated

8.How often do hand-held extinguishers have to be weighed?

271


Annually

Every 5 years

Bi-annually

9.Pressure refuelling is carried out at

40 PSI

20 PSI

15 PSI

10.For a particular I.A.S. as the density decreases with altitude, the T.A.S.

decreases

remains the same

increases

11.In large air conditioning systems, the main fan is activated to

ensure positive duct pressure is maintained

ensure conditioned air is distributed

ensure conditioned air is distributed and maintain positive duct pressure

12.The following takes place at the transition point on a wing:

The boundary layer makes the transition from laminar flow to the turbulent boundary layer

The total dynamic and static pressure comes to a standstill

The airflow separates completely from the wing surface

13.Extending the flaps while maintaining a constant angle of attack (all other factors constant)

the aircraft will sink suddenly

the aircraft will yaw

the aircraft will climb

14.The advantages of integral fuel tanks are that they

use the maximum volume for fuel and have the minimum amount of weight

are cheaper to manufacture, more durable and easier to maintain

are easier to design and construct and use the maximum volume of fuel

15.When checking a nicad battery in situ for serviceability

the electrical circuits must be isolated before installing shorting strips

a load is applied to the battery and the voltmeter reading noted

a hydrometer must be used

272


16.To ensure that a wing stalls at the root first, stall wedges are

installed on the wing leading edge at the wing tip

installed on the wing leading edge at the wing root

installed at the wing trailing edge at the wing root

17.Total Drag at high Mach numbers is a combination of

profile drag, form drag, induced drag and wave drag

induced drag, wave drag, form drag, skin friction drag and interference drag

wave drag, interference drag, form drag, and induced drag

18.When inflating a tyre and you notice ice in the valve stem

wait for ice to melt before carrying on with inflation

heat the valve stem gently with a blow torch

carry on inflating as ice in the valve stem is no problem

19.Due to the change of lift forces resulting from the extension of flaps in flight

nose should be raised, increasing AoA

nose should be lowered, reducing AoA

nose should remain in the same position, maintaining same AoA

20.What is true regarding deployment of Slats / Krueger flaps?

Krueger flaps increase the critical angle of attack, Slats do not

Slats form a slot, Krueger flaps do not

Slats increase the critical angle of attack, Krueger flaps do not

21.Buckling in a semi-monocoque structure is prevented by

longerons

bulkheads

stringers

22.Vortex generators are fitted to

move transition point forwards

advance the onset of flow separation

move transition point rearwards

23.Glideslope controls autopilot in

roll

yaw

273


pitch

24.The transition point located on the wing is the point where

airflow starts separating from the wing

the boundary layer changes from laminar flow to turbulent flow

the airflow changes from subsonic to supersonic flow

25.Ram Air Turbines have variable fan blades to

maintain a constant speed

produce maximun hydraulic pressure required by the system

provide a constant flow rate

26.What is the main purpose of a frise aileron?

Increase drag on the up going wing

Decrease drag on the up going wing

Help pilot overcome aerodynamic loads

27.A wing mounted stall warning vane

moves down at impending stall

moves up at impending stall

gives a visual indication of impending stall

28.Bending stresses are a combination of

torsional and compression stresses

tension and compression stresses

tension and shear stresses

29.On a mono-spar wing, what gives the wing its profile contour?

Milled stringers

The position of the spars

Ribs

30.The GPS satellite system consists of

20 satellites and 5 standby satellite



31.FM improvements affect what system?

VHF, VOR and ILS

274


ADF, VHF and ILS

ADF, VOR and ILS

32.The pneumatic system pump is a

piston type

centrifugal type

rotor vane type

33.What is the reply frequency of an aircraft transponder?

1090 MHz

1030 MHz

1000 MHz

34.In an artificial horizon Pendulosity Error is caused by




35.To enable a hydraulic system to operate two components with different pressures, a

pressure reducing valve is used

pressure relief valve is used

pressure regulating valve is used

36.Critical Mach No. may be increased by

using more powerful engines

sweeping back the wing

using a higher thickness/chord ratio wing

37.Wing bending and shear loads are taken by

spar cap

main spar

skin

38.How may the basic principle of the radio altimeter be described?

