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Insights test 6
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INSIGHTS ON INDIA MOCK PRELIMINARY EXAM - 2014
INSIGHTS ON INDIA MOCK TEST - 6
GENERAL STUDIES
PAPER-I
Time Allowed: One and Half Hours Maximum Marks: 150
INSTRUCTIONS 1. IMMEDITELY AFTER THE COMMENCEMENT OF THE EXAMINATION, YOU SHOULD
CHECK THAT THIS TEST BOOKLET DOES NOT HAVE ANY UNPRINTED OR TORN OR
MISSING PAGES OR ITEMS, ETC. IF SO, GET IT REPLACED BY A COMPLETE TEST BOOKLET.
2. You have to enter your Roll Number on the Test I
Booklet in the Box provided alongside. DO NOT
write anything else on the Test Booklet.
4. This Test Booklet contains 100 items (questions). Each item is printed only in English. Each item
comprises four responses (answers). You will select the response which you want to mark on the Answer
Sheet. In case you feel that there is more than one correct response, mark the response which you consider
the best. In any case, choose ONLY ONE response for each item.
5. You have to mark all your responses ONLY on the separate Answer Sheet provided. See directions in the
Answer Sheet.
6. All items carry equal marks.
7. Before you proceed to mark in the Answer Sheet the response to various items in the Test Booklet, you
have to fill in some particulars in the Answer Sheet as per instructions sent to you with your Admission
Certificate.
8. After you have completed filling in all your responses on the Answer Sheet and the examination has
concluded, you should hand over to the Invigilator only the Answer Sheet. You are permitted to take away
with you the Test Booklet.
9. Sheets for rough work are appended in the Test Booklet at the end.
10. Penalty for wrong answers :
THERE WILL BE PENALTY FOR WRONG ANSWERS MARKED BY A CANDIDATE IN THE
OBJECTIVE TYPE QUESTION PAPERS.
(i) There are four alternatives for the answer to every question. For each question for which a
wrong answer has been given by the candidate, one-third of the marks assigned to that question
will be deducted as penalty.
(ii) If a candidate gives more than one answer, it will be treated as a wrong answer even if one of the
given answers happens to be correct and there will be same penalty as above to that question.
(iii) If a question is left blank, i.e., no answer is given by the candidate, there will be no penalty for
that question.
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INSIGHTS ON INDIA MOCK TEST SERIES FOR CIVIL SERVICES PRELIMINARY EXAM 2014
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1. Consider the following statements with
reference to human development.
1. Nobel Laureate Prof Amartya
Sen saw an increase in
freedom (or decrease in
unfreedom) as the main
objective of development.
2. According to Dr Mehbub-Ul-
Haq, development is all about
enlarging people’s choices in
order to lead long, healthy
lives with dignity.
Which of the statements given above
is/are correct?
a. 1 Only
b. 2 Only
c. Both
d. None
2. Which of the following is/are true in
connection with Special Drawing Rights
(SDRs) ?
1. The SDR quota in IMF is different
for different countries.
2. Its value is not constant.
3. It derives its legitimacy from IMF
and other nations willing to use it.
Select the correct answer using the codes
below.
a. All of the above
b. 1 and 3
c. 2 Only
d. 1 Only
3. With reference to AIDS,
consider the following
statements
1. AIDS is caused by the Human
Immuno deficiency Virus
(HIV), a member of a group
of viruses called retrovirus.
2. The virus enters into
macrophages where RNA
genome of the virus replicates
to form infective new RNA
with the help of the enzyme
reverse transcriptase.
3. This viral DNA gets
incorporated into host cell’s
DNA and directs the infected
cells to produce virus particles
Which of the above statements is/are
correct?
a. 1 and 3 Only
b. 1 and 2 Only
c. 2 and 3 Only
d. All
4. Consider the following
statements about population
change
1. Population change is also called as
population growth
2. Natural Growth of Population
refers to the population increased
by difference between births and
deaths in a particular region
between two points of time.
3. Population change in an area is an
important indicator of economic
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development, social upliftment
and historical and cultural
background of the region.
Which of the statements given above
is/are incorrect?
a. 3 Only
b. 1 Only
c. None
d. All
5. In which of the following cases of budget
deficits will the government have to
necessarily borrow not only to finance its
investment but also its consumption
requirements?
a) Fiscal deficit
b) Revenue deficit
c) Primary deficit
d) Current account deficit
6. The proportional income tax regime
acts as an automatic stabiliser – a shock
absorber for the economy in which of the
following ways?
