Insights test 6

21
http://insightsonindia.com Page 1 INSIGHTS ON INDIA MOCK PRELIMINARY EXAM - 2014 INSIGHTS ON INDIA MOCK TEST - 6 GENERAL STUDIES PAPER-I Time Allowed: One and Half Hours Maximum Marks: 150 INSTRUCTIONS 1. IMMEDITELY AFTER THE COMMENCEMENT OF THE EXAMINATION, YOU SHOULD CHECK THAT THIS TEST BOOKLET DOES NOT HAVE ANY UNPRINTED OR TORN OR MISSING PAGES OR ITEMS, ETC. IF SO, GET IT REPLACED BY A COMPLETE TEST BOOKLET. 2. You have to enter your Roll Number on the Test I Booklet in the Box provided alongside. DO NOT write anything else on the Test Booklet. 4. This Test Booklet contains 100 items (questions). Each item is printed only in English. Each item comprises four responses (answers). You will select the response which you want to mark on the Answer Sheet. In case you feel that there is more than one correct response, mark the response which you consider the best. In any case, choose ONLY ONE response for each item. 5. You have to mark all your responses ONLY on the separate Answer Sheet provided. See directions in the Answer Sheet. 6. All items carry equal marks. 7. Before you proceed to mark in the Answer Sheet the response to various items in the Test Booklet, you have to fill in some particulars in the Answer Sheet as per instructions sent to you with your Admission Certificate. 8. After you have completed filling in all your responses on the Answer Sheet and the examination has concluded, you should hand over to the Invigilator only the Answer Sheet. You are permitted to take away with you the Test Booklet. 9. Sheets for rough work are appended in the Test Booklet at the end. 10. Penalty for wrong answers : THERE WILL BE PENALTY FOR WRONG ANSWERS MARKED BY A CANDIDATE IN THE OBJECTIVE TYPE QUESTION PAPERS. (i) There are four alternatives for the answer to every question. For each question for which a wrong answer has been given by the candidate, one-third of the marks assigned to that question will be deducted as penalty. (ii) If a candidate gives more than one answer, it will be treated as a wrong answer even if one of the given answers happens to be correct and there will be same penalty as above to that question. (iii) If a question is left blank, i.e., no answer is given by the candidate, there will be no penalty for that question. http://insightsonindia.com INSIGHTS ON INDIA MOCK TEST SERIES FOR CIVIL SERVICES PRELIMINARY EXAM 2014

description

answer key of insights test 6useful for UPSC preparation

Transcript of Insights test 6

Page 1: Insights test 6

http://insightsonindia.com Page 1

INSIGHTS ON INDIA MOCK PRELIMINARY EXAM - 2014

INSIGHTS ON INDIA MOCK TEST - 6

GENERAL STUDIES

PAPER-I

Time Allowed: One and Half Hours Maximum Marks: 150

INSTRUCTIONS 1. IMMEDITELY AFTER THE COMMENCEMENT OF THE EXAMINATION, YOU SHOULD

CHECK THAT THIS TEST BOOKLET DOES NOT HAVE ANY UNPRINTED OR TORN OR

MISSING PAGES OR ITEMS, ETC. IF SO, GET IT REPLACED BY A COMPLETE TEST BOOKLET.

2. You have to enter your Roll Number on the Test I

Booklet in the Box provided alongside. DO NOT

write anything else on the Test Booklet.

4. This Test Booklet contains 100 items (questions). Each item is printed only in English. Each item

comprises four responses (answers). You will select the response which you want to mark on the Answer

Sheet. In case you feel that there is more than one correct response, mark the response which you consider

the best. In any case, choose ONLY ONE response for each item.

5. You have to mark all your responses ONLY on the separate Answer Sheet provided. See directions in the

Answer Sheet.

6. All items carry equal marks.

7. Before you proceed to mark in the Answer Sheet the response to various items in the Test Booklet, you

have to fill in some particulars in the Answer Sheet as per instructions sent to you with your Admission

Certificate.

8. After you have completed filling in all your responses on the Answer Sheet and the examination has

concluded, you should hand over to the Invigilator only the Answer Sheet. You are permitted to take away

with you the Test Booklet.

9. Sheets for rough work are appended in the Test Booklet at the end.

10. Penalty for wrong answers :

THERE WILL BE PENALTY FOR WRONG ANSWERS MARKED BY A CANDIDATE IN THE

OBJECTIVE TYPE QUESTION PAPERS.

(i) There are four alternatives for the answer to every question. For each question for which a

wrong answer has been given by the candidate, one-third of the marks assigned to that question

will be deducted as penalty.

(ii) If a candidate gives more than one answer, it will be treated as a wrong answer even if one of the

given answers happens to be correct and there will be same penalty as above to that question.

