Ies mechanical-engineering-2009

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[no NOT OPEN THIS TEST BOOKLET UNTIL YOU ARE ASKED TO DO SO j T.B.C. : 0-FTF--J-NFA

Serial No. ( 31585 1 TEST BOOKLET

MECHANICAL ENGINEERING Paper-!

(Time Allowed : Two HourS')

INSTRUCTIONS

Tesl Booklet Series

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I. Icc kept in a well· insulated thermo flask

is an example of which system ?

(a) Closed system

(b) Isolated system

(c) Open system

{d) Non-flow adiabatic sy~tem

2. The relation o.l~ = ~, where s represents

entropy, Q represents heat and T represents

temperature (absolute), holds good in

which one of the following processes ?

(a) Reversible processes only

{b) Irrevcr~ible processes only

(c) Both reversible and irreversible

processes

(d) All real processes

3. Consider the following properties of

vapour ·

I Pressure

2. Temperature

3. Dryness fraction

4. Specific volume

Which of these two properties alone are not

sufficient to specify the condition of a

vapour?

(a) 1 and2

(b) land3

(c) 2 and 3"

(d) 3and4

2 <

4. In a reversible isothermal expansion

process, the fluid expands from I 0 bar

and 2m' to 2 bar and 10m', during the

pro<;<:SS tht< beat ~upplied is IOO.kW. What

is the work done during the process ?

(a) 33·3 kW

(b) 100 kW

(c) 80 kW

(d) 20 kW

5. Measurement of temperature is based on

which law of thermodynamics ?

(a) Zeroth law of thermodynamics

(b) First law of thermodynamics

(c) Second law of thermodynamics

(d) Third law of thermodynamics

6. 85 kJ of heat is supplied to a dosed system

at constant volume. During the next

process, the system rejects 90 kJ of beat

at c0nstant pressure while 20 kJ of work

is done on it. The system is brought to

the original state by an adiabatic process.

The initial internal energy is 100 kJ. Then

what is the quantity of work transfer during

the process '!

(a) 30 kJ

(b) 25 kJ

(c) 20 kJ

(d) 15 kJ

(Contd.)

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7. An inventor says that his new concept of

an cngme, while working between

temperature limit~ of 27"C and 327"C

reject~ 45% of heat absorbed from the

source. His engine is then equivalent to

which one of the following engines ?

(a) Carnot-cngine

(b) Diesel engine

(c) An impossible engine

(d) Ericsson engine

8. Three engines A, B and C operating on

Carnot cycle use working substances as

Argon, Oxygen and Air respectively. Which

engine will have higher efficiency ?

(a) Engine A

(b) Engine B

(c) Engine C

(d) All engines have same efficiency

9. A series combination of two Camot's

engines operate between the temperatures

of .180"C and 20"C. If the engines produce

equal amount of work, then what is the

intermediate temperature ?

(a) 80"C

(b) 90"C

(c) JOO"C

(d) llO"C

3 <

10. An engine working on Carnot cycle rejects

40% of absorbed heat from the source,

while the sink temperature is maintained

at 27"C, then what is the source

temperature 7

(a) 750•c

(b) 477"C

(c) 203"C

(d) 67·5"C

11. A thermal electric power plant produces

1000 MW of power. If the coal releases

900 >< 107 k.Jih of energy, then what is the

rate at which heat is rejected from the

power plant ?

{a) 500 MW

(b) 1000 MW

(c) 1500 MW

(d) 2000 MW

12. A heat engine is supplied with 250 kJ/s

of heat at a constant fixed temperature of

227"C; the heat is rejected at 27"C, the

cycle is reversible, then what amount of

heat is rejected ?

{a) 250 kJ/s

(b) 200 kJ/s

(c) 180 kJ/s

(d) ISO kJ/s

(Contd.)

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13. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below

the lists :

List-1 Lis I-II

A. Isolated system 1. Energy is always

constant

B. Nozzle 2.1n:reooeinvelocity

at the expense of

its pressure drop

C. "Throttling device 3. Appreciable drop

in pressure with

out any change

in energy

D. Centrifugal

compressor

Code:

A

(a) 4

(b) 1

(c) 4

(d) 1

B

3

3

2

2

c 2

2

3

3

D

1

4

4

4. Enthalpy of the

fluid increases by

the amount of

work input

14. 0·70 kgls of air enters with a specific

enthalpy of 290 kJ and leaves it with

450 kJ of specific enthalpy. Velocities at

inlet and exit are 6 m/s and 2 m/s

respectively. Assuming adiabatic process,

what is power input to the compressor ?

(a) 120 kW

(b) 118 kW

(c) 115 kW

(d) 112kW

4 "

15. In a throttling process, which one of the

following parameterS; remains constant ?

(a) temperature

(b) pressure

(c) enthalpy

(d) entropy

16. For a given value of T~ (Source

temperature) for a reversed Camot cycle,

the variation ofTL (Sink temperature) for

different values of COP is represented by

wh!eh one of the following graphs ?

. (a)

co' \ (b)

co'

(o)

co'!/ (d)

co'~

(Contd.)

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17. Which cycle consists of two reversible

isotherms i!nd two reversible isobars ?

{a) Camot cycle

(b) Stirling cycle

(c) Ericsson cycle

(d) Brayton cycle

18. Which one of the following parameters

is significant to ascertain chemical

equilibrium of a system 'I

(a) Clapeyron relation

(b) Maxwell relation

(c) Gibbs function

(d) Helmholtz function

19. Consider the following:

I. Air

2. Gaseous combustion products

3. Steam

Which of these are pure substances,

a.~suming there is no phase change ?

(a) I and 2 only

(b) and 3 only

(c) 2 and 3 only

(d) l, 2 and 3

20

21.

22.

5 "

Consider the following properties

I. Temperature

2. Viscosity

). Specific entropy

4. Thennal conductivity

Which of the above properties of a system

is/are intensive ?

(o) I only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(o) 2, 3 and 4 only

(d) I, 2, 3 lllld 4

Consider the following properties

I. Entropy

2. Viscosity

3. Temperature

4. Spcx:ific heat at constant volume

Which of the above properties of a system

is/are extensive ?

(•) I only

(b) I and 2 only

(c) 2,3and4

(d) 1,2and4

A reversible heat engine rejects SO percent

of the heat supplied during a cycle of

operation. If this engine is reversed and

operates as a heat pump, then what is its

coefficient of performance ? ,,, I 0

(b) 1·5

(o) 2·0

(d) 2·5

(Contd.)

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23_ Match List-I with List-II and select the

correct answer using the code given below

the lists :

List-!

(Ga~- Cycles)

List-JJ

(Thermodynamic co

ordinotes)

A. Carnot cycle I. Pressure-Entropy

B. Brayton cycle 2. Pressure-Tempe-

rature

C. Ericsson cycle 3. Temperature-

D. Stirling cycle

Code:

A B

(a) 4 2

(b) 3 2

(c) 4 I

(d) 3 I

C D

I 3

I 4

2 3

2 4

Volume

4_ Temperature-

Entropy

24. The bore and stroke of the cylinder of a

6-cylinder engine working on an Otto-cycle

are 17 em and 30 em respectively, total

clearance volume is 9225 em', then what

is the compression ratio ?

(a) 7-8

(b) 6·2

(c) 15·8

(d) 5·4

6 '

25. Which of the following performance

advantages does a rocket engine have as

compared to a turbojet engine ?

l_ No altitude limitation

2. Higher efficiency

3. Longer flight duration

4. No ram drag

Select the correct answer from the code

given below :

(a) t and 2 only

(b) I and 4 only

(c) 1,2and3

(d) 2, 3 and"4

26. Which of the folluwing symptoms

shows that the combustion is necessarily

complete ?

(a) Presence of frt:e carbon in exhaust

(b) Presence of CO in exhaust

(c) Presence of oxygen in exhaust

(d) Presence of nitrogen in exhaust

27. What is the purpose of supercharging an

engine ?

(a) To increase the power output of

engme

(b) To reduce specific fuel consumption

(c) To reduce the noise of the engine

(d) To improve cooling of cylinders

(Contd.)

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28. With natural uranium, which of the

following is used as moderator ?

(a) Heavy water

(b) Graphite

(c) Beryllium

(d) All the above

29. Which one of the following statements is

correct ?

The nuclear radiators produced in a reactor,

which must be shielded, are :

(a) Electrons only

(b) Alpha, Beta and Gamma rays

(c) Neutrons and Gamma rays

(d) Electrons and Gamma rays

30. In MLT6 system (9 being time and T

temperature). what is the dimension of

thermal conductivity ? ,,, ML-•r-•e-'

(b) MJ..:r-•e-• ,,, MLe-•r-'

(d) ML6"'T""

3 I. A steel plate of thermal conductivity

50 W/m-K and thickness 10 em passes a

heat flux by conduction of 25 kWim'. If

the temperature of the hot surface of the

plate is l OO'"C, then what is the temperature

uf the cooler side of the plate ?