1. It makes disposable income of the
households less sensitive to fluctuations in
the GDP.
2. It redistributes the national
income and redirects government spending
in the right sectors.
a. 1 Only
b. 2 Only
c. Both
d. None of the above
7. Productivity and sustainability are
two pillars of human development,
with reference to these two, consider
the following statements
1. Productivity here means
human labour productivity or
productivity in terms of
human work. Such
productivity must be
constantly enriched by
building capabilities in people.
2. Sustainability means
continuity in the availability
of opportunities.
3. To have sustainable human
development, each generation
must have the same
opportunities.
Which of the above statements is/are
correct?
a. 1 and 2 Only
b. 2 and 3 Only
c. 1 and 3 Only
d. All
8. Consider the following factors that
influence the distribution of
population around the world
1. Availability of water
2. Soil
3. Industrialization
4. Climate
5. Landforms
6. Minerals
7. Urbanization
Which of the above factors have direct
influence on the distribution of
population?
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a. 1,2,4 and 6
b. 1,2,4 and 5
c. 1,2,3,4 and 7
d. 1,2,4,5,6 and 7
9. Consider the following statements
about ‘inbreeding’ which is used in
animal husbandry
1. Inbreeding refers to the
mating of more closely related
individuals within the same
breed for 4- 6 generations.
2. Inbreeding exposes harmful
recessive genes that are
eliminated by selection.
3. It helps in accumulation of
superior genes and elimination
of less desirable genes.
4. Continued inbreeding,
especially close inbreeding,
usually reduces fertility and
even productivity. This is
called inbreeding depression.
Which of the statements given above
is/are incorrect?
a. 1 and 2 Only
b. 2 and 4 Only
c. 4 Only
d. None
10. Consider the following factors:
1. The size of the economy
2. Relief features of the country
3. Inheritance practices of the society
4. The composition of the economy
5. Traditional practices of the farmers
Which of the factors affects land use?
a) 1, 2 and 3 Only
b) 2, 3 and 5 Only
c) 1, 2, 3 and 5 Only
d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5 Only
11. Consider the following statements
with reference to antibiotics
1. Antibiotics which are also
called as antimicrobial are an
agent that completely
eliminates microorganisms.
2. In 1928, Alexander
Fleming became the first to
discover a natural
antimicrobial fungus known
as penicillium rubens.
3. Ozone is an antimicrobial
agent.
Which of the above statements is/are
correct?
a. 1 Only
b. 1 and 2 Only
c. 2 and 3 Only
d. 1 and 3 Only
12. Which of the following factors affect
the value of the Indian currency in
international transactions?
1. Political stability in India
2. Economic potential of India
3. Demand of rupee in International
market
4. The difference between interest
rates between India and other countries.
Select the correct answer using the codes
below.
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a) 1, 3 and 4
b) All of the above
c) 2, 3 and 4
d) 1 and 2
13. Consider the following crops:
1. Barley
2. Rice
3. Cotton
4. Jute
5. Groundnut
Which of these are Rabi crops?
a) 1 and 5 Only
b) 1, 2, and 4 Only
c) 1, 4 and 5 Only
d) 1, 3 and 5 Only
14. Which of the following statements
is/are true?
1. A change in nominal exchange rate
affects the real exchange rate.
2. Nominal exchange rate is affected
by the inflation rate prevailing in a country.
a) Only 1
b) Only 2
c) Both
d) None
15. Consider the following statements
about growth and development
1. Growth is quantitative and
value neutral. It may have a
positive or a negative sign.
2. Development means a
qualitative change which is
always value positive.
3. Development occurs when
positive growth takes place.
4. Development occurs when
there is a positive change in
quality.
Which of the above statements is/are
incorrect?
a. 1 Only
b. 2 Only
c. 1 and 2 Only
d. None
16. Which of the following help stabilize
the economy in periods of slump in
economic growth?
1. Discretionary fiscal policy
2. Welfare transfers
3. Inelasticity in household spending
a) 1 and 2
b) All of the above
c) Only 2
d) 1 and 3
17. Consider the following statements
regarding methanogens
1. Methanogenic populations
play an indispensable role in
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anaerobic wastewater
treatments
2. They live in the digestive
tracts of humans, where they
are responsible for the
methane content of flatulence
3. Methanogens are
microorganisms that
produce methane as
a metabolic byproduct in
anoxic conditions.
