GOVERNMENT OF INDIA

DEPARTMENT OF INDUSTRIAL POLICY & PROMOTION

MINISTRY OF COMMERCE & INDUSTRY

OFFICE OF THE

CONTROLLER GENERAL OF PATENTS, DESIGNS & TRADE MARKS

INFORMATION BULLETIN

RECRUITMENT FOR THE POSTS OF

EXAMINER OF PATENTS & DESIGNS

EXAMINATION CONDUCTED BY:

National Productivity Council (Ministry of Commerce & Industry, Government of India)

Utpadakata Bhavan, 5-6 Institutional Area,

Lodi Road, New Delhi 110003 Website: www.npcindia.gov.in

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CONTENTS

S. No. CHAPTER PAGE

NO.

1 INTRODUCTION 1

1.1 Department of Industrial Policy & Promotion 2

1.2 Controller General of Patents, Designs & Trade Marks 2

1.3 Vacancies 2

2 RECRUITMENT FOR THE POST OF EXAMINER OF

PATENTS & DESIGNS 5

2.1 Job Responsibilities 6

2.2 Distribution of Vacancies 6

2.3 Posting 7

3 APPLICATION RELATED INFORMATION 8

3.1 Application Process 9

3.2 Eligibility Criteria 9

3.3 Minimum Essential Educational Qualifications 9

3.4 Desirable Qualification 10

3.5 Division of Marks Shall be Classified as Mentioned Below 10

3.6 Age Limit 11

3.7 Test Centers for Preliminary and Main Examination 13

3.8 Application Fee and Payment Gateway 14

3.9 Photograph and Signature Requirements 16

3.10 Photographs Requirements 16

3.11 Signature Specification 17

3.12 The Sample Photographs Which are Acceptable 18

4 HOW TO APPLY 20

4.1 Guidelines for applying for the examination 21

4.2 List of Original Documents Required for Verification 21

4.3 Admit card 23

4.4 Subject Code 23

5 EXAMINATION RELATED INFORMATION 25

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5.1 Structure of The Examination 26

5.2 Preliminary Examination 26

5.3 Mains Examination 26

5.4 Selection Process and Cut off 27

5.5 Important Dates Related To Examination 27

5.6 Syllabi for Preliminary Examination 27

5.6.1 General English 27

5.6.2 Numerical/Quantitative Aptitude 28

5.6.3 Reasoning: Verbal /Logical Reasoning & Non-Verbal

Reasoning 28

5.6.4 General Science 28

5.6.5 General Knowledge & Current Affairs 28

5.7 Sample Questions for Preliminary Examination 28

5.8 Syllabi for Mains Examination (Part-i) Descriptive Type 35

5.9 Mains Examination (Part-ii)- English 60

6 CONTACT US 61

7 FREQUENTLY ASKED QUESTIONS 63

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IMPORTANT

1. Candidates to ensure their eligibility for the Examination: The Candidates applying for the examination should ensure that they fulfill all eligibility conditions for

admission to examination. Their admission to all the stages of the examination will

be purely provisional subject to satisfying the prescribed eligibility conditions. Mere

issue of Admit Card to the candidate will not imply that his/her candidature has

been finally cleared by the competent authority.

2. CGPDTM will take up verification of eligibility conditions with reference to original documents of candidates as per the requirements which shall be noted after the

Preliminary Examination on the mentioned websites.

3. How to Apply: Candidates are required to apply Online only through www.recruitmentnpc.in .Refer the Information Bulletin for detailed instructions for

filling up the "Online Application Form".

4. Last Date for Receipt of Applications: The online Applications can be filled up to 24th August, 2015 upto 2400 hrs. after which the link will be disabled.

5. Admit Card: The eligible candidates shall be issued an Admit Card two weeks before the commencement of the examination. The Admit Card will be made available in

the websites mentioned in the Information Bulletin for downloading by candidates.

No Admit Card will be sent by post/email.

6. Penalty for Wrong Answers: Candidates should note that there will be penalty (negative marking) for wrong answers marked by a candidate in the Objective Type

Question Papers. Refer Information Bulletin for further details.

7. Facilitation Counter for Guidance of Candidates: In case of any guidance/information/clarification regarding their applications, candidature etc,

please refer Chapter 7 in the Information Bulletin i.e. Contact Us.

8. Mobile Phones Banned: (a) Mobile phones or any other communication devices are not allowed inside

the examination hall. Any infringement of these instructions shall entail

disciplinary action including ban from future examinations of CGPDTM.

(b) Candidates are advised in their own interest not to bring any of the banned items including mobile phones to the venue of the examination, as

arrangement for safe-keeping cannot be assured.

9. Valuable items: Candidates are advised not to bring any valuable/costly items like Calculator, Bags, Books, Mobile etc to the Examination Halls, as safe-keeping of

the same cannot be assured. CGPDTM will not be responsible for any loss in this

regard.

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1

INTRODUCTION

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1. INTRODUCTION

1.1 Department of Industrial Policy & Promotion

Department of Industrial Policy & Promotion (DIPP) is responsible for formulation and

implementation of promotional and developmental measures for growth of the industrial

sector, keeping in view the national priorities and socio-economic objectives. While

individual Administrative Ministries look after the production, distribution, development

and planning aspects of specific industries allocated to them, Department of Industrial

Policy & Promotion is responsible for the overall Industrial Policy.

The Department of Industrial Policy and Promotion is the nodal Authority for the

Formulation and Implementation of Intellectual property Rights Policy. The DIPP

recognizes the importance of Intellectual Property in the day to days' global business

environment. The Department formulates and implements a comprehensive Intellectual

Property Rights policy covering Patents, Designs, Trade Marks and Geographical

Indications (GI) of Goods. Apart from this the Department works towards creating

awareness regarding IPRs by working closely with organizations such as the World

Intellectual Property Organization (WIPO).

1.2 Controller General of Patents, Designs& Trade Marks

The Controller General of Patents, Designs and Trademarks (CGPDTM) is responsible

for the administration of the Industrial Property laws related to Patents, Designs, Trade

Marks and Geographical Indications in the country. The CGPDTM has quasi-judicial

functions as Controller of Patents & Designs under the Patents Act and Designs Act,

Registrar of Trade Marks and Geographical Indications under the Trade Marks Act 1999

and Registrar of Geographical Indications of Goods (Registration & Protection) Act,

1999.The Office of the Controller General of Patents Designs & Trade Marks is located at

Mumbai. The Patent Office is located at four places viz., Mumbai, Delhi, Chennai and

Kolkata are responsible for the examination of patent applications for the grant of patents

under the Patents Act 1970. The Trade Marks Registry is located at five places viz.,

Mumbai, Delhi, Chennai and Kolkata and Ahmadabad and responsible for the registration

of Trademarks.

The Geographical Indication Registry is located at Chennai. All Intellectual property

Offices function under the superintendence and control of the CGPDTM. Day-to-day

functioning of the office of CGPDTM and other IPO offices involves a wide spectrum of

activities ranging from filing of applications for grant of IPRs to international relations

with various countries in the matters relating to IPRs. The Rajiv Gandhi National Institute

of Intellectual Property Management (RGNIIPM) and Patent Information System, Nagpur

also function under the superintendence and control of the CGPDTM.

1.3 Vacancies

CGPDTM intends to recruit 459 Examiners Patents and Designs in the scale of Rs 15,

600-39,100 (PB-3) + Rs 5,400/- (grade pay) + T.A + HRA etc. as admissible under the

Government of India rules. This is General Central Services (Group A Gazetted).

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A few glimpse of office of the Controller General of Patents, Designs, & Trade Marks,

India.

Boudhik Sampada Bhavan, Dwarka, New Delhi

Reception of the CGPDTM office at Dwarka, New Delhi.

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New building of intellectual property office, Dwarka, New Delhi, India

Working ambiance for examiners at IPO, Dwarka, New Delhi

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RECRUITMENT FOR

THE POSTS OF

EXAMINER OF

PATENTS & DESIGNS

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2. RECRUITMENT FOR THE POST OF EXAMINERS

2.1 Job Responsibilities

The role of the Patent Office is to process the applications for grant of patents to

protect and encourage inventions. The Patent Examiner is the backbone of the Patent

office who examines the Patent applications for inventions and its claims and

determines/recommends whether the patent can be granted. The duties of the

examiners includes, inter alia:

i. To investigate each application and ascertain that the invention is described clearly and in such a way that a skilled person would be able to use it.

ii. To determine and assign the international patent classification (IPC) on the basis of disclosure made in the application.

iii. To examine the application containing the invention under the provisions of the Patents Act 1970 (as amended).

iv. To conduct search through patent and non-patent literature of earlier publications, technical literature through database or otherwise including

online databases of India and foreign patent specifications to make sure that

the invention is novel.

v. To read and understand a patent application and comparing with the prior art to determine new and inventive technological contribution made in the

invention disclosed in the patent application and its industrial application.

vi. To prepare an initial report by analyzing the search results obtained. vii. To undertake all such tasks as may be required in future, as patents is an

evolving field.