(a) 30"C

(b) 40"C

(c) so·c (d) 60"C

7 '

32. A composite slab has two layen. of different materials having internal conductivities k

1 and k,. If each layer has the same thickness, then what is the equivalent thermal conductivity of the slab ?

k,k. ,,, (k, +k2)

(b) k)k2

2(k, +kl)

2k, ,,, (kl +kl)

2k,k, (d) (kl+k2)

33. A composite wall of a furnace has 3 layers

of equal thickness having thermal

conductivities in the ratio of I : 2 : 4.

What "Will be the temperature drop ratio

across the three respective layers ?

34

,,, 1 2:4

(b) 4 2 : 1 ,,, 1 : I

(d) Jog4 : log2 : log!

What is the heat lost per hour across a

wall 4 m high, 10m long and 115 mm

thick, if the inside wall temperature is

30"C >1nd out~ide ambient temperature is

IO"C ? Conductivity of brick wall is

1·15 W/mK, heat tran.•fer coefficient for

inside waH is 2·5 W/m'K and that for

outside wall is 4 Wlm'K.

(a) 3635 kJ

(b) 3750 kJ

(c) 3840 kJ

(d) 3920 kJ

{Contd.)

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35. When a Jiqutd !lows through a tube with

sub-cooled or saturated boiling, wbat is

the process known ?

{a) Pool boiling

(b) Bulk boiling

(c) Convection boiling

{d) Forced convection boiling

36. In a balanced counter flow heat exchanger

with rh~cb "'rh,c0 , the NTU is equal to

1·0- What is the effectiveness of the heat

exchanger?

(a) 0·5

(b) 1·5

(c) 0·33

(d) 0·2

37. A large concrete slab I m thick ha~ one

dimensional temperature distribution :

T = 4- !Ox+ 20x' +lOx',

where T is temperature and x is distance

from one face towards other face of wall.

Ifth~ ~lab material has tht;mnal di/Tusivity

of2 x IQ-' rn'lhr, what is the rate of change

of temperature at the other f.ace of the

wall ?

(a) O·l°C!h

(b) 0·2"Cih

(c) 0·3"Cih

(d) 0·4"Cih

8 •

38. Air at 20"C blows over a hot plate of

50 x 60 em made of carbon steel

maintained at 220"C. The convective heat

transfer co-efficient is 25 W/m'K. What

will be the heat loss from the plate ?

39.

(a) 1500 W

(b) 2500 w (c} 3000 W

(d) 4000 w

What will be the view factor r,1

for the

geometry as shown in the figure above

(sphere within a cube) ?

(n)

(b)

(o)

2

' 4

• 3

(d) ~ 6

(Contd.)

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40. In vapour compression refrigeration system, at entrance to which component the working fluid is superheated vapour ?

(a) Evaporator

(b) Condenser

(c) Compressor

(d) Expansion valve

41. Which one of the following expansion processes takes place in a vapour compression cycle ?

(a) Polytropic process with change in

temperature

(b) Adiabatic process with work transfer

(c) Isentropic process with change in

enthalpy

(d) Adiabatic proces~ with constant

enthalpy

Condenser

Compressor

Evaporator

rQcornpressor O:>ndenscr

'

Evaporator

c f:xpansion valve

-valve

Which one of the following statements is

correct with respect to the schematic diagram as shown above ?

{a) Multi-<:vaporator vapour compression system of refrigeration

(b) Two stage compression vapour compression refrigeration system

(c) Cascade system of vapour compression refrigeration system

(d) None of the above

9 "

43. The thermal efficiency of a Camot heat

engine is 30%. If the engine is reversed

in operation to work as a heal pump with

operating conditions unchanged, then what

will be the COP for heat pump ?

(a) 0·30

(b) 2·33

(c) 3·33

(d) Cannot be calculated

44. In vapour absorption refrigeration system

heating in generator is done at 177"C,

refrigeration in evaporator at -3"C and

cooling in condenser at 27"C. Then whnt

will be the maximum COP of the system?

(a) 1·5

(b) 2·0

(c) 3·0

(d) 4·0

45. In conventional refrigerants what is the

clement responsible for ozone depletion ?

(a) Chlorine

(b) Fluorine

(c) Carbon

(d) Hydrugen

(Contd.)

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46. The refrigerating efficiency, that is, the

ratio of actual COP to reversible COP of

a refrigcratiiJn cycle is 0·8, the condenser

and evaporator temperatures arc 51 "C and

-30"C respectively. If cooling capacity of

the plant is 2·4 kW then what is the work

requirement ?

{a) 1·00 kW

(b) \-33 kW

(c) 1·25 kW

(d) 2·08 kW

47. The atmospheric air at 760 mm of Hg,

dry bulb temperature 15"C and wet bulb

temperature 11"C enters a heating coil

whose temperature is 41 "C. If the by-pass

factor of the heating coil is 0·5, then what

will be the dry bulb temperature of the

air leaving the coil ?

(a) 28"C

(b) 29"C

(c) 30"C

(d) 26"C

48. In a psychrometric chart, what does a

vertical downward line represent ?

(a) Sensible cooling process

(b) Adiabatic saturation process

(c) Humidification process

(d) Dehumidification process

10 '

49. In a sample of moist air at standard

atmospheric pressure of 101·325 kPa and

26"C the partial pressure of water vapour

is 1·344 kPa. If the saturation pressure of

water vapour is 3·}6 kPa at 26"C, then

what are the hwnidity ralio IUid relative

humidity of moist air sample ?

50.

(a) 0-00836 and 1·32%

(b) 0·00836 and 40%

(c) 0·01344 and 1·32%

(d) 0·01344 and 40%

~-t grnfkg.

12-6 •

'

' '

ss~/! \b ' / 7 i '

22DBT32

''

A classroom is to be air"conditionOO by

obtaining the comfort conditions of22"C dbt

and 55% RH from outdoor conditions of

32°C dbt and 22"C wbt. The weight ot

outside air supplied is 30 kg/min. The

comfort conditions required are achieved

first by chemical dehumidification and then

by cooling with a cooling coil as shown

in the psychrometric chart above. What

is the capacity of the dehumidification in kg/hr ?

(a) 3·2

(b) 5·4

(c) 6·8

(d) 9·5

(Contd.)

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51.

dbt --->

t Specific humidity

'w'

Which one of the following statements is

correct for a cooling and humidification

process 1-2 as shown on the psychrometric

chart above ?

(a) Wbt decreases in the process

(b) The total enthalpy increase~ m the •

process

(c) The total enthalpy remains constant

in the process

(d) It is an adiabatic saturation process

52. What is the saturation temperature at the

partial pressure of water vapour in the

air-water vapour mixture called ?

(a) Dry bulb temperature

(b) Web bulb temperature

(c) Dew point temperature

(d) Saturation temperature

53. The humidity ratio of atmospheric air at

28"C <lbt and 760 nm1 ofHg is 0-016 kNim'.

What is the partial pressure of water

vapour?

(') 2·242 kN/m'

(b) 2-535 kNfml

(c) 3·535 kN/m'

(d) 4·242 kNfm'

II '

54. Operating temperature of a cold storage

is -2"C. From the surrounding at ambient

temperature of 40~c heat leaked into the

cold storage is 30 kW. If the actual COP

of the plant is 1/10"' of the maximum

possible COP, then what will be the power

required to pump out the heat to maintain

the cold storage temperature at -2"C ?

(a) 1·90 kW

(b) 3·70 kW

(c) 20·28 kW

(d) 46·50 kW

55. Air enters a rectangular duct measuring

30 x 40 em with a velocity of 8·5 m/s

and a temperature of 40"C. Kinematic

viscosity of the air is 16·95 x 1 Q-6 m'ls.

What will be the Reynolds number ?

(a) 1·72 > 10'

(b) 2·58 ' 10'

(<) 0·86 X 10'

(d) 0•72 X 10'

56. What is the capillary rise in a narrow two

dimensional sht of width 'w' ?

(a) Half of that in a capillary tube of

diameter 'w'

(b) Two-third of that in a capillary tube

of diameter 'w'

{c) One-third of that in a capillary tube

of diameter 'w'

(d) One-fourth of that in a capillary tube

of diameter 'w'

(Contd.)

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57. \Vhat is the difference in pressure head,

measured by a mercury-oil differential

manometer for a 20 em difference of

mercury level ? (Sp. gravity of oil = 0·8)

(a) 2·72 m of oil

(b) 2·52 m of oil

(c) 3·40 m of oil

{d) 2·00 m of oil

58. In order to increase sensitivity of U-tube

manometer, one leg is usually inclined

by an angle 9. What is the sensitivity of

inclined tube compared to sensitivity of U-tubc ?

(a) sin e

(b)

J')

sinO

1

cosO

(d) tan 9

59. A tank has 111 its side a very small

horizontal cylinder fi !ted with a frictionless

piston. The head ofliquid above the piston

ish and the piston area a, the liquid having

a specific weighty. What is the force that

rnnst be exerted on the piston to hold it

in position against the hydrostatic pressure ?