As a comparison of radio altitude against a barometric altitude referenced to ISA sea level (1013.25mb)

As a measure of the time between a RF pulse transmission and the reception of its echo from the ground directly below the aircraft

As a series of radio pulses to the ground their frequency depending on the expansion or contraction of an evacuated capsule and the deflection of an E and I bar transducer

275


39.Subsequent to passing through the primary heat exchanger, the supply air in a turbo-fan cold air system flows to the

inter cooler or secondary heat exchanger

fan

turbine

40.The final coat of sealing in a integral fuel tank is called

interfay

brush coat

fillet

41.Which systems provide envelope modulation information for a Ground Proximity Warning System (GPWS)

Autothrottle

Flaps/undercarriage

Rudder/ailerons

42.When turbulence mode is selected, which other mode will not be available?

VOR

Heading Hold

ALT Hold

43.Stalling speed in a 15° bank level turn is 60kt. The stalling speed in a 45° bank level turn will be

70 kts

60 kts

50 kts

44.If the weight of an aircraft is increased, the maximum lift-to-drag ratio will

not be affected

increase

decrease

45.When entering a stall, the CG of a straight wing will (i) and of a strongly swept wing will (ii)

(i) not move, (ii) not move

(i) move aft, (ii) move aft

(i) move aft, (ii) not move

46.Composite brake units

have less weight than normal brake units and have increased efficiency at high temperatures

weigh the same as normal brake units and fade away at high temperatures

276


have less weight than normal brake units but fade away at high temperatures

47.Toilets are the subject of

AWN 80

AWN 79

AWN 83

48.Upper surface wing skin is usually made from

2024

7075

5056

49.A tab which assists the pilot to move a flying control by moving automatically in the opposite direction to the control surface is called a

servo tab

geared balance tab

trim tab

50.A capacitive fire wire

will neither work nor test if broken circuit

will work but not test if broken circuit

will work but not test if short circuited

51.An over station sensor (OSS) detects

radio deviation signals proportional to distance from a localiser transmitter

the rapid rate of the VOR signal over the cone of confusion

radio deviation signals proportional to distance from a VOR transmitter

52.One of the principles of cooling employed in an air cycle system is

by surface heat exchange in the C.A.U.

conversion of heat energy to mechanical energy in the C.A.U.

by compression of ambient air across a turbine

53.The angle of attack at which a wing stalls will

remain the same regardless of centre of gravity position

increase if the centre of gravity is moved forward

increase if the centre of gravity is moved aft

54.The control of ventilating and pressurising air released to atmosphere is achieved by a

pressure controller/dump valve combination

277


pressure controller/discharge valve combination

discharge valve/inwards relief valve combination

55.If an aircraft has alkaline batteries, the battery compartment drain pipes will be

stainless steel

aluminium alloy

plastic

56.On passenger aircraft of two or more zones

the seat backs fold forward at over wing emergency exits

the emergency exits are to be clearly signed

there should be at least one exit per zone

57.What is the maximum allowable concentration (by volume) of carbon monoxide in occupied aircraft compartment?

0.01 % (100 p.p.m)

0.02 % (200 p.p.m)

0.005% (50 p.p.m)

58.How are passenger reading lights normally tested?

Each one is switched on individually at passenger panel

By using a READ LIGHT TEST switch on the cabin attendant panel

By using a READ LIGHT TEST switch at any passenger panel

59.Frequency (Hz) is the number of cycles per

revolution

minute

second

60.'Frequency wild' alternators supply

resistive circuits

capacitive circuits

inductive circuits

61.You would expect to find a squib connected to

a fire detection system

a fire suppression system

a smoke detection system

62.On engine shutdown, what prevents GCR being tripped?

278


Under-frequency

Under-current

Under-volt

63.When pressurising the aircraft on the ground for test purposes, internal doors, cupboards etc. must be

all closed

all open

removed

64.When replacing a flexible pipe

do a bonding check

tighten only hand tight

use two spanners to stop pipe from twisting

65.How is the the glideslope frequency chosen on the navigation control panel?

Via the G/S selector knob

It is not manually chosen. It is paired with the localizer frequency

It is not manually chosen. It is paired with the VOR frequency

66.An artificial feel system is required

for power assisted control systems

for power operated control systems

for proportional control systems

67.The servicing and charging of nickel-cadmium and lead-acid batteries together in the same service area is likely to result in

contamination of both types of batteries

normal battery service life

increased explosion and/or fire hazard

68.The Turn and Slip indicator employs

a rate gyro

an azimuth gyro

a vertical gyro

69.What are the four stresses to be considered when building an aircraft?