Which of the above statements is/are
correct?
a. 1 and 2 Only
b. 2 and 3 Only
c. 3 Only
d. All
18. Consider the following statements:
1. Enlarging the range of people’s
choices.
2. Political freedom.
3. A sound physical environment.
Which of the above is/are the aspect/s
of Human Development?
a) 1 and 2 Only
b) 1 and 3 Only
c) 2 and 3 Only
d) All the above
19. Consider the following statements
about the Census data on Decadal
Population Growth Rate in India:
1. India has consistently witnessed a
Positive Decadal Population Growth
in every decade since 1901.
2. The Decadal Population Growth
Rate between 2001-11 as shown by
the Census 2011 is the lowest
Decadal Population Growth Rate
since 1951.
Which of the above is/are correct?
a. 1 Only
b. 2 Only
c. Both
d. None
20. Consider the following statements
about beneficial microbes
1. The large holes in ‘Swiss
cheese’ are due to production
of a large amount of CO2 by a
bacterium named
Propionibacterium sharmanii.
2. The dough, which is used for
making bread, is fermented
using a bacteria
(Saccharomyces cerevisiae)
3. Micro-organisms such as
Lactobacillus and others
commonly called lactic acid
bacteria (LAB) grow in milk
and convert it to curd.
Which of the above is/are correct?
a. 1 and 3 Only
b. 2 and 3 Only
c. 1 and 2 Only
d. All
21. Which of the following, inter alia, form
part of the Current Account Deficit
(CAD)?
1. Gifts and grants from abroad
2. Trade in invisibles
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3. Sale and purchase of stocks
a) Only 2
b) 1 and 3
c) All of the above
d) 1 and 2
22. With reference to factors
contributing to migration, consider
the following
1. Unemployment
2. Poor living conditions
3. Political turmoil
4. Unpleasant climate
5. Natural disasters
6. Epidemics and socio-economic
backwardness.
Which of the above factors can considered
as ‘pull’ factors?
a. 1 and 2
b. 3
c. 5
d. None
23. With reference to organic farming,
consider the following statements
1. The organic farmer holds the
view that the eradication of
the creatures that are often
described as pests is not only
possible, but also undesirable.
2. A key belief of the organic
farmer is that biodiversity
furthers health.
3. The very familiar beetle with
red and black markings – the
Ladybird, and Dragonflies are
useful to get rid of aphids and
mosquitoes, respectively.
4. In Indian the Government is
promoting organic farming
through various schemes like
National Project on Organic
Farming (NPOF), National
Horticulture Mission (NHM),
Horticulture Mission for
North East & Himalayan
States (HMNEH), National
Project on Management of
Soil Health and Fertility
(NPMSH&F), Rashtriya Krishi
Vikas Yojana (RKVY) and
also Network Project on
Organic Farming of Indian
Council of Agricultural
Research (ICAR).
Which of the statements given above
is/are correct?
a. 1 and 4 Only
b. 1,2 and 4 Only
c. 1, 2 and 3 Only
d. All
24. Australia’s age-sex pyramid is bell
shaped and tapered towards the top.
This indicates that Australia has
a. Expanding populations
b. Constant populations
c. Declining populations
d. None of the above
25. Consider the following statements
with reference to a bioactive
molecule, cyclosporin A
1. It is used as an
immunosuppressive agent in
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organ-transplant patients to
prevent rejection.
2. It is produced by the fungus
Trichoderma polysporum.
Which of the above statements is
incorrect?
a. 1
b. 2
c. Both
d. None
26. Consider the following:
1. About 80 per cent of the coal
deposits in India is of anthracite type
and is of non-coking grade.
2. Crude petroleum occurs in
sedimentary rocks of the tertiary
period
3. Uranium deposits occur in the
Laterite rocks.
4. World’s richest monazite deposits
occur in Kerala, Andhra Pradesh and
also in Orissa
Which of the statements given above
is/are correct?
a) 1 and 2 Only
b) 2 and 4 Only
c) 1, 3 and 4 Only
d) 1, 2 and 4 Only
27. Fiscal deficit does not include which of
the following?