(a) 2yha

(b) yha

2yha 3

(<)

(d) ,,,

2

12 •

60. What is the vertical distance of the centre

ofpr<;:ssure below the centroid of the plane

llfea ?

,,, (b)

10 ·sine

A b

,,, 10 ·sin18

A·b

(d) 10 ·sin2 6

A·h2

61. What are the forces that innuence the

problem of fluid statics ?

(a) Gravity and viscous forces

(b) Gravity and pressure forces

(c) Viscous and surface tension forces

(d) Gravity and surface tension forces

62. A body weighs 30 N and 13 N when

weighed under submerged conditions in

liquids of relative densities 0·8 nnd \·2

respectively. What is the volume of the

body ?

(a) 12·50 f

(b) 3-82 l

(c) 18·70 l

(d) 75·50 l

(Contd.)

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63. For floating bodies, how is the metacentric

radius defined ?

(a) The distance between centre of gravity

and the mctacentre.

(b) Second moment of area of plane of

flotation about centroidal axts

perpendicular to plane of rotation/

immersed volume.

(c) The distance between centre ofgr-.. vity

and fhe centre of buoyancy.

(d) Moment of inertia of the body about

its axis of rotation/immersed volume.

64. Match l.ist-1 with List-11 and select the


the lists :

LISI-1 Li.st-11

A. Singing of tde- I. Vortex flow

phone wires

B. Velocity profile 2. Drag

m a ptpe ts

initially parabolic

and then flattens

C. }"onnation of

cyclones

3. Vortex shedding

D. Shape of rota- 4. Turbulence

meter tube

Code:

A B C D

(a) 3 I 4 2

(b) 2 1 4 3

(c) 3 4 I 2

(d) 2 4 3

13 '

65. Consider the following equations

I. A,v, '""A,v,

2.

3.

4.

"" iN Ox+ay""O

1 a n f&(rv,)+ Oz(v,):O

Which of the above equations are fonns of continuity equations ? (Where u, v arc

velocities and V is volume)

(a) I only

(b) I and 2

(c) 2 and 3

(d) 3 and 4

66. A penstock pipe of 10m diameter carries water under a pressure head of I 00 m. If

the wall thickness is 9 mm, what is the tensile sires~ in the pipe wall in MPa ?

(a) 2725

(b) 545·0

{c) 272-5

(d) 1090

67. Which one of the statements is correct for a forced vortex ?

(a) Turns in an opposite direction to a free vortex

(b) Always occurs in conjunction with a free vortex

(c) Has the linear velocity directly

propo_nional to the radius

(d) Has the linear velocity invn~ely proportional to the radius

(Contd.)

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68. How could 'Magnus effect' be simulated

as a combination ?

(a) Uniform flow and doublet

(b) Uniform flow, irrotational vortex and

doublet

(c) Uniform flow and vortex

(d) Uniform flow and line source

69. When is Bernoulli's equation applicable

between any two points in a !low tleld '!

(a) rhe Oow is steady, incompressible

and rotational

{b) The flow is steady, compressible and

irrotatiom;l

(c) The flow is unsteady, incompressible

and irrotational

(d) The flow is steady, incompressible

and irrotational

70 Three identical pipes of length /,diameter d

and friction factor f are connected in

parallel between two reservoirs. What is

the size of a pipe of length I and of the

same friction factor f equivalent to the

above pipe ?

(o) 1·55 d

(b) 1·4 d

(c) 3 d

(d) 1·732 d

71. How does the head loss in turbulent flow

in pipe vary ?

(a) Directly as velocity

(b) Inversely as square of velocity

(c) Approximately as square of velocity

(d) Inversely as velocity

14 '

72. In a submerged orifice tlow, the discharge

is proportional to which one of the following parameters ?

(a) Square root of th<: downstrcllrll head

(b) Square root of the upstream head

(c) Square of the upstream head

(d) Square root of the difference between upstream and downstream heads

73. Which one ofthe following statements is correct for a fully developed pipe flow ?

(a) Pressure gradient balances the wall shear stress only and has a constant value.

(b) Pressure gradient is greater than the wall shear stress.

(c) The velocity profile is changing continuously.

(d) Inertia force balances the wall shear stress.

?4. Which one of the following statements is appropriate for the free surface, the hydraulic gnu.li~ntline and energy gradient line in an open channel flow ? (a) Parallel to each other but they nr<:

diiTerent lines

(b) All coinciding (c) Such that only the first two coincide

(d) Such that they are all inclined to each other

75. A sluice gate discharges water into a horiwntal rectangular channel with a velocity of 12 m/s and depth of flow of I m. What is the depth of flow after the hydraulic jump ~

(a) 6·42 m

{b) 5·K4 m

(c) 4·94 rn

(d) Nl m

{Contd.)

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76. What is the commonly used boundary layer

control method to prevent separation ?

(a) Usc of smooth boundaries

(b) Using large divergence angle in the

boundary

(c) Suction of accelerating fluid within

the: boundary layer

(d) Suction of retarded fluid within the

boundary layer

79. Which one of the following is proper for

a normal shock wave ?

(a) Reversible

(b) Irreversible

(c) hentrupic

(d) Occurs in a converging tube

80. Which one of the following ~tatements

relates to expression 'pvc' ?

(a) Pressure rise in 11 duct due to normal

77. The time period of a simple pendulum closure of valve in the duet

depends on its effective length land the

local acceleration due to gravity g. What

is the number of dimensionless parameter

involved ?

(a) TWo

(b) One

(c) Three

(d) Zero

78. What is the correct dimensionless group

form<'d with the variables p--density,

N-rotational speed, d-diameter and

)1--cOcfficient Of ViSCOSity ?

(•)

(b)

(c)

(d)

pNdl

" pNd

" Nd

'" Nd'

'"

15 •

{b) Pressure rise in a duct due to abrupt

closure of valve in the duct

(c) Pressure rise in a duct due to slow

opening of valve in the duct

(d) Pressure nse m a duct due to

propagation of supersonic wave

through the duct

81. Which one of the following is correct for

tangential component of velocities before

and after an oblique shock ?

{a) Unity

(b) Equal

(c) Unequal

{d) None of the above

82. A hydraulic reaction turbin~ working under

a head of 16m develops 640 kW of power.

What is the unit power of the turbine ?

(a) 10 kW

(b) 40 kW

(c) 60 kW

(d) 160 kW

{Contd.)

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83. A Francis turbine working at 400 rpm has

a unit speed of 50 rpm and develops 500 kW of power. What is the effective

head under which this turbine operates ?

(a) 62·5 m

(b) 64·0 m

(c) 40·0 m

(d) 100m

84. A centrifugo.l pump with wdial vo.ne tips

at the outlet has an impeller of 100 mm

outer diameter. If the rotative speed is

3000 rpm and manometric efficiency 0·8

then what is th~ n~t head U.cvclup~<.l ?

(a) 10 m

(b) 20 m

(c) 30 m

(d) 40 m

85. The speed ratio of a Pelton wheel operating

under a head of 900 m is 0-45. What is

the peripheral velocity of the turbine

wheel ?

(a) 28 m/s

(b) 96 m/s

(c) 42 m/s

(d) 60 m/s

86. A mixed flow pump is driven by a 8 kW

motcr running at 1000 rpm. lt delivers

water at the rate of 1000 liters/min against

a total head of 25 m. What is the specific

speed of the pump in meter-minutes ?

(a) 90

(b) 50

(c) 45

(d) 75

16 '

87. Match List-! with List-11 and select the


the lists

List-1 List-!1

A. Pelton turbine I. Specific speed

from 300 to 1 000 +

axial flow with

fixed runner vane•.

D. francis turbine 2. Specific speed

from 10 to SO+

Tangential flow.

C. Propeller turbine 3. Specific speed

from 60 to 300 +

mixed flew.

D. Kaplan turbine 4. Specific speed

from 300 to 1 000 +

axial flow with

adjustable runner

vanes.

Cnde :

A B C 0

(a)2134

(b) 4 1 3 2

(c) 2 3 1 4

(d) 4 3 1 2

(Contd.)

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88. Which one of the following graphs 89. Which one of the fo!lowing combination

Tepresents the chara<:teristics of a torque represents the power trnnsmission systems ?

converter ? Where suffix r stands for '"' Pump, hydraul.ic accumulator,

turbine runner and P stands for pump hydraulic intensifier and hydraulic

impeller. coupling

'"' (b) Pump, turbine, hydrauhc accumulator

' 0 '' and hydraulic coupling T/fe .J. (o) Turbine, accumulator, intensifier and

lc hydraulic coupling

'" " (d) Accumulator, intensifier, hydraulic

t coupling and torque converter

0 90. Which one of the following is NOT "" " -> NjNP ' " accessory for the boiler ?

