GEAS COMPILATION

1. Date of approval of RA 9292a. April 14, 2004 c. April 17, 2004b. April 14, 2007 d. None of these

2. There are ______ Articles and _____ sections in the RA 9292.a. 8,42 c. 7, 43 b. 8, 43 d. 7,42

3. Any person who shall violate any provision of RA 9292 or any rules, regulations, the Code of Ethics and the Code of Technical Standards of Practice is stated in section _________.

a. 35 c. 37 b. 36 d. 38

4. This act is was consolidation of House Bill No. 5224 and Senate Bill No. 2683.

a. RA 9292 c. RA 6541b. RA 5734 d. None of these

5. The chairperson of the PRC shall include in the Commission’s program the implementation of RA 9292, the funding of w/c shall be included in the Annual General Appropriation Act.

a. Sec 39 c. Sec 41b. Sec 40 d. Sec 42

6. According to section 43, RA 9292 shall take effect __________ following its full publication in the __________ or any newspaper of general circulation.a. 15 days, Law Gazette c. 15 days, internet b. 15 days, Official Gazette d. 30 days, internet

7. Who among the following persons was not a signatory of the 9292?a. FRANKLIN DRILON c. OSCAR G. YABES b. JOSE DE VENECIA JR d. JESUS P. NAZARENO

8. Section 40 of RA 9292.a. Appropriations c. Effectivity b. Repealing clause d. Separability clause

9. Which of the following is not true for the qualifications of Board Members of Electronics Engineering?

a. Be a citizen and a resident of the Philippines for 5 consecutive yrs prior to his appointment b. Member of good standing of the APO c. Must not have been convicted of an offense involving moral turpitude d. Be of good moral character and integrity

10. All records of the Board, including applications for the examination, administrative cases involving PECE, ECE and ECTs shall be kept by

a. BECE c. PRC b. IECEP d. APO

11. The members of the Board shall hold office for a term of __________ from date of appointment or until their successors shall have been appointed and qualified and may be re-appointed once for another term.

a. two years c. 3 years b. at least 3 years d. 5 years

12. Section 7 states that the Board is vested with the authority to: Adopt an official __________ of the Board.

a. logo c. Avatar b. icon d. Seal

13. The compensation and allowances of the Board is comparable to that being received by the Chairman and members of existing regulatory boards under the Commission as provided for in the __________.

a. Civil Service c. RA 1992b. DBM d. Gen Appropriations Act

14. Each member of the Board shall take the/a __________ prior to the assumption of office.

a. panel interview from the Appointment committee b. board exam c. proper oath d. none of these

15. How much or what fine is required for any person who shall violate any provision or any rules, regulations, the Code of Ethics and the Code of Technical Standards of Practice promulgated under RA 9292?

a. Not less than Php100,000.00 nor more than Php 1M or by imprisonment of not less than 6 months nor more than 6 year b. Php100,000.00 to Php 1M or 6 yrs imprisonment or both, in the discretion of the court c. Not less than Php100,000.00 nor more than Php 1M or by imprisonment of not less than 6 months nor more than 6 years, or both, in the discretion of the court d. none of these

16. The Board and the __________ shall correct and rate the licensure examination papers

a. Commission c. IECEP b. APO d. none of these

17. According to section 2-Statement of Policy, the state shall therefore develop and nurture competent, virtuous, productive, and __________ PECE, ECE, and ECTs

a. God-fearing c. versatile b. religious d. well-rounded

18. Within __________ years after the effectivity of RA 9292, the Board shall issue Certificate of Registration and Professional Identification Cards without examination to all applicants for registration as Electronics Technicians who comply to all the requirements stated in section 20.

a. 3 (three) c. 7 (seven)b. 5 (five) d. none of these

19. With reference to prob 22, all submittals/documents shall be accompanied by a certification from __________ registered PECEs vouching for the integrity, technical capability and good moral character of the applicant.

a. at least 3 c. 5b. 3 d. none of these

GEAS (DLSU ECE LAWS AND ETHICS/physics)

20. The position x of an experimental rocket moving along a long rail is measured to be x(t) = (4m/s)t + (7m/s2)t2 + (5m/s3)t3 – (0.35m/s4)t4

over the first 10s of its motion, where t is in seconds and x is in meters. Find the velocity of the rocket for the first 10 seconds.

a. 43 m/s c. 244m/s b. 224 m/s d. 2240 m/s

21. Early in the nineteenth century, James Watt invented the steam engine. In order to convince people, who relied heavily on horses for mechanical work, he demonstrated how useful his steam engine was by utilizing a horse that lifted water from a well over a certain period of time and called the corresponding power expended “one horsepower”. Assume that water has a mass density of 1.0 x 103 kg/m3, that the well was 20m deep, and that the horse worked for 8 hours. How many liters of water did the horse raise from the well? Use the following constants: 1 hp = 746 Watts, g = 9.8 m/s2.

a. 1.1 x 10 2 L c. 1.1 x 103 L b. 110 L d. 1.1 x 105 L

22. As provided in ACT 3846, the construction of a radio station shall begin only when

a. A personnel of NTC has conveyed through telephone that the application has already been approved. b. the firm applying for the construction permit has submitted to the NTC its application for the same. c. the technical documents has already been signed and sealed by the PECE. d. The NTC has already issued a Permit to construct.

