JMET 2008 Original Paper

8/14/2019 JMET 2008 Original Paper

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The error is in the third part of the sentence. The word influence should be influencing.It can also be corrected alternately by inserting a relative pronoun; that is of factors thatinfluence..The other statements when sequenced arecorrect.Choice (A)

Direction for questions 3 and 4:Fill in the blanks with the MOST APPROPRIATE pair given inthe options:

3. Because he was __________, he __________ human society.(A) a stereotype, followed(B) a revolutionary, rebelled(C) a martyr, killed(D) a misanthrope, shunnedSolution:The two words in option (A) do not render the sentence meaningful. The word stereotype is notcongruent with followed: it is apt to associate a stereotype with repeated. Option (B) is alsoruled out as the word rebelled should be followed by the preposition against, a human society

cannot be killed, option (C) is erroneous. Option (D) is both logically as well as grammaticallycorrect. Choice(D)

Directions:Complete the sentence given in Question 5, by replacing the underlined portionwith the most suitable phrase from the given options:5. Because mobile phones emit signals that can interfere with cockpit-to-control tower transmissions,

airplane passengers use of these instruments at all times that the airplane is in motion, evenwhile being on the ground. are prohibited.(A) at the times during which the airplane, even while on the ground, is in motion, are(B) during times of the airplane as being in motion, even on the ground, is(C) when the airplane is in motion, even while on the ground, is(D) during airplane motion, even when it is on the ground, are

Solution:The subject (in the clause) use of these instruments requires the verb is (is prohibited). Thisrules out option (A) and (D) which have are. Option (B) is incorrect with as being. Option (C) isgrammaticallycorrect.

Choice (C)

Direction:Questions 6 9 relate the passage given below:Number of words in this passage : 587Beliefs soften the hardships, even can make them pleasant. In God, man can find very strong

consolation and support. Without Him, man has to depend upon himself. At testing moments, vanity, ifany, evaporates and man cannot dare to defy the general beliefs; if he does, then we must concludethat he has got certain other strengths than mere vanity. This is exactly the situation now. Judgment isalready too well known. Within a week it is to be pronounced. What is the consolation with theexception of the idea that I am going to sacrifice my life for a cause? A God-believing Hindu might beexpecting to be reborn as a king, a Muslim or a Christian might dream of the luxuries to be enjoyed inparadise and the reward he is to get for his sufferings and sacrifices. But what am I to expect? I knowthe moment the rope is fitted round my neck and rafters removed, from under my feet: that will be thefinal moment, that will be the last moment. I, or to be more precise, my soul as interpreted in themetaphysical terminology, shall all be finished there. Nothing further.A short life of struggle with no such magnificent end shall in itself be the reward if I have the courageto take it in that light. That is all. With no selfish motive or desire to be awarded here or hereafter,

quite disinterestedly have I devoted my life to the cause of independence, because I could not dootherwise. The day we find a great number of men and women with this psychology who cannot


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devote themselves to anything else than the service of mankind and emancipation of the sufferinghumanity that day shall inaugurate the era of liberty.Not to become a king, nor to gain any other rewards here, or in the next birth or after death inparadise, shall they be inspired to challenge the oppressors, exploiters, and tyrants, but to cast off theyoke of serfdom from the neck of humanity and to establish liberty and peace shall they tread this to

their individual selves perilous and to their noble selves the only glorious imaginable path. Is the pridein their noble cause to be misinterpreted as vanity? Who dares to utter such an abominable epithet?To him, I say either he is a fool or a knave. Let us forgive him for he cannot realize the depth, theemotion, the sentiment and the noble feelings that surge in that heart. His heart is dead as a merelump of flesh, his eyes are weak, the evils of other interests having been cast over them. Self-relianceis always liable to be interpreted as vanity. It is sad and miserable but there is no help.You go and oppose the prevailing faith, you go and criticize a hero, a great man, who is generallybelieved to be above criticism because he is thought to be infallible, the strength of your argumentshall force the multitude to decry you as vainglorious. This is due to the mental stagnation: criticismand independent thinking are the two indispensable qualities of a revolutionary. Because Mahatmaji isgreat, therefore none should criticize him. Because he has risen above, therefore everything he says may be in the field of politics or religion, economics or ethics is right. Whether you are convincedor not you must say, Yes. Thats true. This mentality does not lead towards progress. It is rather tooobviously, reactionary.

6. Which of the following statements BEST captures the essence of the passage?(A) When we criticize a great man like Mahatmaji, we are motivated by arrogance and a desire to

question anything good through meaningless arguments.(B) All human beings ought to desists from believing anything in order to be able to achieve

something meaningful.(C) The author is trying to present his defense for not believing in the existence of God, even

though it is probably more convenient to do so, than going against the generally acceptednorms of the society.

(D) It is wrong to believe in God for achieving kingship or for rewards in this world, or for paradiseafter death, and instead, one should believe in God without expecting anything in return.

Explanatory note:Choice (A) is negated by the last para. Choice (D) is also not true the author does not say it iswrong to believe in God or to expect reward. Between choices (B) and (C), the latter can be ruledout because the authors tone is not in the defensive. Choice (B) is backed by paras 2 and 4. It isvery clear from para 2 that the author is not only very confident of his attitude but he alsopersuades others to be like him. For example, in the last sentence of para 2, The day we find agreat number of men and women he is far from being on the defensive. He is advocating toothers how to lead a meaningful life. Choice (B)

7. Which one of the following statements can be deduced from the above passage?

(A) Individuals who neither believe in God nor in the infallibility of great men are arrogant.(B) Belief is convenient as it even makes a hard reality at present more bearable because of a

promise of a better future.(C) Only some individuals are able to attain greatness and by following them uncritically the

society can make significant progress.(D) If you do not believe in God, then you can never hope to achieve anything great in life.

Explanatory note:Choices A, C and D are negated by the passage. Only choice B is true it is the authorsview. Choice (B)

8. Which of the following statements is NOT TRUE as per the passage?

(A) Pride in a noble cause should not be interpreted as vanity.(B) Service to mankind is the ultimate path to freedom.(C) Criticizing heroes and great men can lead to progress.

(D) The author is upset because he has nothing to expect in the after life.Explanatory note:


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Choice D is not true, the authors emotions have not been made evident anywhere. Choice (D)

9. The word vainglorious as used in the passage is EXACTLY OPPOSITE in meaning to:

(A) truthful (B) proud(C) dishonest (D) humble

Explanatory note:Vainglorious occurs in the third line of the last para. It means proud, the opposite, therefore, ishumble. Choice (D)

Directions for questions 10 to 12:Choose the grammatically CORRECT option from thesentences given below:10. (A) People in this bar often orders foods with beers. Foods here taste nice and beers are cheap.

(B) People in this bar often order food with beer. Food here tastes nice and beers are cheap.(C) People in this bar often order food with beer. Food here tastes nice and beer is cheap.(D) People in this bar often order food with beer. Foods here taste nice and beer is cheap.

Solution:Food is usually an uncountable noun. So is not used in plural form. We use foods only whenreferring to particular types of food: health foods, baby foods, etc. So sentence A and D areincorrect. In sentence A, it is inappropriate to use the word orders as the subject is in pluralnumber. In sentence B, it is incorrect to use beers. Only sentence C is a grammatically correctsentence. Choice(C)

11. (A) Each of the finalists were exceptionally good and the choice for the best one among all three

was very difficult indeed.(B) Each of the finalists was exceptionally good and choosing the best one among the three was

very difficult indeed.(C) Each of the finalists was exceptionally good and choosing the best one between the three was

very difficult indeed.(D) Each of the finalists were exceptionally good and the choices among all three were very

difficult indeed.Solution:In sentence A, the use of the verb were is incorrect. Each is generally followed by a singularverb. In sentence C it is inappropriate to use between. Between is used to talk about two,among is used to refer to more than two. In statement D use of were is erroneous. Use ofchoices also is incorrect as it is a noun. Choosing is more appropriate as it refers to the act ofselecting out of a great number. The correct option isB. Choice (B)

12. (A) I requested the principle to remove me from the operation since it was going against my

principals.(B) I need to move further away from home in order to continue farther education.

(C) Knowledge of economical theories need not be helpful in making economic products.(D) I have been working continuously for the last three months while she is continually taking daysoff.

Solution:In statement A the words principal `and principle are interchanged. Principal refers to first inrank or importance while principle would mean a personal code of conduct. In statement Bfurther and farther are interchanged, farther talks about physical distance where as furtherrefers to a more advanced point in time or space. In statement C economical and economic areinterchanged. Economical means avoiding waste. Economic relates to the subject dealing withgoods their production etc. The grammatically correct statement isD. Choice(D)

Direction: Questions 13 16 relate to the passage given below:


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Number of words in this passage : 420

Can poor countries afford to be green? That is a question which politicians in the developing worldhave often asked rather pointedly. To them, it seems that the obsession of some rich types with

preserving forests and saving cuddly animals like pandas or lemurs, while paying less attention to the

human beings living nearby, is both cynical and hypocritical. There is of course plenty of evidence that

greenery and growth are not polar opposites. After decades of expansion in China and other fast-

emerging economies, some of the negative side-effects and their impact on human welfare, above all

the death toll caused by foul air and water, are horribly clear. Yet, the relationship between growth

and the state of environment is far from simple. Some experts feel that poor countries have been quite

right to challenge the sort of green orthodoxy which rejects the very idea of economic growth. Indeed,

the single biggest variable in determining a countrys ranking is income per head. But that doesnt

imply that economic growth automatically leads to an improvement in the environment. Growth does

offer solutions to the sorts of environmental woes (local air pollution, for example) that directly kill

humans. This matters, because about a quarter of all deaths in the world have some link to

environmental factors. Most of the victims are poor people who are already vulnerable because of badliving conditions, lack of access to medicine, and malnutrition. Among the killers, especially of

children, in which the environment plays, a role, are diarrhoea, respiratory infections and malaria.