1. Non-debt creating capital receipts
2. Borrowing from RBI and other
financial institutions
3. Borrowing from abroad
Select the correct answer using the codes
below
a) 1 only
b) All of the above
c) None of the above
d) 2 and 3
28. With reference to procedures used
in sewage water treatment, consider
the following statements.
1. The greater the Biological
Oxygen Demand of waste
water, more is its polluting
potential.
2. In the secondary treatment of
sewage water, flocs or masses
of bacteria is allowed to grow
and increase BOD levels
3. BOD refers to the amount of
the oxygen that would be
consumed if all the organic
matter in one liter of water
were oxidized by bacteria.
Which of the statements given above
is/are incorrect?
a. 1 and 2 Only
b. 2 and 3 Only
c. 2 Only
d. All
29. The Central and State Governments
have initiated many watershed
development and management
programmes in the country. One
such program is Haryali. Which of
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the following is/are correct regarding
Haryali?
1. It is State Government sponsored
program
2. The Project is executed by Gram
Sabha
3. Aims at enabling rural and urban
population to conserve water
4. It helps in employment generation
Select the correct code.
a. 2 Only
b. 2 and 4 Only
c. 1, 2 and 3 Only
d. 1, 2 and 4 Only
30. Which of the following can be the
possible implications of high revenue
deficit in the budget of the central
government for the Indian economy?
1. Stock of debt and interest
liabilities will pile up.
2. Reduction in social sector
expenditure
3. Low economic growth
Select the correct answer using the codes
below
a. 1 and 2
b. 2 and 3
c. 1,2 and 3
d. 1 and 3
31. Consider the following statements
about sex-ratio pattern around the
world
1. A deficit of males in the
populations of many European
countries is attributed to
better status of women an
excessively male-dominated
out-migration to different
parts of the world in the past.
2. More women in the
population does not mean
they have a better status. It
could be that the men might
have migrated to other areas
for employment.
3. In India, Haryana has lowest
sex ratio among states, and its
ratio has decreased further
compared to 2001 census.
Which of the statements given above
is/are correct?
a. 1 Only
b. 1 and 2 Only
c. 1 and 3 Only
d. 2 and 3 Only
32. Consider the following statements
about Single Cell Protein (SCP)
1. Microorganisms have a high rate of multiplication and, hence, rapid succession of generations (algae: 2–6 hours, yeast: 1–3 hours, bacteria: 0.5–2 hours) This principle is used in production of SCP
2. Single-cell protein (SCP)
typically refers to sources of
mixed protein extracted from
pure or mixed cultures
of algae, yeasts, fungi or
bacteria
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3. They are used as a substitute
for protein-rich foods, in
human and animal feeds.
Which of the statements given above
is/are correct?
a. 1 and 3 Only
b. 2 and 3 Only
c. 2 Only
d. All
33. Consider the following statements
about the Fiscal Responsibility and Budget
Management (FRBM) Act, 2003:
1. It strives for Inter-generational
equity in government finances.
2. It restricts borrowing from the RBI
by the Central government other
than in some specific cases.
3. It strengthens the fiscal
accountability of the executive to
the legislature.
Which of the following is/are true in this
connection?
a. All of the above
b. 1 and 2
c. 2 and 3
d. Only 2
34. Consider the following statements
with reference to Tissue Culture
2. Micropropagation under tissue
culture refers to transfer of
desired genes into plant
saplings to produce identical
plants.
3. Explants refer to any part of a
plant taken out and grown in
a test tube, under sterile
conditions in special nutrient
media.
4. Capacity to generate a whole
plant from any cell/explant is
called totipotency.
5. Each of the plants produced
by tissue culture will be
genetically identical to the
original plant from which they
were grown, i.e., they are
somaclones.
Which of the above statements
is/are correct?
a. 1,2 and 3 Only
b. 2,3 and 4 Only
c. 3 and 4 Only
d. All
35. Which of the following form part of
the non-tax revenue receipts of the
government budget?
1. Interest receipts
2. Dividend and returns from
investment made by the
government
3. Grants in aid from foreign
governments
Select the correct answer using the codes
below
a. 1 and 2
b. 2 and 3
c. All of the above
d. Only 1
36. Which one of the following is the
correct order of water allocation
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priorities according to the National
Water policy, 2012?