2.2 Distribution of Vacancies

Distribution of vacancies of examiner of Patents and Designs as per reservation

rules:

Table1. Backlog vacancies: Distribution of 49 posts subject wise and category wise

Sl. No. Subject SC ST OBC TOTAL

01 Chemistry 2 1 6 9

02 Polymer Science NIL NIL NIL NIL

03 Biochemistry 1 NIL 1 2

04 Biotechnology/ Microbiology 1 3 4 8

05 Food Technology NIL NIL 2 2

06 Bio-Medical Engineering NIL NIL 1 1

07 Computer Science / Information

Technology

NIL 2 1 3

08 Physics NIL NIL 2 2

09 Electrical Engineering 1 1 1 3

10 Electronics & Communication 1 NIL 2 3

11 Civil Engineering NIL NIL 1 1

12 Mechanical Engineering 2 2 9 13

13 Metallurgical Engineering NIL 1 NIL 1

14 Textile Engineering NIL NIL 1 1

Total 8 10 31 49

Note: The PH Category shall be filled according to the Government of India rules.

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Table 2. Regular Vacancies: Distribution of 410 posts subject wise and category wise

Sl. No. Subject SC ST OBC UR TOTAL

01 Chemistry 10 5 17 32 64

02 Polymer Science 2 1 4 8 15

03 Biochemistry NIL NIL NIL NIL NIL

04 Biotechnology/ microbiology 2 1 5 8 16

05 Food Technology 1 NIL 1 2 4

06 Bio-Medical Engineering 2 1 4 7 14

07 Computer Science / Information

Technology

2 1 4 7 14

08 Physics 7 4 13 25 49

09 Electrical Engineering 5 3 9 15 32

10 Electronics & Communication 8 4 15 28 55

11 Civil Engineering 2 1 3 5 11

12 Mechanical Engineering 19 10 34 63 126

13 Metallurgical Engineering 1 NIL 1 3 5

14 Textile Engineering 1 NIL 1 3 5

Total 62 31 111 206 410

Note: The number of vacancies given above is tentative and may be changed at any stage

by the Competent Authority. The PH Category shall be filled according to the

Government of India rules.

2.3 Posting Candidates selected through this recruitment process are liable to be posted in any of the

office of CGPDTM.

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8

APPLICATION

RELATED

INFORMATION

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3. APPLICATION RELATED INFORMATION

3.1 Application Process

Candidates have to register and fill the application form via ONLINE mode ONLY by accessing

the mentioned websites. The photograph and signature of the applicant must be uploaded during

the online application. Please note that all necessary certificates, such as, degree

certificate/experience certificate, category certificate etc., if any should be kept ready for

uploading at a later stage. Please note that application forms are not available for sale.

3.2 Eligibility Criteria

Nationality

A candidate must be either: (a) a citizen of India, or (b) a subject of Nepal, or (c) a subject of Bhutan, or (d) a Tibetan refugee who came over to India before 1st January, 1962 with the intention of

permanently settling in India, or

(e) a person of Indian origin who has migrated from Pakistan, Burma, Sri Lanka, East African countries of Kenya, Uganda, the United Republic of Tanzania, Zambia, Malawi,

Zaire, Ethiopia and Vietnam with the intention of permanently settling in India.

Provided that a candidate belonging to categories (b), (c), (d) and (e) shall be a person in whose

favour a certificate of eligibility has been issued by the Government of India.

A candidate in whose case a certificate of eligibility is necessary, may be admitted to the

examination but the offer of appointment may be given only after the verification of necessary

eligibility certificate issued to him/her by the Government of India.

3.3 Minimum Essential Educational Qualifications

Sl.

No. Subject / Discipline

Essential qualification: following Degree from

a recognized university

1. Chemistry Masters Degree in Chemistry

2. Polymer Science Masters Degree in Polymer Science or Bachelor's Degree in Polymer Engineering /

Technology or equivalent

3. Biochemistry Masters Degree in Biochemistry

4. Biotechnology/Micro Biology

Masters Degree in Biotechnology or Bachelor's Degree in Biotechnology

Engineering/ Masters Degree in Micro Biology or equivalent

5. Food Technology Bachelor's Degree in Food Technology/ Engineering or equivalent

6. Bio-Medical Engineering Bachelor's Degree in Bio-medical Engineering / Technology or equivalent

7. Computer Science / Information Technology

Bachelor's Degree in Computer Engineering /

Information Technology or Masters Degree

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in Computer Science / Information

Technology or equivalent

8. Physics Masters Degree in Physics

9. Electrical Engineering Bachelor's Degree in Electrical Engineering / Technology or equivalent

10. Electronics & Communication

Bachelor's Degree in Electronics / Electronics

& Communication Engineering / Technology

or equivalent

11. Mechanical Engineering Bachelor's Degree in Mechanical Engineering / Technology or equivalent

12. Civil Engineering Bachelor's Degree in Civil Engineering / Technology or equivalent

13. Metallurgical Engineering Bachelor's Degree in Metallurgical Engineering / Technology or equivalent

14. Textile Engineering Bachelor's Degree in Textile Engineering / Technology or equivalent

Note I: The candidate must hold the degree from any of Universities incorporated by an Act of

the Central or State Legislature in India or other educational institutions established by an Act of

Parliament or declared to be deemed as a University Under Section-3 of the University Grants

Commission Act, 1956, or possess an equivalent qualification.

Note II: Candidates who have appeared in the final year of examination, the passing of which

would render them eligible to fulfill the essential qualification for the CGPDTM examination

but have not been informed of the results will also be eligible for admission to the Preliminary

Examination. All candidates who are declared qualified in the main examination and called for

verification of certificates should produce proof of passing their requisite essential

qualification failing which their candidature shall be treated cancelled.

3.4 Desirable Qualification

1. Research experience: 3 years or more from a recognised university or R& D institute / Organisation

2. Degree in Law of a recognized University 3. Certificate (Minimum six months)/Diploma from a recognized University/Institute in a

foreign language in German, French, Russian, Spanish, Chinese, Japanese.

3.5 Division of marks shall be classified as mentioned below

(a) 1class/division = 60% and above

(b) II class/division = 45% and above but less than 60%

(c) Pass class/division = 33% and above but less than 45%

Where the percentage is given in the form of CGPA/OGPA etc, the conversion into percentage

shall be provided by the candidate according to the norms of the concerned University/

Institution in the application form.

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3.6 Age Limit

a. A candidate must have attained the age of not less than 21 years and must not have attained the age of 35 years on the 1st August 2015 i.e., he/she must have been born not earlier than 1st

August, 1980 and not later than 1st August, 1994.

b. The upper age limit of 35 years will be relaxable upto 40 years in the case of government servants in accordance with the instructions or orders issued by the Central Govemment.

c. The upper age limit prescribed above will be relaxable:

i. upto a maximum of five years if a candidate belongs to a Scheduled Caste or a Scheduled Tribe.

ii. upto a maximum of three years in the case of candidates belonging to Other Backward Classes who are eligible to avail of reservation applicable to such

candidates. The OBC certificate shall be issued by the competent authority only. The

competent authority shall be state government or central government i.e. the OBC

certificate shall be issued by the state or central government.

iii. upto a maximum of five years if a candidate had ordinarily been domiciled in the State of Jammu & Kashmir during the period from the 1st January, 1980 to the 31st

day of December, 1989.

iv. upto a maximum of three years in the case of Defence Services personnel disabled in operations during hostilities with any foreign country or in a disturbed area and

released as a consequence thereof.

v. upto a maximum of five years in the case of ex-servicemen including Commissioned Officers and ECOs/SSCOs who have rendered at least five years Military Service as

on 1st August, 2015 and have been released.

a. on completion of assignment (including those whose assignment is due to be completed within one year from 1st August, 2015) otherwise than by way of

dismissal or discharge on account of misconduct or inefficiency, or

b. on account of physical disability attributable to Military Service, or

c. on invalidment.

vi. upto a maximum of five years in the case of ECOs/SSCOs who have completed an initial period of assignment of five years Military Service as on 1st August,

2015 and whose assignment has been extended beyond five years and in whose

case the Ministry of Defence issues a certificate that they can apply for civil

employment and that they will be released on three month notice on selection from

the date of receipt of offer of appointment.

vii. upto a maximum of 10 years in the case of candidates belonging to physically challenged categories as per the following eligibility:

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S.No Category (ies) for which

applicable

Functional Classification

1 (OH) Locomotor Disability OA,OL,BL,OAL,BLOA

2 (VH)Visual Impairment LV

3 (HH) Hearing Impairment PD

OA- ONE ARM, OL-ONE LEG, BL BOTH LEGS, OAL- ONE ARM ONE LEG, BLOA - BOTH LEGS ONE ARM, LV- LOW VISION, PD- PARTIALLY DEAF

Note: The above mentioned PH Category (ies) shall be filled according to the

Government of India rules.

Note I: Candidates belonging to the Scheduled Castes and the Scheduled Tribes and the

Other Backward Classes who are also covered under any other clauses of Para 3.6 (b)

above, viz. those coming under the category of Ex-servicemen, persons domiciled in the

State of J & K, etc. will be eligible for grant of cumulative age-relaxation under both the

categories.

Note II: The term ex-servicemen will apply to the persons who are defined as ex-

servicemen in the Ex-servicemen (Re-employment in Civil Services and Posts) Rules,

1979, as amended from time to time.