These diseases reinforce a vicious circle of poverty and hopelessness by depressing production.

According to the World Bank, the economic burden on society caused by bad environmental health

amounts to between 2% and 5% of GDP. As poor countries get richer, they usually invest heavily in

environmental improvements, such as cleaning up water supplies and improving sanitation, that boost

human health. But the link between growth and environmentally benign outcomes is much less clear

when it comes to the sort of pollution that fouls up nature (such as acid rain, which poisons lakes and

forests) as opposed to directly killing human beings. The key to addressing that sort of pollution is not

just money but good governance. Hence, the poor Dominican Republic is much healthier than

nearby Haiti, Costa Rica is far ahead of Nicaragua, in spite of broadly similar nature and resources,

and wealthy Belgium is the sick man of Western Europe, with an environmental record worse than

that of many developing countries.

13. The MOST APPROPRIATE title for the passage would be:

(A) How Green is their Growth?

(B) Green Orthodoxy

(C) Growth vs Greenery

(D) Global Warming

Explanatory note:

The most appropriate title for the passage is Growth vs Greenery because this comparison is both

explicit and implicit through out the passage. Choice (A) would be appropriate if the authors tone

was critical. Choice (B) focuses only on green orthodoxy whereas the author explores all aspects

of the subject what developed and developing countries do or can do, how important is ecology

to the well being of people etc. Choice (D) is irrelevant. Choice(C)


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14. Which one of the following statements CANNOT be inferred from the passage?

(A) Fast-emerging economies are responsible for polluting their environment.

(B) Bad environmental health affects a countrys production.

(C) Environment can be protected only after economic prosperity has been achieved.

(D) The link between the state of the environment and human health is ambiguous.

Explanatory note:

Choices (A) and (B) can be inferred from lines 6 to 8. Choice (D) is backed by the examples given

at the end of the passage. The same examples negate choice (C).

Choice (C)

15. The passage DOES NOT talk about:

(A) the impact of environmental health on economic growth.

(B) factors determining good governance.

(C) the impact of economic growth on environmental health.

(D) environmental factors affecting child mortality.

Explanatory note:

(A) and (C) are discussed through out the passage and (D) is also mentioned. While good

government is mentioned, factors determining it are not mentioned.

Choice (B)

16. Which one of the following can be MOST APPROPRIATELY inferred from the passage?

(A) Environmental health should be the single biggest variable in determining a countrys ranking.

(B) Poor countries cannot afford to save forests or protect cuddly animals.

(C) Haiti, Nicaragua and Belgium are the most polluted countries in the world.

(D) Economic progress can help to ease environmental woes, as long as the governance is good.

Explanatory note:


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Choice (A) cannot be inferred while environmental health is important, the passage does not say

or imply that it is the single biggest variable in determining a countrys ranking. Choice (C) cannot

be inferred; there is nothing to say that the countries mentioned are the most polluted in the

world. (B) cannot be inferred since the question at the beginning of the passage is not the

authors but the politicians view (as seen from To them in line 2). The author himself believes it

to be essential as when he speaks of diseases like Malaria. (D) can be inferred from the 5 th line

from the end money can be equated to economic progress.

Choice (D)

Directions for questions 17 and 18:The sentences given in the questions, when properlysequenced, from a coherent paragraph. Each sentence is labeled with a letter. Choose themost logical order of sentences from among the given options to construct a coherentparagraph.17. (a) Each new encounter with a new culture is fraught with peril.

(b) When successful, the feelings really are very much as though a major victory has been won.(c) Then the events occur and you return home either triumphant or defeated.(d) It is preceded by anxiety and information collection and rehearsal.(A) (d)-(c)-(b)-(a) (B) (a)-(d)-(c)-(b) (C) (c)-(b)-(a)-(d) (D) (b)-(a)-(d)-(c)

Solution:The pronoun it renders statement (d) incorrect as the first sentence of the para. Statement (c)talks of both victory and defeat and statement (b) then talks specifically of success; thus (c) and(b) form a pair. Statement (d) necessarily follows statement (a) as (a) talks of what a newencounter is fraught with and (d) talks of what precedes theencounter.

Choice (B)

18. (a) We are to make sure that we do not only see our destination being reached but also see ourown bodies reaching them.

(b) Some of us feel that deep down inside, we lack the enthusiasm for accomplishing what wereally desire.

(c) If this is the problem, then we are to practice our exercises.(d) This may be a sign that we lack respect for our inner self which results in low self-esteem.(A) (a)-(b)-(d)-(c) (B) (b)-(d)-(c)-(a) (C) (c)-(a)-(d)-(b) (D) (d)-(c)-(a)-(b)

Solution:The pronoun this in statement (c) and (d) renders them inappropriate as the opening statement.Thus, option (C) and (D) are ruled out. The pronoun this in statement (d) refers to lack ofenthusiasm mentioned in statement (b). Statement (b) being a generalized statement is better asan opening statement and statement (a) is more appropriate as a concluding statement. Thus,

option (B) is the most logicalsequence. Choice (B)

Direction for Questions 19 and 20:Choose the word which is OPPOSITE in meaning to theword given in CAPITAL LETTERS:19. TRACTABLE

(A) obedient (B) capable (C) corruptible (D) stubborn

Solution:Tractable means easily manageable. The word which is opposite in meaning isstubborn. Choice (D)

20. FATUOUS(A) stupid (B) obese (C) intelligent (D) sincere


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Solution:Fatuous means vacantly silly, purposeless. The word which is opposite in meaning isintelligent. Choice (C)

Direction for Questions 21 and 22: Choose the word which is CLOSEST in meaning to the word

given in CAPITAL LETTERS:21. MORIBUND

(A) terminal (B) morbid (C) temporary (D) mundane

Solution:Moribund is related to dying. So is terminal as in a terminaldisease. Choice (A)

22. DECIMATE

(A) reduce (B) destroy (C) bifurcate (D) divide

Solution:To decimate something is to destroy

that.Choice (B)Direction: In Questions 23 and 24, select the pair of words from the given options that bestexpresses a relationship SIMILAR to the pair in CAPITAL LETTERS.23. SIDEREAL : STARS

(A) ethereal : planets(B) chimeral : matter(C) horticultural : plants(D) supernatural : heaven

Solution:

The relationship in the given pair of words is that of the adjective to the corresponding noun.Option (C) is similar to the given pair. Something that is related to heaven is ethereal. Chimeralis related to illusion.. Tellurian is closer to terrestrial which is related toplanets. Choice (C)

24. INDUSTRIOUS : ASSIDUOUS

(A) impoverished : poor(B) affluent : impecunious(C) diagnosis : prognosis(D) impartial : biased

Solution:The given pair of words have a synonymous relation. The words in option (A) also share a similar

relationship. Hence is the required answer choice. Options (B) and (D) are antonyms. The wordsin option (C) are related but notsynonyms. Choice (A)

Direction:The direct speech in question 25 is rewritten in the indirect form in the optionsbelow. Identify the grammatically CORRECT option.25. He said, I am upset. My boss is not happy with my performance.

(A) He said that he was upset since his boss was not happy with his performance.(B) He said his boss is upset because he is unhappy with his performance.(C) He said that he is upset as because his boss is not happy with his performance.(D) He said he was upset with his performance since his boss is not happy.

Solution:The statement when written in the indirect form will read as He said that he was upset since hisboss was not happy with his performance. In statement B the use of is is incorrect. In statement


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C the use of the two conjunctions (as, because) is incorrect. In statement D the meaning of thestatement is changed. The correct optionA.

Choice (A)Direction: From the options given in Question 26, choose the sentence which contains an

INCORRECT SPELLING:26. (A) The dress complements you hair colour.