23. As provided in RA7925, a VAS provider needs to secure a franchise if

a. it is offered by a telecommunications entity whose proceeds of utility operations are not cross- subsidized.b. it does not discriminate other service providers against rates.c. it is offered by a telecommunications entity that uses a separate book of accounts for VAS.d. it puts up its own network.

24. According to the code of ethics, if you are employed in a company and you wish to engage in a business which may compete with your company, the most ethical thing to do is to

a. inform your employer about itb. have somebody run the business instead of you c. try to find new clientsd. keep your prices lower than your company’s

FEU(ENG’G ECONOMY)

25. An investor has an option to purchase a tract of land that will be worth P20,000 in seven years. If the value of the land increases at 9% each year, how much should the investor be willing to pay now for this property?

a. P9,341 c. P11,521b. P10,941 d. P12,015

26. Suppose that you make 12 equal annual deposits of P2,000 each into a bank account paying 8% interest per year. The first deposit will be made one year from today. How much money can be withdrawn from this bank account immediately after the 12th deposit?

a. P35,492 c. 37,954b. P36,21 d. P38,755

27. What is the effective rate of interest if P1000 is invested at a nominal rate of 15% compounded quarterly?

a. 15.86% c. 17.86%b. 16.86% d. 18.86%

28. A man purchased a house for P425,000. In the first month that he owned the house, he spent P75,000 on repairs and remodeling. Immediately after the house was remodeled, he was offered P545,000 to sell the house. After some consideration, he decided to keep the house and have it rented for P4,500 per month starting two months after the purchase. He collected rent for 15 months and then sold the house for P600,000. if the interest rate was 1.5% per

month, how much extra money did he make or lose by not selling the house immediately after it was remodeled?

a. P3,000 c. P5,000b.P4,000 d. P6,000

29. On the day his grandson was born, a man deposited to a trust company a sufficient amount of money so that the boy could receive five annual payments of P20,000 each for his college tuition fees, starting with his 18th birthday. Interest at the rate of 12$ per annum was to be paid on all amounts on deposit. There was also a provision that the grandson could elect to withdraw no annual payments and receive a single lump amount on his 25th birthday. The grandson chose this option. How much did the grandfather deposit?

a. P9,500 c. P11,500b. P10,500 d. P12,500

30. A man bought an equipment costing P30,000 payable in 12 quarterly payments, each installment payable at the beginning of each period. The rate of interest is 24% compounded quarterly. What is the amount of each payment

a. P1,700 c. P3,700b. P2,700 d. P4,700

31. A telecommunication company purchased an equipment for P53,000 and paid P1,500 for freight and delivery charges to the job site. The equipment has a normal life of 10 years with a trade-in value of P5,000 against the purchase of a new equipment at the end of the life. Determine the annual depreciation cost by the sinking fund method. Assume interest at 6.5% compounded annually.

a. P2,543 c. P4,215b. P3,668 d. P5,956

32. A plant bought a machine for P200,000 and used it for 10 years, the life span of the equipment. What is the book value of the machine after 5 years of use? Assume a scrap value of P20,000. Use double declining balance method.

a. P43,648 c. P65,536b. P59,425 d. P70,923

GEAS(ADU ENG’G MANAGEMENT)

33. It is a method of managing all the activities that affect the quality of goods or services in order to prevent faults

a. Quality Assurance b. Quality Circle c. Quality Control d. Quality Standard

34. This type of business organization can be set up without any formality. It exist when there are a number of people involved who are part owners of the business.

a. Association b. Corporationc. Partnership d. Sole Proprietorship

35. Items purchased from a vendor cost Php 20 each, and the forecast for next year’s demand is 1,000 units. If it costs Php 5 every time an order is placed for more units and the storage cost is Php 4 per unit per year, what quantity should be order each time?

a. 20 b. 30c. 40 d. 50

36. Two products, X and Y, both require processing time on machines I and II. Machine I has 200 hours available, and machine II has 400 hours available. Product X requires one hour on machine I and four hours on machine II. Product Y requires one hour on machine I and one hour on machine II. Each unit of product X yields PhP 10 profit and each units of Y yields PhP 5 profit. What is the Linear Programming Model for this problem.