1. Drinking water, Irrigation,
Hydropower, Ecology, Agro
industries and non-agricultural
industries, Navigation
2. Drinking water, Irrigation, Agro
industries and non-agricultural
industries, Hydropower, Ecology,
Navigation
3. Ecology, Drinking water, Irrigation,
Agro industries and non-agricultural
industries, Navigation, Hydropower
4. Drinking water, Ecology, Irrigation,
Agro industries and non-agricultural
industries, Hydropower, Navigation
37. Which of the following statements
is/are true?
1. The Capital Budget is an
account of the assets as well as
liabilities of the central
government.
2. The subsidies provided by the
Central government as a
percentage of GDP has been
declining from 1991 onwards.
3. Fiscal deficit is always
inflationary.
Select the correct answer using the codes
below
a. Only 1
b. 2 and 3
c. 1 and 3
d. None of the above
38. Which of the following qualify to be a
part of capital receipts of the Central
government?
1. Borrowing from the RBI
2. Loans received from foreign
governments and institutions
3. PSU Disinvestment
Select the correct answer using the codes
below
a. 1 and 3
b. 1 and 2
c. 2 and 3
d. All of the above
39. Consider the following statements
about biofertilizers
1. Biofertilisers are organisms
that enrich the nutrient
quality of the soil.
2. Bio-fertilizers do not contain
any chemicals which are
harmful to the living soil.
3. The main sources of
biofertilisers are bacteria, fungi
and cyanobacteria.
4. Bio-fertilizers add nutrients
through the natural processes
of nitrogen fixation,
solubilizing phosphorus, and
stimulating plant growth
through the synthesis of
growth-promoting
substances.
Which of the statements given above
is/are correct?
a. 2,3 and 4 Only
b. 3 and 4 Only
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c. None
d. 2 Only
40. Consider the following statements
with reference to the population
theory put forward by Thomas
Malthus
1. He stated that the number of
people would increase faster
than the food supply
2. Any further increase would
result in a population crash
caused by famine, disease and
war.
3. The physical or positive
checks are better than the
preventive checks.
4. The preventive checks include
abortion, birth control,
prostitution, postponement of
marriage and celibacy
Which of the above statements is/are
correct?
a. 1 and 2 Only
b. 2 and 3 Only
c. 1,2 and 4 Only
d. All
41. The Modern Indian Languages can
be classified into 4 Families, a
number of sub-families and groups.
Consider the following statements
about the Indian Languages:
1. The languages spoken in Central
India are classified under the Austric
Family.
2. Kashmiri language is classified under
the Indo-Aryan group.
3. Konkani language spoken in Goa is
classified under the Dravidian family
of languages.
Which of the above is/are correct?
a. 1 Only
b. 2 Only
c. 2 and 3 Only
d. 1 and 2 Only
42. Expenditure on which of the following
is eligible to be a part of capital
expenditure of the Government of India?
1. Land Acquisition
2. Loans by the Central government
to the state governments and UTs.
3. Advances and loans made to the
PSUs.
Select the correct answer using the codes
below
a. All of the above
b. 2 and 3
c. 1 and 2
d. 1 and 3
43. Which one of the following is NOT
the part of the definition of a town
as per the census of India?
1. Population density of 400 persons per sq km.
2. Presence of municipality, corporation, Cantonment etc.
3. More than 75% of the working population engaged in non-primary sector.
4. Population size of more than 5,000 persons.
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44. Consider the following statements
about Multiple Ovulation Embryo
Transfer Technology (MOET)
1. It is a program for herd
improvement for the
successful production of
hybrids
2. In this method, a cow is
administered hormones, with
FSH-like activity (Follicle
Stimulating Hormone), to
induce follicular maturation
and super ovulation – instead
of one egg, which they
normally yield per cycle, they
produce 6-8 eggs.
3. The animal is either mated
with an elite bull or artificially
inseminated. Fertilized eggs
are non-surgically removed
and transferred to surrogate
mothers.
4. The genetic mother is used for
another round of super
ovulation
Which of the statements given above
is/are incorrect?
a. 2 Only
b. None
c. 3 Only
d. 3 and 4 Only
45. Which of the following relate to central
plan revenue expenditure?
1. Central Five year plans
2. Central assistance to state and
Union Territories (UTs)
Select the correct answer using the codes
below
a. Only 1
b. Only 2
c. Both
d. None of the above
46. Consider the following statements
with reference to mutation breeding
1. It is the process of exposing
seeds
to chemicals or radiation in
order to generate mutants
with desirable traits to be bred
with other cultivars.