(B) When such adulatory remarks are circulated, we can only despise those who produce them.(C) There are too many dilettantes and not enough serious workers.(D) He has been a medicore student all his life.Solution:The sentence which contains an incorrect spelling is (D). The word wrongly spelt ismediocre. Choice (D)

Direction: Read the passage given below and answer Questions 27 30:

Number of words in this passage : 562

The starting point for our discussion is the common view expressed in the saying Necessity is themother of invention. That is, inventions supposedly arise when a society has an unfulfilled need.Would-be inventors, motivated by the prospect of money or fame, perceive the need and try to meetit. Some inventor finally comes up with a solution superior to an existing, unsatisfactory technology.Society adopts the solution if it is compatible with the societys values and other technologies. Someinventions do conform to this commonsense view of necessity as inventions mother. Eli Whitneys1794 invention of a cotton gin to replace laborious hand cleaning of cotton, and James Watts 1769invention of steam engine to solve the problem of pumping out water out of British coal mines weresome such instances. These familiar examples deceive us into assuming that other major inventionswere also responses to perceived needs. In fact, many or most inventions were developed by people

driven by curiosity or by a love of tinkering, in the absence of any initial demand for the product theyhad in mind. Once a device had been invented, the inventor then had to find an application for it. Onlyafter it had been in use for a considerable time did consumers come to feel that they needed it. Stillother devices, invented to serve one purpose, eventually found most of their use for otherunanticipated purposes. Some inventions in search of an initial use included most of the majortechnological breakthroughs of moderns times, including the airplane, the automobile, internalcombustion engine, electric light bulb, the phonograph and transistor. Thus, invention is often themother of necessity, rather than vice versa. For example, when Edison built his first phonograph in1877, he published an article listing ten uses to which his invention might be put. Reproduction ofmusic did not figure high on that list. Only after 20 years did Edison reluctantly concede that the mainuse of his phonograph was to play and record music. Again, when Nikolaus Otto built his first gasengine, in 1866, horses had been supplying peoples land transportation needs for nearly 600 years,supplemented increasingly by steam-powered railroads, for several decades. There was no crisis in

the availability of horses, no dissatisfaction with railroads. In 1896, Gottfried Daimler built the firsttruck. In 1905, motor vehicles were still expensive, unreliable toys for the rich. Public contentment withhorses and railroads remained high until World War I, when the military concluded that it really didneed trucks. Intensive postwar lobbying by truck manufacturers and armies finally convinced thepublic of its own needs and enabled trucks to begin to supplant horse drawn wagons in industrializedcountries. Thus the commonsense view of invention that served as our starting point reverses the roleof invention and need, and probably overstates the importance of rare geniuses such as Watt andEdison. That heroic theory of invention is encouraged by patent law, because an applicant for apatent must prove the novelty of the invention submitted. Inventors thereby have a financial incentiveto denigrate or ignore previous work. In truth, technology develops cumulatively, and through theinventions and improvements of many predecessors and successors, rather than in isolated heroicacts, and it finds most of its uses after it has been invented, rather than being invented to meet aforeseen need.

27. According to the passage:


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(A) airplanes and automobiles were invented out of curiosity.(B) curiosity and necessity are the main obstacles for invention.(C) the applications of an invention are often not apparent immediately.(D) society helps to fulfill an inventors need for money and fame.

Explanatory Note:

Choice (C) is true refer to the example of Edisons phonograph in the middle of the passage andthe last sentence of the passage. Choice (C)28. The last sentence of the passage implies that:

(A) the author does not believe in the concept of heroic inventions.(B) an invention does not always have to be in response to some perceived need.(C) isolated heroic acts do not give rise to inventions.(D) initial inventors are never recognized.Explanatory Note:Choice (B) can be inferred from the last one and a half lines of thepassage. Choice (B)

29. The MOST APPROPRIATE title for the passage would be:

(A) Mother of Necessity(B) Inventors or Villains?(C) The Heroic Theory of Invention(D) Inventions, not Necessities

Explanatory Note:Since the passage refutes the adage, Necessity is the mother of invention, an apt title would beInventions, not Necessities. Choice (D)

30. Which of the following statements is INCORRECT, as per the given passage?

(A) Patent laws facilitate unnecessary inventions.(B) Inventions give rise to needs in society.(C) Curiosity is the mother of invention.

(D) The military helped to popularize the use of trucks.Explanatory Note:Choices (B) and (C) are backed by lines 12 to 15. Choice (D) is backed by lines 13 to 11 from theend of the passage. Choice (A) is not stated. Choice (A)

SECTION 2LOGICAL REASONING

(Questions 31 60)

31. A man X started his walk from location P and later arrived at location R and at the same time

another person Y arrived at the location R, completing his walk from location Q. If both X and Ywalked without stopping, who walked at a faster average speed if:1. Y started walking 15 minutes after X.2. The distance from Q to R is less than the distance between P and R.(A) Statement 1 and 2 are both required to answer the question.(B) Not enough facts are given to answer the question.(C) Statement 1 alone is sufficient to answer the question but statement 2 alone is not sufficient.(D) Statement 1 contradicts statement 2.Solution:Given that,X came from P to R.Y came from Q to R.Both of them arrived at R at the same time. We have to find out, who among X and Y walked

faster.


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From (1) alone as there is no information about the distance no relation can be made about theirspeeds.From (2) alone,the distance between Q and R is less than the distance between P and R.As there is no information about the total time taken, no relation between speeds can be made.Combining (1) and (2), there is no data given about the difference in distance between P and Rand Q and R.

Hence, the question cannot beanswered.Choice (B)

Direction for Questions 32 and 33:Read the following passage and answer the questions.Though persons of any age can have cancer, recent research has shown that eating fiber rich dietmay reduce risk of some types of cancer. Modern life style has resulted in increased consumption ofjunk food that is low in fiber. We should fortify junk food with fiber.32. NO JUNK FOOD NO CANCER!

(A) The statement cannot be logically inferred from the passage.(B) The statement is a logical inference from the passage above.(C) The passage has contradicting statements.(D) None of the above.Solution:It is stated that fiber rich diet "may reduce" the risk of cancer. It is suggested to fortify junk foodwith fiber, because the consumption of junk food, which is low in fiber, has increased.

It is stated that junk food, if fortified with fiber may reduce the risk of cancer. "No junk food nocancer", implies that junk food is a reason for cause, which cannot be logically inferred from thepassage.

Choice (A)33. I: Cancer is a modern disease.

II: Modern life style and eating habits may have increased risk of cancer.

(A) Both I and II can be logically inferred from the above passage.(B) Neither I nor II can be logically inferred from the above passage.(C) Only I can be logically inferred from the above passage.(D) Only II can be logically inferred from the above passage

Solution:It is stated that fiber rich diet "may reduce" the risk of cancer. It is suggested to fortify junk foodwith fiber, because the consumption of junk food, which is low in fiber, has increased.

The passage is referring to food habit in life. Hence, I cannot be inferred. From the statement it isclear that those who take diet which is rich in fiber are at a lower risk of some types of cancer thanthose who do not. Hence, II can beinferred. Choice (D)

Direction for questions 34 36: The sentences given below when properly sequenced form acoherent paragraph. Each sentence in numbered. Select the most logical order of thesentences.34. (i) The energy task force that met here on Saturday is reported to have taken the decision for re-

tendering the two projects.(ii) The lowest tariff quoted by the firm for Kacahan project was Rs.2.83 per unit and for Bara

Rs.2.88 per unit.(iii) Global tenders for the two projects were invited in January 2008.(iv) This bid was set aside by cabinet decision on grounds that tariff was too high.(A) (i)-(iii)-(ii)-(iv) (B) (i)-(ii)-(iii)-(iv)(C) (i)-(iii)-(iv)-(ii) (D) (iii)-(ii)-(iv)-(i)

Solution:


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Calling for tenders is followed by bidding. Then the acceptability of the bid is checked. The leastquote itself is observed to be too high. Hence it is decided to re-tender.

The logical order is (iii) (ii) (iv) (i).

Choice (D)

35. (i) Heildi Kllum says that deep love keeps her marriage to Seal strong.(ii) The 34-year old beauty also said that she considered Seal to be Lenis (her daughter from herprevious marriage) real father.

(iii) Heidi Klum concluded by saying, I feel lucky that I have found Seal. He is my best friend.(iv) The super model who married the Kiss from Rose singer three years ago, stressed the

importance of love and believes that it is vital for happy relationship.(A) (i)-(iii)-(ii)-(iv) (B) (i)-(ii)-(iv)-(iii)(C) (iii)-(i)-(ii)-(iv) (D) (iv)-(ii)-(i)-(iii)

Solution:Statement (iii) refers to a conclusion. Hence, it has to be the last statement.Statement (iv) starts with the words "The supermodel" hence it cannot be the opening statement.Statement (i) is an assertion, which is strengthened in the further statements. Hence, it is the firststatement.Statement (ii) contains the words "also said".Hence, (ii) follows (i).

The logical order is (i) (ii) (iv) (iii).

Choice (B)36. (i) It is a record and particularly an interesting record that beats the year 1957 which was the

year of the baby boom.(ii) More babies were born in USA last year than in any other year in the history.(iii) 4,315,000 babies were born in USA last year.(iv) This baby boom is in contradiction to the recent US economy trend that is manifested in

soaring gas prices, rising inflation and cost of living.(A) (i)-(ii)-(iii)-(iv) (B) (ii)-(iv)-(iii)-(i)

(C) (ii)-(iii)-(i)-(iv) (D) (iii)-(i)-(iv)-(ii)

Solution:Statement (i) cannot be the first one because the word "It is a record" has no earlier reference.Statement (ii) is supported by statement (iii), which is described as a record in statement (i). Acount is made about this trend in statement (iv).

The logical order is (ii) (iii) (i) (iv).