Note III: The age concession under Para 3.6 (b) (v) and (vi) will not be admissible to Ex-

Servicemen and Commissioned Officers including ECOs/SSCOs who are released on

own request.

Note IV: Notwithstanding the provision of age relaxation under Para 3.6 (b) (vii) above, a

physically disabled candidate will be considered to be eligible for appointment only if

he/she (after such physical examination as the Government or appointing authority, as the

case may be, may prescribe) is found to satisfy the requirements of physical and medical

standards for the concerned Services/posts to be allocated to the physically disabled

candidates by the Government.

Note V: A candidate will be eligible to get the benefit of community reservation only in

case the particular caste to which the candidates belong is included in the list of reserved

communities issued by the central government. If a candidate indicates in his/her

application form for engineering services examination that he/she belongs to general

category but subsequently writes to the competent authority to change his/her category to

a reserved one, such request shall not be entertained by the competent authority.

Save as provided above the age limits prescribed can in no case be relaxed.

The date of birth accepted by the Competent Authority is that entered in the Matriculation

or Secondary School Leaving Certificate or in a certificate recognized by an Indian

University as equivalent to Matriculation or in an extract from a Register of Matriculates

maintained by a University, which extract must be certified by the proper authority of the

University or in the Higher Secondary or an equivalent examination certificate.

No other document relating to age like horoscopes, affidavits, birth extracts from

Municipal Corporation, service records and the like will be accepted.

The expression Matriculation/Secondary Examination Certificate in this part of the

instruction includes the alternative certificates mentioned above.

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Note I: CANDIDATES SHOULD NOTE THAT ONLY THE DATE OF BIRTH AS

RECORDED IN THE MATRICULATION/SECONDARY EXAMINATION

CERTIFICATE OR AN EQUIVALENT CERTIFICATE AS ON THE DATE OF

SUBMISSION OF APPLICATIONS WILL BE ACCEPTED BY THE COMPETENT

AUTHORITY AND NO SUBSEQUENT REQUEST FOR ITS CHANGE WILL BE

CONSIDERED OR GRANTED.

Note 2 : CANDIDATES SHOULD ALSO NOTE THAT ONCE A DATE OF BIRTH

HAS BEEN CLAIMED BY THEM AND ENTERED IN THE RECORDS OF THE

COMPETENT AUTHORITY FOR THE PURPOSE OF ADMISSION TO AN

EXAMINATION, NO CHANGE WILL BE ALLOWED SUBSEQUENTLY (OR AT

ANY OTHER EXAMINATION OF THE COMPETENT AUTHORITY) ON ANY

GROUNDS WHATSOEVER.

Note 3: THE CANDIDATE SHOULD EXERCISE DUE CARE WHILE ENTERING

THEIR DATE OF BIRTH IN THE ONLINE APPLICATION FORM FOR THE

PRELIMINARY EXAMINATION. IF ON VERIFICATION AT ANY SUBSEQUENT

STAGE, ANY VARIATION IS FOUND IN THEIR DATE OF BIRTH FROM THE

ONE ENTERED IN THEIR MATRICULATION OR EQUIVALENT EXAMINATION

CERTIFICATE, DISCIPLINARY ACTION WILL BE TAKEN AGAINST THEM BY

THE COMPETENT AUTHORITY UNDER THEIR RULES.

3.7 Test Centers for Preliminary and Main Examination

The Preliminary Examination will be tentatively held on 20th September, 2015 in the

following 14 cities:

1. Ahmedabad 2. Bengaluru 3. Bhopal 4. Bhubaneshwar 5. Chandigarh 6. Chennai 7. Delhi

8. Guwahati 9. Hyderabad 10. Jaipur 11. Kolkata 12. Lucknow 13. Mumbai 14. Patna

The Main Exam will be tentatively held on 18th October, 2015 in the following 4 Cities:

1. Chennai 2. Delhi 3.Kolkata 4.Mumbai

Note: The centers and the date of holding the examination as mentioned above are liable to

be changed at the discretion of the Competent Authority. Applicants should note that there

will be a ceiling on the number of candidates allotted to each of the Centers. Allotment of

Centers will be on the "first-apply-first allot" basis, and once the capacity of a particular

Centre is attained, the same will be frozen. Applicants are, thus, advised that they may apply

early so that they could get a Centre of their choice.

NOTE: The candidates (Whether Local or Outstation) called for written test

(preliminary or main examination)/ verification of documents shall not be paid any

TA/DA or travel allowances or fare for attending the same.

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NB: Notwithstanding the aforesaid provision, Competent Authority reserves the right to

change the Centers at their discretion if the situation demands. Candidates admitted to the

examination will be informed of the time table and place or places of examination. The

candidates should note that no request for change of center will be granted.

3.8 Application Fee and Payment Gateway

i. Candidates belonging to General/OBC category are required to pay a fee of Rs. 200/- (Rupees Two Hundred only) either by using net banking or by using visa/master,

credit/debit card only.

ii. Candidates belonging to SC/ST/PH/Women candidates of any community are exempted from application fee.

iii. Applications without the prescribed fee (for General/ OBC category) will not be accepted. No representation against such rejection would be entertained.

iv. Fee once paid shall not be refunded under any circumstance nor can the fee be held in reserve for any other examination or selection.

v. For online net banking payment details and procedure candidates are required to refer the website i.e., www.recruitmentnpc.in

vi. Payment of Fees by Candidate(s):

a. Candidates can pay online using any Visa/Master Debit or Credit Card issued by any bank/institution.

b. They can pay online using the internet banking facility of the mentioned banks in the Information Bulletin.

c. The candidates are required to go through the website www.recruitmentnpc.in for total details regarding the payment details.

d. All Fees quoted are in Indian Rupees. e. We reserve the right to change the fees as per government directions. f. Your payment will normally reach our account within two working days. g. We are not responsible for any delay in receipt of fee payment due to incorrect

account number or incorrect personal details.

h. We also cannot accept liability if payment is refused or declined by the credit/ debit card supplier for any reason.

i. In no event we will be liable for any damages whatsoever arising out of the use, inability to use, or the results of use of this site, any websites linked to this site, or

the materials or information contained at any or all such sites, whether based on

warranty, contract, tort or any other legal theory and whether or not advised of the

possibility of such damages.

Terms & Condition for Internet Payment Gateway Users

Transaction Charges

For making online payment through Credit/Debit Card or Internet Banking, the candidates

will need to pay an additional processing charge as transaction charge in addition to the

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fees. The necessary transaction charge plus service tax as applicable on date, for online

payment of the service will be borne by the candidate. The charges as mentioned below will

be levied by the e-payment solution provider for giving this service.

S. No. Payment Options Per Transaction charges

1. Internet Banking Charges Rs.5 + applicable Service Tax (currently 14%)

2. Debit Card transactions (i) 0.75% for transaction upto Rs. 2000

(ii) 1% for transactions above Rs. 2000

3. Credit card transactions 1% of the transaction amount

Payment Gateway/Net Banking Disclaimer

Payment of examination fees will be made by the candidate using Payment Gateway hosted

by Axis Bank/designated banks. The Payment Gateway Service is being provided to the

candidates so as to facilitate online payment. By using these services of the payment Gate

Way, candidates expressly agrees that use of this online payment service is entirely at their

own risk and cost.

Cancellation of Transaction and Refund Policy

Candidates are required to pay a NON-REFUNDABLE APPLICATION fee as

prescribed in the information bulletin.

The fee once paid will NOT be refunded on any account nor would this fee be held

in reserve for future examination/selection.

For making online payment through Credit/Debit Card or Internet Banking, the

candidates will need to pay an additional processing charge as transaction charge in addition to the fees.

In case of any applicant found to have paid more fee than prescribed, due to technical

reason and on receiving the communication from the said applicant, the said extra

payment, if found, shall be refunded to the same account from which the payment

has been received.

There is no provision for cancellation and request for refund of examination fees

including transaction/Service charges, etc. will not be entertained in any

circumstances. Any types of charge back will not be considered by the bank except

in the case of failed transaction which will be settled solely by the bank with the

applicants/customers.

Failed and Fraudulent Transaction

NPC will have no role in failed transactions and fraudulent use of card/net banking in

any manner. Applicants are advised to use their own debit/credit card/net banking.

Users/Applicants will be solely responsible for using debit/credit card & net banking

for payment of examination fees.

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Any fraudulent transaction/attempt will attract action as per service rules and

relevant section of Indian Penal Code (IPC). Applicants providing improper details

will not be allowed to appear in the examination and the examination fees will be

forfeited.

Debit/Credit card /Net banking Transaction

The user/applicant further agree and undertakes to provide correct and valid

debit/credit card / Net Banking details. In default of the above conditions, Payment

Gateway Service Provider shall be entitled to recover the amount of transaction from

the user against whom the credit/debit card/Net banking has been used.

Further, Payment Gateway service provider also reserves the right to initiate any

legal action for recovery of cost/penalty or any other punitive measure, as it may

deem fit.