(iii) If a question is left blank, i.e., no answer is given by the candidate, there will be no penalty for

that question.

http://insightsonindia.com

INSIGHTS ON INDIA MOCK TEST SERIES FOR CIVIL SERVICES PRELIMINARY EXAM 2014

Page 2: Insights test 6

http://insightsonindia.com Page 2

1. Consider the following statements with

reference to human development.

1. Nobel Laureate Prof Amartya

Sen saw an increase in

freedom (or decrease in

unfreedom) as the main

objective of development.

2. According to Dr Mehbub-Ul-

Haq, development is all about

enlarging people’s choices in

order to lead long, healthy

lives with dignity.

Which of the statements given above

is/are correct?

a. 1 Only

b. 2 Only

c. Both

d. None

2. Which of the following is/are true in

connection with Special Drawing Rights

(SDRs) ?

1. The SDR quota in IMF is different

for different countries.

2. Its value is not constant.

3. It derives its legitimacy from IMF

and other nations willing to use it.

Select the correct answer using the codes

below.

a. All of the above

b. 1 and 3

c. 2 Only

d. 1 Only

3. With reference to AIDS,

consider the following

statements

1. AIDS is caused by the Human

Immuno deficiency Virus

(HIV), a member of a group

of viruses called retrovirus.

2. The virus enters into

macrophages where RNA

genome of the virus replicates

to form infective new RNA

with the help of the enzyme

reverse transcriptase.

3. This viral DNA gets

incorporated into host cell’s

DNA and directs the infected

cells to produce virus particles

Which of the above statements is/are

correct?

a. 1 and 3 Only

b. 1 and 2 Only

c. 2 and 3 Only

d. All

4. Consider the following

statements about population

change

1. Population change is also called as

population growth

2. Natural Growth of Population

refers to the population increased

by difference between births and

deaths in a particular region

between two points of time.

3. Population change in an area is an

important indicator of economic

Page 3: Insights test 6

http://insightsonindia.com Page 3

development, social upliftment

and historical and cultural

background of the region.

Which of the statements given above

is/are incorrect?

a. 3 Only

b. 1 Only

c. None

d. All

5. In which of the following cases of budget

deficits will the government have to

necessarily borrow not only to finance its

investment but also its consumption

requirements?

a) Fiscal deficit

b) Revenue deficit

c) Primary deficit

d) Current account deficit

6. The proportional income tax regime

acts as an automatic stabiliser – a shock

absorber for the economy in which of the

following ways?

1. It makes disposable income of the

households less sensitive to fluctuations in

the GDP.

2. It redistributes the national

income and redirects government spending

in the right sectors.

a. 1 Only

b. 2 Only

c. Both

d. None of the above

7. Productivity and sustainability are

two pillars of human development,

with reference to these two, consider

the following statements

1. Productivity here means

human labour productivity or

productivity in terms of

human work. Such

productivity must be

constantly enriched by

building capabilities in people.

2. Sustainability means

continuity in the availability

of opportunities.

3. To have sustainable human

development, each generation

must have the same

opportunities.

Which of the above statements is/are

correct?

a. 1 and 2 Only

b. 2 and 3 Only

c. 1 and 3 Only

d. All

8. Consider the following factors that

influence the distribution of

population around the world

1. Availability of water

2. Soil

3. Industrialization

4. Climate

5. Landforms

6. Minerals

7. Urbanization

Which of the above factors have direct

influence on the distribution of

population?

Page 4: Insights test 6

http://insightsonindia.com Page 4

a. 1,2,4 and 6

b. 1,2,4 and 5

c. 1,2,3,4 and 7

d. 1,2,4,5,6 and 7

9. Consider the following statements

about ‘inbreeding’ which is used in

animal husbandry

1. Inbreeding refers to the

mating of more closely related

individuals within the same

breed for 4- 6 generations.

2. Inbreeding exposes harmful

recessive genes that are

eliminated by selection.

3. It helps in accumulation of

superior genes and elimination

of less desirable genes.

4. Continued inbreeding,

especially close inbreeding,

usually reduces fertility and

even productivity. This is

called inbreeding depression.

Which of the statements given above

is/are incorrect?

a. 1 and 2 Only

b. 2 and 4 Only

c. 4 Only

d. None

10. Consider the following factors:

1. The size of the economy

2. Relief features of the country

3. Inheritance practices of the society

4. The composition of the economy

5. Traditional practices of the farmers

Which of the factors affects land use?

a) 1, 2 and 3 Only

b) 2, 3 and 5 Only

c) 1, 2, 3 and 5 Only

d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5 Only

11. Consider the following statements

with reference to antibiotics

1. Antibiotics which are also

called as antimicrobial are an

agent that completely

eliminates microorganisms.

2. In 1928, Alexander

Fleming became the first to

discover a natural

antimicrobial fungus known

as penicillium rubens.

3. Ozone is an antimicrobial

agent.