Choice (C)37. Manisha will eat the orange if Rajesh does not cook.

Based on the information above which of the following must be true.(A) Manisha will not eat the orange if Rajesh cooks.

(B) If Manisha did not eat the orange, then Rajesh did cook.(C) If Manisha ate the orange then Rajesh did not cook.(D) If Rajesh does not cook, Manisha will eat the orange.Solution:The implications of the statement are(i) Manisha will not eat orange implies Rajesh cooks_____ Choice (B)(ii) Rajesh did not cook implies Manisha eat orange.______ Choice (D).

Choice (B/D)38. Judging from the message being conveyed and the apparent authoritativeness of their sources,

which of the following is the most reasonable and trust worthy statement.(A) FILM CRITIC: Internet, web blogs, chats, email etc. have all made children isolate themselves

and become less social.


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(B) RTI OFFICER IN CHARGE: We have already started collecting data on the number ofstudents who applied, who qualified and finally joined in the last four years.

(C) EDUCATION CORRESPONDENT: According to a mother, winter uniform for girls should bechanged to pants from skirt in the northern part of the country.

(D) RAILWAY OFFICER: Traveling in planes is very expensive, inconvenient and time consuming.These are some of the reasons why more people travel by train and the rail-road network is

well developed in our country.Solution:Choice (A): A film critic is an authority to comment on films but not on Internet, web blogs etc.Choice (B): RTI (Right to Information) officer in charge is stated to have collecting the data i.einformation, which is a part of his job. Hence, (B) is a most reasonable and trustworthy statement.Choice (C): The Education correspondent is referring to what a mother said. It is not the statementof the correspondent.Choice (D): A Railway Officer is not an authority to talk negatively about airways. It is just hisopinion. Choice (B)

39. Look at the sentences given below

(i) If the contract is valid, then X is liable.

(ii) If X is liable, he will be bankrupt.

(iii) If the bank loans him money, he will not go bankrupt.

Select the statement that is consistent with the above statements

(A) The contract is valid and the bank will loan him money.

(B) The contract is valid and the bank will not loan him money.

(C) The contract is not valid and he will go bankrupt.

(D) The contract is not valid and he is liable.

Solution:

From (i) and (ii) we get,

If the contract is valid then he will bankrupt. From the above statement and (iii)

If he goes bankrupt then the bank does not loan him

money. Choic

e (B)

40. Four pairs of numbers are given below of which the last number is missing. In all pairs, thenumber on the left has a certain relationship with the number on the right. Select the option thathas the same relationship with the given number.4:8; 6:10; 12:14; 18: ?(A) 20 (B) 30 (C) 42 (D) 60

Direction for Questions 41 and 42: Consider statements (i) (iv) :(i): X was born before Y.(ii): Y was born in the sixteenth century.(iii): Z was born before A.(iv): B was a compatriot of X.S: If either B was a compatriot of X or Z was born before A, then Y was born in the sixteenth century.


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41. To make sentences S true,

(A) (ii), (iii) and (iv) should be false.(B) (iii) and (iv) should be true and (ii) should be false.(C) (iii) should be true and (ii) and (iv) should be false.(D) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv) should be true.

Solution:Given S is

(iv)

If

either or

(iii)

then

(ii)

To make S to be true we have to look for the implications.(iii) or (ii) (ii)(iv) (ii)(iii) (ii)~(ii) ~ (iv) and ~

(iii).Choice (A)

42. To make sentences S false,

(A) (ii), (iii) and (iv) should be true.(B) (iii) or (iv) should be true and (ii) should be false.

(C) (iii) and (iv) should be true and (ii) should be false.(D) (iii) and (iv) should be false and (ii) should be true.Solution:Given S is

(iv)


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If

either or

(iii)

then

(ii)

To make S false, we should look for negation.The negation is,(iv) or (iii) and ~

(ii).Choice (B)

Directions for Questions 43 and 44: A statement and two actions are given. Action is a step tobe taken for improvement or follow up in regard to the problem mentioned in the statement.On the basis of the information given in the statement and assuming that the statement is true,decide which of the given action logically follows.

43. Statement:The Government of Rajasthan, in a report, revealed that due to social disturbances and bombblasts in Jaipur, the number of foreign tourists has decreased considerably, resulting in a loss ofRs. 200 crores.Actions: . Government should provide financial support to the tourism sector. . Foreign tourists should be advised to visit the country at their risk.(A) Only follows(B) Only follows(C) Either or follows(D) Neither nor followsSolution:

The problem brought up in the statement is related to security.I refer to financial support. It is irrelevant.II does not solve the problem of security.

Neither I nor IIfollows.

Choice (D)44.Statement:

The Indian textile industry venturing into the Western European market faces tough competitionfrom China.

Actions: . India should search for other international markets for its textile products. . India should improve the quality and reduce costs to compete with China in capturing the

market.(A) Only I follows(B) Only II follows


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(C) Both I and II follow(D) Neither I nor II followsSolution:The statement is referring one particular region and the competition faced there.I is based on the assumption that India has not ventured in to other international markets.

I does not follow.Reduction in price and increase in quality would make the product easily marketable.Hence, II follows. Only, II

follows.Choice (B)

45. A jury reaches a verdict when all of its members come to a unanimous agreement. In one recent

well publicized trial, the judge thought that the jury had reached a verdict. Eventually it was learntthat one juror did not agree with the others. The proceedings were ultimately declared a mistrial bythe judge.

Based only on the above information, which of the following statement is a valid conclusion.(A) The jury never actually reached a verdict.(B) The jury reached a verdict but had been disrupted by a single juror.(C) There have been other trials where the jury failed to reach a verdict.(D) Only trials in which the jury fails to reach a verdict are declared mistrials.Solution:According to the statement, the jury is said to have reached a verdict when all the members of thejury come to a unanimous agreement. But it is given that one member did not agree. Hence thejury has not reached a verdict (choice A). Choice (B) contradicts the passage. Choice (C) and (D)are out of context. Choice (A)

46. Since all peacocks that I have seen on academic campuses have been greenish blue, it follows

that peacocks that I will see in the zoo will also be greenish blue.

Which of the following most closely parallels the reasoning of the preceding argument?(A) All peacocks are greenish blue(B) Every apple that I have eaten has been sweet; so a fruit that is sweet must be an apple.(C) Since no cold medicine has ever helped me, this home remedy will probably not work either.(D) Since no tutor has helped me improve my guitar playing skills, the new tutor will probably not

help either.

Solution:What is observed in the known peacocks is being generalised for unknown peacocks also.Choice (A) : It is only an assertion. There is no reasoning.Choice (B) : Whatever is observed about apple is being generalised for all fruits. Hence, this is notparallel.Choice (C) : It is not known whether home remedy can be classified as medicine or not.

Choice (D) : whatever is observed in the known tutors being generanlised for unknown tutors.Hence, this one parallels the reasoning. Choice (D)47. It is known that at the university, 60% of the students play tennis, 50% of them play bridge, 70%

job, 20% play tennis and bridge, 30% play tennis and job, and 40% play bridge and job. Ifsomeone claimed that 20% students play bridge, job and play tennis,(A) The person is telling the truth(B) Students who do all three activities are more than 20%(C) Students who do all three activities are less than 20%(D) There are no students who do all three activitiesSolution:Let us represent the given values in the following venn diagram.


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y + g = 20x + g = 30z + g = 40If it is given that g = 20 theny = 0x = 10z = 20 a = 30, b = 10, c = 20.If this case, Total is more than 100.So g should be more than 20 which is not possible as y + g = 20.Hence g cannot either be equal to 20 not more than 20.

g is less than20.

Choice (C)48. Three married couples on a journey come to a river where they find a boat that cannot carry more

than two persons at a time. An additional condition is that a lady cannot be left on either bankwhere other men are present, without her husband.(A) These people will not be able to cross the river.(B) They will be able to cross the river in 9 steps.(C) They will be able to cross the river in 10 steps.(D) They will be able to cross the river in 13 steps.

Solution:Let the three couples be represented as follows.(M1, F1), (M2, F2), (M3, F3)The following table represent the steps.

setup People on the side People travelled People travelling from other side People on the other side

1 M1 M2 M3 F3 F1 F2

2 M1 M2 M3 F3 F2 F1

3 M1 M3 F3 M2 F2 F1

4 M1 M3 F3 F1 M2 F2

5 M1 F1 M3 F3 M2 F2


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6 M1 F1 F3 M2 F2 M3

7 F3 M1 F1 M2 F2 M3

8 F3 M3 M1F1 M2 F2

9 M3 F3 M1F1 M2 F2

So, 9 steps arerequired.