For other/detailed terms and condition of examination fees, please refer to instruction

bulletin on the website i.e. www.recruitmentnpc.in

NOTE: Candidates facing the problem of deduction of application fee amount without

getting the Registration Slip generated (failed registration) are required to apply again in the

online application portal before the last date of online application. These candidates can

submit the request for refund of failed registration amount along with details separately

3.9 Photograph and Signature Requirements

Online application requires your photograph and signature to be uploaded electronically at

the time of submitting your application. Uploading photograph or signature that does not

meet the specifications required or doesnt match with the identity of the candidate carrying at the time of examination can result in the disqualification of the application without any

refund of the application fee. Please pay attention to upload good quality photograph. Poor

quality of the photograph submitted will lead to rejection of your application, without any

refund of the application fee. The photograph must be in color and must be taken in a

professional studio.

3.10 Photographs Requirements

i. The photograph uploaded must be with the placard mentioning the full name and date of

photograph taken by the candidate

ii. The candidate should upload the photograph without sunglasses, head scarf etc.

iii. The photograph must be taken in a white or a very light background.

iv. The photograph must have been taken after 1st July 2015.

v. In the photograph, the face should occupy about 50% of the area, and with a full-face view looking into the camera directly.

vi. The main features of the face must not be covered by hair of the head, any cloth or any shadow. Forehead, eyes, nose and chin should be clearly visible.

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vii. If you normally wear spectacles, glare on glasses is not acceptable in your photo. Glare can be avoided with a slight downward tilt of the glasses or by removing the glasses for

the photo shoot.

viii. You must not wear spectacles with dark or tinted glasses, only clear glasses are permitted.

ix. Ask your photo studio to provide the image in a JPEG format and also on a standard 3.5 cm 4.5 cm (Width x Height) print.

x. Maximum pixel resolution for JPEG: 480 640 (0.3 Mega pixel) (Ask your studio to reduce it to this resolution if it is higher).

xi. Minimum pixel resolution for JPEG: 240 320 (0.3 mega pixel upto 500kb)

xii. For your own benefit it may be prudent not to intentionally change your facial features or hair style as in the photograph until the day of the exam.

3.11 Signature Specification

1. Please draw a rectangular box of size 2 cm 7 cm (Height x Width) on an A4 white paper. Put your signature with black or dark blue ink pen within this box.

2. Get the signature digitally image scanned by a professional using a scanner, and get the image cropped to the box by the professional.

1. Only JPEG image formats will be accepted.

2. The maximum pixel resolution for the image is 160 560 (should be fixed upto 200kb)

3. The minimum pixel resolution for the image is 80 280.

4. Photographs of the signatures taken using mobile phone are not acceptable, and can result in disqualification of the application without any refund of the fee.

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3.12 The Sample Photographs which are aceeptable.

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HOW TO APPLY

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4. HOW TO APPLY

4.1 Guidelines for applying for the examination

a) Candidates are required to refer the website for details and apply online using the

website of National Productivity Council, i.e. www.recruitmentnpc.in. The applicants

are advised strictly to submit only single application.

b) Persons already in Government Service, whether in a permanent or temporary capacity

or as work charged employees other than casual or daily rated employees or those

serving under the Public Enterprises are however, required to submit an undertaking

that they have informed in writing to their Head of Office/Department that they have

applied for the Examination. Candidates should note that in case a communication is

received from their employer by the Competent Authority withholding permission to

the candidates applying for / appearing at the examination, their application will be

liable to be rejected / candidature will be liable to be cancelled.

c) While filling in his/her Application Form, the candidate should carefully decide about

his/her choice of center for the Examination. If any candidate appears at a center other

than the one indicated by the Competent Authority in his/her Admit Card, the papers of

such a candidate will not be evaluated and his/her candidature will be liable to

cancellation.

d) Candidates are not required to upload any certificate in support of their claims

regarding Age, Educational Qualifications, Scheduled Castes/ Scheduled Tribes/Other

Backward Classes and Physically disabled etc. along with their applications, which

will be verified at the time of the Main examination only.

e) The candidates applying for the examination should ensure that they fulfill all the

eligibility conditions for admission to the Examination. Their admission at all the

stages of examination for which they are admitted by the Competent Authority viz.

Preliminary Examination and Main (Written) Examination will be purely provisional,

subject to their satisfying the prescribed eligibility conditions. If on verification at any

time before or after the Preliminary Examination and Main (written) Examination, it is

found that they do not fulfill any of the eligibility conditions, their candidature for the

examination will be cancelled by the Competent Authority. If any of their claims is

found to be incorrect, they may render themselves liable to disciplinary action by the

CGPDTM.

f) Candidates are required to provide the CGPA/OGPA etc. scores wherever applicable

and convert the CGPA/OGPA etc. scores into percentage according to the rules and

regulations of issuing institutes/ universities while filling the online application form.

As the percentages/aggregate Column is mandatory to fill, Non compliance/ not filling

the percentages by the candidate while filling the online application form will lead to

disqualify the candidates application.

4.2 List of original documents required for verification

a) Matriculation/10th Standard or equivalent certificate indicating date of birth, or mark sheet of Matriculation/10th Standard or equivalent issued by Central/State Board

22

indicating Date of Birth in support of their claim of age. Where date of birth is not

available in certificate/mark sheets, issued by concerned Educational Boards, School

leaving certificate indicating Date of Birth will be considered (like in case of Tamil

Nadu & Kerala).

b) Degree/Diploma certificate along with mark sheets pertaining to all the academic years as proof of educational qualification claimed. In the absence of Degree/Diploma

certificate, provisional certificate along with mark sheets pertaining to all the

academic years will be accepted.

c) Certificate(s) from the Head(s) of Organization(s) /Department(s) for the entire experience claimed, clearly mentioning the duration of employment (date, month &

year) indicating the basic pay and consolidated pay, nature of duties

performed/experience obtained in the post(s) with duration(s). Only the experience in

the field relevant to the post would be considered.

d) Caste certificate in the case of candidates seeking reservation as SC/ ST/ OBC from the competent authority indicating clearly the candidates Caste, the Act/ Order under which the Caste is recognized as SC/ ST/ OBC and the village/ town the candidate is

ordinarily a resident of.

e) A declaration by candidate seeking reservation as OBC, that he/she does not belong to the creamy layer on the crucial date, in addition to the community certificate (OBC).

Unless specified otherwise, the prescribed last date for receipt of Online Application

on website mentioned for the post is to be treated as crucial date certificate issuing

authority.

f) Physically Handicapped (PH) certificate issued by the competent authority by Physically Handicapped persons eligible for appointment to the post.

g) Candidate claiming change in name after matriculation on marriage or remarriage or divorce etc. must submit the following documents: a) In case of marriage of women -

Photocopy of Husbands passport showing names of spouses or an attested copy of marriage certificate issued by the Registrar of Marriage or an Affidavit from husband

and wife along with a joint photograph duly sworn before the Oath Commissioner. b)

In case of re-marriage of women - Divorce Deed/Death certificate as the case may be

in respect of first spouse; and photocopy of present husbands passport showing names of spouse or an attested copy of marriage certificate issued by the Registrar of

Marriage or an Affidavit from the husband and wife along with joint photograph duly

sworn before the Oath Commissioner. c) In case of divorce of women - Certified

copy of Divorce Decree and Deed Poll/Affidavit duly sworn before the Oath

Commissioner. d) In other circumstances for change of name for both male and

female - Deed Poll/Affidavit duly sworn before the Oath Commissioner and paper

cuttings of two leading daily newspaper in original(One daily newspaper should be

of the area of applicants permanent and present address or nearby area) and Gazette

Notification. e) The candidates should ensure that in case of any discrepancy between

name recorded in the Matriculation/other certificates/documents and Online

application (such as spelling error or due to addition/deletion of part of any name or

when name of the candidate is inclusive of the name of father and/or mother) an

affidavit in ORIGINAL is required to be produced at the time of certificate

23

verification that both the name/names in both the certificates belong to one and same

person.

h) Certificate in respect of age relaxation in case of: a) Ex-Servicemen and Commissioned Officers including ECOs/SSCOs from competent authority. b)

Central/UT Government Employees/Servants from competent authority. d)

Widows/Divorced Women/Women Judicially separated from Husbands. e) Persons

who had ordinarily been domiciled in the State of J & K during the period from 1st

January, 1980 to 31st December, 1989.

i) Persons already in regular Government service, whether in permanent or temporary capacity other than casual/adhoc/daily wages/hourly paid/contract basis are however

required to submit a declaration that they have informed in writing to their Head of

Office/Department that they have applied for the selection NOC.

j) In case you have claimed to be a Government servant a certificate from your employer clearly stating that as on the closing date for this/these posts(s) you were a

Government servant.

4.3 Admit Card

The eligible candidates shall be issued an e-Admit Card at least two weeks before the

commencement of the examinations. The e-Admit Card will be made available in the

National Productivity Council, website i.e. www.recruitmentnpc.in. Admit cards will

NOT be sent by e-mail/post, they can ONLY be downloaded from the mentioned

websites tentatively from 5th September 2015. The candidate has to bring the printed

admit card to the test center along with at least one original (not photocopied/scanned

copy) and valid (not expired) photo identification. It may be noted that one of the

following photo identifications is ONLY permitted: Driving license, Passport, PAN

Card, Voter ID, Aadhaar UID or a notarized affidavit with Photo, Signature, Date of

Birth and Residential Address. The details of this ID proof have to be given while filling

the online application.