a. Max Profit = PhP 5X + PhP 5YSubject to: X + Y ≤ 200

X + Y ≤ 400X , Y ≥ 0

b. Max Profit = PhP 10X +PhP 5YSubject to: X + Y ≤ 200

4X + Y ≤ 400X , Y ≥ 0

37. This process can be used to measure achievement in Total Quality Management (TQM) system. Also it provides the essential control and measure feedback loop necessary for quality improvement

a. Benchmarking c. Quality chainb. Continuous Improvement d. Quality circle

38. It is the process of attracting potential employees to the company so that the selection process can be carried out.

a. Advertising b. Benchmarkingc. Selection d. Recruitement

39. It is the name given to any activity undertaken by the organization with the express purpose of gaining information about potential customer

a. Market Analysis b. Market Intelligencec. Market Research d. Market System

40. It is used when product are made singly or in small batches. It happens when a small number of products are processed at each storage before going on to the next stage.

a. Batch Production b. Flow Production

c. Job Production d. Production Design

41. It involves a voluntary association of people, called members, who operate an enterprise collectively. The aim of this organization is not to make profit but to give support to their members.

a. Association b. Cooperativesc. Private Companies d. Public Companies

42. It is the rational way to ensure that our limited time is always used effectively.

a. Management Commitment b. Management Responsibilityc. Time Management d. Time Conflict

GEAS (UST ENG’G MATERIALS)

43. These materials are hard and brittle, insulative to electricity and heat, and very resistant to high temperatures and harsh environments.

a. polymers b. metals c. ceramics d. semiconductors

44. These materials have a large number of non-localized electrons, as an effect are very good conductors of electricity and heat. They are strong yet deformable, and extensively used in structural applications

a.

ceramics b. composities c. semiconductors d. metals

45. Materials composed of more than one material type and are designed to display a combination of the best characteristics of each component material.

a. polymers

b. ceramics c. metals d. composites

46. A material whose atomic arrangement occurs as periodic, repeating structures over large distances.

a. crystalline b. polycrystalline

c. solid d. amorphous

47. An elemental solid having a different crystal structure, usually due to the prevailing temperature and pressure.

a.

amorphous b. polymorph c. crysallite d. allotrope

48. This metal is alloyed with steel to give it corrosion resistance properties, resulting in “stainless steel.”

a.

vanadium b. molybdenum c. chromium d. magnesium

49. This element is used in modern, super strong permanent magnets because of their high coercivities.

a. beryllium b. Neodymium c. yttrium d. alnico

50. The deterioration of an engineered material due to interaction with diverse environments which lead to the degradation of its material properties

a. corrosion b. disintegration c. oxidation d. dissolution

GEAS (UDM THERMODYNAMICS)

51. The property of a substance which remains constant if no heat enters or leaves the system, while it does work or alters its volume, but which increases or diminishes should a small amount of heat enter or leave.

a.Internal energy b. system c. entropy d. Enthalpy

52. The quantity of heat required to change the temperature of unit mass through one degree.

a. Temperature b. Specific Heat c. Thermal Equilibrium d. Calorie

53. “If the temperature of a given quantity of gas is held constant, the volume of the gas varies inversely with the absolute pressure during a change of state”

a.General Gas Laws b. Joule’s Law c. Charles’ Law d. Boyle’s Law

54. An internally reversible process of a substance during which the pressure remains constant.

a.isometric b.isothermal c.adiabatic d.isobaric

55. The energy stored in a substance by virtue of the activity and configuration of its molecules and of the vibration of the atoms within the molecules.

a.Internal Energy b .Heat c. Enthalpy d.Entropy

56. “When two bodies, isolated from other environment, are in thermal equilibrium with a third body, the two are in thermal equilibrium with each other” is a statement of……..

a.1st Law of Thermodynamics c.2nd Law of Thermodynamicb. Zeroth Law d. Maxwell’s Theory of Thermal Equilbrium

57. “Not all energy received as heat by a heat-engine cycle can be converted into mechanical work, some are also rejected” is a statement of…….

a.1st Law of Thermodynamic s b.Zeroth Lawc. 2nd Law of Thermodynamics d.Law of Conservation of Energy

58. The combined mass of car and passengers travelling at 72 km/hr is 1500kg. Find the kinetic energy of this combined mass.

a.300kJ b.330kJ c.305kJ d. 310kJ

59. A mass of 5kg is 100m above a given datum where local g=9.75 m/sec2. Find the gravitational force in newton’s and the potential energy of the mass w/ respect to the datum.