2. Mutation breeding is
commonly used to produce
traits in crops such as larger
seeds, new colors, or sweeter
fruits, that either cannot be
found in nature or have been
lost during evolution
3. In India, mutation induced
crops are produced by BARC
and have been released and
officially notified by the
Ministry of Agriculture,
Government of India for
commercial cultivation.
4. In developing and applying
mutation breeding using
ionising radiation, India has a
leading role among all nations.
Which of the above statements is/are
correct?
a. 1 and 3 Only
b. 1,2 and 3 Only
c. 2,3 and 4 Only
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d. All
47. Consider the following statements
with reference to demographic
transition theory
1. In the last stage, both fertility and
mortality decline considerably. The
population is either stable or grows
slowly.
2. The first stage has low fertility and
high mortality because people
reproduce less for the fear of the
deaths due to epidemics and variable
food supply
3. Fertility remains high in the
beginning of second stage but it
declines with time. This is
accompanied by reduced mortality
rate.
4. Fertility is the natural capability to
produce offspring.
Which of the statements given above
is/are correct?
a. 1,2,3 and 4
b. 1,3 and 4
c. 1,2 and 3
d. 2,3 and 4
48. Consider the following with reference
to minerals and its distribution:
1. All minerals are exhaustible over
time.
2. Over 97 per cent of coal reserves
occur in the valleys of Damodar,
Sone, Mahanadi and Godavari
3. Bauxite is usually associated with
Sedimentary rocks
4. Copper and Zinc form part of
Dharwar system of rocks
Select the correct code.
a. 1 and 2 Only
b. 2 Only
c. 1, 3 and 4 Only
d. 1, 2 and 4 Only
49. Which of the following activities would
be included in the revenue expenditure of
the central government?
1. Expenditure on building roads
2. Interest payments
3. Grants to state governments
Select the correct answer using the codes
below
a. 1 and 3
b. All of the above
c. 2 and 3
d. Only 2
50. Rural settlements in India can
broadly be put into four types:
Clustered, Semi-clustered or
fragmented, Hamleted and Dispersed
or isolated. Consider the following
statements with regard to the Rural
settlements in India:
1. In the Bundelkhand region of central
India and in Nagaland people live in
compact village for security or
defence reasons.
2. Dispersed settlements are often
caused by extremely fragmented
nature of the terrain and land
resource base of habitable areas.
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3. In fertile alluvial plains of India, the
Dispersed settlements are commonly
found as there is a space constraint.
Which of the above is/are correct?
a. 1 and 2 Only
b. 1 and 3 Only
c. 2 and 3 Only
d. All the above
51. With reference to commonly used
drugs by addicts, consider the
following statements
1. The drugs, which are
commonly abused, opioids,
cannabinoids and coca
alkaloids, are obtained from
flowering plants.
2. Cocaine, commonly called
coke or crack is usually
snorted. It has a potent
stimulating action on central
nervous system, producing a
sense of euphoria and
increased energy.
3. Morphine is used to relieve
the pain for patients suffering
from terminal illnesses such as
cancer, HIV and thalassemia.
4. In India, as of now, use of
Morphine even for medical
use is completely banned
Which of the above statements is/are
correct?
a. 1,2 and 3 Only
b. 2 and 3 Only
c. 3 and 4 Only
d. 2 and 4 Only
52. Consider the following statements
with reference to allergy
1. The exaggerated response of
the immune system to certain
antigens present in the
environment is called allergy.
2. Allergy is due to the release of
chemicals like histamine and
serotonin from the mast cells.
3. The use of drugs like adrenalin
and steroids quickly reduce
the symptoms of allergy.
Which of the above statements is/are
incorrect?
a. 2 Only
b. 3 Only
c. 2 and 3 Only
d. None
53. National Income may include which
of the following:
1. Investment in the national
economy
2. External Commercial
Borrowing
3. Indirect taxes imposed by the
government
Select the correct answer using the codes
below
a. All of the above
b. 1 only
c. 1 and 3
d. 2 and 3
54. Consider the following statements
about immunization and vaccination
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1. The principle of
immunization or vaccination
is based on the property of
‘memory’ of the immune
system.
2. In vaccination, a preparation
of antigenic proteins of
pathogen or
inactivated/weakened
pathogen (vaccine) are
introduced into the body.