(b) (o) Condenser

' " '' (b) Economizer

(o) Air prchcatcr

' (d) Feed water pump ~

" '" t 91 Match Li~t-1 with Li~t-II and select the


" the lists :

" ___,. N,JNP ' " u~-t-1 List-11 (o)

' " '' (Type of boiler) (Features)

t A. Benson I Vertic"! lire tube

B. Stirling 2. Hori;:ontal fire T

" _,

tube '" t C. Babcock-Wilcox 3. Bent water tube

D. Cochran 4. Once through

" -> N,fN, '" flow

(d) 5 Inclined water

' " '' """ Code:

A B c D

" t lc ., (o) 4 5 3

(b) 1 2 5 4

" (o) 4 3 5

• --> N/Nr ' " (d) 5 2 4

17 (Contd.) '

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92. Steam pressures at the inlet and exit of a

nozzle are 16 bar and 5·2 bar respectively

and discharge is 0·28 m'/s. Critical pressure

ratio is 0·5475. If the exit pressure is

reduced to 3·2 bar then what will be the

flow rate in m'ls ?

(a) 0·280

(b) 0·328

(c) 0·356

(d) 0-455

93. Consider the follo,.,ing statements

Choked 11ow through a nozzle means

I. Discharge 1S maxtmum

2. Discharge is zero

3. Velocity at throat is supersonic

4. Nozzle exit pressure is less than or

equal to critical pressure.

Which of the above statements is/arc correct ' (o) only

(b) and 2

(c) 2 and 3

(d) I and 4

94. The index of expansion of dry saturate<.!

steam flowing through a nozzle is equal

to 1· J35, and then what is th" critical

prcss"re ratio for this flowing steam in

the no7..7.le ?

(a) 0·96

(b) 0·58

(c) 0·33

(d) 0·15

95. Water (C• = 4 kJ/kgK) is fed to a boiler at 30°C, the enthalpy of vapurillltion at atmospheric pressure in the boiler is 2400 kJ/kg; the steam coming from the boiler is 0·9 dry. What is the net heat supplied in the boiler ?

(a) 2160 kJ/kg

(b) 2400 kJ/kg

(c) 2440 kJ/kg

(d) 2280 kJ/kg

96. In a simple impulse turbine the no=le angle at the entrance is 30". For maximum diagram efficiency what is the blade-speed ratio ?

(Note : sin 30" = 0·5, cos 30° = 0·866. sm 15"- 0·259, cos 15" = 0·966)

(a) 0·259

(b) 0·75

(c) 0·5

(d) 0-433

97. Consider the following statements pertaining to gas turbines

1. The degree of reaction of a reaction turbine is the ratio of enerey transfer in fixed blade to the overall energy trans!Cr across a stage.

2. The overall pressure drop in a turbine is the product of pressure drop pel" stage and number of stages.

3. Gas turbine cycle (Brnyton cycle) is not as efficient as Rankine cycle for steam.

Which t>f the ahove statements is/are correct?

(a) I only

(b) 2 only

(c) 2and3

(d) 3 t>nly

18 (Contd.) '

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99.

Steam Flow FMFMFMFM

=

Velocity / ' ,' / '·, -~------'

fhe pressure and velocity diagram as shown in the figure above for a steam lurbme refers to which one of the following ?

(Where : M-moving blade, F-fixcd blade) (a) Impulse turbine-Velocity compounded

(b) Impulse turbine-Pressure compounded (c) Impulse !w-hine-Pressure and Velocity

compounded

(d) Reaction turbine stages

If the enthalpy dwp in the moving blades and fixed blades of a steam turbine is I 0 kJ/kg and 15 k.Jikg respectively then what is the degree of reaction ?

(a) 67% (b) 60%

(c) 40% (d) 33%

I 00. In a simple single stage gas turbine plant, if T, is the minimum temperature and T, is the maximum temperature then what is the work ratio in terms of r, '?

T •-1 (a) 1--'e'

T, e T, ,_,

(b) 1--'e' T, e

(c) 1-Tlrl~t T, '

T ! (d) 1--' ,,

T, e

19 '

101. Which one of the fo!lowing statements is correct ? (a) Reciprocating compressors are used

to supply large quantities of air at a lower pressure ratio.

(b) Centrifugal compressors are used to supply large quantities of air at a lower pressure raho.

(c) Centrifugal compressors arc used to supply small quantities of air at a lower pressure ratio.

(d) Centrifugal compressors cannot be run at high speed because of impeller, diffuser and casing.

!02. Which one ofth~ following graphs shows the corr~ct representation of the processes for a t\vo stage air c<->mpressor with perfect interco<->ling ami uo pressure drop in the int~rcooler ? (a)P,7 6

(b) P,

!\ g ., '+-~.-.. ,J,_'I; \ T

P, -4

v

(c) PTt:c\ ~~· ;2 3\-~·---'''1~' P, -4

(Contd.)

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103. Consider the following statements

pertaining to axial flow compressors

104.

I.

2.

Like centrifugal comprcs~or, axial flow

compres•ors arc limited by surge at

low mass flow rates.

Axial flow comprcs~urs experience

choking at low flow rates.

3. The design point of axial flow

compressors is clo~~;: to the surge limit.

4. As mass flow diminishes the

compressor blades stall causing flow

separation.

Which of the above statements is/arc

correct?

(•) I and 2 only

(b) 1,2and3

(o) 1,3and4

(d) 3 and 4 only

I ' • ~ • ~ " A B • "

~ c~

L l_j__j__~-Mass Flow Rate

In the graph as shown above, for an axial

flow compressor, surging is likely to occur

in which one of the following.zones ?

(a) A

(b) B

(c) C

(d) D

20 <

105. Which one of the following diagrams

depicts correctly the radial distribution of

axial velocity

last stage of compressors ?

over the blades in the

multistage axial flow

(•) tip,---~

(b)

(o)

(d)

root L-.-c--' c~

I<- c"''"" ------>i

I>- cm .. n ---->1 --,--. tip

' '

(Contd.)

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106. Which one of the following statements is correct ? Increasing the number of reheating stages in a gas turbine to infinity, makes the ~xpansion tending :

(a) R~versible adiabatic

(b) Isothermal

(c) Isobaric

(d) Adiabatic

107. Which one of the following statements is correct ?

108.

In a boiler, the air pr~heater is invariably locat~d between : (a) Forced draft fan and chimney

(b) Forced draft fan and furnace

(c) EconomiL.Cr an<.! feed pump

(d) Condenser and feed pump

T

' The above T-S diagram for a gas rurbine plant is drawn for the case where :

(a) Compression of air is done in two stages incorporating an intercooler between two.

(b) Expansion of gases is done in two stages followed by regeneration.

(c) Expansion of gases is done in two stages with a reheater between the <wo.

(d) Expansion of gases is done in two stages with a reheater between the two followed by regeneration.

21 <

Direction:> ;

Each of the next TWELVE (I Z) items consists of two statements, one labelled

as the 'Assertion (A)' and the other as

'Reason (R)'. You are to examine these two statements carefully and select the answers to these items using the codes given below :

Codes :

(a) Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A

(b) Both A and Rare individually true but R is not the co~"~"e£t explanation of A

(c) A is true but R is false

(d) A is f«be b11t R is true

I 09. Assertion (A) : An air-conditioner

-Reason (R)

operating as a beat pump

is superior to an electric resistance heater for

winter heating.

A heat pump rejects more heat than the heat equivalent of the heat

absorbed.

\10_ Assertion {A): After buming mcreases the thrust of a jet engine.

Reason (R) The air fuel ratio of jet

engine is high.

Ill. Assertion (A) : Cork is a good irn~ulator.

Rei>Son (R) Good insulators are highly porous.

(Contd.)

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112. Assertion (A): Drop-wise condensation is associated with higher heat transfer rate as compared to the heat transfer rale in film condensation.

Reason (R) In drop condensation there ts free surface through whieh dire<;t heat transfer takes place.

113_ Assertion (A) : :For the similar conditions the values of convection heal transfer coefficients are more m forced convection than in free

Rea~on {R}

convection.

In case of forced convection system the movement of fluid is by means of external agency_

114. Assertion (A) : If a domc~tic refrigerator works inside an adiabatic room with its door open, the room temperature gradually decreases.

Reason (R) Vapour comprcsswn refrigeration cycles nave high COP compared to air refrigeration cycles.

115. A~scrtion (A): In a fluid, the •ate of deformation is far more important than the total deformation itself.

Reason (R) A fluid continues to deform so long as the external forces arc applied.

22 "

116. Assertion (A) : A narr~w glass tube, when i mmcrsed into mercury causes capillary depression, and when immersed into water

Reason (R) causes capillary rise. Mercury is denser than water.