Choice (B)Direction for Questions 49 and 50:There are statements followed by four conclusionsnumbered I, II, III, IV. You have to take the given statements to be true even if they seem to beat variance with commonly known facts and then decide which of the given conclusionlogically follows from the given statements.49. Statements:

(i) All Roses are Flowers(ii) Some flowers are Vegetables

Conclusions:

. Some Vegetables are Roses . All Vegetables are Roses . Some Roses are Vegetables V. All Roses are vegetables

(A) All conclusions follow(B) Only and follow(C) None of the conclusions follow(D) Only and follow

Solution:As, among the given statements, the middle term is not distributed, hence no conclusion can bedrawn. Choice (C)

50. Statements:

(i) Some Players are Athletes(ii) All Athletes are Humans(iii) No Human is an Art

Conclusions: I. Some Players are not Ants II. Some Humans are Players III. No Athletes is an Ant IV. Some Ants are not Athletes

(A) I, II and III follow(B) II, III and IV follow(C) I, II and IV follow

(D) All follow

Solution:From statement (i) and (ii), the possible conclusions are

(a) Some players are human.(b) Some humans are players.From statement (ii) and (iii) the possible conclusions are (c) No athletes is ant.(d) No ant is athlete.(e) Some athletes are not ants.(f) Some ants are not athletes combining all the three the possible conclusion is(g) Some players are not ants.So

conclusion I, II, III, IV follow.

Choice (D)


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Direction for question 51:A statement followed by three assumptions numbered , andIII are given. An assumption is something supposed or taken for granted. You have to considerthe statement and the following assumptions and decide which of the answers (A), (B), (C), or(D) is correct.

51. Statement: As our business is expanding we need to appoint more managers says Mr. Adani,owner of Croyon Limited.

Assumptions: . The present managers are not competent. . More staff will further expand the business. . Suitable persons to be taken as managers will be available.(A) Only is implicit(B) Only is implicit(C) Only is implicit(D) None is implicit

Solution:Mr.Adani suggests to appoint more managers in the view of expanding business.The statement is about number of managers, but not about competence. Hence, I is not implicit.The statement is made after observing the growth in business. Hence, II is not implicit.If it is assumed that suitable persons are not available,. the suggestion would not have beenmade. Hence III is implicit.

Only III isimplicit.

Choice (C)52. Consider the following set of three statements:

(i) There are three statements in this set(ii) Two of them are not true(iii) Your IQ score will go up by 20 if you learn to play game Z.For these three statements to be consistent:(A) Only statements (ii) and (iii) must be true(B) Statement (iii) may be either true or false

(C) Statements (ii) and (iii) must be false(D) Statement (iii) must be false

Solution: It is evident that (i) is always true.If (ii) is true, then (i) and (iii) must be false.This is not possible because (i) in true.If (ii) is false, then (i) and (iii) must be true.This is possible.Hence, (iii) must be true.There is no suitable answer choice.

Direction for Questions 53 57:Please read the following statements and answer the

questions.There are five friends Amisha, Binaya, Celina, Daisy and Eshaan. Two of them play table tennis whilethe other three play different games. viz. football, cricket and chess. One table tennis player and thechess player stay on the same floor while other three stay on floors 2, 4 and 5. Two of the players areindustrialists while the other three belong to different occupations viz. teaching, medicine andengineering. The chess player is the oldest while one of the table tennis players, who plays at thenational level, is the youngest. The other table tennis player who plays at the regional level is betweenthe football player and the chess player in age. Daisy is a regional player and stay on floor 2. Binayais an engineer while Amisha is the industrialist and plays tennis at the national level.53. Who stays on floor 4?

(A) Amisha (B) Binaya (C) Celina (D) Eshaan54. What does Eshaan play?


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(A) Chess (B) Football (C) Cricket (D) Table tennis atregional level55. Age wise, who among the following lies between Daisy and Eshaan?

(A) Teacher (B) Industrialist (C) Engineer (D) Doctor

56. Who will stay on floor 3?(A) Amisha and Binaya (B) Daisy and Eshaan (C) Binaya and Daisy (D) Celina andDaisy

Solution:The question can be answered by elimination.It is given that Diasy stays on floor 2.Hence, (B), (C) and (D) can be

eliminated.Choice (A)

57. What is the occupation of the chess player?

(A) Engineer (B) Industrialist(C) Doctor (D) Teacher

Solution:From the solution of question 56, we know that Amisha and Binaya stay on floor 3.It is given that one of these two is a table tennis player and the other one is a chess player.It is also given that Amisha is a tennis player and Binaya is an engineer.

Binaya, the engineer, playschess.

Choice (A)Direction for questions 58 to 60:Read the following passage carefully and answer thequestions that follow:Five flags, each with a distinct symbol namely Panther, Tiger, Rose, Swan and Quali, have been

arranged in the following order:(i) Panther is next to Quail and Swan is next to Rose(ii) Swan is not next to Tiger, Tiger is on the extreme left hand side and Rose is on the second

position from the right hand side.(iii) Panther is on the right hand side of Quail and to the right side of Tiger.(iv) Panther and Rose are together.58. Which of the following statement is true?

(A) (iii) and (iv) are contradicting(B) Either (iii) or (iv) is redundant(C) (iii) is redundant(D) (iv) is redundant

Solution:From (ii) we get,Tiger _______ _______ Rose _______From (i) and the above arrangement we get,Tiger Panther Quail Rose SwanNow if we use any one information among (iii) and (iv), we will get the following arrangement.Tiger Quail Panther Rose SwanEither (iii) or (iv) is

redundant.Choice (B)


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59. is on the extreme right and . is on the extreme left.

(A) Tiger & Rose (B) Quail & Tiger(C) Swan & Tiger (D) Tiger & SwanSolution:

From (ii) we get,Tiger _______ _______ Rose _______From (i) and the above arrangement we get,Tiger Panther Quail Rose SwanNow if we use any one information among (iii) and (iv), we will get the following arrangement.Tiger Quail Panther Rose SwanSwan is on the extreme right and Tiger is on the extreme

left. Choice (C)

60. .. is in the middle and . is on its right.(A) Panther & Swan(B) Rose & Swan(C) Panther & Rose(D) Quail & PantherSolution:From (ii) we get,Tiger _______ _______ Rose _______From (i) and the above arrangement we get,

Tiger Panther Quail Rose SwanNow if we use any one information among (iii) and (iv), we will get the following arrangement.Tiger Quail Panther Rose SwanPanther is in the middle and Rose is on itsright.

Choice (C)

SECTION 3QUANTITATIVE ABILITY

(Questions 61 90)Direction:Question 61 is based on the following graph:


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An investment consultant hasplotted the graph between BSE Sensex and Indian inflation rate as below to better understand theirrelationship.

61. What is the coefficient of correlation between BSE Sensex and the Indian inflation rate?(A) 1000 (B) 1.05 (C) 1 (D) 2000

Solution:We see at a glance that as the inflation rate increases linearly, the BSE sensex linearlydecreases. Therefore, the correlation coefficient is 1. Choice (C)

Direction:Questions 62 and 63 are based on the following information:

The marketing team of a FMCG firm can sell Y units of shampoo packets at a price of

each. The total cost of producing Y shampoo packets is .


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The firm incurs an additional fixed cost of Rs. 100 in production and distribution. Assume that thereare no other costs.62. Find the number of shampoo packets that the firm should sell to maximize its profits?

(A) 495 (B) 595 (C) 450 (D) 550

Solution:

Selling price of each packet (S) =

Cost of producing y packets =

Addition fixed cost (Rs. F) = Rs.100.Revenue realised by selling y packets

=

Profit (P) = F

For P to be maximum,

i.e

y =495.

Choice (A)63. If the fixed cost of production and distribution increases from Rs. 100 to Rs. 200, the optimal

number of the shampoo packets to be sold will(A) increase (B) decrease (C) not change (D) cannot say

Solution:In the above question if F = 200, instead of 100, there would be no change in the value of y forwhich P is maximum. Choice (C)

64. An artist has completed one fourth of a rectangular oil painting. When he will paint another 100

square centimeters of the painting, he would complete three quarters of the painting. If the heightof the oil painting is 10 centimeters, determine the length (in centimeters) of the oil painting.(A) 15 (B) 20 (C) 10 (D) 25

Solution:Let the area of the painting be 4x cm2.


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Given x + 100 = 3x x = 50 and the area is 200.cm2.As the breadth in 10cm, the length in

20cm.Choice (B)

65. The number of shoppers entering in a retail store in an hour is a good example of the random

variable that follows:(A) Normal distribution(B) Binomial distribution(C) Poisson distribution(D) None of the above

Solution:The number of shoppers entering a retail store is a good example of Poissondistribution. Choice (C)

66. An investment firm wants to invest Rs. 30,000 into two different bonds. The first bond pays 5

percent interest per year and the second bond pays 7 percent interest per year. The firm wants toearn an annual interest of Rs.1800. Which of following equations in linear form is the correctrepresentation of the firms decision problem? Assume that x1 and x2 are the amount to beinvested in first and second bond respectively

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

Solution:The amounts to be invested in the first and second bonds are x 1 and x2. The total interest has tobe Rs.1800.

x1 + x2 = 30,000 and 0.05x1 + 0.06x2= 1800These two equations are given in the matrix from in optionC. Choice (C)

67. If Japanese Yen = 0.01 US Dollars, 100 US Dollars = 5000 Indian Rupees (INR), how many

Japanese Yens are 100 INR?(A) 20 (B) 2000 (C) 200 (D) 500

Solution:Given that 0.01$ = 1Y

1$ = 100YAlso

100$ = 5000(INR) 1$ = 50(INR) 50(INR) = 100Y


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and100(INR) = 200Y

Choice (C)68. The annual depreciation of a vehicle using straight line depreciation method is Rs. 2000. The

salvage value of the vehicle at the end of 5 years is Rs. 1000. Determine the original value of the

vehicle.(A) Rs.10,000 (B) Rs.5,000 (C) Rs.11,000 (D) Rs.12,000

Solution:Every year the value of the vehicle depreciates by Rs.2000. In 5 years it depreciates by Rs.10,000. The salvage value, i.e the value at the end of 5 years isRs.1,000.