Which of the above statements is/are

correct?

a. 1 Only

b. 1 and 2 Only

c. 2 and 3 Only

d. 1 and 3 Only

12. Which of the following factors affect

the value of the Indian currency in

international transactions?

1. Political stability in India

2. Economic potential of India

3. Demand of rupee in International

market

4. The difference between interest

rates between India and other countries.

Select the correct answer using the codes

below.

Page 5: Insights test 6

http://insightsonindia.com Page 5

a) 1, 3 and 4

b) All of the above

c) 2, 3 and 4

d) 1 and 2

13. Consider the following crops:

1. Barley

2. Rice

3. Cotton

4. Jute

5. Groundnut

Which of these are Rabi crops?

a) 1 and 5 Only

b) 1, 2, and 4 Only

c) 1, 4 and 5 Only

d) 1, 3 and 5 Only

14. Which of the following statements

is/are true?

1. A change in nominal exchange rate

affects the real exchange rate.

2. Nominal exchange rate is affected

by the inflation rate prevailing in a country.

a) Only 1

b) Only 2

c) Both

d) None

15. Consider the following statements

about growth and development

1. Growth is quantitative and

value neutral. It may have a

positive or a negative sign.

2. Development means a

qualitative change which is

always value positive.

3. Development occurs when

positive growth takes place.

4. Development occurs when

there is a positive change in

quality.

Which of the above statements is/are

incorrect?

a. 1 Only

b. 2 Only

c. 1 and 2 Only

d. None

16. Which of the following help stabilize

the economy in periods of slump in

economic growth?

1. Discretionary fiscal policy

2. Welfare transfers

3. Inelasticity in household spending

a) 1 and 2

b) All of the above

c) Only 2

d) 1 and 3

17. Consider the following statements

regarding methanogens

1. Methanogenic populations

play an indispensable role in

Page 6: Insights test 6

http://insightsonindia.com Page 6

anaerobic wastewater

treatments

2. They live in the digestive

tracts of humans, where they

are responsible for the

methane content of flatulence

3. Methanogens are

microorganisms that

produce methane as

a metabolic byproduct in

anoxic conditions.

Which of the above statements is/are

correct?

a. 1 and 2 Only

b. 2 and 3 Only

c. 3 Only

d. All

18. Consider the following statements:

1. Enlarging the range of people’s

choices.

2. Political freedom.

3. A sound physical environment.

Which of the above is/are the aspect/s

of Human Development?

a) 1 and 2 Only

b) 1 and 3 Only

c) 2 and 3 Only

d) All the above

19. Consider the following statements

about the Census data on Decadal

Population Growth Rate in India:

1. India has consistently witnessed a

Positive Decadal Population Growth

in every decade since 1901.

2. The Decadal Population Growth

Rate between 2001-11 as shown by

the Census 2011 is the lowest

Decadal Population Growth Rate

since 1951.

Which of the above is/are correct?

a. 1 Only

b. 2 Only

c. Both

d. None

20. Consider the following statements

about beneficial microbes

1. The large holes in ‘Swiss

cheese’ are due to production

of a large amount of CO2 by a

bacterium named

Propionibacterium sharmanii.

2. The dough, which is used for

making bread, is fermented

using a bacteria

(Saccharomyces cerevisiae)

3. Micro-organisms such as

Lactobacillus and others

commonly called lactic acid

bacteria (LAB) grow in milk

and convert it to curd.

Which of the above is/are correct?

a. 1 and 3 Only

b. 2 and 3 Only

c. 1 and 2 Only

d. All

21. Which of the following, inter alia, form

part of the Current Account Deficit

(CAD)?

1. Gifts and grants from abroad

2. Trade in invisibles

Page 7: Insights test 6

http://insightsonindia.com Page 7

3. Sale and purchase of stocks

a) Only 2

b) 1 and 3

c) All of the above

d) 1 and 2

22. With reference to factors

contributing to migration, consider

the following

1. Unemployment

2. Poor living conditions

3. Political turmoil

4. Unpleasant climate

5. Natural disasters

6. Epidemics and socio-economic

backwardness.

Which of the above factors can considered

as ‘pull’ factors?

a. 1 and 2

b. 3

c. 5

d. None

23. With reference to organic farming,

consider the following statements

1. The organic farmer holds the

view that the eradication of

the creatures that are often

described as pests is not only

possible, but also undesirable.

2. A key belief of the organic

farmer is that biodiversity

furthers health.

3. The very familiar beetle with

red and black markings – the

Ladybird, and Dragonflies are

useful to get rid of aphids and

mosquitoes, respectively.

4. In Indian the Government is

promoting organic farming

through various schemes like

National Project on Organic

Farming (NPOF), National

Horticulture Mission (NHM),

Horticulture Mission for

North East & Himalayan

States (HMNEH), National

Project on Management of

Soil Health and Fertility

(NPMSH&F), Rashtriya Krishi

Vikas Yojana (RKVY) and

also Network Project on

Organic Farming of Indian

Council of Agricultural

Research (ICAR).