a.49.25 N,4925 J b.52.05 N,5205 J c.48.75 N,4875 J d.47.85 N,4785 J

60. A pressure gage register 50 psig in a region where the barometer is 14.25 psia. Find the absolute pressure in Pa.

a.453 kPa b.434 kPa c.435 kPa d.443 kPa

61. During an isentropic process of 1.36 kg/sec of air, the temperature increases from 4.44° C to 115.6°C. if Cp=1.0062kNm for a non-flow process, what is ∆H? kg K∙

a.152.2 kg/s b.152.2 J/s c.152.2 kJ/s d.152.2 Btu/s

62. This Law States that “ The quantity of the substance entering the system is equal to the substance leaving the system”

a.1st Law of Thermodynamics b.Law of Conservation of Mass

c.Newton’s 2nd Law of Motion d.Law of Conservation of Energy

63. “if the pressure of a given quantity of gas is held constant, the volume of the gas varies directly with the absolute temperature”

a. General Gas Law b. Boyle’s Law c. Charles’ Law d. Joule’s Law

64. “The Acceleration of a particular body is directly proportional to the resultant force acting on it and inversely proportional to its mass” is a statement of

a. Joule’s Law b. 1st Law of Thermodynamics c. Newton’s 2nd Law of Motion d. Boyle’s Law

65. “Energy is neither created nor destroyed, but is converted from one form to another”

a. 1st Law of Thermodynamics b. Newton’s 2nd Law of Motion c. 2nd Law of Thermodynamics d. Law of Conservation of Mass

FEU( GEAS STRENGTH)

66. It occurs when a cutting action is applied as you would see with scissors, tin snips, or punches.

a. Direct shear c. Torsional shearb. Bending stress d. Torsional stress

67. It occurs when a member carries a load perpendicular to its long axis while being supported in a stable manner.

a. Direct shear c. Torsional shearb. Bending stress d. Torsional stress.

68. It is the internal resistance offered by a unit area of the material from which a member from which a member is made to an externally applied load.

a. stress b. strain c. moment d. Torque

69. A certain support stand design to carry downward loads. Compute the stress in the square shaft at the upper part of the stand for a load of 27,000 lb. The line of action of the applied of the applied load is centered on the axis on the shaft, and the load is applied through a thick plate that distributes the force to the entire cross section of the stand.

a. 10,000psI b. 11,000psi c. 12,000psi d. 13,000psi

70. The proportional limit is the value of stress on the stress-strain diagram curve at which the curve first deviates from a straight line.

a. Proportional limitb. Elastic limitc. Yield pointd. Tensile point

71. It is the value of stress on the stress-strain curve at which the material has deformed plastically; that is, it will no longer return to its original size and shape after removing the load.

a. Proportional limitb. Elastic limitc. Yield pointd. Tensile point

72. It is the value of stress on the stress-strain curve at which there is a significant increase in strain with little or no increase in stress.

a. Proportional limitb. Elastic limitc. Yield pointd. Tensile point

73. It is the highest value of apparent stress on the stress-strain curve.a. Proportional limitb. Elastic limitc. Yield pointd. Tensile point

74. It is a measure of the stiffness of a material determined by the slope of the straight-line portion of the stress-strain curve

a. Modulus of elasticityb. Modulus of rigidityc. Straind. Stress

75. A ductile material is one that can be stretched, formed, or drawn to a significant degree before fracture. A metal that exhibits a percent elongation greater than ____ % is considered to be ductile.a. 2 b. 3 c. 4 d. 5

76. A brittle material is one that fails suddenly under load with little or no plastic deformation. A metal that exhibits a percent elongation ____ 5.0% is considered to be brittle.

a. equal b. Greater than c. Less than d. It depends on the room temperature

77. The ratio of shearing stress to shearing strain is called:a. Modulus of elasticityb. Modulus of rigidityc. Modulus of elongationd. Modulus of stressibility

78. It is the ability of a material to absorbed applied energy without failurea. Ductility b. Brittleness c. Hardness d. Toughness

79. It is the indication of the resistance of a material to indentation by a penetrator.

a. Ductility b. Brittleness c. Hardness d. Toughness

80. It is a measure of pulling and pushing force

a. Axial forceb. Shear forcec. Torqued. Bending moments

81. It is the measure of the total resistance to sliding.a. Axial forceb. Shear forcec. Torqued. Bending moments

82. It is the measure of the resistance to twisting.a. Axial forceb. Shear forcec. Torqued. Bending moments

83. A common bar suspended from certain support has axial load of 10kN. If the bar has a cross section of 20mm2, find the stress experience by the bar.

a. 350MPa b. 420MPa c. 485MPa d. 500MPa

84. Assume that a 25-mm diameter rivet joins the plates that are each 125 mm wide. The allowable stresses are 130 MPa for bearing in the plate material and 65 MPa for shearing of the rivet. Determine the minimum thickness of each plate.

a. 10MPa b. 20MPa c. 30MPa d. 40Mpa

85. A cylinder pressure vessel is fabricated from plates which have a thickness of 20mm. The diameter of the pressure vessel is 450 mm and its length is 3.5m. Determine the maximum internal pressure which can be applied if the stress in the steel is limited to 150MPa.

a. 15.33MPa b. 16.67MPa c. 17.53MPa d. 18.83MPa

86. The wall thickness of a 3ft-diameter spherical tank is 4/17 in. Calculate the allowable internal pressure if the stress is limited to 9000 psi.