The original value isRs.11,000.

Choice (C)69. The firm uses the following function to calculate the production output (PO) :

PC = 5.3C2L1.5, where C = capital invested and L = labor employed.If the capital invested (C) increases by 20 percent, the change in PO will be :(A) 20% decrease (B) 32% increase (C) 56% increase (D) 44% increase

Solution:PO = 5.3C2L1.5

C increase by 20%, i.e to 1.2C. PO increases to 1.44 PO or it increase by44%.Choice (D)

70. The third term of a finite series in Arithmetic Progression is 28. The sum of the first three terms is

54. The first term of the series is :(A) 8 (B) 10 (C) 18 (D) 2

Solution:The third term of the AP = 28.The sum of the first 3 term is 54, i.e. the average (which is the second term) is 18.

The first term is8.

Choice (A)71. A manual process requires 10 hours for an initial set up after which it takes 1 hour/unit to produce

a product. To produce the same product, an automated process will take 25 hours for an initial setup after which it takes 0.5 hours/unit. If we want to produce a batch of 25 units, how many unitsshould be produced by each process to minimize the total set up and production time?(A) 25 units by automated process, 0 units by manual process(B) 10 units by automated process, 15 units by manual process

(C) 15 units by automated process, 10 units by manual process(D) 0 units by automated process, 25 units by manual process

Solution:We need to minimize the total set up and production time. One interpretation is that we try toproduce a total of 25 units at the earliest. We first consider this interpretation.Lets say x units are produced by manual process and 25 x, by automated process. The timetaken for the manual process (Tm) and that for the automatic process

(Ta) are given Tm = 10 + x and Ta = 25 +

If the 25 terms are to be produced at the earliestTm = Ta, i.e


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10 + x = 25 +

.We find that this option is not available among the choices. We should read the question againand consider if another interpretation is possible. The key words are "-------- the total set up andproduction time".Instead of thinking of getting 25 units at the earliest (and deploying the two processesconcurrently) we think of the total time required for the two processes taken sequentially. (Thisquantity is also a significant indication of the cost to the manufacturer.)Once we consider this interpretation, we can solve the question as shown in the table below.

Choice zAutomatic

25 xTm Ta Tm +Ta

A 0 25 0 37.5 37.5C 10 15 20 32.5 52.5B 15 10 25 30 55D 25 0 35 0 35

We see that Tm + Ta in minimum for ChoiceD

Choice (D)72. Aman, Baman and Raman jointly invested Rs.60,000 in a small services firm. They decided to

share the profits from this investment in the ratio of their investments. The firm had a verysuccessful first year and recorded profits of Rs.1,00,000. Amar and Baman received Rs.40,000and Rs.25,000 as their respective share of the profit. The respective investments of Amar, Baman,

and Raman were:(A) 30,000; 10,000; 20,000(B) 21,000; 15,000; 24,000(C) 24,000; 15,000; 21,000(D) 25,000; 12,000; 23,000

Solution:The data is tabulated belowAmounts are in thousands of rupees.Investment A B R TotalProfit share 40 25 35 100To get the investment of any person, we multiply the profit share by 0.6 The respective investments of A, B, R are 24, 15, 21 (in thousands ofrupees). Choice (C)

Directions:Questions 73 and 74 are based on the following information:After a successful T20 cricket tournament, Indian Premier League (IPL) is interested in launching anew variant of One Day International cricket called T40 (forty overs a side game). Indian Cricketleague (ICL, a rival league of IPL) also has similar thoughts. An independent agency conducted asurvey of 1000 respondents to determine the consumer preference of IPL versus ICL, and preferenceof T20 versus T40. Unfortunately, some of the survey information is lost. Following information isavailable:i. 70 percent of the respondents prefer T20 over T40.ii. 80 percent of the respondents prefer IPL over ICLiii. 80 percent of those who preferred IPL preferred T20 over T40.

73. Determine the number of respondents who prefer both T20 and ICL.(A) 640 (B) 60 (C) 50 (D) 140


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Solution:

The data in the 3 statements in represented in the venn diagram below. The numbers given arepercentage figures.

IPL ICL

T40 16 14 30T20 64 6 70

80 20

The underlined figures follow as conclusions.

The number of respondents who prefer both T20 and ICL is 6% of 1000 or60. Choice (B)

74. Determine the number of respondents who prefer T40 and IPL.(A) 160 (B) 60 (C) 640 (D) 140

Solution:The data in the 3 statements in represented in the venn diagram below. The numbers given arepercentage figures.

IPL ICL

T40 16 14 30

T20 64 6 70

80 20


The number of respondents who prefer both T40 and IPL is 16% of 1000 or160. Choice (A)

75. Determine

(A) tan x (B) cot x (C) sec x (D) cos x

Solution:

(log sinx) =

= =cotx.

Choice (B)Direction: Question 76 is based on the following information:The human resources department of a BPO firm encourages its employees to put in extra effort inorder to improve the productivity. The department collected data on extra effort (E) put in by theemployees in a particular month and the corresponding percentage increase in the productivity (O) of

the employees. The data is shown below.


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E 2 5 9 14 24 42 60 100 150

O 0.69 1.60 2.19 2.63 3.17 3.73 4.09 4.60 5.01

76. Suggest a mathematical function that will best fit the given data

(A) O = a + bE a, b 0 (B) O = a log E a 0 (C) O = aeE a

0 (D) a, b 0Solution:We should try to draw a fairly accurate graph.

We see that O varies as log E or O = a log E anda 0

Choice (B)Direction:Questions 77 and 78 are based on the following information:An automobile car assembly system consists of two independent subsystems: chassis assembly (C)and engine assembly (E). Based on the prior maintenance data, the following probabilities areavailable. The probability that C fails is 0.2. The probability that both C and E fail together is 0.15. Theprobability that E fails alone is 0.15. The event C fails alone implies that C fails when E is workingand vice versa.77. The probability that C fails when E has failed is

(A) 0.5 (B) 0.2 (C) 0.3 (D) 1.0

Solution:There are two independent subsystems, C and E. (The events are not independent!)The data is tabulated below.

E

C 0.15 0.65 0.8

0.15 0.05 0.2

0.3 0.7


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The probability that C fails when E has failed = P =

=0.5

Choice (A)

78. The probability that C fails alone is(A) 0.3 (B) 0.2 (C) 0.15 (D) 0.05

Solution:

There are two independent subsystems, C and E. (The events are not independent!)The data is tabulated below.

E

C 0.15 0.65 0.8

0.15 0.05 0.2

0.3 0.7

The underlined figures follow as conclusions.The probability that C fails alone is0.05.

Choice (D)79. An oil refinery produces 200 barrels of crude oil per day. The price (Rs/ barrel) of the crude oil t

days from now can be written as P (t) = 20 + 0.2(t)0.5. If the crude oil is sold as soon as it isproduced, the total revenue R (t) earned by the refinery up to t days from now can be written as:(A) R (t) = 4000t + (80/3) t1.5 + constant(B) R (t) = (20 + 0.2t0.5) 200 + constant(C) R (t) = (20 + 0.2t0.5) 200t + constant(D) R (t) = (20t2 + 0.2t0.5) 200 + constant

Solution:The price per barrel, t days from now is p(t) = 20 + 0.2t0.5

The daily production is 200 barrels.

R(t) =

= 4000 t + 80/3t3/2 +constant

Choice (A)


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80. Calculate the values of x in the following equation:

(A) 4, 9 (B) 4, 9 (C) 4, 8 (D) 7, 9

Solution:

=

y6 =

If y 1, y 0, y 1

It follows that y6 =

or x2 5x 36 = 0or (x + 4) (x 9) = 0i.e x = 4 to

9.Choice (A)

81. The following probability distribution can be used to represent the waiting time of the customer in abank (w):

for a w b = 0 otherwise

The expected waiting time of the customer in the bank E (w) is:

(A) (B) (C) b a (D)

Solution:The probability distribution f(w) is a constant between a and b.

f(w) = for a w b

Expected waiting time = f(w)

=


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=

Choice (A)82. The mean monthly salary paid to graduating MBA class of 2008 of a management institute is Rs.