Which of the statements given above

is/are correct?

a. 1 and 4 Only

b. 1,2 and 4 Only

c. 1, 2 and 3 Only

d. All

24. Australia’s age-sex pyramid is bell

shaped and tapered towards the top.

This indicates that Australia has

a. Expanding populations

b. Constant populations

c. Declining populations

d. None of the above

25. Consider the following statements

with reference to a bioactive

molecule, cyclosporin A

1. It is used as an

immunosuppressive agent in

Page 8: Insights test 6

http://insightsonindia.com Page 8

organ-transplant patients to

prevent rejection.

2. It is produced by the fungus

Trichoderma polysporum.

Which of the above statements is

incorrect?

a. 1

b. 2

c. Both

d. None

26. Consider the following:

1. About 80 per cent of the coal

deposits in India is of anthracite type

and is of non-coking grade.

2. Crude petroleum occurs in

sedimentary rocks of the tertiary

period

3. Uranium deposits occur in the

Laterite rocks.

4. World’s richest monazite deposits

occur in Kerala, Andhra Pradesh and

also in Orissa

Which of the statements given above

is/are correct?

a) 1 and 2 Only

b) 2 and 4 Only

c) 1, 3 and 4 Only

d) 1, 2 and 4 Only

27. Fiscal deficit does not include which of

the following?

1. Non-debt creating capital receipts

2. Borrowing from RBI and other

financial institutions

3. Borrowing from abroad

Select the correct answer using the codes

below

a) 1 only

b) All of the above

c) None of the above

d) 2 and 3

28. With reference to procedures used

in sewage water treatment, consider

the following statements.

1. The greater the Biological

Oxygen Demand of waste

water, more is its polluting

potential.

2. In the secondary treatment of

sewage water, flocs or masses

of bacteria is allowed to grow

and increase BOD levels

3. BOD refers to the amount of

the oxygen that would be

consumed if all the organic

matter in one liter of water

were oxidized by bacteria.

Which of the statements given above

is/are incorrect?

a. 1 and 2 Only

b. 2 and 3 Only

c. 2 Only

d. All

29. The Central and State Governments

have initiated many watershed

development and management

programmes in the country. One

such program is Haryali. Which of

Page 9: Insights test 6

http://insightsonindia.com Page 9

the following is/are correct regarding

Haryali?

1. It is State Government sponsored

program

2. The Project is executed by Gram

Sabha

3. Aims at enabling rural and urban

population to conserve water

4. It helps in employment generation

Select the correct code.

a. 2 Only

b. 2 and 4 Only

c. 1, 2 and 3 Only

d. 1, 2 and 4 Only

30. Which of the following can be the

possible implications of high revenue

deficit in the budget of the central

government for the Indian economy?

1. Stock of debt and interest

liabilities will pile up.

2. Reduction in social sector

expenditure

3. Low economic growth

Select the correct answer using the codes

below

a. 1 and 2

b. 2 and 3

c. 1,2 and 3

d. 1 and 3

31. Consider the following statements

about sex-ratio pattern around the

world

1. A deficit of males in the

populations of many European

countries is attributed to

better status of women an

excessively male-dominated

out-migration to different

parts of the world in the past.

2. More women in the

population does not mean

they have a better status. It

could be that the men might

have migrated to other areas

for employment.

3. In India, Haryana has lowest

sex ratio among states, and its

ratio has decreased further

compared to 2001 census.

Which of the statements given above

is/are correct?

a. 1 Only

b. 1 and 2 Only

c. 1 and 3 Only

d. 2 and 3 Only

32. Consider the following statements

about Single Cell Protein (SCP)

1. Microorganisms have a high rate of multiplication and, hence, rapid succession of generations (algae: 2–6 hours, yeast: 1–3 hours, bacteria: 0.5–2 hours) This principle is used in production of SCP

2. Single-cell protein (SCP)

typically refers to sources of

mixed protein extracted from

pure or mixed cultures

of algae, yeasts, fungi or

bacteria

Page 10: Insights test 6

http://insightsonindia.com Page 10

3. They are used as a substitute

for protein-rich foods, in

human and animal feeds.

Which of the statements given above

is/are correct?

a. 1 and 3 Only

b. 2 and 3 Only

c. 2 Only

d. All

33. Consider the following statements

about the Fiscal Responsibility and Budget

Management (FRBM) Act, 2003:

1. It strives for Inter-generational

equity in government finances.

2. It restricts borrowing from the RBI

by the Central government other

than in some specific cases.

3. It strengthens the fiscal

accountability of the executive to

the legislature.