a. 155.47psi b. 169.25psi c. 176.47psi d. 188.73psi

87. A steel bar 40mm in diameter and 3m long is surrounded by a shell of cast iron 6mm thick. Compute the load that will compress the combined bar a total of 0.95 mm in the length of 2m. For steel E=300GPa, and for cast iron, E=150GPa.

a. 151kN b. 161kN c. 171kN d. 181kN

88. A steel rod 3.5m long is secured between two walls. If the load on the rod is zero at 30°C, compute the stress when the temperature drops to -30°C. The cross sectional area of the rod is 1200mm2, α =11.7um/(m°C), and E=200Gpa

a. 110MPa b. 120MPa c. 130MPa d. 140Mpa

89. A steel shaft 3ft long that has a diameter of 5in is subjected to a torque of 14kip-ft. Determine the maximum shearing stress. G=12x106 psi.a. 0.47° b. 0.53° c. 0.68° d. 0.71°

90. What is the minimum diameter of a solid steel shaft that will not twist through more than 4° in a 6m length when subjected to a torque of 13kN-m? What max shearing stress is developed? G=85 Gpa

a. 107.6mm b. 113.3mm c. 121.9mm d. 126.4mm

91. Determine the elongation in a helical steel spring composed of 20 turns of 20-mm diameter wire on a mean radius of 90 mm when the spring is supporting a load of 2.5kN. Use G=83 Gpa

a. 160mm b. 165mm

c.

170mm d. 175mm

FEU(GEAS THERMODYNAMICS)

92. It is the transfer of energy from the more energetic particles of substance to the adjacent less energetic ones as a result of interactions between the particles.

a. Conduction c. Convectionb. Radiation d. Absorption

93. It indicates that the rate of heat conduction in a direction is proportional to the temperature gradient in that direction.

a. Fourier’s Law of Heat Conductionb. Fourier’s Law of Heat Convectionc. Fourier’s Law of Heat Radiationd. Fourier’s Law of Heat Absorption

94. Which of the following is considered the best conductor of heat?a. Gold b. Copper c. Silver d. Diamond

95. It is the mode of energy transfer between a solid surface and the adjacent liquid or gas that is in motion, and it involves the combined effect conduction and fluid motion.

a. Conduction c. Convectionb. Radiation d. Absorption

96. It is the energy emitted by the matter in the form of electromagnetic waves as a result of the changes in the electronic configurations of the atom or molecules.

a. Conduction c. Convectionb.Radiation d. Absorption

97. It states that energy can neither be destroyed nor created; it can only change forms.

a. First law of thermodynamicsb. Second law of thermodynamicsc. Third law of thermodynamicsd. Zeroth law of thermodynamics

98. In second law of thermodynamic, which of the following state that no heat engine can have a thermal efficiency of 100% or as far as power plant to operate, the working fluid must exchange heat with the environment as well as the furnace.

a. Kelvin –Plank Statement b. Clausius-Plank Statement c. Clausius Statementd. Kelvin Statement

99. In second law of thermodynamic, which of the following state that no device can transfer heat from cooler body to a warmer one without leaving an effect on the surroundings.

a. Kelvin –Plank Statement b. Clausius-Plank Statement c. Clausius Statementd. Kelvin Statement

100. It is defined as the amount of light output in lumens per W of electricity consumed.

a. Light intensity c. Light efficacyb. Light efficiency d. Light luminosity

101. Carnot cycle is composed of how many reversible processes?a. 1 b. 2 c. 3 d. 4

102. Which of the following processes are involved in carnot cycle?a. Two isothermal ; two isobaricb. One isothermal; three adiabaticc. Three isobaric; one adiabaticd. Two adiabatic ; two isothermal

103. State that the thermal efficiencies of all reversible heat engines operating between the same two reservoirs are the same, and that no heat

engine is more efficient than a reversible one operating between the same two reservoirs.

a. Throttle principleb. Otto principlec. Carnot principled. Kelvin principle

104. A carnot heat engine receives 500KJ of heat per cycle from a high-temperature source at 600 °C and rejects heat a low temperature sink at 40°C. Determine the thermal efficiency of this Carnot engine.a. 93.33% b. 6.67% c. 35.85% d. 64.15%

105. A piston cylinder device contains a liquid-vapor mixture of water at 400K. During a constant pressure process, 700 KJ of heat is transferred to the water. As a result, part of the liquid in the cylinder vaporizes. Determine the entropy change of the water during this process.

a. 1.75kJ/K b. 280kJ-K c. 7000kJ d. 0.57K/kJ

106. Which of the following equation of state has two constants?a. Vander Waals Equationb. Beattie-Bridgeman Equationc. Benedict-Webb-Rubin Equationd. Strobridge Equation

107. How many constant are there in Strobridge Equation of State?a.13 b. 14 c. 15 d. 16

108. Which of the following equation of state has eight constant?a. Vander Waals Equationb. Beattie-Bridgeman Equationc. Benedict-Webb-Rubin Equationd. Strobridge Equation