3. The vaccines generate
memory – B and T-cells that
recognize the pathogen
quickly on subsequent
exposure and overwhelm the
invaders with a massive
production of antibodies.
4. In cases of snakebites, the
injection which is given to the
patients, contain preformed
antigens against the snake
venom
Which of the statements given above
is/are incorrect?
a. 3 and 4 Only
b. 2 and 3 Only
c. 4 Only
d. None
55. What amongst the following is/are
affected by high levels of government debt?
1. Inter-generational equity
2. Capital formation
3. Economic growth
Select the correct answer using the codes
below
a. Only 3
b. 2 and 3
c. 1 and 2
d. 1,2 and 3
56. Which of the following statements
is/are false?
1. The Real Exchange rate
captures the purchasing
power parity between two
nations.
2. The nominal exchange rate
does not represent the true
international competitiveness
of a nation’s economy.
Select the correct answer using the
codes below
a. Only 1
b. Only 2
c. Both
d. None
57. Consider the following statements
about immunity in human beings
1. Acquired immunity is
pathogen specific
2. Acquired immunity is carried
out with the help of two
special types of lymphocytes
present in our blood, B-
Lymphocytes and T-
Lymphocytes
3. The cell-mediated immune
response which is a type of
acquired immunity is
responsible for the graft
rejection.
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Which of the above statements is/are
incorrect?
a. 1 and 3 Only
b. 3 Only
c. 2 and 3 Only
d. None
58. Trade deficit is possibly affected by
which of the following factors?
1. Domestic Savings
2. Fiscal deficit
3. Investment in the economy
Select the correct answer using the codes
below
a. All of the above
b. 2 and 3
c. 1 and 2
d. 1 and 3
59. Which of the following crops are
grown in semi-arid region?
1. Cotton
2. Wheat
3. Jowar
4. Maize
5. Pearl Millet
6. Groundnut
Select the correct code.
a) 1, 3 and 4 Only
b) 2, 3 and 5 Only
c) 1, 3, 4 and 6 Only
d) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 and 6
60. Which one of the following is the
correct sequence of availability of
fresh water in the decreasing order?
a. Glaciers, groundwater, freshwater
lakes, atmosphere and rivers
b. Glaciers, freshwater lakes,
groundwater, rivers and atmosphere
c. Glaciers, groundwater, freshwater
lakes, rivers and atmosphere
d. Glaciers, groundwater, rivers,
freshwater lakes and atmosphere
61. With reference to India, consider the
following Central Acts/Programs:
1. Environment Protection Act 1986
2. Water Cess Act
3. Mahatma Gandhi National Rural
Employment Guarantee Act
(MGNREGA)
4. Rural Drinking Water Program
Which of the above Acts have
relevance to/bearing on the water
conservation in the country?
a. 2 Only
b. 1 and 2 Only
c. 1, 2 and 3 Only
d. 1, 2, 3 and 4
62. Which of the following is/are part of innate immunity in humans?
1. Gastrointestinal and urogenital tracts that help in trapping microbes entering our body
2. Acid in the stomach 3. Tears from eyes 4. Interferons
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Select the correct answer using the codes given below
a. 1 and 2 Only b. 2 and 3 Only c. 1,2 and 3 Only d. All
63. Consider the following statements
about Gambusia
1. It is kind of fish
2. It is introduced into ponds to
feed on mosquito larvae
Which of the statements given above
is/are correct?
a. 1 Only
b. 2 Only
c. Both
d. None
64. Consider the following statements
about chikungunya
1. It is a vector borne disease
2. It is caused by a virus
3. It is transmitted to humans
by virus-carrying domesticated
birds.
4. There is no specific treatment
with medications used to help
with symptoms
Which of the above statements is/are
correct?
a. 1 and 2 Only
b. 1,2 and 3 Only
c. 2,3 and 4 Only
d. 1,2 and 4 Only
65. Which one among the following sectors
has the highest proportion of the total
water used in India?
a) Domestic use
b) Irrigation
c) Industries
d) Power generation
66. Consider the following statements
about the life cycle of Plasmodium
1. Plasmodium enters the
human body as
sporozoites (infectious
form) through the bite of
infected male Anopheles
mosquito.
2. The parasites initially
multiply within the liver
cells and then attack the
red blood cells (RBCs)
resulting in their rupture.