Which of the following is/are true in this

connection?

a. All of the above

b. 1 and 2

c. 2 and 3

d. Only 2

34. Consider the following statements

with reference to Tissue Culture

2. Micropropagation under tissue

culture refers to transfer of

desired genes into plant

saplings to produce identical

plants.

3. Explants refer to any part of a

plant taken out and grown in

a test tube, under sterile

conditions in special nutrient

media.

4. Capacity to generate a whole

plant from any cell/explant is

called totipotency.

5. Each of the plants produced

by tissue culture will be

genetically identical to the

original plant from which they

were grown, i.e., they are

somaclones.

Which of the above statements

is/are correct?

a. 1,2 and 3 Only

b. 2,3 and 4 Only

c. 3 and 4 Only

d. All

35. Which of the following form part of

the non-tax revenue receipts of the

government budget?

1. Interest receipts

2. Dividend and returns from

investment made by the

government

3. Grants in aid from foreign

governments

Select the correct answer using the codes

below

a. 1 and 2

b. 2 and 3

c. All of the above

d. Only 1

36. Which one of the following is the

correct order of water allocation

Page 11: Insights test 6

http://insightsonindia.com Page 11

priorities according to the National

Water policy, 2012?

1. Drinking water, Irrigation,

Hydropower, Ecology, Agro

industries and non-agricultural

industries, Navigation

2. Drinking water, Irrigation, Agro

industries and non-agricultural

industries, Hydropower, Ecology,

Navigation

3. Ecology, Drinking water, Irrigation,

Agro industries and non-agricultural

industries, Navigation, Hydropower

4. Drinking water, Ecology, Irrigation,

Agro industries and non-agricultural

industries, Hydropower, Navigation

37. Which of the following statements

is/are true?

1. The Capital Budget is an

account of the assets as well as

liabilities of the central

government.

2. The subsidies provided by the

Central government as a

percentage of GDP has been

declining from 1991 onwards.

3. Fiscal deficit is always

inflationary.

Select the correct answer using the codes

below

a. Only 1

b. 2 and 3

c. 1 and 3

d. None of the above

38. Which of the following qualify to be a

part of capital receipts of the Central

government?

1. Borrowing from the RBI

2. Loans received from foreign

governments and institutions

3. PSU Disinvestment

Select the correct answer using the codes

below

a. 1 and 3

b. 1 and 2

c. 2 and 3

d. All of the above

39. Consider the following statements

about biofertilizers

1. Biofertilisers are organisms

that enrich the nutrient

quality of the soil.

2. Bio-fertilizers do not contain

any chemicals which are

harmful to the living soil.

3. The main sources of

biofertilisers are bacteria, fungi

and cyanobacteria.

4. Bio-fertilizers add nutrients

through the natural processes

of nitrogen fixation,

solubilizing phosphorus, and

stimulating plant growth

through the synthesis of

growth-promoting

substances.

Which of the statements given above

is/are correct?

a. 2,3 and 4 Only

b. 3 and 4 Only

Page 12: Insights test 6

http://insightsonindia.com Page 12

c. None

d. 2 Only

40. Consider the following statements

with reference to the population

theory put forward by Thomas

Malthus

1. He stated that the number of

people would increase faster

than the food supply

2. Any further increase would

result in a population crash

caused by famine, disease and

war.

3. The physical or positive

checks are better than the

preventive checks.

4. The preventive checks include

abortion, birth control,

prostitution, postponement of

marriage and celibacy

Which of the above statements is/are

correct?

a. 1 and 2 Only

b. 2 and 3 Only

c. 1,2 and 4 Only

d. All

41. The Modern Indian Languages can

be classified into 4 Families, a

number of sub-families and groups.

Consider the following statements

about the Indian Languages:

1. The languages spoken in Central

India are classified under the Austric

Family.

2. Kashmiri language is classified under

the Indo-Aryan group.

3. Konkani language spoken in Goa is

classified under the Dravidian family

of languages.

Which of the above is/are correct?

a. 1 Only

b. 2 Only

c. 2 and 3 Only

d. 1 and 2 Only

42. Expenditure on which of the following

is eligible to be a part of capital

expenditure of the Government of India?

1. Land Acquisition

2. Loans by the Central government

to the state governments and UTs.

3. Advances and loans made to the

PSUs.

Select the correct answer using the codes

below

a. All of the above

b. 2 and 3

c. 1 and 2

d. 1 and 3

43. Which one of the following is NOT

the part of the definition of a town

as per the census of India?

1. Population density of 400 persons per sq km.

2. Presence of municipality, corporation, Cantonment etc.

3. More than 75% of the working population engaged in non-primary sector.

4. Population size of more than 5,000 persons.

Page 13: Insights test 6

http://insightsonindia.com Page 13

44. Consider the following statements

about Multiple Ovulation Embryo

Transfer Technology (MOET)

1. It is a program for herd

improvement for the

successful production of

hybrids

2. In this method, a cow is

administered hormones, with

FSH-like activity (Follicle

Stimulating Hormone), to

induce follicular maturation

and super ovulation – instead

of one egg, which they

normally yield per cycle, they

produce 6-8 eggs.