109. Consider a person standing in a breezy room at 22°C. Determine the total rate of heat transfer from this person if the exposed surface area and the average outer surface temperature of the person are 1.2 m2 and 33°C, respectively, and the convection heat transfer coefficient is 6 W/m2.ε=0.95 and σ=5.67x10-8 W/m4-K4

a.120.5J/s b. 135.7J/s c. 143.2J/s d. 151.9J/s

110. A piston cylinder device initially contains 0.8 m3 of air at 110kPa and 80°C. The air is now compressed to 0.2 m3 in such a way that the temperature inside the cylinder remains constant. Determine the work done during this process. a.-122kJ b. -123kJ c. -124kJ d. -125kJ

111. It is the energy possesses by the system as a result of its elevation with respect to the gravitational acceleration of the earth. a. Potential b.Kinetic c. Momentum d.Impulse

112. It states that if two bodies are in thermal equilibrium with a third body, they are also in thermal equilibrium with each other

a. First law of thermodynamicsb. Second law of thermodynamicsc. Third law of thermodynamicsd. Zeroth law of thermodynamics

113. Determine the mass of the air in a room whose dimensions are (5x6x7) cm at 105 kPa and 27°C.

114. Heat is transferred to a heat engine from a furnace at a rate of 92MW. If the rate of waste heat rejection to a nearby river is 45MW, determine the net power output and the thermal efficiency for this heat engine. a.48.91% b. 51.09% c. 32.84% d. 67.15%

115. The food compartment of a refrigerator is maintained at 4°C by removing heat from it at a rate of 300 KJ/min. If the required power input to the refrigerator is 3KW, determine the coefficient of performance of the refrigerator. a.1.67 b. 2.33 c. 3.67 d. 4. 12

116. A 50 kg iron block at 80°C is dropped into an insulated tank that contains 0.5 m3 of liquid water at 25°C. Determine the temperature when thermal equilibrium reached. The specific heat of iron is 0.45kJ/kg-°C and for water is 4.18kJ/kg-°C.a.20. 7°C b. 25.6°C c. 30.1°C d. 35.6°C

117. A rigid tank contains a hot fluid that is cooled while being stirred by a paddle wheel. Initially, the internal energy of the fluid is 850kJ. During the cooling process, the fluid loses 550kJ of heat, and the paddle wheel does 200kJ of work on the fluid. Determine the final energy of the fluid. Neglect the energy stored in the paddle wheel.a.500kJ b. 550 kJ c. 600kJ d. 650 kJ

118. Three moles of an ideal gas are compressed slowly and isothermally from a volume of 5 to 1.5 ft3, at a temperature of 320K. How much work is done? a.-8.12kJ b. -9.61kJ c. -10.44kJ d. -11.59kJ

119. A 4-in wall of fire brick, k=9 Btu/(ft2-hr-F/in), has one surface at 300F, the other at 90F. Find the heat conducted through the area of 2ft2 in 1 day.a.22, 680Btu b. 19, 650Btu c. 15,510Btu d. 10,730Btu

120. If 80 g of iron shot at 100C is dropped into 200 g of water at 20C contained in an iron vessel of mass 50 g, find the resulting temperature.a.20.1°C b. 21.8°C c. 22. 3°C d. 24.6°C

121. When a 2lb of brass at 212°F is dropped into 5lb of water at 35°F, the resulting temperature is 41.2°F. Find the specific heat of brass in Btu/lb-°F.a.1.120 b. 0.091 c. 0.321 d. 1.233

122. How much heat is necessary to raise the temperature of 0.80 kg of ethyl alcohol from 15°C of its boiling point 78.3°C? a.10kcal b. 20kcal c. 30kcal d. 40kcal

123. The weight-density of air at 32F and 29.92 in Hg pressure is 0.081 lb/ft3. What is its weight-density, in lb/ft3, at an altitude where the pressure is 13.73 in Hg and the temperature is -40F?a.0.044 b. 0.055 c. 0.066 d. 0.77

TUP(GEAS PHYSICS)

124. Suppose that energy Q is required to accelerate a car from rest to v, neglecting friction. How much added energy would be required to increase the speed from v to 2v?a.Q b.2Q c. 3Q d.4Q

125. Suppose you want to store 1.00 J of electric potential energy in a volume of 1.00 m3 in vacuum. What is the magnitude of the required electric field?a. 0.475 MV/m b. 0.336MV/m c. 0.225TV/m d. 0.113TV/m

126. Material a is a water and material b is a glass with index of refraction 1.52. If the incident ray makes an angle of 60o with the normal, find the direction of the reflected ray.a.49.3o b. 91.3o c. 60o d. 34.7o