117. Assertion (A) : The local acceleration is

Reason {R) zero in a steady motion. The convective component arises due to the fact that a fluid element different

expenences velocities at

different locations_

118. Assertion (A): The 'dimples' on a golf ball are intentionally provided.

Reason (R) A turbulent boundary layer, since it has more momentum than a laminar boundary layer, can better resist an adverse pressure gradient

119. Assertion (A) : Increase in static suction lift of centrifugal pump may cause cavitation_

Reason (R) Available Net Positive Suction Head mcreases with increase in static suction lift.

120. Assertion (A): Multistaging compi-e<>Sion

Reason (R)

is done only in reciprocating compressors. Reciprocating compressors are used to compress a large pressure ratio and low discharge.

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DO NOT OPEN THIS TEST BOOKLET UNTIL YOU ARE ASKED TO DO SO

T.B.C. : 0-FTF-J-NFB

Serial No. ~0581

TEST BOOKLET

Test Booklet Series

A MECHANICAL ENGINEERING

Paper-Il Time Allowed Two Hours Maximum Marks 200

INSTRUCTIONS

1. IMMEDIATELY AFTER THE COMMENCEMENT OF TilE EXAMINATION, YOU SHOULD CHECK THAT THIS TEST BOOKLET DOES NOT HAVE ANY UNPRINTED OR TORN OR MISSING PAGES OR ITEMS, ETC- IF SO, GET IT REPLACED BY A COMPLETE TEST BOOKLET.

2. ENCODE CLEARLY THE TEST BOOKLET SERIES A, B, CORD AS THE CASE MAY BE IN THE APPROPRIATE PLACE IN THE ANSWER SHEET.

3. You have to enter your Roll Number on the Test r--------------, Booklet in the Box provided alongside. DO NOT write anything e!se on the Test Booklet.

4. This Test Booklet contains 120 items (questions). Each item compnses four responses (answers). You will select the response which you want to mark on the Answer Sheet. In case you feel that there is more than one correct response, mark the response which you consider the best. In any case. choose ONLY ONE response for each item.

5. You have to mark all your responses ONLY on the separate Answer Sheet provided. See directions in the Answer- Sheet.

6. All items carry equal marks. 7. Before you proceed to mark in the Answer Sheet the responses to various items in the

Test Booklet, you have to fill in some particulars in the Answer Sheet as per instructions sent to you with your Admission Certificate.

8. After you have completed filling in all your responses on the Answer Sheet and the examination has concluded, you should hand over to the Invigilator only the Answer Sheet You are permitted to take away with you the Test Booklet.

9. Sheets for rough work are appended in the Test Booklet at the end. 10. Penalty for wron' answen ;

THERE WILL B8 PENALTY FOR WRONG ANSWERS MARKED BY A CANDIDATE IN TH8 OBJECTNE TYPE QUESTION PAPERS.

(i) There are four altematives for the answer to every question. For each question for which a wrong answer has been given by the candidate, one-th:lrd j0·33) of the marks assigned to that question will be deducted as penalty.

{ii) If a candidate gives more than one answer, it will be treated as a wrong answer even if one of the given answers happens to be correct and there will be same penalty as above to that question.

(iii) If a question is left blank. i.e., no answer is given by the candidate. there will be no penalty for that question.

DO NOT OPEN THIS TEST BOOKLET UNTIL YOU ARE ASKED TO DO SO

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L

2.

~

1\ 60',\

A rod of length I m is sliding in a corner as shown in the figure above. At an instant when the rod makes an angle of 60' with the horizontal plane, the downward velocity of point A is 1 m(s. What is the angular velocity of the rod at this instant?

(a) 2-0 radjs

(b) 1·5 radjs

(c) 0 5 radjs

(d) 0·75 rad/s

The figure as shown above is a rigid body undergoing planar motion. The absolute tangential accelerations of the points R and S on the body are ISO mmjse<:2 and

300 mm/se<:2 respectively in the directions shown. What 1s the angular acceleration of the rigid body?

(~ 1·66 radjsec2

M 3·33 rad/sec2

(c) 5·00 radjsec~

(d) 2·50 radfsec2

0-FTF-J-NFB/llA 2

3. Why is an offset provided in a radial cam-translating follower mechanism?

(a) To avoid obstruction due to some other machine part

(c)

(d)

To decrease . pressure angle during iuiCent of the follower

To increase pressure angle during ascent of the follower

To decrease pressure angk during descent of the follower

4. A cam rotating with a uniform angular velocity pushes its Oatfaced radial follower upwards. If the nature of the upward displacement of the follower with respect to the angle of cam rotation is cyclmdal, then what 1s the shape of acceleration curve?

(a)

(b)

(c)

J -Cam angle ~

,, -

"'

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5. An external gear with 60 teeth meshes with a pinion of 20 teeth, module being 6 mm. What is the centre distance in mm?

(a) 120

(b) 180

(c) 240

(d) 300

6. A gear having 100 teeth is fixed and another gear having 25 teeth revolves around it, centre lines of both the gears being joined by an arm, How numy revolutions will be made by the gear of 25 teeth for one revolution of arm?

(a) 3

(b) 4

(c) 5

(d) 6

7. A machine is coupled to a power source. The machine requires constant torque but to,-que supplied by the power source is (800+200sin!l)N-m. Mass moment of inertia of the flywheel 1s 400 kg-m 2 . What is the maximum angular acceleration of the flywheel and at what position does it occur?

{a) 0·5 rad/sec2 at !l- 90"

(b) 1·0 rad/sec2 at El- 90"

(c) 0·5 rad/sec2 at El = 180"

(d) 2 0 rad(sec2 at fl = 90"

0-FTF..J-NFB/llA

B.

9.

3

'" a flywheel, "' ""e stress 25·2 MN(m2 aad <he density 7 g/cm3 . Then what ;, maximum peripheral velocity?

(<>)

(b)

(e)

(d)

30 m(s

45 m/s

60 mjs

120 m/s

~ 1200

-~ t 1000

$ 800

I

/ I" 0 90 180 270 3 Cranlr angle in deg -

;,

" <he

The above figure shows the turning momerrt diagram of an engine. The mean speed of prime mover is 2n rad/s and the mass moment of inertia is 0·1 kg-m2, then what is the coefficient of fluctuation of energy?

(a) 1%

{b) 5%

(c) 7·5%

(d) 10%

[ P. T. 0.

---------------'

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10. ln a Hartnell governor, the mass of each ball is 2 5 kg. Maximum and mimmum centrifugal forces on the balls are 2000 N and 100 N corresponding to radii 20 em and 15 em respectively. Lengths of vertical and horizontal arms of the bell-crank levers are the same, then what is the spring stiffness m

N/cm?

{a) 100

(b) 200

{c) 400

{d) 800


A governor is said to be

sensitive

responds speed

when it readily to small change in

2. isochronous if it has no sensitivity

::>. hunting if it 1s too sensillve

Which 0; '"' above statements is/are tme?

(o) I only

1'1 I =' ' (cj I =' ' (d) ' =' '

0-FTF-J-NFB/llA

"·

A.

B

c

D.

"·

4

Match Ust-1 w;th List-tl and select the correct <Jnswer using the code given below the Lisls ;

Li.st-f Li.st-JJ

Node point I Balancing of reciprocating masses

Critical ' Torsional damping vibratwn of shafts

Magnificatwn '· Forced vibration factor of spring-mass

system

Hammer ' Damped vibration blow

Code:

(o) A B c D I ' ' ' M A B c D

' ' ' I

(c) A B c D I ' ' ' (d) A B c D ,

' ' ,;;c. - ,, ,;;c. M ~

;;q fmooth

A mass M vibrates on a frictionless platform between two sets of springs having individual spring constant as shown in the figure above. Whal is the combined "Pring constant of the system?

(I!) 2(K1 +K2 )

2·(K!K2) (d)

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14. A reciprocating engine. running at 80 radfs. is 5upported on springs. The 5tatlc deflection of the spring is lmm. Take g=l0mfs 2. When the engine runs. what will be the f~quency of vibr-ations of the system?

(a) 80 rad/s

(b) 90 rad/s

(c) 100 radjs

(d) 160 radjs

The above figure connected by

shows two rotors an elastic shaft

undergoing tonnonal vibration. The

rotor Ul has a mass of 2 kg and a diameter of 60 em, while the

rotor @ has a mass of 1 kg and a diameter of 20 em. What is the distance ! at which the node of vibration of torsional vibration occurs?

(a) 36 em

(b) 30 em

(c) 22 em

(d) 18 em

0-FTF-J-NFB/llA '

16. Tht static deflection of a shaft under

a flywheel '" 4 mm. Take g=10mjs2 . What 1s the critical

speed in mdfs?

(a.) 50

(b) 20

(c) 10

(d) 5

17. Given below are the locations of the poles of a second-order closed-loop automatic control system. Which one of them corresponds to a, stable and critically damped 5ystem?

(a) •o -~

~

"' '" -~

'" ' (o) -o •o

' _,

(d) ~0 -~

[ P. T. 0.