16,000. The mean monthly salary paid to students with work experience is Rs. 18,000. Thecorresponding figure for the students without any work experience is Rs.12000. Determine thepercentage of students with work experience and percentage of students without any workexperience in the class of 2008.(A) 66.67% with work experience, 33.33% without work experience.(B) 33.33% with work experience, 66.67% without work experience.(C) 75% with work experience, 25% without work experience.(D) 25% with work experience, 75% without work experience.Solution:

Therefore, the ratio of the

number of graduates without and with experience in 1 : 2.Percentage of students with work experience = 66.67% and percentage of students withoutexperience = 33.33%. Choice (A)

83. A large private airline increased the price of their air tickets by 20 percent to compensate for theincrease in airport charges. Due to increasing cost of Aviation Turbine Fuel, the airline had toincrease further the price of the ticket by 30 percent. By approximately what percentage the ticketprices have gone up as a result of two price hikes by the airline.(A) 50% (B) 56% (C) 54% (D) 60%

Solution:Let the initial cost be 100. It increased by 20% to 120. It then increased by 30% to 156.

Net increase =56%.

Choice (B)

84. Determine the sum of the infinite series in Geometric Progression:

(A) (B) infinite (C) 2 (D)

Solution:


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Let s = + .. is an infinite GP with common ratio r =

s = = =.

Choice (A)85. In the data set {2, 5, 7, 8, X}, the arithmetic mean is same as the median. Determine the value of

X. Assume X 8.(A) 8 (B) 10 (C) 13 (D) 15

Solution:

The arithmetic mean is or . the median is 7 (x 8)

= 7

x =13.

Choice (C)86. Historical sales data of a retail store indicate that 40 percent of all customers that enter the store

make a purchase. Determine the probability that exactly two of the next three customers will makea purchase.

(A) 0.388 (B) 0.667 (C) 0.400 (D) 0.288Solution:The probability that a customer who entered the stare makes a purchase is 0.4. As the event ofone customer making a purchase is independent of the event of any other customer making apurchase, the probability that 2 customers make a purchase and one doesnt is (0.4) 2 (0.6)The two of the three people can be selected in 3C2 or 3 ways. Required probability is 3 (0.4)2 (0.6) =0.288.

Choice (D)Directions:Questions 87 89 are based on the following information:A bank is in the process of formulating a loan policy for its customers. The maximum budget available

for this policy is Rs. 10,00,000. The bank earns interest on the loan amount. However, some portionof the loan amount cannot be recovered and is classified as bad debt. The type of loan, interest rates,and percentage of bad debts are provided below:

Types of Loan Interest Rate (%) Bad Debt (%)

Personal 15 10

Car 30 5

Home 20 8

Let x1, x2 and x3 be the amount of loan allocated by the bank to personal, car and home loansrespectively.87. If the objective of the bank is to maximize the net return, the objective function of the bank can be

written as:


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(A) Maximize 0.15 (0.90)x2 + 0.30 (0.95)x2 + 0.20 (0.92)x30.10x10.05x20.08x3(B) Maximize 0.15x1 + 0.30x2 + 0.20x30.10x10.05x2 0.08x3(C) Maximize 0.15(0.90)x1 + 0.30(0.95)x2 + 0.20(0.92)x3(D) None of the above

Solution:

To assess the 3 specific choices we need to consider the following two key sentence.The bank earns interest on the loan amount. However some portion of the loan amount cannot berecovered and is classified as bad debt.We will consider whatever is not bad debt to be good debt. Let the principal for the good and baddebts be P and Q and the corresponding interest be I and J. We can tabulate the 3 options interms of these quantities.A. I QB. I + J QC. IWe have to decide from the wording whether bad debt means only the principal (Q) is lost or eventhe corresponding interest (J) is also lost.Here, we consider that as Q cannot be recovered, even J cannot be recovered.So, A seem to be the best

choice.Choice (A)

88. The following is one of the constraints of the bank:

(A) x1 + x2 + x3 = 10,00,000(B) x1 + x2 + x3 10,00,000(C) x1 + x2 + x3 < 10,00,000(D) x1 + x2 + x3 < 10,00,000

Solution:The total amount available for disbursement is Rs.10, 00,000. x1 + x2 + x3 10,00,000 is one of theconstraint.

Choice (C)

89. Based on the data, the bank would wish to maximize the loan amount allocation to:

(A) personal loan(B) car loan(C) home loan(D) none of the above

Solution:For car loans, the percentage of bad debts in the minimum and the interest that the bank gets isthe maximum. The bank should maximize the allocation to car loans. Choice (B)

90. The area of a circle whose center is at (2, 0) is . The circle does not pass through the followingpoint:(A) (2, 1) (B) (2, 1) (C) (3, 0) (D) (2, 2)

Solution:The centre of the circle is (2,0)The radius is 1. It passing through (2 1) (2, 1) (3, 0) but not (2,2). Choice (D)

SECTION 4

DATA INTERPRETATION(Questions 91 120)


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Direction: Refer to the four pie charts relating to the sectoral composition of output and theirrespective share in employment in 1970 and 1994 and answer Questions 91 95:


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91. Which of the following is FALSE:

(A) While the share of agriculture in the GDP has come down, the share of services and industryhas increased(B) Agriculture continues to be the predominant provider of employment in India(C) The share of employment is services has increased more than its share in GDP(D) None of the aboveSolution:The first two statements can be readily observed to be true, while the share of employment inservices has increased by 8 (23 15) while its share of GDP has increased by 9 (42 33). Statement C isfalse.Choice (C)

92. Between 1970 and 1994 the Indian GDP, in Rupee terms(A) has increased only marginally in services(B) has increased most significantly for agriculture(C) has risen by more than 15 times for both services and industry(D) None of the above

Solution:As Indian GDP in rupee terms has increased from approximately 42,000 crores to 570,000 crores,services and Industry whose shares increased in this period have risen by more than 15times.

Choice (C)93. Between 1970 and 1994 the GDP of India in agriculture

(A) decreased by 15%

(B) increased by about 9 times(C) cannot be calculated based on the data given(D) None of the above

Solution:The GDP of India in agriculture in 1970

= 18,900The GDP of India in agriculture in 1994


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= 57000 = 171000 It has increased by about 9

times

Choice (B)94. In 1970 the contribution to GDP from services in rupee terms was

(A) less than Rs. 10,000 crores(B) more than Rs. 15,000 crores(C) between Rs. 10,000 and 15,000 crores(D) None of the aboveSolution:

In 1970, the contribution of GDP from services was about

14000crores

Choice (C)95. In 1994 if the share of industry in output (GDP) was 30% instead of 28%, then in Rupee terms, it

would have been(A) less than Rs. 100,000 crores(B) more than Rs. 200,000 crores(C) more than Rs. 150,000 crores(D) between Rs. 100,000 and Rs. 150,000 crores

Solution:

Had the share been 30%, in rupee terms it would have been =171000 Choice (C)

Direction: Question 96 100 are based on the following graph:

Number of Out of School Children in Different Regions of the World from 2001 to 2006


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96. Which of the following is FALSE(A) The number of children out of school in West and Central Africa has increased over the years(B) The number of children out of school in South Asia has come down over the years(C) The number of children out of school in the Middle East and North Africa region has increased

over the years

(D) None of the above

Solution:It can be easily observed that all of statements (A), (B) and (C) aretrue. Choice (D)

97. Which of the following TRUE:

(A) Over the years the largest number of out of school children have been in Eastern and SouthAfrican region

(B) The smallest number of out of school children have been in the East Asia and Pacific regionover the years

(C) Over the years, the largest number of out of school children has been in the South Asianregion

(D) None of theseSolution:From the graph it is clear that the largest number of out of school children has been in the SouthAsian region. Choice (C)

98. The ratio of out of school children in South Asia to those in West and Central Africa from 2001 to

2006 has become(A) higher(B) approximately half(C) marginally lower(D) none of the above

Solution:

The ratio which was nearly 2 in 2001 has become approximately 1, i.e. nearly becamehalf. Choice (B)

99. From 2001 to 2003, which of the following options CANNOT be deducted from the graph?

(A) Overall, the out of school children have gone up(B) In West and Central Africa the numbers of out of school children have remained almost the

same over three years(C) The largest numbers of out of school children are in South Asia(D) None of the aboveSolution:All the statements (A), (B) and (C) can be observed to be true from the givengraph. Choice (D)

100. The total number of children who did not go to school

(A) increased from 112,000 to 120,100 from 2001 to 2006(B) was over 120,000 in 2004(C) peaked in 2003(D) cannot be estimated from the above graph

Solution:The total number of out of school children has increased from around 112,000 in 2001 to littleover 120000 in 2006 Choice (A)

Direction: Questions 101 106 are based on the following information:The results of a competitive exam, where candidates were tested on their knowledge in English,

Science, Maths and Art are given. The shaded cels in the title row represent the range of markssecured and the columns below each such cell represent the number of candidates scoring within thespecified range of marks.