Compression, Torsion, Tension, Shear

Compression, Torsion, Stress, Strain

Compression, Tension, Torsion, Stress

279


70.When the fire-handle switch is pulled, a

red warning light stays on. Generator, hydraulics, & fuel is cut off

red warning light goes off. Generator goes offline

red warning light stays on. Generator, hydraulics & fuel stays on

71.After a tank bag has been replaced, a fuel flow test should be carried out at

tank outlet

engine inlet

tank shut-off valve point

72.Before filling a vapour cycle cooling system

pre-heat the system to 100°F

apply suction to remove air and moisture

flush the system with a solvent

73.In typical vapour cycle system, the sub-cooler

cools the vapour further to prevent slugging

is a heat exchanger to superheat the vapour

delivers extra cooling effect when the aircraft is on ground

74.Cylinders containing purified oxygen for breathing are painted

black

white with a black collar

black with a white collar

75.On selection of MLG down, the gear extends then begins to retract again. The cause is

a faulty actuator

gear lowered at too high an airspeed

a faulty selector valve

76.What happens if you reduce the curvature of the leading edge?

Advance the shock wave formation

It will have no effect on shock wave formation

Delay the shock wave formation

77.The laser ring gyro

has a stabilized platform

does not have a gimbal but does have rotating parts

280


does not have a gimbal

78.One of the advantages of the semi-monocoque construction is that it

is easier to manufacture

takes all the loads in the skin

shares the loads

79.HF aerials have weak points designed at

both ends

the back end

the front end

80.Restrictor valves are fitted in hydraulic systems to

restrict the rate of pressure build-up


control rate of system operation

81.A fire detection system should be

positioned in a location determined by the manufacture during the design

designed to detect fires only

designed to withstand vibration & mechanical loads sustained during normal operation

82.A constant speed drive unit has a warning light indication

for when it is disconnected from the generator

for low speed

for low oil pressure

83.INS wind speed is calculated from

the vectorial addition of IAS and GS

the vectorial addition of TAS and GS

the vectorial addition of IAS and TAS

84.When the cabin differential pressure has reached the required value and the height is maintained

the pressure system ceases to function until the cabin pressure is reduced

constant mass airflow is permitted through the cabin

all pressurized air is spilled to atmosphere

85.In a pulsed width modulating type voltage regulator, the generator output voltage is increased by

decreasing the mark to space ratio

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increasing the voltage sensed by the voltage regulator

increasing the mark to space ratio

86.If an aircraft has ability to transfer fuel in flight, provision must be made to

stop engine from using tank during transfer

provide overflow facility to dump fuel

shut off fuel before structural damage

87.A constant delivery pump has its output varied with

gears

regulators

servo pressure

88.In an AC distribution system, the purpose of the synchronising bus-bar is to

provide interconnection between the generator load busbars

provide a means of monitoring the load

supply essential services

89.A cold air unit allows for cabin temperatures to be

same as ambient temperature, despite compression heating

a little more than ambient air temperature

lower than ambient air temperature despite compression heating

90.The Middle Marker beacon is what colour?

White

Amber

Blue

91.Frequencies used for a Microwave Landing System are

5 - 5.1 MHz

5 - 5.1 GHz

5 - 5.1 KHz

92.On a CWS, which has the highest priority?

Hydraulic pump failure

Fire warning

Duct overheat

93.What manoeuvre does TCAS II advise the pilot to make?

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TA

either RA or TA

RA

94.A TCAS blade aerial is

unidirectional

a 1-band omnidirectional array

a 1-band directional array

95.A universal protractor used to measure degrees of aileron travel should be zeroed

when the aircraft is in level flight attitude

with the aileron in the neutral position

with the aileron in the down position

96.In a constant frequency AC system, reactive load sharing is achieved by regulating the


voltage regulator

generator speed

97.In a diluter demand oxygen system

oxygen is supplied with a continuous pressure flow

each member of the crew has a continuous oxygen supply

each member of the crew has a regulator

98.Over-voltage condition trips the generator. The time taken to trip the GCU depends on

time delay circuit

amplitude of voltage

closing of fuel and hydraulic valves

99.The cabin altitude is




100.How is an aircraft battery rated?