3. The animal is either mated

with an elite bull or artificially

inseminated. Fertilized eggs

are non-surgically removed

and transferred to surrogate

mothers.

4. The genetic mother is used for

another round of super

ovulation

Which of the statements given above

is/are incorrect?

a. 2 Only

b. None

c. 3 Only

d. 3 and 4 Only

45. Which of the following relate to central

plan revenue expenditure?

1. Central Five year plans

2. Central assistance to state and

Union Territories (UTs)

Select the correct answer using the codes

below

a. Only 1

b. Only 2

c. Both

d. None of the above

46. Consider the following statements

with reference to mutation breeding

1. It is the process of exposing

seeds

to chemicals or radiation in

order to generate mutants

with desirable traits to be bred

with other cultivars.

2. Mutation breeding is

commonly used to produce

traits in crops such as larger

seeds, new colors, or sweeter

fruits, that either cannot be

found in nature or have been

lost during evolution

3. In India, mutation induced

crops are produced by BARC

and have been released and

officially notified by the

Ministry of Agriculture,

Government of India for

commercial cultivation.

4. In developing and applying

mutation breeding using

ionising radiation, India has a

leading role among all nations.

Which of the above statements is/are

correct?

a. 1 and 3 Only

b. 1,2 and 3 Only

c. 2,3 and 4 Only

Page 14: Insights test 6

http://insightsonindia.com Page 14

d. All

47. Consider the following statements

with reference to demographic

transition theory

1. In the last stage, both fertility and

mortality decline considerably. The

population is either stable or grows

slowly.

2. The first stage has low fertility and

high mortality because people

reproduce less for the fear of the

deaths due to epidemics and variable

food supply

3. Fertility remains high in the

beginning of second stage but it

declines with time. This is

accompanied by reduced mortality

rate.

4. Fertility is the natural capability to

produce offspring.

Which of the statements given above

is/are correct?

a. 1,2,3 and 4

b. 1,3 and 4

c. 1,2 and 3

d. 2,3 and 4

48. Consider the following with reference

to minerals and its distribution:

1. All minerals are exhaustible over

time.

2. Over 97 per cent of coal reserves

occur in the valleys of Damodar,

Sone, Mahanadi and Godavari

3. Bauxite is usually associated with

Sedimentary rocks

4. Copper and Zinc form part of

Dharwar system of rocks

Select the correct code.

a. 1 and 2 Only

b. 2 Only

c. 1, 3 and 4 Only

d. 1, 2 and 4 Only

49. Which of the following activities would

be included in the revenue expenditure of

the central government?

1. Expenditure on building roads

2. Interest payments

3. Grants to state governments

Select the correct answer using the codes

below

a. 1 and 3

b. All of the above

c. 2 and 3

d. Only 2

50. Rural settlements in India can

broadly be put into four types:

Clustered, Semi-clustered or

fragmented, Hamleted and Dispersed

or isolated. Consider the following

statements with regard to the Rural

settlements in India:

1. In the Bundelkhand region of central

India and in Nagaland people live in

compact village for security or

defence reasons.

2. Dispersed settlements are often

caused by extremely fragmented

nature of the terrain and land

resource base of habitable areas.

Page 15: Insights test 6

http://insightsonindia.com Page 15

3. In fertile alluvial plains of India, the

Dispersed settlements are commonly

found as there is a space constraint.

Which of the above is/are correct?

a. 1 and 2 Only

b. 1 and 3 Only

c. 2 and 3 Only

d. All the above

51. With reference to commonly used

drugs by addicts, consider the

following statements

1. The drugs, which are

commonly abused, opioids,

cannabinoids and coca

alkaloids, are obtained from

flowering plants.

2. Cocaine, commonly called

coke or crack is usually

snorted. It has a potent

stimulating action on central

nervous system, producing a

sense of euphoria and

increased energy.

3. Morphine is used to relieve

the pain for patients suffering

from terminal illnesses such as

cancer, HIV and thalassemia.

4. In India, as of now, use of

Morphine even for medical

use is completely banned

Which of the above statements is/are

correct?

a. 1,2 and 3 Only

b. 2 and 3 Only

c. 3 and 4 Only

d. 2 and 4 Only

52. Consider the following statements

with reference to allergy

1. The exaggerated response of

the immune system to certain

antigens present in the

environment is called allergy.

2. Allergy is due to the release of

chemicals like histamine and

serotonin from the mast cells.

3. The use of drugs like adrenalin

and steroids quickly reduce

the symptoms of allergy.