4.4 Subject Code

Sl. No. Subject / Discipline Subject code

1. Chemistry CH

2. Polymer Science PS

3. Biochemistry BC

4. Biotechnology/ Micro Biology

BT

5. Food Technology FT

6. Bio-medical Engineering BE

7. Computer Science / Information Technology

CS

8. Physics PH

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9. Electrical Engineering EE

10. Electronics & Communication

EC

11. Mechanical Engineering ME

12. Civil Engineering CE

13. Metallurgical Engineering MT

14. Textile Engineering TE

--------------------------------------X-----------------------------------

25

EXAMINATION

RELATED

INFORMATION

26

5. EXAMINATIN RELATED INFORMATION

5.1 Structure of the Examination

The Examination shall be held in two Phases, i.e. Preliminary Examination & Mains

Examination.

S. No. Stage of Exam Max

Marks

Timing Duration of Exam

PHASE I: Preliminary Examination

1. Preliminary Exam

(Screening Exam)

150 10.00AM- 12.00PM 2 Hours

PHASE II: Main Examination

2. Main Exam Paper-I

(Scoring Exam)

300 10.00AM- 1.00PM 3 Hours

3. Main Exam Paper-II

(Qualifying Exam)

100 3.00PM-4.00PM 1 Hour

5.2 Preliminary Examination

This will be an OMR (Optical Mark Reader) based Multiple Choice Question (MCQ) Paper

with one correct Answer out of four alternative choices i.e. A to D. This paper will be of 2

hours duration with 150 Questions of 1 Mark each, totaling to a maximum of 150 marks.

There will be 05 sections comprising 30 questions each on General English, General

Science, Verbal and Non-Verbal Reasoning, Quantitative Aptitude and General Knowledge

& Current Affairs. There will be no Sectional Cut-offs, in this Exam. However, there will

be a negative marking @ 33% for wrong answers. This paper will be a Screening Exam

only.

5.3 Mains Examination

The Main Examination will have two Papers namely Main Exam Paper-I and Main Exam

Paper-II:

Main Exam Paper I: This will be a descriptive Question Paper of the concerned

Discipline/Subject opted by the candidate. This paper shall be of 3 hours duration and shall

have a maximum of 300 marks. The question shall be designed to test the knowledge in the

subject. The candidate will be provided with Answer Booklet with sufficient pages to

answer all questions. No electronic gadgets except scientific calculator shall be permitted. If

required, Log Tables within the question paper shall be provided. This will be a Scoring

Examination.

Main Exam Paper II: It will be an English Proficiency Question Paper. This paper shall be

of 1 hour duration and shall have a maximum of 100 marks. This test is designed to test the

English Writing, Power of Expression & Report Writing Skills/Ability of the candidates.

This paper will be qualifying in nature and will comprise of Questions based on

Comprehension, Short Essay, Usage & Vocabulary, Report Writing and Precis Writing. This

will be a Qualifying Examination.

27

5.4 Selection Process and cut off

The evaluation for the paper I in the mains examination will be done only for those

candidates who qualify in the paper II of mains examination which is qualifying in nature.

The final merit list shall be prepared out of total 310 marks based on the scores by the

candidates in the mains paper I i.e. out of 300 and the desirable qualifications scores of 10

marks. The cut off for calling candidates for the main examination for the selection of the

459 vacancies shall be 10-12 times of number of vacancies. Approximately not more than

6000 (six thousand) candidates across all disciplines including reserved category shall be

called for the mains examination. The rules for reservation for various reserved category

shall be followed as per government of India norms.

Marks for Desirable Qualifications

The candidates with 3 years or more research experience from an R&D Institution/

organization shall get maximum 05 (five marks).

The candidates shall get maximum 03 (three) marks if he/she has completed degree in law

before applying for the post.

The candidates with Certificate (Minimum six months)/Diploma from a recognized

University/Institute in any one of the foreign languages like German, French, Russian,

Spanish, Chinese, Japanese shall get maximum of 02 (two) marks.

5.5. Important Dates Related To Examination

The below table shows the tentative dates which are related to the examination

S.

No.

Online Application &Examination Date

1. Date of Online Application Form Availability 25th July, 2015

2. Last Date of Submission of Online Application Form 24thAugust, 2015

3. Issue of Online e-admit cards download/print for Preliminary

Examination

5th September, 2015

4. Date of Preliminary Examination 20th September, 2015

5. Issue of e-admit cards for Main Examination 12th October, 2015

6. Date of Main Examination 18th October, 2015

5.6 Syllabi for Preliminary Examination

5.6.1. General English The aim of the paper is to test the candidates ability to read and understand prose, and express his ideas clearly and correctly. The pattern of questions would be broadly as

follows:

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1. Comprehension of given passages 2. Precis Writing 3. Usage and Vocabulary 4. Short Essays

5.6.2. Numerical/Quantitative Aptitude

The quantitative aptitude test measures the numerical ability and accuracy in mathematical

calculations. The questions range from purely numeric calculations to problems of

arithmetic reasoning, graph and table reading, percentage analysis, categorization and

quantitative analysis.

5.6.3. Reasoning: Verbal /Logical Reasoning & Non-Verbal Reasoning

The Verbal /Logical Reasoning test involves letter sequences and tests your ability to think

logically and analytically. It is the process of using a rational, systematic series of steps

based on sound mathematical procedures and given statements to arrive at a conclusion.

Non-verbal reasoning involves the ability to understand and analyze visual information and

solve problems using visual reasoning.

5.6.4. General Science

These tests are designed to test the knowledge and competencies for scientific methodology

concepts, principles, techniques and physics, chemistry, life sciences (Biology), the

earth/space sciences, technologies etc

5.6.5. General Knowledge & Current Affairs

Current affairs are the day to day incidents and events around us. It revolves around

happenings in different field related to national, international, economy, sports, science and

technology, environment. For example national events include within its fold aspects like

economy, social, political, sports, science, environment, etc.

5.7 Sample Questions for Preliminary Examination

SPOTTING ERRORS

Direction: Each question in this section has a sentence with three underlined parts labeled

(a), (b) and (c). Read each sentence to find out whether there is any underlined part and

indicate your response in the Answer Sheet against the corresponding letter i.e. (a) or (b) or

(c). if you find no error, your response should be indicated as (d).

Q.1. The President reached back This morning (a) (b)

After a visit to the southern states. No error

(c) (d)

Q.2. The administrator is entrusted the responsibility Of the overall management of an industry

(a) (b)

While the technical personnel remain advisers to the administration No error

(c) (d)

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RECONSTRUCTING PASSAGES

Direction for the following TWO items: In the following TWO items, there are six

sentences marked S1, P, Q, R, S and S6. The position of S1 and S6 are fixed. You are

required to choose one of the four alternatives given below every passage which would be

the most logical sequence of the sentences in the passage and mark your response on the

Answer Sheet.

Q.3. S1: The open and disguised unemployment in the rural areas is often thought to be due entirely to population growth and no doubt this is an important contributory

factor.

S6: The lack of capital can explain a low level of productivity but it cannot explain a

lack of opportunities.

P: It is said that they cannot work because they lack capital.

Q: It is the Product of human work.

R: But those who hold this view still have to explain why additional people cannot

do is capital.

S: But what is capital?

The proper sequence should be:

A. QRPS B. RPSQ C. SQPR D. PRQS

Q.4. S1: Mineral oil originates from the carcasses of tiny creatures and from plants that live in the sea.

S6: Their pressure generates heat, which transforms the marine deposits into crude

oil.

P: As a result, it prevents decompositions of the marine deposits underneath.

Q: Over millions of years, they from large deposits on the seabed, and ocean

currents cover them with a blanket of sand silt.

R: As this material hardens, it becomes sedimentary rock and thus shuts out the

oxygen.

S: The layers of sedimentary rock become thicker and thicker.

The proper sequence should be:

A. PQRS B. QRPS C. RSPQ D. SRQP

ANTONYMS

Direction for the following two items: In this section each item consists of a word printed

in capital letters followed by words or phrases listed as (a), (b), (c) and (d). choose the word

or phrase which is closest to the opposite in meaning of the word in capital letters.

Q.5. OMNISCIENT A. Subordinate B. Ignorant C. Ignoble D. Weak

30

Q.6. JEOPARDISE A. Help B. Encourage C. Take care D. Preserve

Q.7. Which one of the following is spread over three states? A. Mudumalai Wildlife Sanctuary B. National Chambal Sanctuary C. Eravikulam National Park D. Bandavgarh National Park

Q.8. Which one of the following became extinct in India a few decades ago and is proposed to be re-introduced?

A. Cheetah B. Gharial C. Salt water crocodile D. Snow leopard

Q.9. India is a member of: 1. Asia-pacific Economic Cooperation(APEC) 2. Asian Development Bank (ADB) 3. Organization for Economic Cooperation and Development (OECD) 4. World Trade Organization (WTO)

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

A. 1 and 3 only B. 2 and 4 only C. 2,3 and 4 only D. 1,2, 3 and 4

Q.10. Which of the following are sources of methane, a greenhouse gas? 1. Domestic animals 2. Coal mining 3. Wetlands

Select the correct answer using the code given below

A. 1 and 2 only B. 2 only C. 1 and 3 only D. 1, 2 and 3

Q.11. Duodenum in human body is a part of: A. Digestive system B. Excretory system C. Reproductive system D. Respiratory system

Direction: In each of the following questions, a number series is given with one term

missing. Choose the correct alternative that will continue the same pattern and replace

the question mark in the given series.