According to law of reflection, θr=θa, hence if θa=60o then θr=60

o

(c)127. The wavelength of the red light from a helium-neon sensor is 633 nm in air but 474 nm in the aqueous humor inside our eyeballs. Calculate the speed of light in this substance.a. 2.25 x 108 m/s b. 3.25 x 108 m/s c. 3.00 x 108 m/s d. 1.25 x 108 m/s

128. A spaceship moving away from Earth with speed of 0.900c fires a robot space probe in the same direction as its motion, with speed of 0.700c relative to the spaceship. What is the probe’s velocity relative to the Earth?a.0.900c b. 0.345c c. 0.700c d. 0.982c

129. In optics, this effect refers to the blurring of the image produced on a concave mirror due to the convergence of rays far from the mirror to other points on the principal axis. What do you call this effect?a.spherical aberration b. focal divergence c. parallax error d. Snell’s effect

130. In fluid mechanics, this shows that the pressure of a fluid decreases as the speed of the fluid increases. In addition, the pressure of a fluid decreases as the elevation increases.a.Clairut’s equation b. Bernoulli’s equation c. Maxwell’s equation d. Hyrdofluid equation

131. In electrodynamics, what term refers to the average speed of the charge carriers?a. drag velocity b. molecular-kinetic speed c. drift speed

d. charge velocity

132. In electromagnetics and wave theory, what refers to waves, commonly generated by electronic devices, whose wavelengths ranges from approximately 0.3m to 10-4 m. Due to their short wavelengths these are often used in radar systems and for studying the atomic and molecular properties of matter.a.Radio waves b. Microwaves c. AM waves d. Radar waves

ADU(GEAS STRENGTH OF MATERIALS)

133. A hole is to be punched out of plate having a shearing strength of 40 ksi. The compressive stress in the punch is limited to 50 ksi. Compute the maximum thickness of plate from which a hole 2.5 inches in diameter can be punched.a. 0.500 in b. 0.781 in c. 0.102 in d. 0.204 in

134. A hole is to be punched out of plate having a shearing strength of 40 ksi. The compressive stress in the punch is limited to 50 ksi. If the plate is 0.25 inches thick, determine the diameter of the smallest hole that can be puncheda. 0.800 in b. 0.871 in c. 0.435 in d. 0.600 in

135. A large pipe, called a penstock in hydraulic work, is 1.5 m in diameter. It is composed of wooden staves bound together by steel hoops, each 300 sq. Millimetre in cross-sectional area, and is used to conduct water from a reservoir to power a house. If the maximum tensile stress permitted in the hoops is 130 MPa, what is the maximum spacing between hoops under a head of water of 30 m?a. 17.7mm b. 77.1 mm c. 177 mm d. 71.7 mm

136. At what angular velocity will the stress in a rotating steel ring equal to 150 MPa if its mean radius is 220 mm? The density of the steel is 7.85 Mg/m^3.a. 19.87 rad/s b. 159 rad/s c. 138.2 rad/s d. 628 rad/s

137. A pipe carry steam at 3.5 MPa has an outside diameter of 450 mm and a wall thickness of 10 mm. A gasket is inserted between the flange at one end of the pipe and a flat plate use to cap the end. How many 40-mm-diameter bolts must be used to hold the cap on if the allowable stress in the bolts is 80 MPa, of which 55 MPa is the initial stress?a. 14 b. 15 c. 16 d. 17

138. A pipe carry steam at 3.5 MPa has an outside diameter of 450 mm and a wall thickness of 10 mm. A gasket is inserted between the flange at one end of the pipe and a flat plate use to cap the end. What circumferential stress is developed in the pipe?a. 75.3 MPa b. 37.65 MPa c. 78.75 MPa d. 39.38 MPa

139. It is the maximum safe stress that a material can carrya. working stress b. Ultimate stress c. rupture strength d. Yield strength

140. It is the point at which there is an appreciable elongation of the material without any corresponding increase of loada. Elastic limit b. Yield point c. Ultimate stress d. Point of rupture

141. This component measures the pulling (or pushing) action perpendicular to the sectiona. Torque b. Bending moment c. Axial forces d. Shearing force

142. A steel rod having a cross-sectional area of 300 sq. Meters and a length of 150 m is suspended vertically from one end. It supports a tensile load of 20 kN at the lower end. If the unit mass of steel is 7850 kg/m^3 and E = 200x10^3 MN/m^2, find the total elongation of the rod.a. 54.3 mm b. 40 mm c. 43.3 mm d. 35 mm

143. What is the theoretical maximum value of Poisson’s ratio of any given material subjected to a uniform triaxial stressa. 0 b. 1 c. 1/3 d. ½

144. A steel bar 50 mm in diameter and 2 m long is surrounded by a shell of cast iron 5 mm thick. Compute the load that will compress the combined bar a total of 0.8 mm in the length of 2m. For steel E = 200 GPa, and for cast iron E = 100 Gpaa. 291 kN b. 240 kN c. 192 kN d. 420 kN