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>S. Match Ust-1 with List-1! and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists :

List-/ List-JI

(Descriptiort) (Shape)

A. Spline 1. Involute

B. Roll pin 2. Semicircular

c. Gib-headcd ,,, 3. Tapered on one side

D. Woodruff key '· Circular

""'' (o( A B c D

1 3 ' ' ~I A B c D

2 3 ' 1

(o) A B c D 1 ' 3 '

(d) A B c D 2 4 3 1

19. Consider the following joints :

L Railway carriage wheel and .. , 2. IC engine cylinder and liner

Which of the above joints is/are the result(s) of interference fit?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

,,, Neither I nor 2

(d) Both I and 2

0-F'TF'..,J-NFB/llA '

20. A power screw of 32 mm nominal diameter and 5 mm pitch is acted upon by an axial load of 12 kN. Permissible thread bearing pressure 1s 6 MPa. Considering bearing action between the threads in engagement, what is the number of threads in engagement with the screw?

{a) 6

(c) 9

~) 7

(d) 10

21. A spur gear transmits 10 kW at a pitch line velocity of 10 mfs; driving gear has a diameter of 1·0 m. Find the tangential force between the driver and the follower, and the transmitted torque respectively.

{a) 1 kN and 0-5 kN·m

(b) 10 kN and 5 kN-m

(c) 0·5 kN and 0·25 kN-m

(d) 1 kN and 1 kN-m

22. Fatigue strength of a rod subjected to cyclic axial force is less than that of a rotating beam of the same dimensions subjected to steady lateral force. What is the reason?

(a) Axial stiffness is less than bending stiffness

(b) Absence of centrifugal effects in the rod

{c) The number of discontinuities vulnerable to fatigue is more in the rod

(d) At a particular time, the rod has only one type of stress whereas the beam has both tensile stresses

compressive

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c 23. Maximum shear stress developed on

the surface of a solid ci<cular shaft under pure torsion is 240 MPa. If the shaft diameter is doubled, then what is the maximum shear stress developed corresponding to the same torque?

(o) 120 MPa

'"' 60 MPa

(a) 30 MPa

(d) IS MPa

24. An elevator weighing 10000 N attains an upward velocity of 4 m(s m 2 seconds with unifonn acceleration. Then what is the tension in the wire rope?

(a) 8000 N

I' I 5000 N

(a) 25CO N

(d) l2<JOO N

25. On what does the basic static capacity of a ball bearing depend?

(a) Directly proportional to number of balls m a row and diameter of ball

(b) Directly proportional to square of ball diameter and inverse of number of rows of balls

(c) Directly proportional number of ba!!s in a row and square of diameter of ball

(d) Inversely proportional •a square a£ diameter a£ bill>

=' directly proportional " number of balls in a ww

0-FTF...J-NFB/UA 7


• Two·dimensional stresses applied to a thin plate in its own plane represent the plane stress condition.

2. Under plane stress condition, the strain m the direction perpendicular to the plane is zero.

3. Normal and shear stresses may occur simultaneously on a plane.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 1 and 2

(c) 2 and 3

(d) 1 and 3

27. The principal strains at a point in a body, under biaxial state of stress, are IOOOxl0-6 and -(iOOxl0-6. What is the maximum shear strain at that point?

(a) 200 x w-6

(b) 800x!0-6

(c) lOOOx 10-6

(d} I600x10-6

[ P. T. 0.

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28. What 1s the relationslrip between elastic constants E, G and K?

(a) E~ KG 9K+G

(c) E~ 9KG K+3G

(d) E = 9KG 3K+G

29. A bar produces a lateral strain of magnitude -60x w-5 mjm, when subjected to tensile stress of magnitude 300 MPa along the axial direction. Find the elastic modulus of the material, if the Poisson's ratio is 0·3.

(a) 100 Gf>a

(b) 150 Gf>a

(c) 200 GPa

(d) 400 GPa

30. A uniformly distributed load w (in kNJm) is acting over the entire length of a 3 m long cantilever beam. If the shear force at the midpoint of cantilever is 6 kN, what is the value of w?

(~ 2

M ' (c) 4

(~ 5

0--FrF--.J-NFB/llA '

J_._.,_ ,,

An overhanging beam ABC is

supported at points A and B, as shown in the above figure. Find the maximum bending moment and the point where it occurs.

(a) 6 kN-m at the right support

(b) 6 kN-m at the left support

(c) 4·5 kN-m at the right support

(d) 4·5 kN-m at the midpoint between the supports

32. A freely supported beam at its ends carries a central concentrated load, and maximum bending moment is M. If the same load be unifonnly distributed over the beam length, then what is the maximum bending moment?

(~ M

M ~I -

' (c)

M

3

(d) 2M

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33. Match List-! with List-11 and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists

A.

List-! {Cantilever Wading)

Code;

{o) A

' ~) A

' {c) A

' (~ A

'

( c

( c

B

' B

' B

' B

' 0-FTF---J-NFB{llA

c

' c

' c 4

c

'

LIS t-Il

(Shear FDrce Diagram)

' ' c ' . c::::c==-

'

4.

'

'

A

D 4

D

' D

' D

'

'

B

B

9

34. A beam having rectangular crosssection is subjected to an external loading. The average shear stress developed due to the external loading at a particular cross-section is -ravg· What 1s the maximum shear stress developed at the same cross-section due to the same loading?

(a) ~ 'avg

(b} •avg

(d) 2"~:avg


When two springs of equal lengths are arranged to fonn a cluster spring

1. angle of twist in both the springs will be equal

2. deflection of both the springs will be equal

3. load taken by each spring will be half the total load

4. shear stress in each spring will

be equal

Which of the above statements isjare correct?

(o) 1 and 2

(b) 3 and 4

(c) 2 only

(d) 4 only

[ P. T. 0.

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36. A water main of 1 m diameter contains water at a pressure head of 100 metres. The permissible tensile stress in the material of the water main is 25 MPa. What is the minimum thickness of the water main? (Take g= 10mjs2)

.7.

(a) 10 mm

(b) 20 mm

{c) 50 mm

{d) 60 mm

Four vertical columns of same material, height and weight have the same end conditions. Which cross·section will carry the maximum load?

(a) Solid circular section

(b) Thin hollow circular section

(c) Solid square section

(d) !-section

38. A steel specimen 150mm 2 m

cross-section stretches by 0·05 mm over a 50 mm gauge length under an axial load of 30 kN. What is the strain energy stored in the specimen? (Take E ~ 200 GPa)

(a) 0·75 N-m

(b) !·00 N-m

(c) !·50 N-m

0-ITF-J-NFB/llA 10

39. What is the expression for the strain energy due to bending of a cantilever beam [length L, modulus of elasticity E and moment of inertia I)?

40.

,,,

,,,

Which one of the following systems is valid for gold?

(a) Orthogonal

(b) Cubic

(c) Hexagonal

(d) Triclink

crystal

41. Which one of the following is correct for 'Climb?

(a} Dislocation moves parallel to the slip plane

{b) Dislocation moves perpendicular to the slip plane

(c) Sliding of one plane of atoms over the other plane

(d) Dislocation moves from a slip plane to another slip plane

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42. Which one of the following is correct for "Burger's vector" in screw dislocation?

(a) Perpendicular to the dislocation line

(b) Inclined to the dislocation line

(c) Parallel to the dislocation line

(d) Opposite to the dislocation line

43. Which one of the following defects is 'Schottky defect'?

(a) Vacancy defect

(b) Compositional defect

(c) Interstitial defect

(d) Surface defect

44. Which one of the following elements is an austenitic stabilizer?

(a) Chromium

(b) Tungsten

(cf Nickel

{d) Molybdenum

45. Which one of the following elements is a ferdtic stabilizer?

(a) Nickel

(b) Manganese

(c) Copper

(d) Chromium

0-FTF--J-NFB/llA

46. The elements which, added to steel, help in chip formation during machining are

(a} sulphur, lead and phcsphorus

(b) sulphur, lead and cobalt

{c) aluminium, lead and c<;~pper

(d} aluminium, copper

titanium

47. Which one of the following cast irons consists of carbon in rosette form?

(a) White cast iron

(b) Gray cast iron

(c) Malleable cast iron

(d) Nodular cast iron

48. Which one of the following possesses the property of nonsparking

character?

(a) Hadfield's manganese steel

(b) Spring steel

(c) Stellite

(d) lnvar

[P. T. 0.

- --·-----------------_j

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... Nano e<>mpositc materials are highly preferable in design consideration for their

{o) high resistance Co crack propagaTion

/b) vibration resistance

(o) impact resistance

I'J high resilience

50. Which one of the following mediums is used for the fastest cooling rate of steel quenching?

(o) Air

(b) OH

(o) Water

(d) Brine

51. Which one of the following materials is not a compDsite?

(a) Wood

{b) Concrete

{c) Plywood

(d) Sialon

0-FTF-J-NFB[llA

"· Match List-! with List-11 and select the correct answer using the e<>de given below the Lists :

List-! List-n (Artide) (Processing Method}

A. Disposable L Rotomoulding coffee cups

B. Large water ' Expandable -· bead moulding

c. Plastic sheets ' Thermoformmg

D. Cushion pads '· Blow moulding

5 Calendering

Code

(o) A B c D

' 5 J ' (b) A B c D

' 5 ' ' (o) A B c D

' ' ' J

(d) A B c D

' J 5 ' 53. Which of the following composites

are 'dispersion-strengthened composJtes?