Which of the above statements is/are

incorrect?

a. 2 Only

b. 3 Only

c. 2 and 3 Only

d. None

53. National Income may include which

of the following:

1. Investment in the national

economy

2. External Commercial

Borrowing

3. Indirect taxes imposed by the

government

Select the correct answer using the codes

below

a. All of the above

b. 1 only

c. 1 and 3

d. 2 and 3

54. Consider the following statements

about immunization and vaccination

Page 16: Insights test 6

http://insightsonindia.com Page 16

1. The principle of

immunization or vaccination

is based on the property of

‘memory’ of the immune

system.

2. In vaccination, a preparation

of antigenic proteins of

pathogen or

inactivated/weakened

pathogen (vaccine) are

introduced into the body.

3. The vaccines generate

memory – B and T-cells that

recognize the pathogen

quickly on subsequent

exposure and overwhelm the

invaders with a massive

production of antibodies.

4. In cases of snakebites, the

injection which is given to the

patients, contain preformed

antigens against the snake

venom

Which of the statements given above

is/are incorrect?

a. 3 and 4 Only

b. 2 and 3 Only

c. 4 Only

d. None

55. What amongst the following is/are

affected by high levels of government debt?

1. Inter-generational equity

2. Capital formation

3. Economic growth

Select the correct answer using the codes

below

a. Only 3

b. 2 and 3

c. 1 and 2

d. 1,2 and 3

56. Which of the following statements

is/are false?

1. The Real Exchange rate

captures the purchasing

power parity between two

nations.

2. The nominal exchange rate

does not represent the true

international competitiveness

of a nation’s economy.

Select the correct answer using the

codes below

a. Only 1

b. Only 2

c. Both

d. None

57. Consider the following statements

about immunity in human beings

1. Acquired immunity is

pathogen specific

2. Acquired immunity is carried

out with the help of two

special types of lymphocytes

present in our blood, B-

Lymphocytes and T-

Lymphocytes

3. The cell-mediated immune

response which is a type of

acquired immunity is

responsible for the graft

rejection.

Page 17: Insights test 6

http://insightsonindia.com Page 17

Which of the above statements is/are

incorrect?

a. 1 and 3 Only

b. 3 Only

c. 2 and 3 Only

d. None

58. Trade deficit is possibly affected by

which of the following factors?

1. Domestic Savings

2. Fiscal deficit

3. Investment in the economy

Select the correct answer using the codes

below

a. All of the above

b. 2 and 3

c. 1 and 2

d. 1 and 3

59. Which of the following crops are

grown in semi-arid region?

1. Cotton

2. Wheat

3. Jowar

4. Maize

5. Pearl Millet

6. Groundnut

Select the correct code.

a) 1, 3 and 4 Only

b) 2, 3 and 5 Only

c) 1, 3, 4 and 6 Only

d) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 and 6

60. Which one of the following is the

correct sequence of availability of

fresh water in the decreasing order?

a. Glaciers, groundwater, freshwater

lakes, atmosphere and rivers

b. Glaciers, freshwater lakes,

groundwater, rivers and atmosphere

c. Glaciers, groundwater, freshwater

lakes, rivers and atmosphere

d. Glaciers, groundwater, rivers,

freshwater lakes and atmosphere

61. With reference to India, consider the

following Central Acts/Programs:

1. Environment Protection Act 1986

2. Water Cess Act

3. Mahatma Gandhi National Rural

Employment Guarantee Act

(MGNREGA)

4. Rural Drinking Water Program

Which of the above Acts have

relevance to/bearing on the water

conservation in the country?

a. 2 Only

b. 1 and 2 Only

c. 1, 2 and 3 Only

d. 1, 2, 3 and 4

62. Which of the following is/are part of innate immunity in humans?

1. Gastrointestinal and urogenital tracts that help in trapping microbes entering our body

2. Acid in the stomach 3. Tears from eyes 4. Interferons

Page 18: Insights test 6

http://insightsonindia.com Page 18

Select the correct answer using the codes given below

a. 1 and 2 Only b. 2 and 3 Only c. 1,2 and 3 Only d. All

63. Consider the following statements

about Gambusia

1. It is kind of fish

2. It is introduced into ponds to

feed on mosquito larvae

Which of the statements given above

is/are correct?

a. 1 Only

b. 2 Only

c. Both

d. None

64. Consider the following statements

about chikungunya

1. It is a vector borne disease

2. It is caused by a virus

3. It is transmitted to humans

by virus-carrying domesticated

birds.

4. There is no specific treatment

with medications used to help

with symptoms

Which of the above statements is/are

correct?

a. 1 and 2 Only

b. 1,2 and 3 Only

c. 2,3 and 4 Only

d. 1,2 and 4 Only

65. Which one among the following sectors

has the highest proportion of the total

water used in India?

a) Domestic use

b) Irrigation

c) Industries

d) Power generation

66. Consider the following statements

about the life cycle of Plasmodium

1. Plasmodium enters the

human body as

sporozoites (infectious

form) through the bite of

infected male Anopheles

mosquito.