145. A solid steel shaft 5 m long is stressed to 80 MPa when twisted through 4 degrees. Using G = 83 GPa, compute the shaft diameter.a. 104 mm b. 138 mm c. 148 mm d. 160 mm

146. A solid steel shaft is not to twist through more than 3 degrees in a 6 m length when subjected to a torque of 12 kN.m. What maximum shearing stress is developed? Use G=83GPa.a. 41.3 MPa b. 43.4 MPa c. 34.3 MPa d. 17.6 MPa

147. What is the minimum diameter of a solid steel shaft that will not twist through more than 3 degrees in a 6 m length when subjected to a torque of 12 kN.m? Use G=83GPa.a. 114 mm b. 116 mm c. 118 mm d. 120 mm

148. A steel rod 2.5 m long is secured between two walls. If the load on the rod is zero at 20 degree Celsius, compute the stress when the temperature drops to -20 degrees Celsius. The cross-sectional are if the rod is 1200 sq. mm, coefficient of linear expansion = 11.7 um/(m-deg.C), and E = 200 GPa. Assume that the walls are rigid.a. 69.3 MPa b. 96.3 MPa c. 93.6 MPa d. 69.3 MPa

149. Determine the maximum shearing stress in a helical steel spring composed of 20 turns of 20 mm-diamter wire on a mean radius of 80 mm when tha spring is supporting a load of 2 kN. Use G = 83 GPa.a. 110.6 MPa b. 112.3 MPa c. 120.6 MPa d. 134.6 MPa

150. Determine the elongation in a helical steel spring composed of 20 turns of 20 mm-diamter wire on a mean radius of 80 mm when tha spring is supporting a load of 2 kN. Use G = 83 GPa.a. 87.9 mm b. 78.9 mm c. 98.7 mm d. 89.7 mm

151. These are components of the total resistance to sliding the portion to one side of the exploratory section past the other.a. Torque b. Bending moment c. Axial forces d. Shear forces

152. Who first postulated that stress is proportional to strain in 1678?a. Thomas Young b. Robert Hooke c. Andrew Pytel d. Charles Augustus

MIT(GEAS CHEMISTRY)

153. How many zeroes in the measurement 0.00020040 are significant?a. three b. four c. six d. seven

154. Which of the following describes a chemical change?a. Water boiling to form steamb. Sugar dissolving in a cup of coffee

c. Hamburger grease solidifying on a plated. Tarnishing silver

155. A homogenous mixture can be separated by all of the following methods except

a. Filtrationb. Chromatographyc. Crystallizationd. Distillation

156. Which of the following is not a pure substance?a. Hydrogenb. Oxygenc. Waterd. Milk

157. A laboratory experiment was performed to determine the percent by mass of water in a hydrate. The accepted value is 36.0% water whose observed value has an error of 5.00%. Find the percent by mass of water.

a. 31.0% waterb. 36.0% waterc. 37.8% waterd. 41.0% water

36% * 1.05 =37.8%

158. Which of the following phase changes represent sublimation?a. Solid → gasb. Gas → solidc. Solid → liquidd. Gas → liquid

159. The amount of energy needed to change a given mass of ice to water at constant temperature is called the heat of

a. Fusionb. Formationc. Condensationd. Crystallization

160. Which of the following is a binary compound?a. Hydrochloric acidb. Oxygenc. Citric acidd. Sodium chlorate

161. An example of a ternary compound isa. Potassium chlorateb. Ammonia

c. Silver chlorided. Sodium bromide

162. What is the charge of a hydrogen atom? a. 1+¿¿ b. 1−¿ ¿ c. 2+¿¿ d. 0

163. The impossibility of knowing both the precise location and velocity of subatomic particle at the same time is known as thea. Diffraction principle b. Probability principlec. Limiting principle d. Uncertainty principle

164. An atom which has the greatest ability to attract electron a. Oxygenb. Nitrogenc. Sulfurd. Bromine

165. If the volume of the mole of gas molecules remains constant, lowering the temperature will make the pressure

a. Increaseb. Decreasec. Increase then decreased. Decrease then increase

166. Whenever you have equal volumes of gases at the same temperature and pressure, the volume must

a. Contain equal number of particlesb. Contain 2.4 milliliters of STPc. Contain one mole of any gas at STPd. Contain the Avogadro’s number

167. What pressure must be applied to 225mL of gas at 1atm to reduce its volume to 100mL?a. 0.44atmb. 2.25atmc. 22500atmd. 1710atm

P1V1=P2V2

168. How many moles of O2are present in 44.8L of O2 at STP?a. 1.2molesb. 1.4molesc. 2.0molesd. 2.8moles

169. At STP, 1 mole will occupy 22.4L

170. The properties of solution include all of the following except that

a. It is homogeneous mixture if it has been well stirredb. Dissolved particles will settle out upon stirringc. It is clear and transparent with particles too small to be seend. Dissolved particles will pass through a piece of filter paper