3. The rupture of RBCs is
associated with release of
a toxic substance,
haemozoin, which is
responsible for the chill
and high fever recurring
every three to four days.
Which of the statements given above
is/are correct?
a. 1 and 2 Only
b. 2 Only
c. 2 and 3 Only
d. All
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67. Consider the following statements
about ringworms
1. Fungi are responsible for
ringworms which is one of the
most common infectious
diseases in man
2. Ringworms are generally
acquired from soil or by using
towels, clothes or even the
comb of infected individuals
3. Most fungi thrive in warm and
dry conditions
Which of the statements given above
is/are correct?
a. 1 and 2 Only
b. 2 and 3 Only
c. 1 and 3 Only
d. All
68. With reference to food grains grown in
India, consider the following statement :
1. Maize is a considered to be a food
and also a fodder crop.
2. Growing pulses increases soil
fertility.
3. Cereals occupy majority of the
cropped area
4. Maize is grown under semi-arid
conditions.
Which of the statements given above
is/are correct?
a) 2 and 3 Only
b) 2, 3 and 4 Only
c) 1, 2 and 3 Only
d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
69. Which one of the following is the main
form of degradation in irrigated areas?
a) Wind erosion
b) Gully erosion
c) Siltation of land
d) Salinisation of soils
70. Consider the following statements
1. All parasites are pathogens
2. Pathogens have to adapt to life
within the environment of the
host.
3. Rhinoviruses, a pathogen, causes
common cold in humans
4. All cancers are non-pathogenic
diseases i.e. they are genetic in
origin
Which of the above statements is/are
correct?
a. 1,2 and 3 Only
b. 1,3 and 4 Only
c. 2,3 and 4 Only
d. All
71. Consider the following statements
with reference to Malaria
1. Plasmodium, a tiny bacteria is
responsible for this disease.
2. Malignant malaria caused by
Plasmodium falciparum is the
most serious one and can even be
fatal.
3. Recently researchers in
Cambridge have identified a
single protein, AP2-G, which acts
as a “master switch” that triggers
the process in the malaria parasite
that spreads the disease.
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Which of the above statements is/are
incorrect?
a. 2 Only
b. 1 Only
c. 1 and 2 Only
d. None
72. Consider the following statements:
1. Most of the area under permanent
pastures are owned by the village
panchayat.
2. Any land which is left uncultivated
for more than five years is known as
a culturable waste-Land.
3. The physical extent of land on
which crops are sown and harvested
is known as net sown area.
4. Land which is left without
cultivation for more than one
agricultural year is known as Current
Fallow.
Which of the statements given above
is/are correct?
a) 3 Only
b) 1 and 2 Only
c) 1, 2 and 3 Only
d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 Only
73. India has undergone major changes
within the economy over the past five
decades (1960-2012), and this has
influenced the land-use changes in the
country. With regard to this, what has
been the general trend in the land-use
pattern?
1. The area under non-agricultural uses
has increased at the expense of
wastelands and agricultural land.
2. The barren and wasteland are on the
decline.
3. The net sown area has increased.
4. The area under the forest has
increased.
Select the correct code.
a) 1 Only
b) 1, 2, and 4 Only
c) 1, 2 and 3 Only
d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 Only
74. In the context of India, Common
Property Resources (CPRs) type of land
ownership has been advocated since
decades. What is the intention behind
advocating CPR?
1. It provides fodder for the livestock
2. It provides more revenue to the
government
3. It provides livelihood for the weaker
section of the society
4. Every member can have property
rights over the land
5. Women are benefited
Select the correct code.
a) 2, 3, and 4 Only
b) 1, 3 and 5 Only
c) 1, 2, 3 and 4 Only
d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5 Only
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75. With reference to spread of cancer
in human body, consider the
following statements
1. Normal cells show a property
called contact inhibition by
virtue of which contact with
other cells inhibits their
uncontrolled growth. Cancer
cells appear to have lost this
property. As a result of this,
cancerous cells just continue
to divide giving rise to masses
of cells called tumors.
2. Metastasis, the spread of
a cancer from one organ or
part to another non-adjacent
organ or part, is the most
feared property of malignant
tumors.
3. Cancer causing agents are
called as carcinogens
Which of the statements given above
is/are correct?
a. 1 and 2 Only
b. 1,2 and 3
c. 2 and 3 Only
d. 1 and 3 Only