Q.12. 325, 259, 204, 160, 127, 105,? A. 94 B. 96 C. 98 D. 100

31

Q.13. 6, 13, 25, 51, 101, ? A. 201 B. 202 C. 203 D. 205

Q.14. If DELHI is coded as 73541 and CALCUTTA as 82589662, how can CALICUT be coded?

A. 5279431 B. 5978213 C. 8251896 D. 8543691

Q.15. N ranks fifth in a class. S is eighth from the last. If T is sixth after N and just in the middle of N and S, then how many students are there in the class

A. 23 B. 24 C. 25 D. 26

Q.16. If Tuesday falls on the fourth of the month, then which day will fall three days after the 24th ?

A. Monday B. Tuesday C. Thursday D. Friday

Q.17. The ratio of two numbers is 15: 11. If their HCF is 13, then the numbers are : A. 75,55 B. 45,22 C. 104,44 D. 195,143

Q.18. Which is the smallest number that can be subtracted from 1936 so that on being divided by 9, 10, 15 the reminder is 7 every time?

A. 93 B. 46 C. 76 D. 39

Q.19. Traffic lights at three different points are changing respectively at 24, 48 and 72 seconds. If all the three are changed together at 9:10:24 hours, then when will the next

change take place together?

A. 9:12:25 hrs B. 9:10:48 hrs C. 9:12:48 hrs D. 9:10:50 hrs

Q.20. The least multiple of 13, which on dividing by 4, 5, 6, 7 and 8 leaves reminder 2 in each case is

A. 2520 B. 842 C. 2522 D. 840

Q.21. Which of the following is the lightest metal? A. Mercury B. Silver

32

C. Lithium D. Lead

Q.22. The most important ore of Aluminium is A. Bauxite B. Calamine C. Calcite D. Galena

Q.23. The element present in the largest amount in rocks and minerals is A. Carbon B. Silicon C. Hydrogen D. Aluminium

Q.24. An alloy used in making heating elements for electric heating devices is A. Solder B. Alloy steel C. Nichrome D. German Silver

Q.25. German Silver is an alloy of A. Copper, Silver & Nickel B. Silver, Copper & Aluminium C. Zinc, Copper & Nickel D. Silver, Zinc & Nickel

Q.26. Name the Director General of Defence Research and Development Organization (DRDO), who was sacked from his post on 13 January 2015 by Union Government?

A. GS Malik B. Avinash Chander C. N Prabhakar D. Satish Kumar

Q.27. Microsoft has recently tied up with which telecom company for enabling the Telcos 34 million data users to purchases apps and pay for them through monthly bills or

prepaid balances?

A. Idea B. Airtel C. Aircel D. Vodafone

Q.28. Indian Space Research Organisation was recently conferred 'Space Pioneer Award' by the National Space Society (NSS) of which country over the historic feat on

successfully sending an orbit to Martian atmosphere in its very first attempt?

A. France B. European Union C. China D. USA

Q.29. Union Railway Minister Suresh Prabhu has recently flagged off the first CNG (Compressed Natural Gas) based two trains from Rewari station in which state?

A. Bihar B. Jammu and Kashmir C. Haryana D. Gujarat

Q.30. Who among the following on 13 January 2015 took charge as the first vice-chairman of the newly-created NITI Aayog?

33

A. V. K. Saraswat B. Bibek Debroy C. Sindhushree Khullar D. Arvind Panagariya

Q.31. Select a suitable figure from the four alternatives that would complete the figure matrix.

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4 Q.32. Select a suitable figure from the four alternatives that would complete the figure

matrix.

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4 Q.33. Select a suitable figure from the four alternatives that would complete the figure

matrix.

34

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4 Q.34. Select a suitable figure from the four alternatives that would complete the figure

matrix.

A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4

Q.35. Select a suitable figure from the four alternatives that would complete the figure matrix.

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

35

5.8 Syllabi for Mains Examination (Part-i) Descriptive Type

CHEMISTRY

Inorganic Chemistry

1. Chemical periodicity 2. Structure and bonding in homo- and heteronuclear molecules, including shapes of

molecules (VSEPR Theory).

3. Concepts of acids and bases, Hard-Soft acid base concept, Non-aqueous solvents. 4. Main group elements and their compounds: Allotropy, synthesis, structure and bonding,

industrial importance of the compounds.

5. Transition elements and coordination compounds: structure, bonding theories, spectral and magnetic properties, reaction mechanisms.

6. Inner transition elements: spectral and magnetic properties, redox chemistry, analytical applications.

7. Organometallic compounds: synthesis, bonding and structure, and reactivity. Organometallics in homogeneous catalysis.

8. Cages and metal clusters. 9. Analytical chemistry- separation, spectroscopic, electro- and thermoanalytical methods. 10. Bioinorganic chemistry: photosystems, porphyrins, metalloenzymes, oxygen transport,

electron- transfer reactions; nitrogen fixation, metal complexes in medicine.

11. Characterisation of inorganic compounds by IR, Raman, NMR, EPR, Mssbauer, UV-vis, NQR, MS, electron spectroscopy and microscopic techniques.

12. Nuclear chemistry: nuclear reactions, fission and fusion, radio-analytical techniques and activation analysis.

Physical Chemistry

1. Basic principles of quantum mechanics: Postulates; operator algebra; exactly-solvable systems: particle-in-a-box, harmonic oscillator and the hydrogen atom, including shapes

of atomic orbitals; orbital and spin angular momenta; tunneling.

2. Approximate methods of quantum mechanics: Variational principle; perturbation theory up to second order in energy; applications.

3. Atomic structure and spectroscopy; term symbols; many-electron systems and antisymmetry principle.

4. Chemical bonding in diatomics; elementary concepts of MO and VB theories; Huckel theory for conjugated -electron systems.

5. Chemical applications of group theory; symmetry elements; point groups; character tables; selection rules.

6. Molecular spectroscopy: Rotational and vibrational spectra of diatomic molecules; electronic spectra; IR and Raman activities selection rules; basic principles of magnetic resonance.

7. Chemical thermodynamics: Laws, state and path functions and their applications;

thermodynamic description of various types of processes; Maxwells relations;

spontaneity and equilibria; temperature and pressure dependence of thermodynamic

quantities; Le Chatelier principle; elementary description of phase transitions; phase

equilibria and phase rule; thermodynamics of ideal and non-ideal gases, and solutions.

36

8. Statistical thermodynamics: Boltzmann distribution; kinetic theory of gases; partition functions and their relation to thermodynamic quantities calculations for model systems.

9. Electrochemistry: Nernst equation, redox systems, electrochemical cells; Debye-Huckel theory; electrolytic conductance Kohlrauschs law and its applications; ionic equilibria; conductometric and potentiometric titrations.

10. Chemical kinetics: Empirical rate laws and temperature dependence; complex reactions; steady state approximation; determination of reaction mechanisms; collision and

transition state theories of rate constants; unimolecular reactions; enzyme kinetics; salt

effects; homogeneous catalysis; photochemical reactions.

11. Colloids and surfaces: Stability and properties of colloids; isotherms and surface area; heterogeneous catalysis.

12. Solid state: Crystal structures; Braggs law and applications; band structure of solids. 13. Polymer chemistry: Molar masses; kinetics of polymerization. 14. Data analysis: Mean and standard deviation; absolute and relative errors; linear

regression; covariance and correlation coefficient.

Organic Chemistry

1. IUPAC nomenclature of organic molecules including regio- and stereoisomers. 2. Principles of stereochemistry: Configurational and conformational isomerism in acyclic

and cyclic compounds; stereogenicity, stereoselectivity, enantioselectivity,

diastereoselectivity and asymmetric induction.

3. Aromaticity: Benzenoid and non-benzenoid compounds generation and reactions. 4. Organic reactive intermediates: Generation, stability and reactivity of carbocations,

carbanions, free radicals, carbenes, benzynes and nitrenes.

5. Organic reaction mechanisms involving addition, elimination and substitution reactions with electrophilic, nucleophilic or radical species. Determination of reaction pathways.

6. Common named reactions and rearrangements applications in organic synthesis. 7. Organic transformations and reagents: Functional group interconversion including

oxidations and reductions; common catalysts and reagents (organic, inorganic,

organometallic and enzymatic). Chemo, regio and stereoselective transformations.

8. Concepts in organic synthesis: Retrosynthesis, disconnection, synthons, linear and convergent synthesis, umpolung of reactivity and protecting groups.

9. Asymmetric synthesis: Chiral auxiliaries, methods of asymmetric induction substrate, reagent and catalyst controlled reactions; determination of enantiomeric and

diastereomeric excess; enantio-discrimination. Resolution optical and kinetic. 10. Pericyclic reactions electrocyclisation, cycloaddition, sigmatropic rearrangements and

other related concerted reactions. Principles and applications of photochemical reactions

in organic chemistry.

11. Synthesis and reactivity of common heterocyclic compounds containing one or two heteroatoms (O, N, S).

12. Chemistry of natural products: Carbohydrates, proteins and peptides, fatty acids, nucleic acids, terpenes, steroids and alkaloids. Biogenesis of terpenoids and alkaloids.