(a) Particulate e<>mposites

{b) Laminar composites

(c) Fiber reinforced composites

(d) Short-fiber discontinuous composites

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54. Why are Babbitt alloys used for beanng material?

(o) They excellent embeddability

(b) They are relatively stronger than other bearing materials

(c) They do not lose strength with

increase in temperature

{d) They have high fatigue strength

55. Which one of the following materials

can be subjected to an age hardening process?

(a) HSS

(b) Aluminium

(c) Pure iron

(d) Stellile

56. Consider characteristics

folle>wing

1. Pore>sity in the metal is largely eliminated.

2. Strength is decreased.

3. Close tolerances cannot be maintamed.

Which e>f the abe>ve characteristics e>f hot working is)are correct?

(a} 1 only

(b) 3 e>nly

(c) 2 and 3

(d) 1 and 3

0-.nF..J-NFB/llA 13

57. Which one of the following processes is the wiredrawing process?

(o)

(b)

Compressive

Tensile

(c) Shear

(d) Hydrostatic stress

58. Which nne of the statements is correct?

following

(a) In extrusion process, th1cker walls can be obtained by increasmg the forming pressure

(b) Extrusion is an ideal process for obtaining rods from metal having poor density

(c) As compared to roll forming, extruding speed is high

(d) Impact extrusion is quite similar to Hooker's process including the flow of metal be1ng in the same direction

59. What is the major problem in hot extrusion?

(a) Design of punch

(h) Design of die

(c) Wear and tear of die

(d) Wear of punch

60. Which one of the following is a high energy rate forming process?

(a) Roll forming

(b) Elcctrohydraulic forming

{c) Rotary forging

(d) Forward extrusion

[ P. T. 0.

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61. Which of the following cutting tool bits are made by powder metallurgy process?

(a.) Carbon steel tool bits

(b) Stell:ite tool bits

(c) Ceramic tool bits

(d) HSS tool bits

62. Which of the following are the most suitable materials for die casting?

(o.) Zinc and its alloys

(b) Copper and its alloys

(c) Aluminium and its alloys

(d) Lead and its alloys

63. Which one of the following casting processes 1s best suited to make bigger size hollow symmetrical pipes?

(o.) Die casting

(b) Investment casting

(c) Shell moulding

(d) Centrifugal casting

64. Which of the following are the most likely characteristics in centrifugal casting?

(a) Fine grain size and high porosity

{b) Coarse grain size and high porosity

(c) Fine gram s1zc and high density

(d) Coarse grain size and high density

0-FTF....J-NFB/llA


1. The actual entry point through which the molten metal enters the mould cavity is called ingate.

2. Bottom gate in case of a mould creates unfavourable temperature gradient.

3. Sprue m case of a mould 1s made tapered to avoid mr inclusion.


(a) l only

(b) 1 and 2

(c) 2 and 3

(d) l and 3

66. In which one of the fo11owing fumaces mos.t of the nonferrous alloys are melted?

(o.) Reverberatory furnace

(b) Induction furnace

(c) Crucible furnace

(d) Pot furnace

67. By which one of the following methods gray iron ie usually welded?

(a} no welding

(b) MIG welding

(c) Gas welding

(d) Arc welding

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68. Match List-] with List-11 and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists :

List-! (Welding Process)

A. Laser welding

B. Friction weldmg

List-I! (Application)

I. Uniting large-area sheets

2. Repairing large parts

C. Ultrasonic 3. Welding a rod to a

welding flat surface

D. Explosive 4. Fabrication of welding nuclear reactor

components

5. Welding very thin materials

Code:

(o} A 5

(b) A

' (c) A

' (d) A

5

B 4

B 4

B 3

B 3

c 3

c 2

c 4

c 4

D

' D 5

D

' D

' 69. Which one of the following methods

should be used for tuming internal taper only?

(a) Tailstock offset

(b) Taper attachment

(c) Form tool

(d) Compound rest

0-FTF-J-NFB/llA ,.

70. What is the number of jaws in selfcentred chuck?

(a} Eight

(b) Six

(c) Four

(d) Three

71. For the manufacture of screw fasteners on a mass scale, which is the most suitable machine tool?

(a) Capstan lathe

(b) Single-spindle automat

(c) CNC turning centre (lathe)

(d) CNC machining centre

72. What is the drilling time for producing a hole in an MS sheet of 25 mm thickness using an HSS drill of 20 mm di-ameter? The cutting speed and feed for drill are 20 m{rnin and 0·25 mmfrevolution respectively. Neglect time taken for setting up, approaching and travelling of tools.

(a) 0·314 min

(b) 0·236 min

(c) 0·438 min

(d) 0·443 min

73. For machining, which one of the following gang milling operations is employed?

(a) Thread&

(b) Bores

(c) Grooves

(d) Steps on prismatic parts

[P.T.O.

--- ____ _j

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74. The arbor of a milling machine is

used to hold which one of the following?

{a) Spindle

(b) Overarm

(c) Cuttmg tool

(d) Mandrel

75. By which one of the following muchines the teeth of an internul spur gear can be cut accurately?

{a) Milling machine

(b) Slotting machine

{c) Hobbing machine

(d) Gear-shaping machine

76. Which one of the following is noe used as abrasive material in grinding whe~ls?

{a) Aluminium oxide

{b) Silicon carbide

{c) Cubic boron nitride

(d) Manganese oxide

0-FTF..,J-NFB/llA ,.

77. Given that the peripheral speed of

the grinding wheel of 100 mm diameter for cylindrical grinding of a steel workpiece is 30 mjs, what will be the estimated rotational speed of the grinding wheel m revolution per minute (r.p.m.)?

(a} 11460

(b) 5730

(c) 2865

(d) 95

78. In which of the following machining manual part programming is done?

(a) CNC machining

(b} NC machining

{c) DNC machming

(d) FMS machining

79. Interpolation in the controller refers to control of which one of the following in a CNC machine?

(a} loading/unloading of jobs. on machine

(b) Loading/unloading of tools from the tool changer

{c) Axes of machine for contourmg

(d) Coolant and miscellaneous functions an machine

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80. What is the purpose of satellite computers in Distributed Numerical Control machines?

(a) To act as stand-by systems

(b) To share the processing of large-size NC programs

(c) To serve a group of NC machines

(d) To network with another DNC setup

81. In which machining system, the highest level of automation is found?

(a) CNC machine tools

(b) Automatic transfer machines

(c) Machine tools with electro-hydraulic positioning and control

(d) DNC machining system

82. Consider the following statements with respect to the effects of a large nose radius on the tool :

I, It deteriorates surface finish.

2. It increases the possibility of chatter.

3. It improves tool life.

Which of the above statements isfllle correct?

(a) 2 only

(b) 3 only

(c) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

0-FfF-J-NFB/llA

83. The fo!Iowing tool signature is specified for a single-point cutting tool in American system :

10, 12, 8, 6, 15, 20, 3

What does the angle 12 represent?

(a) Side cutting-edge angle

(b) Side rake angle

(c) Back rake angle

(d) Side clearance angle

84. Consider the following :

1. Tool life

2. Cutting forces

3. Surface finish

Which of the above is/are the machinability criterion/criteria?

(a) I, 2 and 3

(b) 1 and 3 only

(c) 2 and 3 only

(d) 2 only

[P.T.O.

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85. A capstan lathe is used to massproduce, in batches of 200, a particular component. The direct material cost is Rs 4 per piece, the direct labour <X>St is Rs 3 per piece and the overhead costs are 400% of the labour costs. What is the production cost per piece?

(a) Rs 19

{b) Rs 23

(c} Rs 16

(d) Rs 15

86. Which ono of the f<.>llowing in respect machining

"·

statements is correct of unconventional processes?

(a) The cutting tool is in direct contact with the job

(b) The tool material needs to be harder than the job material

(c) The tool is never in <X>ntact with the job

(d) There has to be a relative motion between the tool and the job

"' which ono ,, fuo following processes <ho metering holes in injector nozzles of diesel engines

·= be suitably made?

(a) Ultrasonic machining

(b) Abrasive jet machining

(c) Electron beam machining

(d) Chemical machining

0-FTF-J-NFB/UA "

88. A lever having two precisely drilled holes, <.>ne smaller than the other, has to be located in a fucture using hardened and ground plugs for further machining in relation to the holes. Select the correct method <.>f locating the lever from the given alternatives.