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Subject Total Marks 81-100 71-80 61-70 51-60 41-50 31-40 21-30 11-20 0-10

English 100 0 1 4 85 730 4205 10885 9170 1920

Science 100 2 5 875 3350 6775 7778 5065 1800 1350

Maths 100 0 0 0 0 199 3400 15045 6975 1375

Art 50 0 0 0 0 220 2145 10140 11858 2637

101. The modal range for English is(A) 21-30 (B) 31-40 (C) 41-50 (D) 51-60

Solution:The modal range or the range in which the maximum number of students is present is 21-30. Choice (A)

102. The subject in which the maximum number of candidates scored more than 30 marks in theexamination is(A) English (B) Maths (C) Art (D) None of the

above

Solution:The subject in which the maximum number of candidates scored more than 30 marks isScience. Choice (D)

103. The total number of candidates who appeared for the exam, assuming that there were no

absentees, are(A) more than 50,000 (B) 25,635 (C) 26,973 (D) 27,000

Solution:The total number of candidates, adding up in any of the four rows is exactly27000 Choice (D)

104. The average marks scored in Art, rounded off to the tenth place, are

(A) 10 (B) 20 (C) 30 (D) 40

Solution:The average marks scored in Arts, rounded off to the tenth place would be 20 as majority of thestudents have scored in the range of 11-20 and 21-30 Choice (B)

105. The subject in which average marks were the highest is

(A) English (B) Science (C) Maths (D) Art

Solution:It can be clearly seen from the table that the candidates have scored the highest average marksin science. Choice (B)

106. If securing over 40% is the qualifying criteria for each subject, the ratio of students who quality in

Maths to those who qualify in Art is(A) 15 : 42 (B) 1 : 11 (C) 56 : 1 (D) 1 : 61

Solution:Students who qualified in Maths 199 + 6 = 225Students who qualified in Arts 220 + 2145 + 10140 = 12505The ratio is approximately 1 :

61.

Choice (D)


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Direction: Questions 107 110 are based on the following passage:Deregulation and competition have reduced communication costs. The average cost of a three minutecall to the United States fell from $ 4.00 in 1999 to $1.40 in 2004. Over that period, the share ofpeople with access to the internet tripled. But diffusion of technology around the world and withincountries is unequal. Average contracted capacity for international internet connections in developing

economies grew from 3 bits per second per person in 2000 to 150 in 2006, still far short of the highincome countries average, estimated at 5000. The internet capacity of low income (less developed)countries was lower than even the developing countries, at an average of 20 bits per second perperson in 2006, and international voice traffic was less than 5% that of high income countries. Withonly 1 personal computer in 2006, South Asia lags behind other regions in access to personalcomputers. However, there are positive indications of change. Between 2000 and 2006, fixed line andmobile phone subscribers per 100 people increased from 3 per thousand to 150 per thousand. Thisgrowth was driven mainly by 7 fold increase in mobile phone subscribers.107. Between 1999 and 2004, average calling costs to the United States fell by

(A) approximately 65%(B) approximately 186%(C) approximately half(D) insufficient information

Solution:

The average calling cost in 1999 = $ 4The average calling cost in 2004 = $ 1.40

The percentage reduction

= 100 =65%

Choice (A)

108. In 2006, the contracted capacity for internet connections for developing economies(A) grew by 50% on per capita basis from its capacity in 2000(B) was 3% of average contracted capacity of high income countries on per capita basis(C) grew 500 times the capacity in 2000(D) was 3 bits per second

Solution:The contracted capacity for internet connections for developing economies in 2006 = 150The contracted capacity for internet connections for high income countries = 5000.150 = 3% of

5000Choice (B)

109. For low income economies(A) internet capacity was 0.4% of the capacity of the capacity of high income countries in per

capita terms(B) internet capacity was 20% of the capacity of developing countries in per capita terms(C) international voice traffic was 250 bits per second(D) share of people with access to the internet tripled over six years

Solution:

20 = 5000, i.e internet capacity was 0.4% of the capacity of high income countries in percapita terms. Choice (A)


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110. During 2000 to 2006, in South Asia, access to telephones increased by(A) 7% (B) 7 times (C) 500 times (D) 4900%

Solution:Access to telephones in 2000 = 3 per thousandAccess to telephones in 2006 = 150 per thousand

Percentage increase = 100=

4900%Choice (D)

Direction: Questions 111 115 are based on the following information:


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Values for the columns are represented on the left and values for the lines are represented on theright.

Health and Population Parameters All low Income Countries South Asia

Year 1990 2006 1990 2006

Population (in thousands) 1747930 2419656 1120092 1499368

Life expectancy 57 60 59 64

Infant mortality rate 93 74 86 62

Under 5 mortality rate 143 112 123 83

Immunization 65 68 67 64

Contraceptive Prevalence 33 44 40 53


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111. In India, the infant mortality rate, under 5 mortality rate and DPT Immunization incidence(A) have been falling over the years(B) have been rising over the years

(C) have been following different trends(D) None of the above

Solution:Though infant mortality rate and under 5 mortality rate have been following the same trend, DPTimmunization incidence has not been following any trend similar to the othertwo.

Choice (C)112. In 1990, contraceptive prevalence for India was

(A) close to the South Asian average in 1990(B) close to the low income countries average in 1990(C) double the low income countries average in 2006(D) exactly same as the South Asian average in 2006

Solution:The contraception prevalence in India in 1990 was 43 which is close to the South Asia average in1990 Choice (A)

113. Under 5 mortality rate for low income countries in 1990 is

(A) less than that of India for 1990(B) less than of South Asia for 1990(C) more than that of South Asia for 1990 by 10 per thousand births(D) more than that of South Aisa for 1990 by 20 per thousand births

Solution:Under 5 mortality for low income countries in 1990 (143) is more than that of South Asia in 1990

(123) by 20 per thousand births Choice (D)114. The growth rate of population in India between 1990 and 2006 was

(A) much more than the growth rate of population in South Asia between 1990 and 2006(B) almost same as the growth rate of population in Low income countries between 1990 and

2006(C) much less than the growth rate of population in South Asia between 1990 and 2006(D) much less than the growth rate of population in Low income countries between 1990 and

2006

Solution:The growth rate of population in India between 1990 and 2006 was approximately 30% which ismuch less than that for low income countries in the same period.

Choice (D)


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115. In 2006, infant mortality rate in South Asia(A) contributed to approximately half of the under 5 mortality rate in the same year(B) is not related to the under 5 mortality rate in the same year(C) contributed to approximately 75% of the under 5 mortality rate in the same year(D) contributed to approximately 85% of the under 5 mortality rate in 2006

Solution:In 2006, infant mortality rate in South Asia, which was 62, was approximately 75% of the under 5mortality rate of 83. Choice (C)

Direction: Questions 116 120 are based on the following information:

Foreign Direct Investment Flows

Outflows (Area of Origin) Inflows (Destination)

Year 1970 1980 1990 1970 1980 1990

High Income Countries (FDI as a percentage of total)

USA

46 21 21.8 11.2 30 20Europe 42.5 51.6 44.6 43.8 35.6 38.8

Japan 5.4 14 5.4 0.6 0.5 0.6

Oceania 1 2.2 1 6 4.8 2.4

Total 94.9 88.8 72.8 61.6 70.9 61.9

Developing and Transition Countries (FDI as a percentage of total)

Latin America 0.5 1 2.2 12.8 9 11

Africa 0.4 1.5 0.5 4.5 2.5 1.8

Asia 0.5 3.8 9.5 6.6 13 18.6

Eastern Europe 0 0 0.4 0 0.5 3

Total 1.2 6.3 12.6 23.9 25 34.4

World (in billion dollars)

FDI 23.7 124.4 523.3 21 113.9 530.2

116. Amongst all the high income countries, the region / country which has the maximum share in FDIflows is(A) U.S.A (B) Europe (C) Japan (D) Oceania

Solution:Amongst all the high income countries, Europe has the maximum share of FDI flows in each ofthe given years. Choice (B)

117. Amongst all the high income countries, the region / country which gained the most in terms of

percentage points of net FDI inflows is(A) USA (B) Europe (C) Japan (D) Oceania

Solution:Except Oceania, for other high income countries, the net inflow is negative.

Oceania is the requiredanswer.

Choice (D)

118. Based on the above table, which of the following statements is FALSE for the developing andtransition countries


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(A) Asias outflow in terms of percentage points is steadily increasing(B) Asia has been the biggest gainer in terms of percentage points of FDI inflow(C) Africa has been marginalized in the share of FDI flows(D) Eastern Europe has not gained in net percentage points of FDI inflows

Solution:

Eastern Europe has seen its share in net FDI inflow increase from 0 to 3% in the given period.Hence statement (D) is false Choice (D)119. Based on the above table, which of the following statements is FALSE

(A) FDI inflows into USA have risen by almost 45 times in two decades(B) Though outflows have risen for high income countries, inflows have risen even faster for

them(C) Both outflows and inflows have risen for Asia(D) Oceania has become a net FDI provider to the world

Solution:The outflow from Oceania was always less than the inflow into that region. Oceania never become a net FDI provider to the world.

Statement (D) isfalse

Choice (D)120. Based on the table, which of the following statements in TRUE

(A) While inflows have increased for the developing and transition countries, outflows havedecreased for them

(B) Eastern Europe has not seen much growth of FDI inflows relative to other developing andtransition counties

(C) The greatest increase in net outflow has been for Eastern Europe(D) Though inflows have increased for the developing and transition countries, outflows have

increased at a much faster rate

Solution:

The total value of world outflows and that of inflows have increased at nearly the same rate in thegiven period. For developing and transition countries outflows have increased from 1.2 to12.6 percentage while inflows have increased from 23.9 to 34.4 percentage. Though inflows have increased, outflows have increased at a much fasterrate. Choice (D)

JMET 2008 Original Paper

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