13. Structure determination of organic compounds by IR, UV-Vis, 1H & 13C NMR and Mass spectroscopic techniques.

Interdisciplinary topics

1. Chemistry in nanoscience and technology 2. Catalysis and green chemistry 3. Medicinal chemistry

37

4. Supramolecular chemistry 5. Environmental chemistry

POLYMER SCIENCE

Chemistry of high polymers: Monomers, functionality, degree of polymerizations,

classification of polymers, glass ransition, melting transition, criteria for rubberiness,

polymerization methods: addition and condensation; their kinetics, metallocene polymers

and other newer techniques of polymerization, copolymerization, monomer reactivity ratios

and its significance, kinetics, different copolymers, random, alternating, azeotropic

copolymerization, block and graft copolymers, techniques for copolymerization-bulk,

solution, suspension, emulsion.

Polymer Characterization: Solubility and swelling, concept of average molecular weight,

determination of number average, weight average, viscosity average and Z-average

molecular weights, polymer crystallinity, analysis of polymers using IR, XRD, thermal

(DSC, DMTA, TGA), microscopic (optical and electronic) techniques.

Synthesis and properties: Commodity and general purpose thermoplastics: PE, PP, PS,

PVC, Polyesters, Acrylic, PU polymers. Engineering Plastics: Nylon, PC, PBT, PSU, PPO,

ABS, Fluoropolymers Thermosetting polymers: PF, MF, UF, Epoxy, Unsaturated polyester,

Alkyds. Natural and synthetic rubbers: Recovery of NR hydrocarbon from latex, SBR,

Nitrile, CR, CSM, EPDM, IIR, BR, Silicone, TPE.

Polymer blends and composites: Difference between blends and composites, their

significance, choice of polymers for blending, blend miscibility-miscible and immiscible

blends, thermodynamics, phase morphology, polymer alloys, polymer eutectics, plastic-

plastic, rubberplastic and rubber-rubber blends, FRP, particulate, long and short fibre

reinforced composites.

Polymer Technology: Polymer compounding-need and significance, different compounding

ingredients for rubber and plastics, crosslinking and vulcanization, vulcanization kinetics.

Polymer rheology: Flow of Newtonian and non-Newtonian fluids, different flow equations,

dependence of shear modulus on temperature, molecular/segmental deformations at different

zones and transitions. Measurements of rheological parameters by capillary rotating, parallel

plate, cone-plate rheometer. viscoelasticity-creep and stress relaxations, mechanical models,

control of rheological characteristics through compounding, rubber curing in parallel plate

viscometer, ODR and MDR.

Polymer processing: Compression molding, transfer molding, injection molding, blow

molding, reaction injection molding, extrusion, pultrusion, calendaring, rotational

molding,thermoforming, rubber processing in two-roll mill, internal mixer.

Polymer testing: Mechanical-static and dynamic tensile, flexural, compressive, abrasion,

endurance, fatigue, hardness, tear, resilience, impact, toughness. Conductivity-thermal and

electrical, dielectric constant, dissipation factor, power factor, electric resistance, surface

resistivity, volume resistivity, swelling, ageing resistance, environmental stress cracking

resistance.

38

BIOCHEMISTRY

Organization of life.Importance of water. Cell structure and organelles. Structure and

function of biomolecules: Amino acids, Carbohydrates, Lipids, Proteins and Nucleic acids.

Biochemical separation techniques and characterization: ion exchange, size exclusion and

affinity chromatography, electrophoresis, UV-visible, fluorescence and Mass spectrometry.

Protein structure, folding and function: Myoglobin, Hemoglobin, Lysozyme, Ribonuclease

A, Carboxypeptidase and Chymotrypsin. Enzyme kinetics including its regulation and

inhibition, Vitamins and Coenzymes.

Metabolism and bioenergetics. Generation and utilization of ATP. Metabolic pathways and

their regulation: glycolysis, TCA cycle, pentose phosphate pathway, oxidative

phosphorylation, gluconeogenesis, glycogen and fatty acid metabolism. Metabolism of

Nitrogen containing compounds: nitrogen fixation, amino acids and nucleotides.

Photosynthesis: the Calvin cycle.

Biological membranes. Transport across membranes. Signal transduction; hormones and

Neurotransmitters. DNA replication, transcription and translation. Biochemical regulation

of gene expression. Recombinant DNA technology and applications: PCR, site directed

mutagenesis and DNAmicroarray.

Immune system. Active and passive immunity. Complement system. Antibody structure,

function and diversity. Cells of the immune system: T, B and macrophages. T and B cell

activation. Major histocompatibilty complex. T cell receptor. Immunological techniques:

Immunodiffusion, immunoelectrophoresis, RIA and ELISA.

BIOTECHNOLOGY

Microbiology: Prokaryotic and eukaryotic cell structure; Microbial nutrition, growth and

control; Microbial metabolism (aerobic and anaerobic respiration, photosynthesis); Nitrogen

fixation; Chemical basis of mutations and mutagens; Microbial genetics (plasmids,

transformation, transduction, conjugation); Microbial diversity and characteristic features;

Viruses.

Biochemistry: Biomolecules and their conformation; Weak inter-molecular interactions in

biomacromolecules; Chemical and functional nature of enzymes; Kinetics of single substrate

and bi-substrate enzyme catalyzed reactions; Bioenergetics; Metabolism (Glycolysis, TCA

and Oxidative phosphorylation); Membrane transport and pumps; Cell cycle and cell growth

control; Cell signaling and signal transduction.

Molecular Biology and Genetics: Molecular structure of genes and chromosomes; DNA

replication and control; Transcription and its control; Translational processes; Regulatory

controls in prokaryotes and eukaryotes; Mendelian inheritance; Gene interaction;

Complementation; Linkage, recombination and chromosome mapping; Extrachromosomal

inheritance; Chromosomal variation; Population genetics; Transposable elements, Molecular

basis of genetic diseases and applications.

Process Biotechnology: Bioprocess technology for the production of cell biomass and

primary/secondary metabolites, such as bakers yeast, ethanol, citric acid, amino acids, exo-polysacharides, antibiotics and pigments etc.; Microbial production, purification and

bioprocess application(s) of industrial enzymes; Production and purification of recombinant

proteins on a large scale; Chromatographic and membrane based bioseparation methods;

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Immobilization of enzymes and cells and their application for bioconversion

processes.Aerobic and anaerobic biological processes for stabilization of solid / liquid

wastes; Bioremediation.

Bioprocess Engineering: Kinetics of microbial growth, substrate utilization and product

formation; Simple structured models; Sterilization of air and media; Batch, fed-batch and

continuous processes; Aeration and agitation; Mass transfer in bioreactors; Rheology of

fermentation fluids; Scale-up concepts; Design of fermentation media; Various types of

microbial and enzyme reactors; Instrumentation in bioreactors.

Plant and Animal Biotechnology: Special features and organization of plant cells;

Totipotency; Regeneration of plants; Plant products of industrial importance; Biochemistry

of major metabolic pathways and products; Autotrophic and heterotrophic growth; Plant

growth regulators and elicitors; Cell suspension culture development: methodology, kinetics

of

growth and production formation, nutrient optimization; Production of secondary

metabolites by plant suspension cultures; Hairy root cultures and their cultivation.

Techniques in raising transgencies.

Characteristics of animal cells: Metabolism, regulation and nutritional requirements for

mass cultivation of animal cell cultures; Kinetics of cell growth and product formation and

effect of shear force; Product and substrate transport; Micro & macro-carrier culture;

Hybridoma technology; Live stock improvement; Cloning in animals; Genetic engineering

in animal cell culture; Animal cell preservation.

Immunology: The origin of immunology; Inherent immunity; Humoral and cell mediated

immunity; Primary and secondary lymphoid organ; Antigen; B and T cells and

Macrophages; Major histocompatibility complex (MHC); Antigen processing and

presentation; Synthesis of antibody and secretion; Molecular basis of antibody diversity;

Polyclonal and monoclonal antibody; Complement; Antigen-antibody reaction; Regulation

of immune response; Immune tolerance; Hyper sensitivity; Autoimmunity; Graft versus host

reaction.

Recombinant DNA Technology: Restriction and modification enzymes; Vectors: plasmid,

bacteriophage and other viral vectors, cosmids, Ti plasmid, yeast artificial chromosome;

cDNA and genomic DNA library; Gene isolation; Gene cloning; Expression of cloned gene;

Transposons and gene targeting; DNA labeling; DNA sequencing; Polymerase chain

reactions; DNA fingerprinting; Southern and northern blotting; In-situ hybridization; RAPD;

RFLP; Site-directed mutagenesis; Gene transfer technologies; Gene therapy.

Bioinformatics: Major bioinformatics resources (NCBI, EBI, ExPASy); Sequence and

structure databases; Sequence analysis (biomolecular sequence file formats, scoring

matrices, sequence alignment, phylogeny); Genomics and Proteomics (Large scale genome

sequencing strategies; Comparative genomics; Understanding DNA microarrays and protein

arrays); Molecular modeling and simulations (basic concepts including concept of force

fields).