•••

(a) Using two hardened and ground plugs, the smaller one having flats machined on euch side

(o) Using <wo hardened =" ground plugs

(c) Using ono hardened =o ground plu,g and one V-block

(d) Using two V-blocks

Which ,, "' following ,,

"' measure of forecast e:rror?

(o) Mean absolute deviation

M Trend value

(;) Movmg average

(d) Price fluctuation

90. In a forecasting situation, exponential sm<.>othing with a smoothing constant o: ~ 0·2 is to be used. If the demand f<.>r nth period is 500 and the actual demand for the corresponding pei'iod tumcd out to be 450, what is the forecast for the (n + .Qth period?

(a) 450

(b) 470

(c) 490

(d) 500

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91. Consider the following aspects

L Functional

2. Operational

3. Aesthetic

Which of the above aspects is/ are to be analyzed in connection with the product development?

(a) 1, 2 and 3

(b) 1 and 2 only

(c) 2 and 3 only

{d) 3 only


ihe irnmedJate objective of a product is

L to simulate sales function

2. to utilize ilie existing equipment and power

3. to monopolize the market


(a} !, 2 and 3

(b) 1 and 2 only

{c) 2 and 3 only

(d) 3 only

0-FTF..,J-NFB/llA 19

93. P:rocess X has a fiXed cost of Rs 40,000 per month and a variable cost of Rs 9 per unit. Process Yhas a fiXed cost of Rs 16,000 per month and a variable cost of Rs 24 per unit. At which value, total costs of processes X and Y will be equal?

(a} 800

(b) 1200

(c) 1600

(d) 2000


The break,even point increases

L " <he nxed cost '" unit mcreases

2 if the variable ·cost '" unit decreases

3. " <he selling price pee unit decreases


(a) l only

(b) 1 and 2

(c) 2 and 3

{d} I and 3

( P. T. 0.

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95. An operations consultant for an automatic car wash wishes to plan

for enough capacity to handle 60 cars per hour. Each car will have a

wash time of 4 minutes, hut there is to be a 25% allowance for setup

time, delays and payment transactions. How many car wash stalls should be installed?

96.

{a) 3

M 4

(c) 5

(d) 6

aw matenal

.,, M'

@] f-

.,, 1200 IM4A

1200 IM4B f-

.,, [ETIM2A

1275IM~B

weo

"' ls6D I

A product 1s manufactured by processing on the four work

stations (WSJ. The capacity of each machine on these work-stations is given in the diagram as shown above. In the diagram Ml, M2A, M2B, M3, M4A and M4B are the machines and 500, 275, 275, 560, 200 and 200 are their capacities in number of products made per shift. If the products made in this system are 5% defective, then what wilt be

the output from this system?

(a) 380

(b) 475

(c) 522

(d) 532

0-FTF--J-NFB/llA 20

97. If demand is doubled and ordering cost, unit cost and inventory carrying cost arc halved, then what wi1l be the EOQ?

(a) Half

(b) Same

(c) Twice

(d) Four times

93. Consider tbe following statements :

The MRP inventory status file contains

I. material on hand

2. planned OTder

3. planned order release

Which of the above statements is/arc correct?

(o( i,2and3

(b) ' "nd 2 only

(c) 2 md ' only

(d) ' only

99. Consider the following

1. A mass production schedule

2. An inventory status file

3. Bill of material

Which of the above are the inputs to MRP systems?

(a)I.2=d3

(b) 1 and 2 only

(c) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1 and 3 only

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100. Which one of the following is rwt a work measurement technique?

(a) Time study

(b) Work sampling

(c) Motion time data

(d) Micromotion study

101. If in a time study, the observed time is 0·75 min, rating factor ~ 110% and allowances are 20% of nonnal time, then what is the standard time?

(a) 0·82 min

(b) 0·975 'min

(c) 0·99 min

(d) 1·03 min

102. For a confidence level of 95% and accuracy ± 5%, the number of cycles to be timed in a time study is equal to

where N- number of observations taken; x~x1 , X 2 , ... , XN are individual observations. What is the value of K?

(a) 10

(b) 20

(c) 30

(d) 40

0-FTF-J-NFB/llA 21

103. If in a process on the shop floor, the specifications are not met, but the charts for variables show control, then which of the following actions should be taken?

104.

(a) Change the process

(b) Change the method of measurement

(c) Change the worker or provide him training

(d) Change the specifications or upgrad" th" process

An operating characteristic =m (OC curve) is a plot between

(a} consumers' risk =d producu's risk

~} probability of acceptance =d probability of rejection

(o} percentage of defectives =d probability of acceptance

(d) average outgoing quality =d probability of acceptance

jP.T.O.

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105. In a linear progr-amming problem, which one of the following is correct for gr-aphical method?

(a} A point in the feasible region is not a solution to the problem

(b) One of the corner points of the fea~ible region is not the optimum solution

-(c) Any point in the positive quadrant does not satisfy the nonnegativity constraint

(d) The lines correspm1ding to different values of objective functions are parallel

106. A linear programming problem with mixed constraints (some constraints of :s; type and some of i': type) can be solved by which of the following methods?

(a} Big-M method

(b) Hungarian method

(c) Branch and bound technique

(d) Least cost method

107. While solving a linear programming problem by simplex method, if all ratios of the right-hand side lb;) to the coefficient in the key row (<l;j) become negative, then the problem has which of the following types of solution?

(a) An unbound solution

(b) Multiple solutions

(c) A unique solution

(d) No solution

Q.-FTF--.J-NFB/llA

108. Which one of the following is true in case of simplex method of linear programming?

(a} The constants of constraints equation may be positive or negative

(b) Inequalities are not converted into equations

(c) It cannot be used for twovariable problems

(d) The simplex algorithm IS an iterative procedure

109. When solving the problem by Big-M method, if the objective functions row (evaluation row) shows optimality but one or more srtificial variables are still in the basis, what type of solution does it show?

(a} Optimal solution

(b) Pseudooptima! solution

(c) Degenerate solution

(d) Infeasible solution

110. Which of the following distributions is followed by the number of arrivals in a given time in a singleserver queueing model?

(a) Negative exponential distribution

(b) Poisson distribution

(c) Normal distribution

(d! Beta distribution

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111. If the arrivals at a service facility are d1stributed as per the Poisson distribution with a mean rate of 10 per hour and the services are exponentially distributed with a mean service time of 4 minutes, what is the probability that a customer may have to wait to be served?

(a} 0·40

(b) 0·50

(c) 0·67

(dJ 1 ·00

112. A single-bay car wash with a Poisson arrival rate and exponential service time has cars arriving at an average rate of 10 minutes apart and an a\>erage service time of 4 minutes. What is the system utiLization?

(a) 1·00

(b) 0·67

(c) 0·40

(d) 0·24

113. Consider the following :

L A system-oriented approach

A multidisciplined approach

3. A function-oriented approach

Which of the above refer to value engineering?

(a) 1, 2 and 3

(b) l and 2 only

(c) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1 and 3 only

0-FTF-J-NFB/llA 23

114. Which one of the following is used for data processing carried out by the CPU of the computer?

(a) ROM

(b) RAM

(c} Hard disk

(d) Floppy disk drive

115. What is the full form of RISC?

(e) Reduced Instruction Set Chip

(b) R~d Instruction So< Computers

(c) Reduced Instruction Se< Computers

(d) Redundant Instruction Se< Chip

116. What is the size of the spreadsheet in Lotus?

(a) 1028 rows and 256 columns

(b) 2048 rows and 1028 columns

(c) 1028 rows and 1028 columns

(d} 2048 rows ancl 256 columns

jP.T.O.

- - -- - --- ---·- _______________________ _j

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Directions :

Each of the following four (41 items consists of two statements, one labelled as 'Assertion (A]' and the other as 'Reason (R]'. You are to examine these two statements carefully and select the answers to these items using the code given bdow :

Code:

(a) Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A

(b} Both A and R are individually true but R is rtDt the correct explanation of A

(c} A is true but R is false

(d) A is false but R is true

117. Assertion (A)

Mohr's construction is possible for stresses, strains and area moment of inertia..

Reason (R)

Mohr's circle transformation tensor.

118. Assertion (A) :

represents the of second-order

Gears produced by employing form-cutting principle using

Reason (R) :

Production of the correct gear tooth profile employing formcutting principle would require a separate cutter for cutting different numbers of teeth even for the same module and also errors are associated with inaccurate operation of indexing mechanism.

119. Assertion (A) :

Moving avemge method of forecasting demand gives an account of the trends m fluctuations and suppresses dayto-day insignificant fluctuations.

Reason (R)

Working out moving averages of the demand data smoothens the random day-to-day fluctuations and represents only significant variations.

120. Assertion (A)

Assembly line balancing increases productivity.

Reason (R) :

gear-milling cutter on a milling Assembly line balancing reduces machine are not very accurate. in-process inventory.

O-FTF~-NFB/11A 24

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IES 2009 Solutions Mechulcal Engineering (Paper-1)

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Ies mechanical-engineering-2009

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