Ampere hours

Joules

Watts

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101.Airworthiness requirements for large aircraft are found in

ANO 25

JAR 25

CS 25

102.What pressure are oxygen cylinders usually pressurised to?

1800 PSI

300 PSI

3000 PSI

103.A laser gyro output is

directly proportional to frequency addition

inversely proportional to angular turning rate

directly proportional to angular turning rate

104.An absolute pressure gauge measures

the applied pressure referred to a perfect vacuum

pressures extremely accurately

the applied pressure referred to atmospheric pressure

105.How does an aircraft distinguish its own Distance Measuring Equipment reply from those for other aircraft?

By modulation of an audio tone

By using an alternate frequency

By changing at random the time delay between the pulse pairs of the interrogation signal

106.How many programs can a FMC store?

Two. One active and one standby

One current

Two. Both active

107.Wheel speed information is used in auto speed brake systems

to ensure the aircraft has touched down and to give a slight time lapse before spoiler deployment

to ensure the aircraft is still rolling

to stow the spoilers automatically when the aircraft has nearly stopped

108.What determines the material used for oxygen pipe lines?

The whims of the aircraft designer

The length of the pipe runs

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The pressure used in the system

109.The ADIs attitude information is normally obtained from the aircraft's

vertical gyros

directional gyros

attitude rate gyros

110.The input to a stick shaker comes from

angle of attack, and sometimes the rate of change in angle of attack

the airspeed, and sometimes the rate of change in airspeed

the angle of attack only

111.ATA zone 330 is the

vertical stabiliser

left horizontal stabiliser

right horizontal stabiliser

112.From where is bearing information received for display on the digital-distance radio-magnetic indicator (DDRMI)?

From VOR and ADF systems

From VOR only

From ADF only

113.Calcium Chromate tablets can be fitted in integral tanks. Before installation the linen bag should be wetted with

Kerosene

Water

Methylated Spirit

114.Seat track cutouts provide for various seat spacings, usually in

one inch increments

one foot increments

half inch increments

115.A large aircraft air conditioning system's cabin temperature control

is selectable for each zone individually from the flight station

involves modulating the pack valve

all zone temperatures are controlled from one master switch

116.Topping up a Ni-Cad battery in situ

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is permitted

is only allowed in the shop

is not allowed

117.A redundant structure is

a safe-life structure

on-condition structure

a failsafe structure

118.Paint remover substances

should only be used once

are damaging to some aircraft parts

are not damaging to any aircraft parts

119.The mass flow delivery from engine driven blowers is controlled by

automatic control devices

engine speed variations

spill valves

120.On a modern aircraft flight instrument display system, radio deviation is shown on the

EADI

EHSI & EADI

EHSI

121.Which instrument are most likely to damage if you have a rapid drop in pressure, when carrying out a pitot-static leak check?

vertical speed indicator

Air speed indicator

Altimeter

122.A fuel crossfeed valve is usually in

the closed position

its last position

the open position

123.On large aircraft, braked wheel assemblies are normally inflated with

nitrogen

nitrogen and not more than 5% of air

an argon and CO2 mixture

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124.Track altitude in a radio altimeter system begins at

2 500 ft radio alt.

1 000 ft radio alt.

10 000 ft radio alt.

125.A Schuler pendulum has a period of oscillation of

8.4 minutes

84.4 minutes

84.4 seconds

126.A lead-acid battery is considered to be fully charged when the


S.G. and voltage remain constant for specified period

S.G. reaches 1.180

127.Voltage is controlled by

the constant speed drive

the voltage regulator

the swashplate

128.Deploying a secondary flight control surface will

decrease the angle of attack of the aerofoil

increase the angle of attack of the aerofoil

not affect the angle of attack

129.Cabin differential pressure is the pressure difference between

8,000ft and standard barometric pressure

the pressure inside the aircraft and the ambient air pressure

sea level air pressure and indicated dynamic pressure in the cabin

130.A flying control mass balance weight


ensures that the C of G always acts to aid the pilot thus relieving control column load


************ THE END ************

Module 11A

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Transcript of Module 11A