2. The parasites initially

multiply within the liver

cells and then attack the

red blood cells (RBCs)

resulting in their rupture.

3. The rupture of RBCs is

associated with release of

a toxic substance,

haemozoin, which is

responsible for the chill

and high fever recurring

every three to four days.

Which of the statements given above

is/are correct?

a. 1 and 2 Only

b. 2 Only

c. 2 and 3 Only

d. All

Page 19: Insights test 6

http://insightsonindia.com Page 19

67. Consider the following statements

about ringworms

1. Fungi are responsible for

ringworms which is one of the

most common infectious

diseases in man

2. Ringworms are generally

acquired from soil or by using

towels, clothes or even the

comb of infected individuals

3. Most fungi thrive in warm and

dry conditions

Which of the statements given above

is/are correct?

a. 1 and 2 Only

b. 2 and 3 Only

c. 1 and 3 Only

d. All

68. With reference to food grains grown in

India, consider the following statement :

1. Maize is a considered to be a food

and also a fodder crop.

2. Growing pulses increases soil

fertility.

3. Cereals occupy majority of the

cropped area

4. Maize is grown under semi-arid

conditions.

Which of the statements given above

is/are correct?

a) 2 and 3 Only

b) 2, 3 and 4 Only

c) 1, 2 and 3 Only

d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

69. Which one of the following is the main

form of degradation in irrigated areas?

a) Wind erosion

b) Gully erosion

c) Siltation of land

d) Salinisation of soils

70. Consider the following statements

1. All parasites are pathogens

2. Pathogens have to adapt to life

within the environment of the

host.

3. Rhinoviruses, a pathogen, causes

common cold in humans

4. All cancers are non-pathogenic

diseases i.e. they are genetic in

origin

Which of the above statements is/are

correct?

a. 1,2 and 3 Only

b. 1,3 and 4 Only

c. 2,3 and 4 Only

d. All

71. Consider the following statements

with reference to Malaria

1. Plasmodium, a tiny bacteria is

responsible for this disease.

2. Malignant malaria caused by

Plasmodium falciparum is the

most serious one and can even be

fatal.

3. Recently researchers in

Cambridge have identified a

single protein, AP2-G, which acts

as a “master switch” that triggers

the process in the malaria parasite

that spreads the disease.

Page 20: Insights test 6

http://insightsonindia.com Page 20

Which of the above statements is/are

incorrect?

a. 2 Only

b. 1 Only

c. 1 and 2 Only

d. None

72. Consider the following statements:

1. Most of the area under permanent

pastures are owned by the village

panchayat.

2. Any land which is left uncultivated

for more than five years is known as

a culturable waste-Land.

3. The physical extent of land on

which crops are sown and harvested

is known as net sown area.

4. Land which is left without

cultivation for more than one

agricultural year is known as Current

Fallow.

Which of the statements given above

is/are correct?

a) 3 Only

b) 1 and 2 Only

c) 1, 2 and 3 Only

d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 Only

73. India has undergone major changes

within the economy over the past five

decades (1960-2012), and this has

influenced the land-use changes in the

country. With regard to this, what has

been the general trend in the land-use

pattern?

1. The area under non-agricultural uses

has increased at the expense of

wastelands and agricultural land.

2. The barren and wasteland are on the

decline.

3. The net sown area has increased.

4. The area under the forest has

increased.

Select the correct code.

a) 1 Only

b) 1, 2, and 4 Only

c) 1, 2 and 3 Only

d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 Only

74. In the context of India, Common

Property Resources (CPRs) type of land

ownership has been advocated since

decades. What is the intention behind

advocating CPR?

1. It provides fodder for the livestock

2. It provides more revenue to the

government

3. It provides livelihood for the weaker

section of the society

4. Every member can have property

rights over the land

5. Women are benefited

Select the correct code.

a) 2, 3, and 4 Only

b) 1, 3 and 5 Only

c) 1, 2, 3 and 4 Only

d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5 Only

Page 21: Insights test 6

http://insightsonindia.com Page 21

75. With reference to spread of cancer

in human body, consider the

following statements

1. Normal cells show a property

called contact inhibition by

virtue of which contact with

other cells inhibits their

uncontrolled growth. Cancer

cells appear to have lost this

property. As a result of this,

cancerous cells just continue

to divide giving rise to masses

of cells called tumors.

2. Metastasis, the spread of

a cancer from one organ or

part to another non-adjacent

organ or part, is the most

feared property of malignant

tumors.

3. Cancer causing agents are

called as carcinogens

Which of the statements given above

is/are correct?

a. 1 and 2 Only

b. 1,2 and 3

c. 2 and 3 Only

d. 1 and 3 Only