FOOD TECHNOLOGY

Food Chemistry and Nutrition: Carbohydrates: Structure and functional properties of

monooligo- polysaccharides including starch, cellulose, pectic substances and dietary fibre;

Proteins: Classification and structure of proteins in food; Lipids: Classification and structure

of lipids, Rancidity of fats, Polymerization and polymorphism; Pigments: Carotenoids,

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chlorophylls, anthocyanins, tannins and myoglobin; Food flavours: Terpenes, esters, ketones

and quinones; Enzymes: Specificity, Kinetics and inhibition, Coenzymes, Enzymatic and

non-enzymatic browning; Nutrition: Balanced diet, Essential amino acids and fatty acids,

PER, Water soluble and fat soluble vitamins, Role of minerals in nutrition, Antinutrients,

Nutrition deficiency diseases.

Food Microbiology: Characteristics of microorganisms: Morphology, structure and

detection of bacteria, yeast and mold in food, Spores and vegetative cells; Microbial growth

in food: Intrinsic and extrinsic factors, Growth and death kinetics, serial dilution method for

quantification; Food spoilage: Contributing factors, Spoilage bacteria, Microbial spoilage of

milk and milk products, meat and meat products; Foodborne disease: Toxins produced by

Staphylococcus, Clostridium and Aspergillus; Bacterial pathogens: Salmonella, Bacillus,

Listeria, Escherichia coli, Shigella, Campylobacter; Fermented food: Buttermilk, yoghurt,

cheese, sausage, alcoholic beverage, vinegar, sauerkraut and soya sauce.

Food Products Technology: Processing principles: Canning, chilling, freezing,

dehydration, control of water activity, CA and MA storage, fermentation, hurdle technology,

addition of preservatives and food additives, Food packaging, cleaning in place and food

laws.; Grain products processing: Milling of rice, wheat, and maize, parboiling of paddy,

production of bread, biscuits, extruded products and breakfast cereals, Solvent extraction,

refining and hydrogenation of oil; Fruits, vegetables and plantation products processing:

Extraction, clarification concentration and packaging of fruit juice, Production of jam, jelly,

marmalade, squash, candies, and pickles, pectin from fruit waste, tea, coffee, chocolate and

essential oils from spices; Milk and milk products processing: Pasteurized and sterilized

milk, cream, butter, ghee, ice-cream, cheese and milk powder; Animal products processing:

Drying and canning of fish, post mortem changes, tenderization and freezing of meat, egg

powder.

Food Engineering: Mass and energy balance; Momentum transfer: Flow rate and pressure

drop relationships for Newtonian fluids flowing through pipe, Characteristics of non-

Newtonian fluids generalized viscosity coefficient and Reynolds number, Flow of compressible fluid, Flow measurement, Pumps and compressors; Heat transfer: Heat transfer

by conduction, convection, radiation, boiling and condensation, Unsteady state heat transfer

in simple geometry, NTUeffectiveness relationship of co-current and counter current double

pipe heat exchanger; Mass transfer: Molecular diffusion and Ficks Law, Steady state mass transfer, Convective mass transfer, Permeability of films and laminates; Mechanical

operations: Energy requirement and rate of operations involved in size reduction of solids,

high pressure homogenization, filtration, centrifugation, settling, sieving, flow through

porous bed, agitation of liquid, solid-solid mixing, and single screw extrusion; Thermal

operations: Energy requirement and rate of operations involved in process time evaluation in

batch and continuous sterilization, evaporation of liquid foods, hot air drying of solids, spray

and freeze-drying, freezing and crystallization; Mass transfer operations: Properties of air-

water vapor mixture; Humidification and dehumidification operations.

MICROBIOLOGY

Historical Perspective: Discovery of microbial world; Landmark discoveries relevant to the

field of microbiology; Controversy over spontaneous generation; Role of microorganisms in

transformation of organic matter and in the causation of diseases.

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Methods in Microbiology: Pure culture techniques; Theory and practice of sterilization;

Principles of microbial nutrition; Enrichment culture techniques for isolation of

microorganisms; Light-, phase contrast- and electron-microscopy.

Microbial Taxonomy and Diversity: Bacteria, Archea and their broad classification;

Eukaryotic microbes: Yeasts, molds and protozoa; Viruses and their classification;

Molecular approaches to microbial taxonomy.

Prokaryotic and Eukaryotic Cells: Structure and Function: Prokaryotic Cells: cell walls,

cell membranes, mechanisms of solute transport across membranes, Flagella and Pili,

Capsules, Cell inclusions like endospores and gas vesicles; Eukaryotic cell organelles:

Endoplasmic reticulum, Golgi apparatus, mitochondria and chloroplasts.

Microbial Growth: Definition of growth; Growth curve; Mathematical expression of

exponential growth phase; Measurement of growth and growth yields; Synchronous growth;

Continuous culture; Effect of environmental factors on growth.

Control of Micro-organisms: Effect of physical and chemical agents; Evaluation of

effectiveness of antimicrobial agents.

Microbial Metabolism: Energetics: redox reactions and electron carriers; An overview of

metabolism; Glycolysis; Pentose-phosphate pathway; Entner-Doudoroff pathway;

Glyoxalate pathway; The citric acid cycle; Fermentation; Aerobic and anaerobic respiration;

Chemolithotrophy; Photosynthesis; Calvin cycle; Biosynthetic pathway for fatty acids

synthesis; Common regulatory mechanisms in synthesis of amino acids; Regulation of major

metabolic pathways.

Microbial Diseases and Host Pathogen Interaction: Normal microbiota; Classification of

infectious diseases; Reservoirs of infection; Nosocomial infection; Emerging infectious

diseases; Mechanism of microbial pathogenicity; Nonspecific defense of host; Antigens and

antibodies; Humoral and cell mediated immunity; Vaccines; Immune deficiency; Human

diseases caused by viruses, bacteria, and pathogenic fungi

Chemotherapy/Antibiotics: General characteristics of antimicrobial drugs; Antibiotics:

Classification, mode of action and resistance; Antifungal and antiviral drugs.

Microbial Genetics: Types of mutation; UV and chemical mutagens; Selection of mutants;

Ames test for mutagenesis; Bacterial genetic system: transformation, conjugation,

transduction, recombination, plasmids, transposons; DNA repair; Regulation of gene

expression: repression and induction; Operon model; Bacterial genome with special

reference to E.coli; Phage and its life cycle; RNA phages; RNA viruses; Retroviruses; Basic concept of microbial genomics.

Microbial Ecology: Microbial interactions; Carbon, sulphur and nitrogen cycles; Soil

microorganisms associated with vascular plants.

COMPUTER SCIENCE/ INFORMATION TECHNOLOGY

Digital Logic: Logic functions, Minimization, Design and synthesis of combinational and

sequential circuits; Number representation and computer arithmetic (fixed and floating

point).

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Computer Organization and Architecture: Machine instructions and addressing modes,

ALU and data-path, CPU control design, Memory interface, I/O interface (Interrupt and

DMA mode), Instruction pipelining, Cache and main memory, Secondary storage.

Programming and Data Structures: Programming in C; Functions, Recursion, Parameter

passing, Scope, Binding; Abstract data types, Arrays, Stacks, Queues, Linked Lists, Trees,

Binary search trees, Binary heaps.

Algorithms: Analysis, Asymptotic notation, Notions of space and time complexity, Worst

and average case analysis; Design: Greedy approach, Dynamic programming, Divide-and-

conquer; Tree and graph traversals, Connected components, Spanning trees, Shortest paths;

Hashing, Sorting, Searching. Asymptotic analysis (best, worst, average cases) of time and

space, upper and lower bounds, Basic concepts of complexity classes P, NP, NP-hard, NP-complete.

Theory of Computation: Regular languages and finite automata, Context free languages

and Push-down automata, Recursively enumerable sets and Turing machines,

Undecidability.

Compiler Design: Lexical analysis, Parsing, Syntax directed translation, Runtime

environments, Intermediate and target code generation, Basics of code optimization.

Operating System: Processes, Threads, Inter-process communication, Concurrency,

Synchronization, Deadlock, CPU scheduling, Memory management and virtual memory,

File systems, I/O systems, Protection and security.

Databases: ER-model, Relational model (relational algebra, tuple calculus), Database

design (integrity constraints, normal forms), Query languages (SQL), File structures

(sequential files, indexing, B and B+ trees), Transactions and concurrency control.

Information Systems and Software Engineering: information gathering, requirement and

feasibility analysis, data flow diagrams, process specifications, input/output design, process

life cycle, planning and managing the project, design, coding, testing, implementation,

maintenance.

Computer Networks: ISO/OSI stack, LAN technologies (Ethernet, Token ring), Flow and

error control techniques, Routing algorithms, Congestion control, TCP/UDP and sockets,

IP(v4), Application layer protocols (icmp, dns, smtp, pop, ftp, http); Basic concepts of hubs,

switches, gateways, and routers. Network security basic concepts of public key and private key cryptography, digital signature, firewalls.

Web technologies: HTML, XML, basic concepts of client-server computing.

PHYSICS

Mathematical Methods of Physics

Dimensional analysis. Vector algebra and vector calculus. Linear algebra, matrices, Cayley-

Hamilton Theorem. Eigenvalues and eigenvectors. Linear ordinary differential equations of

first & second order, Special functions (Hermite, Bessel, Laguerre and Legendre functions).